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Excellence in Assessment

Information Bulletin for

ICAR AIEEA (UG) - 2021
All India Entrance Examination
for Admission to
Bachelor Degree Programs

ACADEMIC
SESSION

2021-22
 INDEX

S. No. Description Page No.

Important Information at a Glance 1
1. Introduction 4
1.1 About NTA
1.2 About ICAR
1.3 AIEEA (UG)-2021
2. General Information 6
2.1 Degree Programmes available for Admission in 2021-22.
2.2 University-wise and Subject-wise Number of Seats Available for Admission
2.3 Schedule of AIEEA (UG)-2021
2.4 Scheme of Examination
2.5 Syllabus for the Test
2.6 Subjects
2.7 Conditions for the award of National Talent Scholarship (NTS)-2021
2.8 Reservation Policy
2.9 Provision for Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) Candidates
3. Eligibility Criteria and Qualifications 12
3.1 General Eligibility Criteria to Appear in AIEEA (UG)-2021
3.2 Qualifying Examination at 10+2 Level
3.3 Age Limit
4. Registration and Application Process 14
4.1 Examination Cities for AIEEA (UG) 2021
4.2 Applying online and submission of Application Form
4.3 Replica of the Application Form or Format
4.4 Steps to Complete Application Process
4.5 Application Fee Payable by the Candidates of Various Categories
4.6 Method of Fee Payment
4.7 Instructions to be followed while Applying
4.8 Admit Card for AIEEA (UG)-2021
5. Conduct of the Examination 22
5.1 Important Instructions for Candidates
5.2 Prohibited Materials
5.3 Unfair Means
6. Procedure for Appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT) 25

7 Procedure of Declaration of Result 26

7.1 Display Question Paper and Provisional Answer key for Challenges
7.2 Declaration of Result
7.3 NTA process of Error and Scoring related Exception Handling
7.4 Percentile score and Normalization procedure
7.5 No Rechecking or Re-evaluation Policy
7.6 Counselling
8 Special Instructions Regarding Covid-19 29
8.1 Implementation of GoI Guidelines
8.2 Preparation at Centre
8.3 Pre-exam Preparation
8.4 At time of Entry
8.5 During Examination
8.6 After Examination
 9 Miscellaneous Provisions 32
9.1 Common Services Centres/Facilitation Centres
9.2 Test Practice Centres (TPCs)
9.3 Query Redressal System
9.4 Correspondence with NTA
9.5 Weeding Out Rules
9.6 Legal Jurisdiction
ANNEXURES
I List of Cities for Examination Centres for AIEEA (UG)-2021 34
II Domicile State/U.T. Codes 36
III Degree Programmes for Admission through AIEEA (UG) 2021 37
IV Eligibility Qualifications at 10+2 Examination for Degree Programmes 38
V List of ICAR accredited Bachelor’s degree programmes and Colleges of Dr. RPCAU, 39
Pusa
VI Numeric Codes for Class XII School Education Boards/Council 40
VII Mode of Payment of Fee/ Service Provider and Bank Service Charges 41
VIII Replica of AIEEA (UG)-2021 Application Form 43
IX Computer Based Test (CBT) 58
X Procedure to be adopted for Compilation of NTA Scores for Multi Session Papers 64
XI Certificate for the Candidates Under Persons with Benchmark Disability Category 67
(PwBD)
XII Certificate regarding Physical Limitation in an Examinee to Write 68
XIII Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe 69
XIV Indicative and Tentative List *of Universities for Admission in Bachelor Degree 70
Programmes in Agriculture and Allied Science Subjects Through AIEEA (UG)-2021
along with Contact Details of Registrars
XV Caste Certificate for Scheduled Caste / Tribe Candidate 73
XVI Certificate to be produced by Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer (OBC-NCL) 74
XVII Certificate to be produced by Economically Weaker Section (EWS) 76
APPENDIX

I. List of Agricultural Universities (AUs) which have expressed their willingness to utilize 77
NTA scores for their UG admissions (2021-22)
Abbreviations:

AU Agricultural Universities
AMU Aligarh Muslim University
BHU Banaras Hindu University
CAU Central Agricultural University
CIFE Central Institute of Fisheries Education
CU Central University
DARE Department of Agricultural Research and Education
Dr. RPCAU Dr. Rajendra Prasad Central Agricultural University
DU Deemed University
EWS Economically Weaker Section
IARI Indian Agricultural Research Institute
ICAR Indian Council of Agricultral Research
IVRI Indian Veterinary Research Institute
JRF Junior Research Fellowship
NAEAB National Agricultural Education Accreditation Board
NAREES National Agricultural Research, Education and Extension System
NDRI National Dairy Research Institute
OGPA Overall Grade Point Average
PwBD Persons with Benchmark Disability
RLB CAU Rani Lakshmibai Central Agricultural University
SAU State Agricultural University
SHUATS Sam Higginbottom University of Agriculture, Technology and Sciences
SRF Senior Research Fellowship
 IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE
(Please refer to Information Bulletin for details)

1. FEE DETAILS AND IMPORTANT DATES:

25.07.2021 to 20.08.2021
Online submission of Application Form
(upto 05:00 PM)
Last date of successful transaction of fee through Credit/Debit
20.08.2021 (upto 11:50 PM)
Card/Net-Banking/UPI
General/Unreserved Rs. 770/-
Other Backward Classes (OBC)-
Fee Payable by Rs. 750/-
(NCL)*&UPS**/ EWS***
candidates
SC/ST/PwBD/ Transgender Rs. 375/-

Processing charges & GST are to be paid by the candidate, as applicable

Correction in particulars of Application Form on website only
23.08.2021 to 26.08.2021
(No corrections shall be allowed after 26.08.2021)
Downloading of Admit Cards from NTA website To be announced later
Date of Examination 7th, 8th & 13th September 2021

Duration of Examination 150 minutes (2 ½ hours)

Timing of Examination As indicated on Admit Card

Centre, Date and Shift of Examination As indicated on Admit Card

Display of Attempted Question Paper and Provisional Answer Keys To be announced later
[Link],
Websites
[Link]
To be announced on the NTA
Declaration of Result on NTA website
website later
To be announced by the ICAR
on [Link],
Schedule for Online Counselling
[Link] after the
declaration of result
*Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National
Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website [Link]. Only the candidates falling in
this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list. OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must
choose General/Unreserved.
** Candidates of Remote and Underprivileged States must check their eligibility before applying.
***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 regarding implementation of reservation for
Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.
2. Candidates can apply for AIEEA (UG)-2021“Online” on the website : [Link]

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3. The Application Form other than online mode will not be accepted.
4. Only one application is to be submitted by a candidate.
5. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin on NTA website.
Candidates not complying with the instructions shall be summarily disqualified.
6. Candidates must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the Online
Application Form are their own as all information/ communication will be sent by NTA through e-
mail on e-mail address or SMS on given Mobile Number only.
7. Instructions for filling Online Application Form :
 Download Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form. Read these carefully to
ensure your eligibility.
 Follow the 4 steps given below to Apply Online:
 Step-1: Apply for Online Registration using unique Email Id and Mobile No.
 Step-2: Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application
No.
 Step-3: Upload scanned images of Candidate’s Photograph (file size: 10 kb - 200 kb),
Candidate’s Signature (file size: 4 kb – 30 kb) and Thumb impression (file size: 3 kb-30 kb) in
JPG/JPEG format.
 Step-4: Pay fee using SBI/Canara/HDFC/ICICI/Paytm Payment Gateway through Debit
Card/Credit Card/Net Banking/UPI and keep proof of fee paid. In case the Confirmation Page
is not generated after payment of fee then the transaction is cancelled, and amount will be
refunded to the candidate’s account. However, the candidate has to make another
transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is not generated.
 All the 4 Steps can be done together or at separate times.
8. Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA website and check their e-mails/SMS regularly for
latest updates.
9. Candidate shall appear at their own cost at the Examination Centre on the date and shift indicated
on their Admit Card issued by NTA.
10. Any request to change the Examination Centre, Date , Shift and Subject provided on the Admit
Card will not be considered under any circumstances.
Note:
1. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step 3 and Step 4 are not
completed. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.
2. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any
circumstances.
3. The entire application process of AIEEA (UG)-2021 is online, including uploading of scanned images,
Payment of Fees, and Printing of Confirmation Page. Therefore, candidates are not required to
send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation Page, Sponsorship Certificate/ Declaration by the
Employer of the Candidate (By In-Service Candidate) to NTA/ICAR through Post/ Fax/ E-mail/By Hand.

2
Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instrument/ Geometry/ Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, any kind of Paper/
Stationery/Textual material (printed or written material), Eatables and Water (loose or packed), Mobile
Phone/ Ear Phone/ Microphone/ Pager, Calculator, DocuPen, Slide Rules, Log Tables, Camera, Tape Recorder,
Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, any metallic item or electronic gadgets/ devices in the
Examination Hall/Room.

Diabetic students will be allowed to carry eatables like sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/apple/ orange) and
transparent water bottle to the Examination Hall. However, they will not be allowed to carry packed foods
like chocolates/candy/sandwich etc.

DISCLAIMER

1. Candidates are advised to read the Information Bulletin carefully and go through the instructions
regarding filling of Online Application Form given on AIEEA (UG)-2021 website [Link],
[Link] before starting online registration.

2. Candidates should ensure that all information entered during the online registration process is correct.

3. Online information provided by candidates like name of candidate, contact/address details, category,
PWBD status, educational qualification details, date of birth, etc., during online registration for AIEEA
(UG)-2021 will be treated as correct/final and NTA will not entertain, under any circumstances, any
request for change in information provided by the candidates.

4. NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect information provided by the
candidate(s) during online registration process.

5. NTA does not edit /modify/alter any information entered by the candidates after completion of
application form under any circumstances. Any request for change in information thereafter will not be
entertained. Therefore, candidates are advised to exercise utmost caution for filling up correct details in
application form.

Usage of Data and Information: NTA can use the data provided by the End User (test taker in this case) for
internal purpose(s) including training, research and development, analysis and other permissible purpose(s).

NTA Help desk: 011 – 4075 9000 Email ID: icar@[Link]

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 CHAPTER-1
INTRODUCTION

1.1 About NTA

The Ministry of Education, Government of India (GOI), has established the National Testing
Agency (NTA) as an independent autonomous and self-sustained premier testing organization
under Society Registration Act, 1860 for conducting efficient, transparent and international
standards tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admissions to premier
higher education institutions.

The objectives of NTA, inter-alia, include:

i. To conduct efficient, transparent and international standard tests in order to assess the
competency of candidates for admission.
ii. To undertake research on educational, professional and testing system to identify gaps in
the knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them.
iii. To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional
development standards.

The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has entrusted the responsibility of conducting
All India Competitive Examinations for admission to Bachelor (UG), Masters (PG) & Doctoral
(Ph.D.) Courses in Agricultural Universities (AUs) and award of scholarships and fellowships, to
the NTA from 2019 onwards.

1.2 About ICAR

The ICAR is the Apex Body for coordinating, guiding, and managing research and education in
agriculture in the entire country under the aegis of Department of Agricultural Research and
Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Considering the importance of
agricultural education, the University Education Commission (1948) chaired by Dr. S.
Radhakrishnan recommended the establishment of Rural Universities in the country. As a
result, the first State Agricultural University (SAU) was established in 1960 at Pantnagar on the
pattern of the Land Grant Colleges of the United States.

The ICAR-AU System of India has 74 Agricultural Universites comprising 63 State Agricultural,
Veterinary, Horticultural and Fisheries Universities (SAUs), 4 ICAR-DUs, viz. IARI, IVRI, NDRI and
CIFE, 3 Central Agricultural Universities (CAU, Imphal, Dr. RPCAU, Pusa and RLB CAU, Jhansi), 4
Central Universities (CU) having Faculty of Agriculture (BHU, AMU, Viswa Bharati and Nagaland
University). The National Agricultural Research, Education and Extension System (NAREES) of
India is one of the largest in the world, admitting more than 28000 students at UG level and
over 17,500 students at Master’s and Doctoral level annually, in different disciplines of
Agricultural and Allied Sciences.

During 2020-21, against the total of 2865 Seats, 2072 candidates were recommended by ICAR
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 for admission to accredited Bachelor degree programmes in 62 accredited AUs under the
ICAR-AU system.

1.3 AIEEA (UG) 2021

In 2021, All India Entrance Examination for Admission, AIEEA (UG) shall be conducted for
admission to Bachelor Degree programmes in Agriculture and Allied Sciences (other than
Veterinary Sciences), at Agricultural Universities on 15% of the University seats (100% seats in
RLBCAU Jhansi, NDRI Karnal and Dr. RPCAU Pusa, Bihar). Further, not more than 40%
candidates from any one state shall be admitted in any agricultural university in a particular
subject and category.

The AIEEA (UG)-2021 Examination for the Academic Session 2021-22 will be conducted at 178
Cities (Annexure-I) all over the country, enabling participation of a large number of candidates
seeking admission in Bachelor degree programmes in accredited AUs in different disciplines.

Candidates declared eligible for registration and choice filling for counsellingby ICAR will only be
considered for allocation of subject and the Agricultural University.

There is no provision of direct nomination for admission through ICAR in any Bachelor degree
programme without qualifying in ICAR AIEEA (UG).

To align with New Education Policy (NEP 2020) and reduce the burden on students for
appearing in multiple entrance examination for admissions in AUs, ICAR has taken an initiative
and asked for the consent of AUs if they wish to utilize the NTA scores for UG admissions
during academic session 2021-22. The list of AUs which have expressed their willingness to
utilize NTA scores is given at APPENDIX-I.

NOTE
 Ragging in the Universities, in any form, has been strictly banned and is a criminal offence. Before
applying, all the candidates are advised to study in detail the UGC Regulations on Curbing the
Menace of Ragging in Higher Educational Institutions, 2009
([Link]
 Ragging is totally prohibited in the institutions, and anyone found guilty of ragging and/or abetting
ragging, whether actively or passively, or being a part of a conspiracy to promote ragging, is liable to
be punished in accordance with these Regulations as well as under the provisions of any penal law
for the time being in force.
 Every student studying in the institution and his/her parents/guardians shall be required to provide
the specific affidavits in accordance with clauses (d), (e) and (g) of Regulation 6.1 of these
Regulations at the time of admission or registration, as the case may be, during each academic year.
 The candidates are advised to contact Anti-Ragging Committee/Cell of the admitting institution for
further information in this regard. They may visit ICAR’s Agricultural Education Portal
([Link] to reach the website of the Agricultural University/Institution of
their interest for more information.

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 CHAPTER-2
GENERAL INFORMATION

2.1 Degree Programmes available for Admission in 2021-22.

During academic session2021-22, admission to 11 Bachelor degree programmes of four years

duration in the subjects enlisted in Annexure-III is available to Indian Nationals based on the
merit-rank in ICAR AIEEA(UG)-2021. Candidates may note that all Undergraduate Degrees in
the disciplines of Agricultural Sciences have been declared as professional degrees.

2.2 University-Wise and Subject–Wise Number of Seats Available for Admission

Number of seats available for admission through AIEEA (UG) in different disciplines at
accredited Agricultural Universities (including non-accredited RLBCAU, Jhansi and some non-
accredited programmes and colleges of Dr. RPCAU, Pusa) for the academic session 2021-22
will be displayed on ICAR website [Link] at the time of counseling.

2.3 Schedule of AIEEA (UG) 2021

Schedule for important examination related activities hasbeen given [Link],

candidates are requested to keep themselves updated about the schedule through NTA and
ICAR websites [Link], [Link] and [Link].

Schedule of AIEEA(UG)-2021

25.07.2021 to 20.08.2021
Online submission of Application Form
(upto 05:00 PM)
Last date of successful transaction of fee through Credit/Debit
20.08.2021 (upto 11:50 PM)
Card/Net-Banking/UPI
General/Unreserved Rs. 770/-
Other Backward Classes (OBC)-
Fee Payable by Rs. 750/-
(NCL)*&UPS**/ EWS***
candidates
SC/ST/PwBD/ Transgender Rs. 375/-

Processing charges & GST are to be paid by the candidate, as applicable

Correction in particulars of Application Form on website only
23.08.2021 to 26.08.2021
(No corrections shall be allowed after 26.08.2021)
Downloading of Admit Cards from NTA website To be announced later

Date of Examination 7th, 8th & 13th September 2021

Duration of Examination 150 minutes (2 ½ hours)

Timing of Examination As indicated on Admit Card

6
 Centre, Date and Shift of Examination As indicated on Admit Card

Display of Attempted Question Paper and Provisional Answer Keys To be announced later
[Link],
Websites
[Link]
To be announced on the NTA
Declaration of Result on NTA website
website later
To be announced by the ICAR
on [Link],
Schedule for Online Counselling
[Link] after the
declaration of result

*Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National
Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website [Link]. Only the candidates falling
in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List)
must choose General/Unreserved.
** Candidates of Remote and Underprivileged States must check their eligibility before applying.
***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated
21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding
implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in Central Educational
Institutions.

2.4 Scheme of Examination

The Test of AIEEA (UG) 2021 is a single Test of 02:30 hours duration. Details of the Test are as given
below:

Mode of Examination LAN Based CBT

Duration 02:30 hours
Number of Questions 150 (50 in each subject)
Type of Questions Multiple Choice with 4 options
 4 marks for each correct response
Scoring  -1 mark for each incorrect response (negative scoring)
 0 for non-attempt
Medium of Paper English and Hindi

Note:
1. Each candidate has to attempt/opt/choose only three subjects(PCB/PCM/PCA/ABC)in the examination
as per choice from the List of Subjects from Annexure-IV, to be given in the Online Application Form.
2. The candidates must attempt only those subjects in the examination as per the choice given in the
Application Form. Therefore,they must exercise the choice of subjects very carefully.
3. In case of any discrepancy between English & Hindi Version of a question, English Version would be
considered as valid.

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2.5 Syllabus for the Test

The Questions in the test shall be based on the syllabus prescribed by the ICAR, which is available at
the website [Link]

2.6 Subjects

Candidates need to choose subjects from Annexure-IV for UG Program as per their Eligilbility
Qualification at 10+2 level.

2.7 Conditions for the award of National Talent Scholarship (NTS)-2021

National Talent Scholarship would be available through the Agricultural University concerned, to
every student admitted on ICAR seat at any Agricultural University in a state outside his/her
domicile state. Detailed terms & conditions for the scholarship and admission could be found at
the ICAR website [Link] NTS shall be
awarded only after completion of Online Counseling. The revised rate of NTA for UG is Rs. 3000/-
per month.

The candidates are informed that in accordance with the decision taken during XVI Meeting of
National Agricultural Education Accreditation Board (NAEAB) held on 28.03.2016, the admissions
to the Bachelor’s degree programmes of RLBCAU, Jhansi shall be made through ICAR’s AIEEA (UG).
However, it has been decided by the Council that w.e.f. the Academic Session 2020-21, the
candidates recommended for admission to these programmes shall not be eligible for the award
of NTS(UG). Such candidates may be provided scholarship by RLBCAU, Jhansi from its budget
w.e.f. the Academic Session 2020-21. Further they should also note that from the Academic
Session 2021-22 onwards, irrespective of affiliation, whether it is ICAR DUs are DARE (3 CAUs) or
SAUs or CUs with Agriculture Faculty for all accredited AUs the award of NTS would be only for
15% seats of UG and 25% seats of Masters degree programme.

Similarly, in accordance with the decision taken during XIX Meeting of National Agricultural
Education Accreditation Board (NAEAB) held on 20.03.2017, the admissions to the non-accredited
Bachelor’s degree programmes or non-accredited colleges of Dr. RPCAU, Pusa shall be made
through ICAR’s AIEEA (UG). However, it has been decided by the Council that w.e.f. the Academic
Session 2020-21, the candidates recommended for admission to these programmes shall not be
eligible for the award of NTS(UG). Such candidates may be provided scholarship by Dr. RPCAU,
Pusa from its budget w.e.f. the Academic Session 2020-21.

However, the students who are already enrolled in non-accredited Bachelor’s degree programmes
in non-accredited colleges and received the letter of award of the scholarship from the ICAR shall
continue to avail the same in accordance with the prescribed rules and regulations of the
scholarship issued by the Council in this regard. The list of ICAR accredited Bachelor’s degree
programmes and Colleges of Dr. RPCAU, Pusa is given at Annexure-V.

8
 The award of NTS(UG) to the candidates recommended for admission to RLBCAU, Jhansi and Dr.
RPCAU, Pusa may be considered in future subject to accreditation of the university, Bachelor’s
degree programmes and Colleges by the Council.

2.8 Reservation Policy

A. SC/ST/OBC-(NCL)/EWS/PwD in each Category

(i) There would be reservation of seats for admission as well as ICAR (UG) Scholarship to the
extent of 15% for Scheduled Caste and 7.5% for Scheduled Tribe candidates in different
disciplines. The reservation of seats among SC/ST categories is interchangeable i.e., if
sufficient number of candidates are not available to fill up the seats as well as UG
Scholarshipreserved for ST candidates, these can be filled up from among suitable SC
candidates and vice-versa in a given subject as per merit-rank in examination. The original
SC/ST certificate in prescribed form (Annexure-XV) is required to be produced for
verification at the time of [Link] on merit and choice, such candidates
canal so take seat from the General/Unreserved Category.

(ii) Reservation for candidates belonging to Central OBC(NCL) category would be available at
BHU, PSB ViswaBharati;SASARD Nagaland University, CAUs and NDRI as per the latest
Government of India directives applicable at the time of counseling and Hon’ble SC
Judgment dated 18th August, 2011 and communication of seats by these universities at
the time of [Link] claiming admission under this category have to
produce a Central OBC (NCL) certificate as per specimen enclosed in Annexure-XVI.

(iii) Reservation of seats for EWS shall be in accordance with the Gazette Notification No. DL-
(N)/04/0007/2003-19, dated 12th January, 2019, Ministry of Law and Justice (Legislative
Department), Govt. of India or any further related Govt. of India directive(s) applicable
at the time of [Link] provision shall be applicable only for admission to Central
Educational Institutions and not to SAUs and minority educational institutions, if any,
under the ICAR-AU system. The unfilled seats remaining under Gen-EWS category will be
de-reserved to Unreserved (UR)/Opencategory seats. The certificate format for EWS
candidates is given at Annexure – XVII.
(iv) Five percent seats are reserved horizontally across the categories in different subjects,
for Persons with Disablitiy (PwD) candidates suffering from low vision, hearing
impairment, locomotors disability orcerebral palsy with appropriate medical certificate
having at least 40% disability and found suitable by the Counseling Committee/University
[Link] candidate applying for admission under this category should submit a copy of
the certificate about being PwD from a Govt. Hospital/Medical Board at the time of
admission in allotted University as per given specimen (Annexure–XI). The criteria for
assessing the degree of handicap could be variable from one subject to another. The
decision of the University allotted will be final in this [Link] seat is not available in a
particular Category to which the PwD candidate belongs, then the same would be drawn

9
 from General Category/Unreserved Category depending upon the availability.

B. Reservation for Remote and Under Privileged States/UT (UPS)

Two percent seats under each discipline would be reserved, horizontally, across categories for
the candidates of the remote and under privileged States/UTs namely (i) Andaman & Nicobar
Islands, (ii) Arunachal Pradesh, (iii) Dadra and Nagar Haveli, (iv) Daman & Diu, (v) Goa, (vi)
Lakshadweep, (vii) Manipur, (viii) Meghalaya, (ix) Mizoram, (x) Nagaland, (xi) Sikkim (xii) Tripura
and (xiii) Ladakh where educational facilities in Agriculture and Allied Science subjects either do
not exist or have no SAU(s) and who qualify this examination. UPS candidates will have to
produce domicile certificate issued by the competent authority at the time of admission. There
will not be any State quota within this quota.
Note:

1. Candidates need to refer to ICAR website [Link]/[Link] for detailed

information regarding reservation of seats and/or allocation of scholarship/fellowships for
SC/ST/OBC (NCL)/ PwD/UPS/EWS in each category at the time of counseling.
2. The responsibility for verification of the genuineness of SC/ST/OBC (NCL)/PwD//UPS/EWScertificate
will be of the concerned AU where the candidate has been granted admission on the basis of
counseling.

2.9 Provision for Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) Candidates

(i) In compliance of the “Guidelines for Conducting Written Examination for Persons with
Benchmark Disabilities” issued by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment vide Office
Memorandum No. [Link]. 34-02/2015-DD-III dated 29th August, 2018, the following
provisions would be available to the Candidates with Benchmark Disabilities, as defined in
Section 2(r) of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016.

(ii) A person with benchmark disability, as defined in Section 2 (r) of the RPwD Act, “means a
person with not less than 40 percent of a specified disability where specified disability has
not been defined in measurable terms and includes a person with disability where specified
disability has been defined in measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority”.

The Candidate claiming to be a PwBD for availing the benefts / facilities needs to submit a
certificate as per the format given on Annexure-XI.

(iii) A specified disability, as defined in Section 2 (zc) of the RPwBD Act, means the disabilities
as specified in the Schedule of the said Act, which includes:

(a) Locomotor Disabilities: Leprosy, Cerebral Palsy, Dwarfism, Muscular Dystrophy, Acid
Attack Victims;
(b) Visual Impairement: Blindness & Low Vision;
(c) Hearing Impairment: Deaf & Hard of Hearing;

10
 (d) Speech & Language Disability;
(e) Intellectual Disability: specific learning disability (dyslexia, dysgraphia, dyscalculia,
dyspraxia & developmental aphasia), autism spectrum disorder;
(f) Mental illness;
(g) Chronic Neurological Conditions: Multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s diseases;
(h) Blood Disorder: Haemophilia, Thalassemia, Sickle cell diseases;
(i) Multiple Disabilities: more than one of the specified disabilities including deaf
blindness

(iv) In case of candidates with benchmark disabilities in the category of blindness, locomotor
disability (both arm affected-BA) and cerebral palsy, the facility of scribe/reader shall be
given, if so desired by them.

(v) In case of other category of persons with benchmark disabilities (the Schedule of the said
Act may be referred to), the provision of scribe/reader can be allowed (if they so desire) on
production of a certificate to the effect that the person concerned has physical limitation to
write (use the mouse in case of CBT) and scribe is essential to write examination on his
behalf, from the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a
Government health care institution as per proforma at (ANNEXURE–XII).

(vi) Such candidates will have the discretion of bringing his/her own scribe/reader or may opt to
have Scribe/Reader from NTA or through any of its authorised Institute/Agency/Personnel
involved in the examination.

(vii) An eligible PwBD candidate, desirous of having facility of scribe/reader, shall have to
mention his/her appropriate PwBD category in the relevant column of the application form
and have also to record as to whether he/she will have his/her own arrangement of
scribe/reader or it has to be arranged by NTA or through any of its authorised
Institute/Agency/Personnel.

(viii) The qualification of the scribe shall be one step below the qualification of the candidate
taking the examination. The persons with benchmark disabilities opting for own
scribe/reader should submit details of the own scribe as per proforma at (ANNEXURE–XIII).

(ix) In case a PwBD candidate who has opted for the scribe/reader from NTA or through any of
its authorised Institute/Agency/Personnel, the Centre Superintendent shall arrange a
meeting of the candidate with scribe/reader, a day before the examination, for giving
him/her a chance to check/verify whether the scribe/reader is suitable or not.

(x) Compensatory time of not less than 20 minutes per hour of examination shall be given to a
candidate allowed to use scribe/reader. If the examination is 03 hours duration, the
compensatory time shall be 01 hour. In case the duration of the examination is less or more
than 03 hours, the compensatory time shall be on pro-rata basis.

As far as possible, the examination for Person(s) with Disabilities should be held at the
ground floor.

11
 CHAPTER-3
ELIGIBILTY CRITERIA AND QUALIFICATIONS

3.1 General Eligibility Criteria to appear in AIEEA (UG)- 2021

The eligibility qualifications for various degree programmes with the list of subjects is enlisted at
(Annexure-IV).

3.2 Qualifying Examination at 10+2 Level

1. In order to appear in AIEEA (UG) 2021, Indian nationalcandidates must have passed 10+2 Senior
Secondary Examination of the Central Board of Secondary Education or any other examination
within scope and standard found to be equivalent to the Senior Secondary Examination of a
recognised Indian Board/University (Annexure VI), with minimum prescribed marks/grade,
after a period of 12 years of study. The medium of instruction in the admitting University will be
English.

2. Candidate must have passed any one of the qualifying examinations enumerated above
securing not less than 50% marks in aggregate for General, OBC (NCL), UPS, EWS categories and
40% marks in aggregate for SC, ST, Third Gender, PwD categories. There will be no rounding-off
of the OGPA/percentage of marks of qualifying examination while deciding the basic eligibility
of any candidate for admission e.g. if a candidate obtained 49.99% marks in his/her qualifying
examination, then it will not be rounded-off to 50%.

3. Candidate having a compartment/supplementary in any of the subjects will not be eligible

unless proof of having cleared the examination with requisite percentage asabove is available.

4. Candidate already appeared in the qualifying examination enumerated above, can also apply
but would be required to submit evidence of having satisfied the conditions latest at the time
of counselling/admission in the allotted university.

5. Candidate must ensure that he/she fulfills the eligibility requirements for the examination as
well as admission as detailed in the Information Bulletin. Applying for AIEEA (UG) 2021,
appearing in the examination and qualifying the same does not necessarily mean acceptance of
eligibility. The applicant for a particular Subject must satisfy the eligibility criteria as specified in
this Information Bulletin (or its amendments/corrections from time to time).

 No certificates are required to be uploaded along with the Application Form at the time of
online submission.
 The documents/certificates etc., shall be verified directly at the time of admission in the
admitting university. In case the candidate is found not-eligible at any stage, his/her
candidature would be summarily rejected and admission will be cancelled.

12
 NOTE: Candidates must note that all applicants shall be bound by the conditions as laid down in this
Information Bulletin, and the rules and regulations as enshrined in the admitting University Act, Statutes,
Ordinances, notifications and guidelines issued from time to time. It is the sole responsibility of the
candidate to ensure that he/she entirely fulfills the specified eligibility before appearing in the
examination.

The candidate must ensure that all the eligibility conditions as laid down in the Information Bulletin are
fulfilled in toto by him/her, including the minimum age limit, percentage of marks obtained in the 10+2
examination, relevant certificates, etc. and final result in hand at the time of counseling/admission in the
university. Please note that ICAR/University will NOT be held responsible for denial of admission to non-
eligible candidates.

3.3 Age Limit

Indian Nationals of at least 16 years of age as on 31.08.2021 are eligible to apply for the
examination. No relaxation is admissible regarding the minimum age limit.

13
 CHAPTER-4
REGISTRATION AND APPLICATION PROCESS

NTA is the examination conducting body and its scope is limited to conducting the examination and
declaration of the Result /Merit List as per the criteria prescribed. Candidates must note that they shall
be bound by the conditions as laid down in this Information Bulletin as well as the and the Statutes,
Ordinances, Notifications, Rules, Regulations and Guidelines of the admitting University / Deemed
University / Institute, issued from time to time. It is the sole responsibility of the candidate to ensure
that he/she fulfills the specified eligibility in toto before filling up the online application form and
appearing in the examination.

4.1 Examination Cities for AIEEA (UG) 2021

The Examination Cities where the AIEEA (UG) 2021 will be conducted are given in (Annexure- I).
While applying candidates have to select any four cities of their choice for AIEEA (UG) 2021. The
efforts will be made to allot city of examination to the candidates in order of the choice opted
by them in their application form. However, due to administrative reasons, a different city of
nearby area may be allotted.

 NTA reserves the right to allot a candidate to a near by exam city, other than the one opted
by him/her, if need be, depending on administrative exigencies.
 NTA reserves the right to cancel/ merge any exam city/centre if need be, depending on
administrative exigencies.
 The Examination City Centre, once opted, shall not be changed.

The decision of the NTA regarding allotment of Centre, Date and Shift shall be final. No further
correspondence or request shall be entertained in such case.

4.2 Applying Online and Submission of Application Form

The online submission of Application Form for AIEEA (UG)-2021, uploading of scanned
photograph and signatures may be made at website [Link], [Link] The
candidates should complete all the required details while filling up the online form. On
submission of details and required fee, a Confirmation Page with Application Number shall be
generated. Candidates are required to take printout of Confirmation Page and keep it for
reference.

In order to appear in AIEEA (UG)-2021, the candidates are required to apply online as per
procedure detailed below. Before filling and submitting the online form, candidates should
download the Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form; and read them carefully.
Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin and on NTA
website. Application Forms not complying with the instructions are liable to be rejected.

14
 Candidates must keep following information ready before filling online Application Form:-

 Govt Identity Details like Aadhaar Number (last 4 digits)/Election Card (EPIC No.)/Passport
number/Ration Card Number/ Bank Account Number/PAN Number/ Other valid Govt Ids.
 Address for communication, Mobile Number, email id, etc.
 Scanned images of latest Photograph (size of 10 kb to 200 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
 Scanned image of Signature (size of 4 kb to 30 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
 Scanned image of Thumb impression (Male-Left, Female-Right, size of 3kb to 30 kb) in
JPG/JPEG format only.
 Bank Account details for payment of Fee, for uploading as part of submission of online
application.

4.3 Replica of the Application Form

The Replica of the AIEEA(UG)-2021 Application Form or Format is available at Annexure-VIII.

4.4 Four Steps to Complete the Application Process

Application Form may be submitted in four simple steps:

Step 1 Apply for Online Registration using unique Email IDand Mobile No.
Step 2 Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application
No.
Step 3 Upload scanned images of Candidate’s Photograph (file size: 10 kb - 200 kb),
Candidate’s Signature (file size: 4kb – 30kb)and Thumb Impression(file size: 3kb – 30
kb) in JPG/JPEG format.
Step 4 Pay fee using SBI/Canara/HDFC/ICICI Bank/Paytm Payment Gateway through Debit
Card/CreditCard/Net-Banking/UPI and keep proof of fee [Link] case the
Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee then the transaction is
cancelled, and amount will be refunded to the candidate’s account. However, the
candidate has to make another transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is not
generated.
 Download, save and print copies of Confirmation Page after successful remittance of fee
and keep copies safely for future reference.
 All the 4 Steps can be done together or at separate times.
Note:
1. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-3 and step-4 are
not complete. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be
entertained.
2. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under
any circumstances.
3. The entire application process of ICAR-AIEEA (UG)-2021is online, including uploading of scanned
images, Payment of Fees, and Printing of Confirmation Page. Therefore, candidates are not
required to send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation Page to NTA/ICAR through
Post/ Fax/ E-mails /by Hand.

15
4.5 Application Fee Payable by the Candidates of Various Categories:

General/Unreserved Rs. 770/-

OBC-NCL*/ UPS**/EWS*** Rs. 750/-
SC/ ST/ PwBD / Transgender Rs. 375/-
Applicable Service/Processing charges & GST are to be paid by the candidate.
* Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website [Link]. Only the
candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not in
OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General/Unreserved.
** Candidates of Remote and Underprivileged States must check their eligibility.
***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice
and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 regarding implementation of
reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.

4.6 Method of Fee Payment

After completing Step 2 of Online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee
(Step 3) by choosing the following options:

1. Through Debit/Credit card – Candidates need to check the validity of the Debit/Credit Card,
while logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should enter the
information asked for and make the required payment through Debit/Credit Card.
2. Through Net Banking - Check the balance in account and keep all credentials ready while
logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should Login with his/her
credentials of net banking and make payment through Net Banking.
3. Through UPI/Paytm.

Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following:

1. If the fee is paid through credit/debit card and status is not OK, it means the transaction is cancelled.
Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK fee status.
2. For cancelled transactions, the amount will, automatically, be refunded to concerned credit/debit
card within 15 days of last date of submission of Application Form.

Generation of Confirmation Page confirms the final submission of Application Form. If

Confirmation Page has not been generated, this means that Application Form has not been
submitted successfully.

NOTE: The fee difference on account of change of category by the candidate during correction of
particulars in online application form shall have to be paid mandatorily by the candidate.

16
4.7 Instructions to be followed while Applying

Step I: Registration
Fill in the basic information and note down the system generated Application No.
(i) Candidate’s Name/ Mother’s Name/ Father’s Name:
Provide Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name, Father’s Name as given in the Secondary
School Examination or equivalent Board/ University Certificate in capital letters
(ii) Date of Birth: dd/mm/yyyy
Provide Candidate’s date of birth as recorded in Secondary School Examination or
equivalent Board certificate.
(iii) Mobile Number and e-mail Address :
Candidates must provide own Mobile Number and e-mail address.

Note: Only one e-mail address and one Mobile Number are valid for one application

Step II: Complete the Application Form

Fill in the complete Application Form

(i) Other Backward Classes (OBC)- Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other
Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC),
Government of India website ([Link]). Thus, the candidates falling in this
list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC Candidates who are not
in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General.
(ii) Economically Weaker Section (EWS) - As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated
January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the
OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I
dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of
Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker
Section (EWS) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.
(iii) Provide complete postal address with PIN Code (Mailing Address as well as Permanent
Address) for further correspondence. PIN code of Correspondence Address should be
given in the space provided for this purpose.

Note: The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay/loss in postal transit or for an incorrect
Correspondence address given by the Applicant in the Application Form.

(iv) Choice of Examination Cities: The candidate should select any four cities of their
choice for examination of ICAR-AIEEA (UG) 2021 given at (Annexure-I).
(v) Under no circumstances the choice of cities for Centre and ICAR-AIEEA-UG subject
filled in the Application Form shall be changed by the NTA.

17
Step III: Uploading of scanned photograph, signature and Thumb Impression
(i) Candidate’s Photograph
 The photograph must be taken recently. Photograph should not be with cap or goggles.
80% of the face should be clearly visible, with a white background.
 Spectacles are allowed if being used regularly.
 Polaroid and Computer-generated photos are not acceptable.
 Applications not complying with these instructions or with unclear photographs are
liable to be rejected.
 Candidates may please note that if it is found that photograph uploaded is fabricated
i.e. de-shaped or seems to be hand-made or computer made, the form of the candidate
will be rejected and the same would be considered as using unfairmeans and the
candidate would be dealt with accordingly.
 Application without photograph shall be rejected. The photograph need not be
attested.
 Candidates are advised to take 6 to 8 passport size colour photographs with white
background.
 Passport size photograph is to be used for uploading on Online Application Form and
also for pasting on Attendance Sheet at the examination centre.
 The candidate should scan his/her passport size photograph for uploading. File size
must be between 10 kb to 200 kb.

(ii) Candidate’s Signature

The candidates are required to upload their full signature in running handwriting in the
appropriate box given in the Online Application Form. Writing full name in the Box in
Capital letters would not be accepted as signature and the Application Form will be
rejected. Further, unsigned Online Application Forms will also be rejected.
 The candidate should put his full signature on white paper with Black Ink pen and
scan for uploading.
 File size must be between 4 kb to 30 kb.

Note: Candidate must ensure that the uploaded images are clear and proper.

(iii) Candidate’s Thumb Impression

 The candidates are required to upload their Thumb Impression in the appropriate
box given in the Online Application Form.
 Males have to use Left Thumb Impression and Females have to use Right Thumb
Impression
 File size must be between 3 kb to 30 kb.

18
 Step IV: Payment of Fee and Status of receipt of Online Application Form with Fee
The final Confirmation of payment of Fee and the receipt of online transaction will be
displayed in the Confirmation Page of AIEEA-UG (2021) application. The candidature of the
candidate, whose fees has not been received upto the prescribed last date, will not be
considered for the examination. In case the candidate has paid the fee but is still not able to
download the Confirmation Page, the candidate should approach the Help Line between 10.00
am and 5.00 pm on working days with the following documents for correction and considering
his/her candidature for the examination.

(i) Proof of fee paid (Photocopy of transaction slip of fees paid through Debit/Credit Card
and Net Banking/Paytm). In case, the fee has not been remitted within the prescribed last
date, the application would be treated as incomplete/unsuccessful and it shall not be
considered.
(ii) The fee difference on account of change of category by the candidate during correction
of particulars in online application form shall have to be paid mandatorily by the
candidate.
(iii) No request regarding non-receipt of Online Application Form/Fee would be entertained
by the NTA after the specified date.
(iv) Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA website regularly for latestupdates.
Candidates should check their mailbox for the given email IDs and SMS in theirregistered
Mobile Number for latest updates and information.

(a) Check List for filling the Online Application Form:

The candidates are advised to ensure the following points before filling the Online Application
Form:

(i) Thatthey fulfill the eligibility conditions for the Test as prescribed under the heading
‘General Eligibility Criteria’ and ‘Age Limit’.
(ii) That they have filled their category vizGeneral/OBC (Non-Creamy
Layer)/SC/ST/EWS/PwD/Third Gender, in the relevant column correctly.
(iii) That they have selected their domicile state code (Annexure-II) carefully.
(iv) That the Person with Disability (PwD) candidate has selected the relevant column in
the Online Application Form.
(v) Thatthey have downloaded and kept a Printout of Application Form (Confirmation
Page) for their own record and future usage.

(b) Important Points to Note:

(i) In order to appear in ICAR-AIEEA (UG)-2021, the candidates are required to apply
‘online’. The Application Form other than online mode shall not be accepted.
(ii) The Candidates should fill their complete postal address with PIN Code for further
correspondence. The NTA/ICARshall not be held responsible for any loss due to
incorrect address given by the applicant in the Online Application Form.

19
(iii) The Candidate must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the
Online Application Form are their own (which cannot be changed later) as
communication may be sent by NTA through e-mail or SMS.
(iv) The Candidate should not give the postal address, Mobile Number or e-mail ID of
Coaching Centre in the Online Application Form.
In order to appear in ICAR-AIEEA (UG)-2021, the candidates are required to apply
‘online’. No change will be accepted through offline mode i.e. through
fax/application including e-mail etc.
(v) Online submission of application may be done by accessing the NTA official website:
[Link]
(vi) The candidates, before submitting the Online Application Form, shall ensure their
eligibility to appear in the [Link] candidate is not required to give any option for
Agricultural Universities for admission at the time of filling up online Application
Form. The admission/allotment of seat will be made through online counselling on the
basis of merit-rank and fulfilment of other eligibility requirements.
(vii) Online Application Form cannot be withdrawn once it is submitted successfully.
(viii) A candidate is allowed to submit only one Application Form. If a candidate submits
more than one Application Form, the candidature is likely to be cancelled.
(ix) Request for change in any particular in the Application Form,shall not be
entertained under any circumstances.

Note: However, a chance will be given to the candidates to correct/modify/edit some of the
particular(s) of the Application Form online only, through the correction window.

(x) The Centres (Cities) indicated for the entrance examination by a candidate is only an
option. The actual Centre and shift shall be allotted by NTA and it shall be final. No
correspondence in this regard shall be entertained. It is mandatory for candidates to
select all four choices.
(xi) Selection of a candidate in the test is provisional subject to being found otherwise
eligible for admission.
(xii) In case a candidate is found providing incorrect information or the identity is proved
to be false at any time in the future, the candidate shall face penal action as per the
law.
(xiii) The Candidates are not required to send/submit the Confirmation Page of Online
Application Form to the NTA/ICAR. However, they are advised to retain the following
documents with them as reference for future correspondence:
 Copyof the Confirmation Page of Online Application Form.
 Proof of fee paid
 Photographs (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form)
(xiv) The name on the Govt. photo IDmust match with the name as shown on the Admit
Card. If the name has been changed due to events such as marriage, candidate must
show the relevant document likeMarriage Certificate/Divorce/Decree/Legal Name
Change Document at the time of examination.
(xv) In case of any technical issue or due to a natural disaster, if an exam in a particular

20
 shift/subject has to be rescheduled, NTA may follow the process of normalization of
the two test forms as per the policy (Annexure-X).
(xvi) If a candidate at any stage is found to have furnished incorrect information or
deliberately suppressed any material information, his/her candidature/admission will
be rejected/cancelled as soon as it comes to the notice of either NTA or ICAR or the
university concerned.

(c) Provision of Aadhaar:

The Aadhaar number is only one of the types of identification and is not mandatory. Candidates may
also enter Passport number, Ration Card number, Bank Account number or any other valid
Government identity number.

4.8 Admit Card for AIEEA (UG)-2021

 The Admit Card is issued provisionally to the candidates, subject to their satisfying the
eligibility conditions.
 The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website and appear for the
Examination at the given Centre strictly as per the Date and Shift (Timing) indicated on the
Admit Card.
 No candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination center, on Date and Timings other
than that allotted to them in their Admit card.
 The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and follow
them during the conduct of the examination.
 In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and
signatures shown in the Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately
approach the Help Line between 10:00 am and 5:00 pm. In such cases, candidates would
appear in the examination with the already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will take
necessary action to make correction in the record later.

The Examination City Centre, once opted, shall not be changed. The admit card will be uploaded on
NTA website [Link], [Link] Please check the admit card carefully for your
Roll No.,Name, Subject, Date of Birth, Gender, Examination Centre Name, City, and Category, etc. In
case of any problem related to Admit card, please contact the given helpline numbers between
10:00 am and 5:00 pm.
Note:
a. Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.
b. In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for AIEEA(UG)-2021 would be issued at the Examination Centres.
c. Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein.
d. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future referenceand
verification during Counseling.
e. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are found to be incomplete for
any reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful photographs/unsigned Applications
f. Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which shall be
further scrutinized at subsequent stages of admission process

21
 CHAPTER-5
CONDUCT OF THE EXAMINATION

5.1 Important Instructions for the Candidates

Candidates MUST bring the following documents on the day of examination at the test centre.
Candidates who will not bring these will not be allowed to appear in the examination.

I. Print copy of Admit Card downloaded from NTA website

II. One passport size photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) for
pasting on the specific space in the attendance sheet at the Centre during the Examination
III. Any one of the authorized Govt photo IDs (original, valid and non-expired), viz. PAN card/
Driving License/ Voter ID/ Passport/ Aadhaar Card (With photograph)/ Aadhaar Enrolment
No/ Ration Card
IV. PwBD certificate issued by the Competent Authority, if claiming the relaxation under PwBD
category

Note: The name on the photo identification must match with the name as shown on the Admit Card.
If the name has been changed due to events such as marriage, candidate must show the relevant
document like Marriage Certificate/Divorce/Decree/Legal Name Change Document at the time of
examination.

1. The candidates shall report at the Examination Centre at the time indicated on their
respective Admit Cards.
2. Registration desk will close 30 minutes prior to commencement of the examination.
Candidates shall not be permitted to enter the Examination Centre after the gate closing
time indicated on the Admit Card.
3. The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the admit card carefully and follow
them during the conduct of the examination.
4. A seat indicating Roll No. will be allotted to each candidateCandidates should take their
seat immediately after opening of the examination hall. If the candidates do not report in
time due to any reason i.e. traffic jam, train/bus delay etc., they are likely to miss some of
the general instructions to be announced in the Examination Rooms/Halls. The NTA shall
not be responsible for any delay.
5. The candidate must show, on demand, the Admit Card downloaded/printed from the NTA
website for admission in the examination room/hall. The Test Centre Staff on duty is
authorized to verify the identity of candidates and may take steps to verify and confirm the
identify credentials. Candidates are requested to extend their full cooperation. A candidate
who does not possess the valid Admit Card shall not be permitted for the examination
under any circumstances by the Centre SuperintendentCandidates should find and sit on
their allocated seat only. Any candidate found to have changed room/hall or the seat on
his/her own other than allotted would be considered as a case of UnFairMeans and the
candidature shall be cancelled and no plea would be accepted.

22
 6. The candidate should ensure that the question paper available on the computer is as per
the Subject opted by him/her in the application form and as indicated on the Admit Card.
In case, the Subject displayed on the computer is different from the one opted by
him/her, the same must be immediately brought to the notice of the Invigilator
concerned.
7. Candidates are not allowed to carry any baggage inside the Examination Centre. NTA will
not be responsible for any belongings stolen or lost at the premises.
8. Candidate shall appear at their own cost at the Centre on Date and shift as indicated in
their Admit Card issued by the NTA. Under no circumstances the choice of cities for centre
and shift provided in the Admit Card shall be changed.
9. No candidate, without the special permission of the Centre Superintendent or the
Invigilator concerned, will leave his/her seat or Examination Room/Hall until the full
duration of the paper is over. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as instructed
by the Centre Superintendent/Invigilators. Candidates should not leave the room/hall
without handing over their rough sheets to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
10. Candidates should not be in possession of any material listed in the list of prohibited
material.
11. All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the centre
in the examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over
the rough sheets to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
12. The candidates must sign and paste the photograph on the Attendance Sheet at the
appropriate place.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the NTA with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of Unfairmeans will be dealt with as per rules.

5.2 Prohibited Materials

Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, Calculators, Docu Pen, Slide Rules,
Log Tables and Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, printed or written material, bits
of papers, mobile phone, Blue-tooth devices, pager or any other electronic gadget/ device etc.
 The candidates are prohibited to bring any kind of electronic gadgets/device in the
examination room/hall.
 If any candidate is in possession of any of the above item, the same will be seized, his/her
candidature treated as unfair means and this will lead to cancellation of his/her current
examination besides debarring him/her from appearing in future examination(s).
 Smoking, chewing gutka, spitting etc. in the Examination Room/Hall is strictly prohibited.
 Instrument/Geometry/Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, Any kind of Paper/ Stationery,
Eatables/snacks and Tea/coffee/cold drinks/Water (loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Ear
Phone/Microphone/Pager, Calculator, Camera, Tape Recorder, any metallic item or
electronic gadgets etc. are NOT allowed in the examination Room/Hall.
Diabetic students will be allowed to carry eatables like sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/
apple/orange) and transparent water bottle to the examination hall. However, they will not
be allowed to carry packed foods like chocolate/candy/sandwich etc.

23
5.3 Unfair Means

(i) If Candidates are found to be in possession of any of the following items, their candidature
will be treated as cancelled and will be debarred for future examination(s). The
items/material will be seized and the case treated as one of ‘unfairmeans’.

Any textual material, Calculators, Docu Pen, Slide Rules, Log Tables and Electronic Watches
with facilities of calculator, printed or written material, bits of papers, mobile phone, Blue-
tooth devices, pager or any other electronic gadget/device etc.

(ii) Candidates shall maintain perfect silence and attend to their Question Paper only. Any
conversation or gesticulation or disturbance in the Examination Room/Hall shall be deemed
as misbehavior.

(iii) Candidates must not obtain or attempt to obtain or give assistance of any kind during the
examination. This will entail expulsion and cancellation of candidature for the examination.

(iv) If a candidate is found using unfairmeans or impersonating, his/her candidature shall be

cancelled and he/she will be liable to be debarred for taking examination either
permanently or for a specified period according to the nature of offence.

Important: For those who are unable to appear on the scheduled date and time of test for any
reason, re-test shall not be held by the NTA under any circumstances

24
 Chapter-6
PROCEDURE FOR APPEARING IN COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)

The major examinations being conducted by NTA will be Computer Based Test (CBT). A CBT requires
candidates to sit in front of a computer terminal (node) allocated to them against their Roll number
and Admit card. After logging the candidate will get detailed instructions for the examinations. At the
designated time of start of examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and see the questions
on the computer screen using the computer mouse. Candidates will have the option to
change/modify/edit/answers already entered any time during the examination.

25
 CHAPTER-7
PROCEDURE OF DECLARATION OF RESULT

7.1 Display of Attempted Question Paper and Provisional Answer Key for Challenges

 The NTA will display Attempted Question Paper along withProvisional Answer Key of the
questions on the NTA website [Link], [Link] to provide an opportunity
to the candidates to challenge the Answer Key. The Answer Keys are likely to be displayed for
three days.
 The Candidates will be given an opportunity to make a challenge online against the Answer
Key on payment of a non refundable fee of Rs 200/- per question challenged as processing
charges.
 The NTA will also display the recorded responses of all the candidates and their attempted
question paper on the NTA website prior to declaration of result. The recorded responses are
likely to be displayed for three days.
 Decision of NTA on the challenges shall be final and the result will be declared on the basis of
final answer keys.

7.2 Declaration of Result

 The result of the AIEEA (UG)-2021 Examination will be placed on the NTA website
[Link], [Link] No separate intimation will be made to candidates who
fail to qualify in this examination. No queries in this regard, whatsoever, will be entertained
from such candidates.
 All announcements related to the conduct of Competitive examination including issue of
examination notification, admit card information, examination result would be available at NTA
website [Link], [Link]
 The candidates are advised to be vigilant about the announcements on the NTA websites as
the NTA would not be responsible for non-receipt of any information.
 Single overall merit-rank list shall be prepared by ICAR. In the event of tie/candidates getting
equal marks in the Entrance Examination, relative merit will be determined in the following
order:

(i) on the basis of marks obtained in the main subjects Mathematics (PCM)/Biology
(PCB)/Agriculture (ABC/PCA) in AIEEA-UG Examination.
(ii) the candidate scoring less negative marks will be rated higher in merit.
(iii) the candidate higher in age would be rated higher in merit.
(iv) candidate with higher %age/CGPA score in Class X examination would be rated higher in
merit.

 Categeory-wise final merit list for counselling shall be prepared based on the reservation
category information given by the candidate in Online Application Form.
 The result of the entrance examination would be available in terms of overall merit-rank

26
 obtained by the candidate declared eligible for registration and choice filling forcounseling.
 No separate intimation about non-selection in AIEEA (UG)-2021examination and marks
obtained therein, will be sent to the candidate and no correspondence (Letter/Fax/E-mail, etc.)
in this regard will be entertained.

7.3 NTA process of Error and Scoring related Exception Handling

As per AIEEA-UG specifications all questions in the test papers are MCQs with only one correct answer.
If any anomaly or discrepancy is found during key verification, it shall be addressed in the following
manner:
1. If two/three options are found to be correct post challenge or during key verification - Marks to
be awarded to only those candidateswho have marked any of the correct options.
2. If all options are found to be correct – Full marks to be awarded to all candidates.
3. If none of the options is correct/Question is found to be wrong/invalid – Question to be
dropped and full marks to be awarded to all candidates.

7.4 Percentile score and Normalization procedure:

(i) For multi-shift papers, raw marks obtained by the candidates in different shifts/sessions
will be converted to NTA Score (percentile).

(ii) The detailed procedure on NTA Score being adopted is available on Annexure-X under
Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score.

(iii) In case a subject test is conducted in multi-shifts, NTA Score will be calculated
corresponding to the raw marks obtained by a candidate. The calculated NTA Score for
the Raw Marks for all the shifts/sessions will be merged for further processing for
deciding the allocation.

(iv) In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar /unequal, the lowest
will be the eligibility cut-off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).

For Example: In an examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a
Percentile score of 78 in Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78
percentiles (Percentile score of 100 to 78) in both shifts will become eligible in General
Category. Similar method will be adopted for the other categories to determine
eligibility cut-offs. In case the examination is held in more number of shifts the same
principle shall apply.

7.5 No Rechecking or Re-evaluation Policy

No representation for re-evaluation/re-checking of answer scripts shall be entertained after the

declarartion of results, because candidates are given opportunity to evaluate their own recorded

27
 responses and challenge discrepancies, if any before finalizing final answer key and declarartion of
the result.

7.6 Counselling

Candidates declared eligible for registration and choice filling for counselling by ICAR will only be
considered for allocation of subject and the Agricultural University. The schedule for counseling
will be notified separately on ICAR website ([Link]/[Link]) after declaration
of result. The admission and scholarship would be granted only when the candidate seeks
admission through counselling conducted by ICAR.

28
 CHAPTER -8
Special Instructions Regarding COVID-19

8.1 Implementation of GoI Guidelines

NTA will implement Social Distancing measures as per Government of India Guidelines in
current scenario of COVID-19 to ensure health & safety of the candidates. Adequate measures
are implemented for safety of all without compromising the high standards, sanctity, and
fairness in conduct of the examination. Candidates are also required to adhere to Guidelines
and new process for Social Distancing and hygiene to ensure safety & health of their own and
fellow candidates.

8.2 Preparation at Centre

a) Standard Operating Procedures for implementing safety precautions and for maintaining
required standard of hygiene will be implemented. Before the exam starts, Seating Area
will be thoroughly sanitized- exam rooms, desk, chair etc. All door handles, staircase
railing, lift buttons, etc will be disinfected.
b) Gap between 2 seats will be maintained as per GOI guidelines.
c) Hand Sanitizer will be available at entry and inside the exam venue at various places for
candidates and Centre staff to use.
d) Thermo guns will be available to check body temperature of candidates.
e) The room/hall number will be informed to the candidates at the registration room.
f) It is ensured that all the processes are touch free, to the maximum possible extent, to
ensure Social Distancing norms.
g) Candidate is required to reach Centre as per the Reporting/Entry time at Centre given in
the Admit Card to avoid any crowding at the Centre at the time of entry and to maintain
social distancing.
h) All exam functionaries will wear mask and gloves at all points of time.
i) 5 sheets of A4 size will be kept on the desk of each candidates for doing rough work.

8.3 Pre-exam Preparation

a) Candidate to check Reporting/ Entry time at Centre given in the Admit Card and to reach
Centre as per Reporting Time only to avoid any crowding at the Centre at the time of
entry and to maintain social distancing.
b) Candidate should fill Admit card and Undertaking thereon as per instructions contained
in the admit card, completely and properly.
c) Candidates will be permitted to carry only the permitted items with them into the venue.

29
8.4 At time of Entry

a) Candidates should avoid coming with more than one escort (parent/guardian). Escorts
shall remain outside the gate during the conduct of the examination and therefore it shall
be their responsibility to maintain all health and safety norms with respect to COVID-19.
b) Candidates need to maintain a space of at least 6 feet from each other at all times. Queue
manager / ropes and Floor Marks will be arranged outside the Centre.
c) Room number will not be displayed outside the Centre to avoid any crowding at any one
place in any situation.
d) Candidates will be required to sanitize hands by washing with soap and with Hand
Sanitizer before entry in Centre. Hand sanitizer will be available at various locations in the
Centre
e) Candidate should bring duly filled in Admit Card and Undertaking thereon as per
instructions contained in the admit card.
f) They should not bring prohibited items to exam Centre as there are no arrangements
available for their safe keeping.
g) Candidates are permitted to carry drinking water in a transparent water bottle, a small
bottle of sanitiser (50 mg), face masks and gloves.
h) Candidates will be ushered in batches of 10 girls/boys into two different registration
rooms, where thermal scanning will be carried out at the entry to that room.
i) If the body temperature is higher than the COVID-19 norms, candidate would be required
to take the exam in a separate room. Candidates are required to strictly adhere to
instructions provided by Centre staff.
j) All processes such as checking of temperature using thermo guns, frisking and verification
of documents including admit card will be done inside the registration room.
k) Contact free frisking will be carried out using Hand Held Metal Detectors.
l) Candidate will display the following documents for verification to the exam functionary
(invigilator on duty) standing across the table.

 Admit card along with the undertaking with passport size photograph and thumb
impression affixed thereon
 Original and valid Identity proof
 One additional photograph for affixing on the attendance register

m) Candidate will be offered a fresh 3 Ply mask before entry. In order to stop chances of any
UFM being used in the examination, the candidate is expected to wear the freshly
provided mask at the Centre. The candidate will be required to remove the mask worn by
him/ her from home and use only the mask provided at Centre, in the exam hall.
n) Invigilator on duty insider the registration room would check the admit card, ID proof etc
and direct the candidate to his exam room in batches of 5 each to maintain safe distance
as per the social distancing norms.

30
 o) A candidate will be denied permission to appear in the examination, if he/ she violates the
COVID-19 directives/advisories of Government (Central/State) applicable on the day of
exam and instructions mentioned in the Admit Card.

8.5 During Examination

a) Before the exam starts, Seating Area will be thoroughly sanitized –exam rooms, desk,
chair etc. Candidates can further sanitize the same with sanitizers that will be made
available in the examination lab/room/hall.
b) Candidates are required to paste passport size photograph and sign on the Attendance
Sheet after sanitizing hands with sanitizer.
c) Candidates are to do rough work only on the rough sheets provided to them at the centre.
They should write their roll number and name on the rough sheets.

8.6 After Examination

a) On completion of the exam, the candidates will be permitted to move out in an orderly
manner, one candidate at a time maintaining a safe distance from each other. They are
required to wait for instructions from invigilator and are not to get up from their
respective seats until advised.
b) Candidate must drop the Admit Card and the rough sheets in the drop box after the
conclusion of the exam, while leaving. If any candidate fails to do so, action (which also
includes disqualification from the exam) can be taken against him/her.

31
 CHAPTER-9
Miscellaneous Provisions

9.1 Common Services Centres/Facilitation Centres

Candidates who are not well conversant to submit the online application due to various
constraints, can use the services of Common Services Centre, Ministry of Electronics and
Information Technology, Government of India under the Digital India initiatives of Hon’ble
Prime Minister. The Common Services Centre (CSC) scheme is a part of the ambitious national e-
Governance Plan (NeGP) of Government of India and is managed at each village panchayat level
by a Village level Entrepreneur (VLE).

There are more than 1.5 lakhs Common Services Centres (CSC) across the country which will
provide the desired support to candidates from urban as well as rural areas in online submission
of application form and payment of fee through e-wallet. The list of the Common Services
Centre is available on website: [Link].

9.2 Test Practice Centres (TPCs)

NTA has created a network of Test Practice Centres (TPC), for the candidates,
especially in remote and rural areas to enable them to practice the previous year
question paper through Mock Test and be comfortable in taking a Computer Based
Test (CBT). This facility is completely free of cost. Candidates can register online (on
NTA website) where they are provided a convenient TPC nearer to their location, to
practice on a given computer node.

This facilitates and ease the process of being able to take a Computer Based Test (CBT). The
entire experience of using a computer is close to the actual experience of taking a CBT. Efforts
are made to provide practice tests and questions so that candidates can familiarize
themselves with logging into the system, go through the detailed instructions regarding the
test, use the mouse or numeric keyboard on screen (virtual) for attempting each question,
scroll down to the next question, navigate between questions, review and edit their options
and submit answers.

The TPCs are not functioning now due to the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the
opening of TPCs are subject to the improvement of Covid-19 situation.

9.3 Query Redressal System

National Testing Agency (NTA) has established a Query Redressal System (QRS), an online web-
enabled system developed by NTA.

32
  QRS is the platform based on web technology which primarily aims to enable
submission of queries/grievances by the Registered Candidate(s) of ICAR 2021
Examination with (24x7) facility for speedy and favourable redressal of the
queries/grievances.
 A Unique Registration Number will be generated for tracking the status of the
queries/grievances.

The Registered Candidate(s) are advised to use the online facility for speedy and favourable
response before mailing their queries on the official email id of ICAR i.e. icar@[Link]

9.4 Correspondence with NTA

All the correspondence should preferably be addressed by e-mail. The email query shall be
addressed only if it is not anonymous and contains the name, postal address and contact
number of the sender. An email containing vague or general queries and other queries as
contained in the Information Bulletin shall not be entertained. Queries shall not be entertained
from person claiming to be representatives, associates or officiates of the applicant candidate.
The following information shall not be revealed by phone or email:

a. Internal documentation/status.
b. Internal decision making process of NTA. Any claim/counter claim thereof.
c. Dates & venue of internal meetings or name of the staff/officers dealing with it.
d. Any information which in the opinion of NTA cannot be revealed.

9.5 Weeding Out Rules

The record of AIEEA (UG)-2021 Examination at NTA would be available up to 90 days from the
Date of Examination. The same would be weeded out thereafter.

9.6 Legal Jurisdiction

All disputes pertaining to the conduct of AIEEA (UG)-2021 Examination including Results shall fall
within the jurisdiction of Delhi only. Further, any legal question arising out of the Examination
shall be entertained only when raised within 30 days from the declaration of result.

The Director (Administration) of the NTA shall be the official by whose designation the NTA may
sue or be sued.

33
 ANNEXURE – I
LIST OF CITIES FOR EXAMINATION CENTRES for AIEEA (UG)-2021

STATE/UTs CITY CITY YAMUNA NAGAR HR10

CODE HIMACHAL HAMIRPUR HP03
ANDAMAN AND PORT BLAIR AN01 PRADESH (HIMACHAL PRADESH)
NICOBAR KANGRA / PALAMPUR HP04
ANDHRA ANANTAPUR AP01 MANDI HP08
PRADESH CHIRALA AP04 SHIMLA HP06
CHITTOOR AP05 SOLAN HP07
GUNTUR AP07 UNA HP09
KAKINADA AP09 JAMMU AND JAMMU JK02
KURNOOL AP10 KASHMIR SAMBA JK03
NELLORE AP11 SRINAGAR (J&K) JK04
RAJAHMUNDRY AP13 JHARKHAND BOKARO STEEL CITY JH01
TIRUPATHI AP16 DHANBAD JH02
VIJAYAWADA AP17 HAZARIBAGH JH05
VISAKHAPATNAM AP18 JAMSHEDPUR JH03
VIZIANAGARAM AP19 RANCHI JH04
ARUNACHAL ITANAGAR/NAHARLAG AL01 KARNATAKA BELAGAVI (BELGAUM) KK02
PRADESH UN BELLARY KK03
ASSAM DIBRUGARH AM01 BENGALURU KK04
GUWAHATI AM02 BIDAR KK05
JORHAT AM03 DAVANAGERE KK06
SILCHAR (ASSAM) AM04 DHARWAD / KK10
TEZPUR AM05 HUBBALLI(HUBLI)
BIHAR ARRAH BR09 GULBARGA KK08
BHAGALPUR BR02 HASSAN KK09
DARBHANGA BR04 MANDYA KK18
GAYA BR05 MANGALURU KK12
MUZAFFARPUR BR06 (MANGALORE)
PATNA BR07 MYSURU(MYSORE) KK14
PURNEA BR08 SHIVAMOGA KK15
CHANDIGARH CHANDIGARH/MOHALI CH01 (SHIMOGA)
CHHATTISGARH BHILAI NAGAR/DURG CG01 TUMAKURU KK16
BILASPUR CG02 UDUPI/MANIPAL KK17
(CHHATTISGARH) KERALA ALAPPUZHA / KL01
RAIPUR CG03 CHENGANNUR
DELHI DELHI/NEW DELHI DL01 ERNAKULAM/ KL04
GOA PANAJI/MADGAON GO01 ANGAMALY/
GUJARAT AHMEDABAD/GANDHI GJ01 MOOVATTUPUZHA
NAGAR IDUKKI KL05
ANAND GJ02 KANNUR KL07
MEHSANA GJ08 KASARAGOD KL08
RAJKOT GJ10 KOLLAM KL09
SURAT GJ11 KOTTAYAM KL11
VADODARA GJ12 KOZHIKODE KL12
HARYANA AMBALA HR01 MALAPPURAM KL13
FARIDABAD HR03 PALAKKAD KL15
GURUGRAM HR04 PATHANAMTHITTA KL16
HISSAR HR05 THIRUVANANTHAPUR KL17
KARNAL HR06 AM
KURUKSHETRA HR07 THRISSUR KL18
PANIPAT HR08 LADAKH LEH LL01
SONIPAT HR09 MADHYA BHOPAL MP03

34
PRADESH GWALIOR MP06 THANJAVUR TN12
INDORE MP07 THOOTHUKUDI TN13
JABALPUR MP08 TIRUCHIRAPPALLI TN14
SAGAR MP12 TIRUNELVELI TN15
SATNA MP13 TIRUVALLUR TN16
UJJAIN MP15 VELLORE TN18
MAHARASHTRA AMRAVATI MR03 VIRUDHUNAGAR TN20
AURANGABAD MR04 TELANGANA HYDERABAD/ TL01
(MAHARASHTRA) SECUNDERABAD/
JALGAON MR13 RANGA REDDY
KOLHAPUR MR14 KARIMNAGAR TL02
MUMBAI/ MR16 KHAMMAM TL03
NAVI MUMBAI WARANGAL TL07
NAGPUR MR17 TRIPURA AGARTALA TA01
NANDED MR18 UTTAR PRADESH AGRA UP01
NASHIK MR19 ALIGARH UP02
PUNE MR22 ALLAHABAD UP03
MANIPUR IMPHAL MN01 BAREILLY UP04
MEGHALAYA SHILLONG MG01 GHAZIABAD UP07
MIZORAM AIZAWL MZ01 GORAKHPUR UP08
NAGALAND DIMAPUR NL01 JHANSI UP10
KOHIMA NL02 KANPUR UP11
ODISHA BALASORE OR02 LUCKNOW UP12
BERHAMPUR-GANJAM OR03 MEERUT UP14
BHUBANESWAR OR04 MORADABAD UP15
CUTTACK OR05 MUZAFFARNAGAR UP16
DHENKANAL OR06 NOIDA / UP09
ROURKELA OR08 GREATER NOIDA
SAMBALPUR OR09 VARANASI UP18
PUDUCHERRY PUDUCHERRY PO01 UTTARAKHAND DEHRADUN UK01
PUNJAB AMRITSAR PB01 HALDWANI UK02
BHATINDA PB02 ROORKEE UK06
JALANDHAR PB04 WEST BENGAL ASANSOL WB01
LUDHIANA PB05 BURDWAN WB02
PATIALA / FATEHGARH PB08 (BARDHAMAN)
SAHIB DURGAPUR WB04
RAJASTHAN AJMER RJ01 HOOGHLY WB06
ALWAR RJ02 HOWRAH WB07
BIKANER RJ05 KALYANI WB08
JAIPUR RJ06 KOLKATA WB10
JODHPUR RJ07 SILIGURI WB11
KOTA RJ08
SIKAR RJ09 Note:
SRIGANGANAGAR RJ10 1. The exact name/location of Examination venue in
UDAIPUR RJ11 the Examination city centre will be notified later
SIKKIM GANGTOK SM01 along with the Roll Number in accordance with the
TAMIL NADU CHENNAI TN01 Application Number and Date of Birth and shall be
COIMBATORE TN02 available on NTA website [Link],
CUDDALORE TN03 [Link].
KANCHIPURAM TN05 2. NTA reserves the right to allot a candidate near by
exam city, other than the one opted by him/her,
KANYAKUMARI / TN06
if need be, depending on administrative
NAGERCOIL
exigencies.
MADURAI TN08
3. NTA reserves the right to cancel/ merge any exam
NAMAKKAL TN10
city/centre if need be, depending on administrative
SALEM TN11 exigencies.
35
 ANNEXURE II
DOMICILE STATE/UTs CODES

Sl. No. Name of the State/UT Code Sl. No. Name of the State/UT Code Number
Number

1. Andaman & Nicobar Islands (U.T.) 01 19. Madhya Pradesh 20

2. Andhra Pradesh 02 20. Maharashtra 21

3. Arunachal Pradesh 03 21. Manipur 22

4. Assam 04 22. Meghalaya 23

5. Bihar 05 23. Mizoram 24

6. Chandigarh (U.T.) 06 24. Nagaland 25

7. Chhattisgarh 07 25. Odisha 26

8. Dadra & Nagar Haveli & Daman & 08 26. Puducherry (U.T.) 27
Diu (U.T.)

9. Delhi (U.T.) 10 27. Punjab 28

10. Goa 11 28. Rajasthan 29

11. Gujarat 12 29. Sikkim 30

12. Haryana 13 30. Tamil Nadu 31

13. Himachal Pradesh 14 31. Tripura 32

14. Jammu & Kashmir 15 32. Uttarakhand 33

15. Jharkhand 16 33. Uttar Pradesh 34

16. Karnataka 17 34. West Bengal 35

17. Kerala 18 35. Telangana 36

18. Lakshadweep (U.T.) 19 36. Ladakh (U.T) 37

36
 ANNEXURE-III
Degree Programmes for Admission through AIEEA (UG) 2021

Subject Code No. Degree Programme for Admission

01 [Link]. (Hons.) Agriculture

02 [Link]. (Hons.) Horticulture

03 [Link].

04 [Link]. (Hons.) Forestry

05 [Link]. (Hons.) Community Science

06 Food Nutrition and Dietetics*

07 [Link]. (Hons.) Sericulture

08 B. Tech. Agricultural Engineering

09 B. Tech. Dairy Technology

10 B. Tech. Food Technology

11 B. Tech. Bio- Technology

* Subject to accreditation by National Agricultural Education Accreditation Board.

37
 ANNEXURE IV

Eligibility Qualifications at 10+2 Examination for Degree Programmes

Code Degree Programme Subjects which the candidate must Subjects to be attempted in
No for Admission have passed in 10+2 Examination the Entrance Examination

01 [Link]. (Hons.) Agriculture PCB/PCMB/ PCM/Inter-Agriculture PCB/PCM/PCA/ABC

02 [Link]. (Hons.) Horticulture PCB/PCMB/PCM/Inter-Agriculture PCB/PCM/PCA/ABC

03 [Link]. PCB/PCMB/ Inter-Agriculture PCB/PCA/ABC

04 [Link]. (Hons.) Forestry PCB/PCMB/ Inter-Agriculture PCB/PCA/ABC

05 [Link]. (Hons.) Community Science PCB/ PCMB/ PCM PCB/PCM

06 Food Nutrition and Dietetics* PCB/ PCMB/ PCM PCB/PCM

07 [Link]. (Hons.) Sericulture PCB/ PCMB/ PCM PCB/PCM

08 B. Tech. Agricultural Engineering PCM/ PCMB PCM

09 B. Tech. Dairy Technology PCM/PCMB PCM

10 B. Tech. Food Technology PCM/PCMB PCM

11 B. Tech. Bio- Technology PCM/PCMB/PCB PCM/PCB

* Subject to accreditation by National Agricultural Education Accreditation Board.

P= PHYSICS C= CHEMISTRY
B= BIOLOGY M= MATHEMATICS
A= AGRICULTURE

Note: As per the V Deans Committee Report, Agril. Marketing & Co-operation subject has been dropped for Admission
to UG degree program through ICAR- AIEEA-UG w.e.f. the Academic Session 2017-18.

 Candidates must ensure that they

1. Fullfill eligibility criteria for choosing the subject combination.
2. Attemp same combination in the test which they have selected in Application form.

38
 ANNEXURE V

List of ICAR accredited Bachelor’s degree programmes and Colleges of Dr. RPCAU, Pusa

Name of University & year of Period of College Period of Bachelor Degree

Establishment Accreditation Accreditation Programmes
Rajendra Agricultural Five years w.e.f. College of Home Five years w.e.f. [Link].(Home Science)
University, Pusa, Samastipur 28.03.2016 to Science, Pusa 28.03.2016 to
(Bihar) (1978) 27.03.2021 27.03.2021
(Extended for (Extended for
Academic Session Academic Session
2021-22 ) 2021-22 )
Faculty of Basic Five years w.e.f. B. Tech.
Sciences and 28.03.2016 to (Biotechnology)
Humanities, Pusa 27.03.2021
(Extended for
Academic Session
2021-22 )
T.C.A. Dholi, Accredited up to [Link]. (Ag.) Hons.
Muzaffarpur 27.03.2021
(Extended for
Academic Session
2021-22 )

39
 ANNEXURE VI

NUMERIC CODES FOR CLASS XII SCHOOL EDUCATION BOARDS/COUNCIL

[Link]. Education Boards/Council Code
1. Andhra Pradesh Board of Intermediate Education 01
2. Assam Higher Secondary Education Council 02
3. Bihar Intermediate Education Council 03
4. Central Board of Secondary Education 04
5. Chhattisgarh MadhyamikShikshaMandal 05
6. Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations 06
7. Goa Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education 07
8. Gujarat Secondary Education Board 08
9. Haryana Board of School Education 09
10. H.P. Board of School Education 10
11. J&K State Board of School Education 11
12. Jharkhand Academic Council 12
13. Karnataka Board of School Education 13
14. Kerala Board of Public Examinations 14
15. Madhya Pradesh Board of Secondary Education 15
16. Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education 16
17. Manipur Council of Higher Secondary Education 17
18. Meghalaya Board of Secondary Education 18
19. Mizoram Board of School Education 19
20. Nagaland Board of School Education 20
21. Orissa Council of Higher Secondary Education 21
22. Punjab School Education Board 22
23. Rajasthan Board of Secondary Education 23
24. Tamil Nadu Board of Higher Secondary Education 24
25. Tripura Board of Secondary Education 25
26. U.P. Board of High School & Intermediate Education 26
27. Uttarakhand Board of High School & Intermediate Education 27
28. West Bengal Council of Higher Secondary Education 28
29. National Open School 29
30. Other Boards (Not specified above) 30
31. Telangana Board of Secondary Education 31

40
 ANNEXURE VII

Mode of Payment of Fee/ Service Provider and Bank Service Charges

After completing Step-3 of Online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee (Step -4) by choosing the
following options:

Online Mode i.e. Debit/ Credit card, Net Banking and Unified Payment Interface (UPI) in ICICI Bank or HDFC Bank or
Canara Bank:
 Check the validity of the Debit/ Credit Card and keep it ready with you while logging on to website for submitting
application form. Candidate should enter the information asked for and make payment through Debit/ Credit Card.
 Through Net Banking, check the balance in your account and keep all credentials ready with you while logging on to
website for submitting application form. Candidate should Login with his/her credentials of net banking and make
payment through Net Banking.
Please select any Mode of Payment/Service Provider (Service/Processing charges per transaction& GST (applicable @
18 %) to be paid by the candidate):
S. Mode of STATE BANK OF
ICICI BANK HDFC BANK CANARA BANK PAYTM
No Payment INDIA
Canara NIL SBI
ICICI NIL Charge HDFC NIL Charge
Net Bank Charge Rs Rs 4 +GST
1
Banking Other Other Other 5.00 + Other 5.00+GST
4.00 + GST 4.00 + GST
Banks Banks Banks GST Banks
Transa Transactio Transactio
ction 0% n upto n upto 0%
upto Rs 2000/- 0 Rs 2000/-
Only
Rs % Canara
ICICI or HDFC or Rupay
All Debit 2000/- Bank or Only Rupay Card, No
2 Other Other Card,
Card Transa 0% Transactio Other charge Transactio Only
Banks Banks No
ction n above 0 Banks n above Rupay
charge
above Rs 2000/- % Rs 2000/- Card,
Rs No
2000/- charge
0.80% of
0.80% Domestic
Domest 0.40% of 0.40% of Fee + Domesti Dome Fee+ GST 0.4%+
Domestic of Fee (Minimum
ic Transaction value GST c stic (Minimum GST
+ GST Rs. 12)
Credit Rs 11/-)
3
Card 3.50% of
2.35%
Internat 2.35% of Internation Internati Interna Fee+ GST Internation 3.5%+
Nil Charge of Fee+
ional Transaction value al onal tional (Minimum al GST
GST
Rs 11/-)
Transa Transactio
ction 0% n upto 0%
upto Rs 2000/-
Unified Rs
ICICI or
Payment 2000/-
4 other Nil Charge
Interface Transa 5.0 % Transactio 0.65 %
banks
(UPI) ction + GST n above + GST
above Rs 2000/-
Rs
2000/-
PAYTM 0.8%+
Wallet GST
Charge

Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following:-
(i) If the fee is paid through credit/debit card and status is not OK, it means the transaction is cancelled.
Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK fee status.
(ii) For cancelled transactions, the amount will, automatically, be refunded by the concerned Bank to
concerned credit/debit card within 15 days of last date of submission of Application Form.

41
2. Helplines:

(a) If Paying through State Bank of India (SBI):

Sl. Name Email ID Contact Number

1 CMS Team merchant@[Link]
2 Helpdesk1 [Link]@[Link] 18004253800
3 Customer Care [Link]@[Link] 1800112211
4 Helpdesk2 sbi.05222@[Link] 08026599990/ 0120-2497771
5 Through SMS UNHAPPY (add text) 8008202020

(b) If Paying through Canara Bank:

Sl. Name Email ID Contact Number

1 Helpdesk pgsupport@[Link]
Complaint Management
2 genadmnronoida@[Link]
Services 9984021340
3 Customer Care genadmnronoida@[Link]
4 Through SMS genadmnronoida@[Link]

(c) If Paying through HDFC Bank:

Sl. Name Email ID Contact Number

1 Shri Vikram Singh vikram.singh4@[Link] 9799810080
2. Amit Singh amit.singh26@[Link] 7428869770
3 Shri Ripon Bhattacharjee [Link]@[Link] 9625031697

(d) If Paying through ICICI Bank:

Sl. Name Email ID Contact Number

1 Aiysha Khatun [Link]@[Link] 01204728426
2 Vishal Kumar vishal.kumar5@[Link] 7428928047

(e) If Paying through PAYTM:

Sl. Name Email ID Contact Number

1 Helpdesk [Link]@[Link] 0120 4789525
2 Ankush [Link]@[Link] 0120 4789526

(f) NTA Helpdesk Contact details (incase the payment related issues are not resolved through the above
mentioned Helplines of the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator):

Email: icar@[Link]
Phone No.: 011-40759000

42
 ANNEXURE VIII

Replica of AIEEA (UG)-2021 Application Form

43
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45
46
47
48
49
50
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52
53
54
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57
 ANNEXURE IX

Computer Based Test (CBT)

A CBT requires candidate to sit in front of a computer terminal (node) allocated to him/her by the Exam Cemtre against
his/her Roll number and Admit card. After logging the candidate will get detailed instructions for the examination. At the
designated time of start of examination, the candidate will be able to proceed and see the questions on the computer
screen using the computer mouse. Candidate will have the option to change / modify/ edit / answers already entered
any time during the examination.

Procedure for appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT):

(Sample/mock test will be available on NTA website: [Link] for hands on practice)

(a) A computer terminal (node) indicating roll number will be allocated to each candidate. The Candidate has to sit
before his /her allocated computer only. Any candidate found to have changed room/hall or the computer on their
own other than the one allotted would lead to cancellation of candidature and no plea in this regard would be
entertained.
(b) For login, the candidate will have to enter login-ID and password. The computer terminal allotted to the candidate
will display WELCOME login screen, Candidate’s photograph and subject opted by the candidate.

Candidate Login Page

Candidate Welcome Screen

(c) After login, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the examination. Candidate is advised to
go through the instructions carefully regarding the type of questions and marking scheme. At the designated time of
start of the examination, the candidate will be able to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen.

58
General Instruction Page
Please read the Instructions carefully
General Instructions:
1. Total duration of Examination is 60 minutes.
2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display the remaining
time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the Examination will end by
itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination.
3. The Questions Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the
following symbols:
You have not visited the question yet.
You have not answered the question.
You have answered the question.
You have NOT answered the question but have marked the question for review.
The question(s) "Answered and Marked for Review" will be considered for evaluation.
4. You can click on the ">" arrow which appears to the left of question palette to collapse the question palette
thereby maximizing the question window. To view the question palette again, you can click on "<" which
appears on the right side of question window.
5. You can click on your "Profile" image on top right corner of your screen to change the language during the exam
for entire question paper. On clicking of Profile image you will get a drop-down to change the question content
to the desired language.

6. You can click on to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to top of the question are, without
scrolling.

Navigating a Question:

7. To answer a question, do the following:

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of your screen to go to that numbered
question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the current question.
b. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the next question.
c. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question, mark it for review, and
then go to the next question.

Answering a Question:

8. Procedure for answering a multiple-choice type question:

a. To select you answer, click on the button of one of the options.
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the Clear
Response button
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.
e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button.
9. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that question for answering
and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

59
Navigating through Sections:

10. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be viewed
by click on the section name. The section you are currently viewing is highlighted.
11. After click the Save & Next button on the last question for a section, you will automatically be taken to the first
question of the next section.
12. You can shuffle between sections and questions anything during the Examination as per your convenience only
during the time stipulated.
13. Candidate can view the corresponding section summery as part of the legend that appears in every section
above the question palette.

The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration of the examination. Depending
on the type of question, the answers to questions can either be entered by clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard
(numeric or otherwise) using the computer mouse or by clicking the chosen option(s) using the computer mouse.
Candidates will have the option to change/modify answers already entered anytime during the entire duration of the
examination.
In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions anytime during the test, he/she will be immediately
allotted another computer system and the time lost due to this will be adjusted in the server so as to give the candidate
the full allotted time.

The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right
side of computer screen will display the time remaining (in minutes) available for the candidate to complete the
examination. When the timer reaches zero, the Examination will end by itself. Candidate will not be required to end or
submit the examination.

(d) The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the
following symbols:

60
The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that candidate would like to have a
relook at that question again. A candidate has the option of answering a question and simultaneously “Marked for
Review”, these answers will be considered for evaluation. However, if a candidate has simply put “Marked for Review”
for a question without answering it, the corresponding question marked for review without an answer will not be
considered for evaluation. It may be noted that a candidate can return to any “Marked for Review” question any time
during the Examination by clicking on the corresponding question number icon displayed on the Question Palette of the
corresponding section.

(e) Candidate can click on the “>” arrow which appears to the left of question palette to collapse the question palette
thereby maximizing the question viewing window. To view the question palette again, candidate can click on “<”
which appears on the right side of question window.
(f) Candidate can click on to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the question area, without scrolling.
Using the computer mouse the candidate can scroll up and down the question viewing area for viewing the entire
question.
(g) The full paper can be viewed by clicking the “Question Paper” icon on the top right corner of the screen.
(h) Blank Sheets for doing rough work/calculations shall be provided to the candidates. The Blanks Sheets would have a
Header page for the candidates to write down his/her Name and Roll Number. All calculations/writing work are to be
done only in the Blank Sheets provided at the centre in the Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test
candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
(i) Navigating a Question To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:
(a) Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of the screen to go to that numbered
question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save the answer to the currently displayed question.
(b) Click on “Save & Next” to save the answer of any question. Clicking on “Save & Next” will save the answer
for the current question and the next question will be displayed on the candidate’s computer screen.
(c) Click on “Mark for Review & Next” to mark a question for review (without answering it) and proceed to the
next question.

61
 (j) Answering a Question

To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:

(i) Procedure for answering a multiple-choice type question:
(a) To select the option(s), click on the corresponding button(s) of the option(s).
(b) To deselect the chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the “Clear
Response” button.
(c) To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.
(d) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review & Next” button.

(k) Navigating through sections:

(i) Sections in the question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be
viewed by clicking on the section name. The section in which candidate is currently viewing will be
highlighted.
(ii) After clicking the “Save & Next” button on the last question for a section, candidate will automatically
be taken to the first question of the next section.
(iii) Candidate can shuffle between sections and questions within sections anytime during the Examination
as per the convenience only during the time stipulated.
(iv) Candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend that appears in every
section above the question palette.

Question Panel

Respective Option

Navigation Panel
Question Palette

(l) Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from on-screen virtual key board (numeric or otherwise):
(a) Candidate will have to use the on-screen virtual keyboard (that would be displayed just below the question
statement of these types of questions) and the attached computer mouse to enter his/her answer in the space
provided for answer.
On Screen Virtual Keyboard

62
 (b) The answer can be changed, if required, anytime during the test. To save the answer, the candidate MUST click
on the “Save & Next” button.
(c) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review & Next” button.

Candidate will have the option to change previously saved answer of any question, anytime during the entire
duration of the test. To change the answer to a question that has already been answered, first select the
corresponding question from the Question Palette, then click on “Clear Response” to clear the previously
entered answer and subsequently follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

(m) ROUGH WORK:

All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the Centre in the Examination
Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in
the Room/Hall.

63
 ANNEXURE X
National Testing Agency (NTA)
Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores for multi session Papers
(Normalization procedure based on PERCENTILE SCORE)

NTA will be conducting examinations on multiple dates, generally in two sessions per day. The candidates will be given
different sets of questions per session and it is quite possible that in spite of all efforts of maintaining equivalence
among various question papers, the difficulty level of these question papers administered in different sessions may not
be exactly the same. Some of the candidates may end up attempting a relatively tougher set of questions when
compared to other sets. The candidates who attempt the comparatively tougher examination are likely to get lower
marks as compared to those who attempt the easier one. In order to overcome such a situation, “Normalization
procedure based on Percentile Score” will be used for ensuring that candidates are neither benefitted nor
disadvantaged due to the difficulty level of the examination. With the objective of ensuring that a candidate’s true
merit is identified, and that a level playing field is created in the above context, the Normalization Procedure, set out
below shall be adopted, for compiling the NTA scores for multi session papers.
The process of Normalization is an established practice for comparing candidate scores across multi session papers and
is similar to those being adopted in other large educational selection tests conducted in India. For normalization across
sections, NTA shall use the percentile equivalence.
Percentile Scores: Percentile scores are scores based on the relative performance of all those who appear for the
examination. Basically the marks obtained are transformed into a scale ranging from 100 to 0 for each session of
examinees.
The Percentile Score indicates the percentage of candidates that have scored EQUAL TO OR BELOW (same or lower raw
scores) that particular Percentile in that examination. Therefore the topper(highest score) of each session will get the
same Percentile of 100 which is desirable. The marks obtained in between the highest and lowest scores are also
converted to appropriate Percentiles.
The Percentile score will be the Normalized Score for the examination (instead of the raw marks of the candidate) and
shall be used for preparation of the merit lists.
The Percentile Scores will be calculated up to 7 decimal places to avoid bunching effect and reduce ties.
The Percentile score of a Candidate is calculated as follows:
100 X Number of candidates appeared in the ‘Session’ with raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS than the candidate
Total number of the candidates appeared in the ’Session’
Note: The Percentile of the Total shall NOT be an aggregate or average of the Percentile of individual [Link]
score is not the same as percentage of marks obtained.
Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 sessions of examinees as per details given below:-
(Allocation of Days and shifts were done randomly)
(a) Distribution of candidates were as follows:
Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2, Session-3: Day-2 Shift-1 and Session-4: Day-2 Shift-2

Session Day/Shift No of Candidates Marks

Absent Appeared Total Highest Lowest
Session-1 Day-1 Shift-1 3974 28012 31986 335 -39
Session-2 Day-1 Shift-2 6189 32541 38730 346 -38
Session-3 Day-2 Shift-1 6036 41326 47362 331 -49
Session-4 Day-2 Shift-2 9074 40603 49677 332 -44
Total(Session-1 to Session-4) 25273 142482 167755 346 -49

64
In this method of scoring the HIGHEST RAW SCORE in each paper (irrespective of the raw scores) will be the 100
Percentile indicating that 100% of candidates have scores equal to or lesserthanthe highest scorer/ topper for that
session.
Highest Raw Score and Percentile Score: All the highest raw scores will have normalized Percentile Score of 100 for their
respective session.

Session Total Highest Candidates who Percentile Score Remarks

Candidates Raw scored EQUAL OR
Appeared Score LESS THAN Highest
Raw Score
28012 335 28012 100.0000000 i.e. all the highest
Session-1
[(28012/28012)*100] raw scores would be
32541 346 32541 100.0000000 normalized to 100
Session -2
[(32541/32541)*100] Percentile Score for
41326 331 41326 100.0000000 their respective
Session -3
[(41326/41326)*100] session.
40603 332 40603 100.0000000
Session -4
[(40603/40603)*100]
Lowest Raw Score and Percentile Score: Percentile Score of all the lowest raw scores will depend on the total number of
candidates who have taken the examination for their respective session.
Session Total Lowest Candidates who Percentile Score Remarks
Candidates Raw scored EQUAL OR
Appeared Score LESS THAN Lowest
Raw Score
Session -1 28012 -39 1 0.0035699 i.e. Percentile Score of
[(1/28012)*100] all the lowest raw
Session -2 32541 -38 1 0.0030730 scores are different i.e.
[(1/32541)*100] Percentile Scoredepend
Session -3 41326 -49 1 0.0024198 on the total number of
[(1/41326)*100] candidates who have
Session -4 40603 -44 1 0.0024629 taken the examination
[(1/40603)*100] for their respective
session.
The following is a further explanation of the interpretation of the raw scores and Percentile Score in Session-3 (Day-2
and Shift-1) with 41326 candidates who have taken the examination.
Candidate Percentile No of Raw Remark
Score Candidates Score
A 100.0000000 1 331 Indicates that amongst those appeared, 100% have scored
[(41326/41326 either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate A (331 raw
)*100] score).
It also indicates that no candidate has scored more than the
candidate A (331 raw score).
B 90.1224411 77 121 Indicates that amongst those appeared, 90.1224411% have
[(37244/41326 scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate B (121
)*100] raw score).
It also indicates that remaining candidates have scored more
than candidate B (121 raw score).
C 50.4549194 381 41 Indicates that amongst those appeared, 50.4549194% have
[(20851/41326 scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate C (41
)*100] raw score).
It also indicates that remaining those appeared have scored
more than candidate C (41 raw score).
D 31.7040120 789 25 Indicates that amongst those appeared, 31.7040120% have
65
 [(13102/41326 scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate D (25
)*100] raw score)
It also indicates that remaining candidates have scored more
than candidate D (25 raw score).
E 1.1034216 100 -15 Indicates that amongst those appeared, 1.1034216% have
[(456/41326)* scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate E (-15
100] raw score)
It also indicates that remaining candidates have scored more
than candidate E (-15 raw score)
STEP-BY-STEP PROCEDURE FOR NORMALIZATION AND PREPARATION OF RESULT:

Step-1: Distribution of Examinees in two shifts:

Candidates have to be distributed into two sessions randomly so that each session has approximately equal
number of candidates. These two sessions would be as follows:
Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2
In the event of more number of days or less number of shifts, the candidates will be divided accordingly.
This will ensure that there is no bias in the distribution of candidates who shall take the examination. Further,
with a large population of examinees spread over the entire country the possibility of such bias becomes remote.

Step-2: Preparation of Results for each Session:

The examination results for each session would be prepared in the form of
 Raw Scores
 Percentiles Scores of Total raw scores.
The Percentiles would be calculated for each candidate in the Session as follows:
Let TP1 be the Percentile Scores of Total Raw Score of that candidate.

No. of candidates appeared from the session with raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS than T1
Total Percentile
100 X score
(TP1) :
Total No. of candidates appeared in the session

Step-3: Compilation of NTA score and Preparation of Result:

The Percentile scores for the Total Raw Score for all the sessions (Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1
Shift-2) as calculated in Step-2 above would be merged and shall be called the NTA scores which will then be
used for compilation of result and further processing for deciding the allocation.

In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the lowest will be the eligibility
cut-off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).

For Example: In an the examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a Percentile score of 78 in
Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78 percentiles (Percentile score of 100 to 78) in both
shifts will become eligible in General Category. Similar method will be adopted for the other categories to
determine eligibility cut-offs.

In case the examination is held in more number of shifts the same principle shall apply.

66
 ANNEXURE XI
FORMAT OF THE CERTIFICATE FOR THE CANDIDATES UNDER PERSONS WITH BENCHMARK DISABILITY CATEGORY
(PwBD)

NAME & ADDRESS OF THE INSTITUTE/HOSPITAL ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE

Affix Recent
Certificate No. : Date: Passport size
Attested
CERTIFICATE FOR PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES Photograph
here

This is to certify that Shri/Smt/Kum*) _________________________________________________________

son/daughter* of Shri ______________________ Age _____________ years, Registration No.
___________________________________ is a case of Locomotor disability/Cerebral Palsy/Blindness/Low vision/Hearing
impairment/Other disability* and has been suffering from degree of disability not less than
________________________________ % (______________________________________________). The details of
his/her above mentioned disability is described below:

(IN CAPITAL LETTERS)

___________________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________________
____________

Note:-
1. This condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve.*
2. Re-assessment is not recommended/is recommended after a period of __________________________
months/years.
3. The certificate is issued as per PWBD Act, 1995.
* Strike out whichever is not applicable.

Sd/- Sd/- Sd/-

(DOCTOR) (DOCTOR) (DOCTOR)
Seal Seal Seal

Signature/Thumb impression of the person

Countersigned by the
Medical Superintendent/CMO/
Head of Hospital (With Seal)

67
 ANNEXURE XII
Certificate regarding physical limitation to write in an examination
Certificate No. ____________________________ Dated _________________________
Affix Passport size
Photograph of the
This is to certify that Mr./Ms. ________________________________________________________ candidate (same as
uploaded on the
Aged__________ Years, Son/Daughter of Mr./Mrs. ______________________________________ Online Application
Form) duly attested by
R/o _____________________________________________________________________________
the issuing authority
_________________________________________________________________________________,

with AIEEA 2021 Application No. ______________________ and AIEEA (UG) 2021 Roll No.
_______________________________________,has the following Disability (name of the Specified Disability)
___________________ in (percentage) of _____________________________________________ (in words)
__________________________ (in Figures).
 Please tick on the “Specified Disability”
(Assessment may be done on the basis of Gazette of India. Extraordinary, Part-II, Section 3 Sub-section (ii), Ministry
of Social Justice and Empowerment)

S. Category Type of Disability Specified Disability

No.
1. Physical Disability Locomotor Disability a. Leprosy cured person, b. cerebral palsy, c.
dwarfism, d. muscular dystrophy, e. acid attack
victims.
Visual Impairment a. blindness, b. low vision
Hearing Impairment a. deaf, b. hard of hearing
Speech & Language Permanent disability arising out of conditions such as
Disability laryngectomy or aphasia affecting one or more
components of speech and language due to organic or
neurological causes.
2. Intellectual Disability a. specific learning disabilities/perceptual disabilities:
Dyslexia, Dysgraphia, Dyscalculia, Dyspraxia &
Developmental Aphasia)
b. autism spectrum disorder
3. Mental Behaviour a. mental illness
4. Disability caused due i. Chronic Neurological a. multiple sclerosis
to Conditions b. Parkinson’s disease
ii. Blood disorder a. Haemophilia, b. Thalassemia, c. Sickle cell disease
5. Multiple Disabilities More than one of the above specified disabilities
including deaf blindness

This is to further certify that he/she has physical limitation which hampers his/her writing capabilities to write the
Examination owing to his/her disability.
Signature

Name: ____________________
Chief Medical Officer/ Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent
Government Health Care Institution with Seal

68
 ANNEXURE XIII
Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe

I ____________________________, a candidate with __________________ (name of the disability) appearing for the
_______________________ (name of the examination) bearing Roll No. ____________________ at ________________
(name of the centre) in the District _____________________________, _______________________ (name of the State).
My qualification is ________________________.

I do hereby state that __________________ (name of the scribe) will provide the service of scribe/reader/lab assistant
for the undersigned for taking the aforesaid examination.

I do hereby undertake that his qualification is _______________. In case, subsequently it is found that his qualification is
not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond my qualification, I shall forfeit my right to admission through the
examination.

I further certify that the scribe whose photograph and particulars are mentioned below, is not COVID-19 + and a
certificate to this effect from Competent Authority is enclosed to this letter.

(Signature of the candidate with Disability)

Place:
Date: Affix Recent
Passport size
Attested
Photograph
here
(Self-Attested Photograph)
Name of Scribe ID of the Scribe ID Number

69
 ANNEXURE XIV

INDICATIVE AND TENTATIVE LIST* OF UNIVERSITIES FOR ADMISSION IN BACHELOR DEGREE PROGRAMMES IN
AGRICULTURE AND ALLIED SCIENCE SUBJECTS THROUGH AIEEA-UG-2021, ADDRESSES AND CONTACT NUMBERS

Sl. Name of University Registrars Registrars E-mail IDs

No. Contact Nos.
1. Acharya N G Ranga Agricultural University, 0863-2347101 registrarangrau@[Link]
Administrative Office, Lam, Guntur, Andhra
Pradesh - 522 034 (AP)
2. Agriculture University, Borkhera, PB No. 20 0744-2321205 aukota2013@[Link]
GPO Nayapura, Kota-324001 (Rajasthan)
3. Agriculture University, Mandor, Jodhpur- 0291-2570711 vcunivag@[Link]
342304 (Rajasthan)
4. Anand Agricultural University, Anand-388110 02692-261310 registrar@[Link]
(Gujarat)
5. Assam Agricultural University, Jorhat-785013 0376-2340008 registrar@[Link]
(Assam)
6. Banda University of Agriculture and 0519-2232312 [Link]@[Link]
Technology, Chilla Road, Banda-210 001
(Uttar Pradesh)
7. Central Agricultural University, Iroisemba, 03852-410644 regcau@[Link],
Imphal-795004 (Manipur) regcau@[Link]
8. Chandra Shekhar Azad University of 05122-533791 registrar@[Link],
Agriculture and Technology, Kanpur-208002 [Link]@[Link]
(Uttar Pradesh)
9. Chaudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural 01662-234613 regi@[Link]
University, Hisar (Haryana)
10. Dau Shri Vasudev Chandrakar Kamdhenu 07882-623465 registrarcgkv2012@[Link]
Vishwavidyalaya, Durg (Chhattisgarh)
11. CSK Himachal Pradesh KrishiVishvavidyalaya, 01894-230383 registrar@[Link]
Palampur-176 062 (Himachal Pradesh)
12. Dr. Balasaheb Sawant Konkan Krishi 02358-282065 regrdbskkv@[Link],
Vidyapeeth, Tal. Dapoli, Dist. Ratnagiri-415 [Link]@[Link]
712, (MS)
13. Dr. Panjabrao Deshmukh Krishi Vidyapeeth 0724-2258372 registrar@[Link]
Akola, P.O. Krishi Nagar, Akola-444104 (MS)
14. Dr. Rajendra Prasad Central Agricultural 06274-240239 registrar@[Link]
University, Pusa, Samastipur - 848 125 (Bihar)
15. Dr. Y.S.R Horticultural University, Post Box # 08818-284311 registrar@[Link]
7, Venkataramannagudem-534 101, West
Godavari District (Andhra Pradesh)
16. Faculty of Agriculture, Institute of 0542-2307222, [Link]@[Link]
Agricultural Sciences, BHU, Varanasi-221005 2368558
(UP)
17. Faculty of Fisheries, Kerala University of 0484 2703782 registrar@[Link],
Fisheries and Ocean Studies, Kochi (Kerala)
18. G.B. Pant University of Agriculture and (05944) 233640 chawlahs15@[Link],
Technology, Pantnagar (Uttarakhand) registrar_pantvarsity@[Link],
admcoordinator_pnt@[Link]
19. Guru AngadDev Veterinary and Animal 0161-2553343 registrargadvasu@[Link],sp1962@yah
Sciences University, Firozepur Road, [Link]
Ludhiana-141 004 (Punjab)

70
Sl. Name of University Registrars Registrars E-mail IDs
No. Contact Nos.
20. ICAR-National Dairy Research Institute, 0184-2259023/ jda@[Link], jdadmin@[Link],
Karnal-132001 (Haryana) 2252022 susanta_saha_1@[Link]
21. Indira Gandhi Krishi Vishwavidyalaya, Krishak 0771-2442537 regigkv@[Link]
Nagar, Raipur-492 012 (Chhattisgarh)
22. Junagadh Agricultural University, Near 0285-2672346 registrar@[Link]
Motibaugh, Vanthali Road, Junagadh-362001
(Gujarat)
23. Kamdhenu University, Karmayogi Bhavan, 079-2322013 registrar@[Link],
Block-1, B1-wing, 4th Floor, Sector-10-A, Di: [Link]@[Link]
Gandhinagar-382010 (Gujarat) (Non-
accredited)
24. Karnataka Veterinary, Animal and Fisheries 0848-2245241 regkvafsu@[Link]
Sciences University, PB No 6, Nandinagar,
Bidar-585 401 (Karnataka)
25. Kerala Agricultural University, KAU P.O., 0487-2438011 registrar@[Link]
Vellanikkara, Thrissur-680656 (Kerala)
26. Kerala Veterinary and Animal Sciences 04936 209215 pstovc@[Link], kishor@[Link]
University, Pookode, Wayanad -673 576
(Kerala)
27. MaharanaPratap University of Agriculture & 0294-2471302 registrar@[Link]
Technology, Udaipur (Rajasthan)
28. Maharashtra Animal & Fishery Sciences 0712-2511784, registrarmafsu@[Link]
University, Futala Lake Road, Nagpur - 440 0712-2511785,
001 (MS) 0712-2511787,
2053657
29. Mahatma PhuleKrishiVidyapeeth, Rahuri, 02426-243226 [Link]@[Link]
Distt. Ahmednagar-413722 (MS)
30. SASARD, Nagaland University, Medziphema, 0369-2268270 arSASARD@[Link],
Lumani, Zunheboto Dist. -798627 registrar@[Link],
(Nagaland) deanSASARD@[Link],
31. Navsari Agricultural University, Navsari-396 (02637)282823 registrar@[Link]
450 (Gujarat)
32. Acharya Narendra Dev University of 05270-262035 [Link].15@[Link],
Agriculture & Technology, Faizabad (UP)
33. Orissa University of Agriculture and 06742-397424 registrarouat@[Link]
Technology, Bhubaneswar-751003 (Odisha)
34. Professor Jayashankar Telangana State 0402-4002314 regrpjtsau@[Link]
Agricultural University, Hyderabad-500030
(Telangana)
35. Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana- 01612-400955 registrar@[Link]
141004 (Punjab)
36. Palli Siksha Bhavana, Visva-Bharati, 03463-261531 registrar@[Link],
Santineketan, Birbhum (West Bengal)
37. Rajmata Vijayaraje Scindia Krishi Vishwa 0751-2970519 registrar.rvskvv09@[Link]
Vidyalaya, Raja Pancham Singh Marg,
Gwalior-474002 (Madhya Pradesh)
38. Rani Lakshmi Bai Central Agricultural 0510-2730555 [Link]@[Link],
University, Jhansi, (UP) Camp Office: Room mukeshcsau@[Link]
No 213, KAB-II, Pusa, New Delhi-12
39. SardarVallabhBhai Patel University of 01212-2888525 brsingh2000@[Link] ,
Agriculture & Technology, NH-58, Roorkee registrarsvpmeerut@[Link]
Road, Modipuram, Meerut-250110 (Uttar
71
 Sl. Name of University Registrars Registrars E-mail IDs
No. Contact Nos.
Pradesh)

40. Sher-e- Kashmir University of Agricultural 0191-2262012 registrar@[Link]

Sciences & Technology of Jammu, Main
Campus Chatha, Jammu-180009, (J&K)
41. Sher-e-Kashmir University of Agricultural 0194-2461271 registrar@[Link]
Sciences and Technology of Kashmir,
Shalimar Campus, Srinagar-190025, (J&K)
42. Sri Karan Narendra Agriculture University 01425-254980 registrar@[Link]
Jobner-303329, Jaipur (Rajasthan)
43. Sri Konda Laxman Telangana State 040-24014301 registrar@[Link], registrarskltshu@g
Horticultural University, Rajendra [Link]
Prasadnagar, Hyderabad-500 030 (Telangana)
44. Sri PV Narsimha Rao Telangana State 040-24002114 virojiraosindhe@[Link]
University for Veterinary, Animal and Fishery
Sciences, Administrative Office, Rajendra
Prasadnagar, Hyderabad-500 030 (Telangana)
45. Sri Venkateswara Veterinary University, Dr. 0877 2248894 registrarsvvutpt@[Link],registrar@svvu.
Y.S.R. Bhavan, Tirupati - 517 502 (AP) [Link]
46. Swami Keshwanand Rajasthan Agricultural 0151-2250025 reg@[Link]
University, Bikaner-334006 (Rajasthan)
47. Tamil Nadu Agricultural University, 0422-6611201 registrar@[Link]
Coimbatore-641 003 (Tamil Nadu)
48. Tamil Nadu Dr. J. Jayalalithaa Fisheries 04365-240088 registrar@[Link]
University, First Line Beach Road,
Nagapattinam-611 001 (Tamil Nadu)
49. University of Agricultural and Horticultural 08182-267011 registarsshimoga@[Link]
Sciences, Savalanga Road, Shivamogga-577
204 (Karnataka)
50. University of Agricultural Sciences, GKVK, 080-23330984 registrar@[Link]
Bellary Road, Bangalore-560 065 (Karnataka)
51. University of Agricultural Sciences, Krishi 0836-2214420 registrar@[Link]
Nagar, Dharwad-580 005 (Karnataka)
52. University of Agricultural Sciences, Raichur 08432-220157 registrar@[Link]
(Karnataka)
53. University of Horticultural Sciences, 08354-230276 registrar@[Link]
Udyanagiri, Bagalkot-587104 (Karnataka)
54. Uttar BangaKrishiViswavidyalaya, PO 03582-270588 registrarubkvv@[Link]
Pundbari, Cooch Behar-736 165 (West
Bengal)
55. VasantraoNaikMarathwadaKrishiVidyapeeth, 02452-223801 reg_mau@[Link]
Parbhani-431402 (MS)
56. West Bengal University of Animal & Fishery 03325-563123 danashyamsundar@[Link]
Sciences, 37 & 68, KB Sarani, Kolkata-700037
(West Bengal)
*The final list of universities for admission to Bachelor’s degree programmes will be available at the time of
counseling.

72
 ANNEXURE XV
CASTE CERTIFICATE FOR SCHEDULED CASTE/TRIBE CANDIDATE

1. This is to certify that Shri/Smt.*/Kumari* ……………………………………………… Son/daughter* of …………………………………………. Of

village/town* …………………………….... in District/Division* ……………………………………….. of the State/Union Territory* ……………………….
Belong to the …………………………………………………………Caste/Tribe* which is recognized as a Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe* under :
*The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950
*The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951
{As amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Lists (Modification Order) 1956, the Bombay Reorganization Act, 1960, the
Punjab Reorganization Act 1966, the State of Himachal Pradesh Act, 1970, the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971 and the
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976}
*The Constitution (Jammu & Kashmir) Scheduled Castes Order, 1956;
*The Constitution (Andaman & Nicobar Islands) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1959, as amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act 1976;
*The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Castes Order, 1962;
*The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1962;
*The Constitution (Pondicherry) Scheduled Castes Order, 1964;
*The Constitution (Uttar Pradesh) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1967;
*The Constitution (Goa, Daman and Diu) Scheduled Castes Order, 1968;
*The Constitution (Nagaland) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1970
*The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Castes Order, 1978
*The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1978
*The Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1989
*The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Orders (Amendment) Act, 1990
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order Amendment Act, 1991
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order Second Amendment Act, 1991

2. This certificate is issued on the basis of the Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes Certificate issued to Shri/Smt*
……………………………………father/mother* of Shri/Smt/Kumari ……………………………. Of ………………………. Village/ town*……………………
in District/Division*……………………… of the State/Union Territory* ……………………………….. who belongs to the
…………………………..Caste/Tribe* which is recognized as a Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe* in the State/Union Territory*
………………………… issued by the ……………………………………………………. Dated ……………………
3. Shri/Smt*/Kumari* …………………………………………… and/or* his/her family ordinarily reside(s) in village/town*
………………………………………….. of ………………….………………… District/Division* of the State/Union Territory of …………………………………
Signature …………………… ……
Designation………………………
(With seal of Office)
Place : … ………………… State
Date : ……………….…. Union Territory
NOTE: The term “Ordinarily resides” used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the Peoples Act,
1950.
*Please delete the words which are not applicable.
AUTHORITIES EMPOWERED TO ISSUE SCHEDULED CASTE/SCHEDULED TRIBE CERTIFICATES
{G.I. Dept. of Per. & Trg. O.M. No. 3012//88-Estt. (SCT), (SRD III) dated 24.04.1990}
The under mentioned authorities have been empowered to issue Caste Certificates of verification :
1. District Magistrate/Additional District Magistrate/Collector/Deputy Commissioner/ Additional Deputy Commissioner/Deputy
Collector/First class Stipendiary Magistrate/Sub Divisional Magistrate/Taluka Magistrate/Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant
Commissioner.
2. Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate.
3. Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar
4. Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his/her family normally resides

73
 ANNEXURE XVI
FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES-NON CREAMY LAYER (OBC-NCL) APPLYING
FOR ADMISSION TO CENTRAL EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS (CEIs), UNDER THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA

This is to certify that Shri/Smt./Kum.................................................................................Son/Daughter of Shri/Smt

............................................................................... of Village / Town............................................ District/Division
....................................................... in the....................................................State belongs to
the................................................Community which is recognized as a backward class under:

(i) Resolution No.12011/68/93-BCC(C)dated10/09/93 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary PartI Section
INo186dated13/09/93.
(ii) Resolution No.12011/9/94-BCCdated19/10/94 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part ISectionI
No.163Dated20/10/94.
(iii) Resolution No.12011/7/95-BCCdated24/05/95published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part ISectionI
No.88Dated25/05/95.
(iv) Resolution No.12011/96/94-BCCdated9/03/96.
(v) Resolution No.12011/44/96-BCCdated6/12/96 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part ISectionI
No.210Dated11/12/96.
(vi) ResolutionNo.12011/13/97-BCCdated03/12/97.
(vii) ResolutionNo.12011/99/94-BCCdated11/12/97.
(viii) ResolutionNo.12011/68/98-BCCdated27/10/99.
(ix) Resolutionno.12011/88/98-bccdated6/12/99 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part ISectionINo. 270dated06/12/99.
(x) Resolution no.12011/36/99-bccdated04/04/2000 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part ISectionI
No..71dated04/04/2000.
(xi) Resolutionno.12011/44/99-bccDated21/09/2000 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part ISectionI
No.210dated21/09/2000.
(xii) Resolutionno.12015/9/2000-bccdated06/09/2001.
(xiii) Resolutionno.12011/1/2001-bccdated19/06/2003.
(xiv) Resolutionno.12011/4/2002-bccdated13/01/2004.
(xv) Resolution No. 12011/9/2004-BCC dated 16/01/2006.
(xvi) Resolution No. 12011/14/2004-BCC dated 12/03/ 2007.
(xvii) Resolution No.12011/16/2007-BCC dated 12/10/2007; Resolution No.12018/6/2005-BCC dated 30/07/2010; Resolution No.
12015/2/2007-BCC dated 18/08/2010; Resolution No. 12015/15/2008-BCC dated 16/06/2011; Resolution No.12015/13/2010-
BC-II dated 08/12/2011; Resolution No.12015/5/2011-BC-II dated 17/02/2014; Resolution No. 20012/129/2009-BC-II dated
04/03/2014.

Shri/Smt./Kum...............................................................and/or his family ordinarily reside(s) in

the..............................................................District/Divisionof................................................................State. This is also to
certify tha the/she does not belong to the persons/sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column3 of the Schedule to the
Government of India, Department of Personnel & Training [Link].36012/22/93-Estt.(SCT) Dated08/09/93 which Is modified vide OM
No.36033/1/2013Estt.(Res.) dated 13 September, 2017.

Dated:………...……………. Districtmagistrate/ Deputy commissioner,etc

Seal
Note:
(a) Theterm‘Ordinarily’usedherewillhavethesamemeaningasinSection20oftheRepresentationofthePeople Act,1950.
(b) TheauthoritiescompetenttoissueCasteCertificatesareindicatedbelow:
(i) District Magistrate/Additional Magistrate/Collector/Deputy Commissioner/Additional Deputy Commissioner/ Deputy
Collector/Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate/Sub-Divisional Magistrate/Taluka Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant
Commissioner (Not Below The Rank of Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate).
(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate.
(iii) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar’ and
(iv) Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family resides.

74
 DECLARATION/UNDERTAKING-FOR OBC CANDIDATES ONLY

I,.................................................................son/daughter of Shri ............................................................... resident of

Village/Town/City ...................................... District ................................... State here by declare that I belong to the
.................................. Community which is recognized as a Backward Class by the Government of India for the purpose
of reservation in services as per orders contained in Departmen tof Personnel and Training Office Memorandum
No.36012/22/93-Estt.(SCT), dated8/9/1993. It is also declared that I do not belong to persons/Sections (Creamy Layer)
mentioned in Column 3 of The Schedule to the above referred OfficeMemorandum,Dated8/9/1993, which is Modified
vide Department of Personnel and Training Office Memorandum No.36033/1/2013Estt.(Res.) dated 13 September, 2017.

Place:...................................Signature of the Candidate

Date:...................
 Declaration/undertaking not signed by candidate will be rejected.
 False declaration will render the applicant liable for termination of registration at any time.

Creamy Layer Definition

OBC Creamy layer is defined comprehensively at [Link]
All candidates for the OBC reserved seats should make sure that they do not satisfy any of the creamy layer criteria as
listed in the website. Some general exclusion for quick reference (no way comprehensive) are as follows.
1. Any of the parents holds a constitutional position in Govt. of India
2. Anyone of the parents is a class I officer.
3. Both the parents are class II officers.
4. Anyone of the parents is employed in an equivalent rank to class I officer or both parents equivalent to class II officer
in a public sector, insurance companies, banks, universities or in other organizations.
5. Land holding son irrigatedland are 85% or more of the statutory ceiling area.
6. Parents in come is more than Rs.8 lakhs per year or Government of India directives applicable at the time of
counseling.

75
 ANNEXURE XVII

76
 APPENDIX-I

List of Agricultural Universities (AUs) which have expressed their willingness to utilize NTA scores for their UG
admissions (2021-22)

Sl.
No. Name of the University
1 ANGRAU, Guntur
2 CSKHPKV,Palampur
3 GADVASU,Ludhiana
4 CAU,Imphal
5 TNVASU, Chennai
6 Dr. YSPUHF Solan
Note: The scores will be provided by NTA

77
 011-40759000

National
Testing
Agency
(An autonomous organization under the Department of
Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Government of India)

Help Desk:
Email : icar@[Link]
Website: [Link], [Link]