Neta Study Guide 2017r
CERTIFICATION PROGRAM
Table of Contents
About the Exams ......................................................................................................................1
Level 2 .............................................................................................................................1
Level 3 .............................................................................................................................2
Level 4 .............................................................................................................................3
Helpful Hints .............................................................................................................................4
Test-Taking Skill Development................................................................................................6
Comments on Exam Items .......................................................................................................7
Profile of Electrical Testing Technician ..................................................................................8
Certification Elements as Defined by the ANSI/NETA ETT ...................................................9
Certification Element Descriptions ....................................................................................... 12
Level 1 ........................................................................................................................... 12
Level 2 ........................................................................................................................... 13
Level 3 ........................................................................................................................... 16
Level 4 ........................................................................................................................... 20
Detailed Content Outlines (DCOs)......................................................................................... 23
Level 2 ........................................................................................................................... 26
Level 3 ...........................................................................................................................33
Level 4 ...........................................................................................................................41
Exam Reference Materials ..................................................................................................... 48
Level 2 ........................................................................................................................... 48
Level 3 ...........................................................................................................................50
Level 4 ...........................................................................................................................53
NETA World Tech Quizzes .....................................................................................................55
The individual has sufficient knowledge and experience to be qualified for assuring the
safety of him/herself.
Related Experience
• Two years*
• Candidates for Level 2 must have met the qualifications for Level 1
• *Completion of two or more years of technical education in an electrical field shall
be equivalent to a maximum of one year of related experience
Examination
• 100-item, multiple-choice, closed-book, onsite proctored examination
• Two hours allowed to complete exam
• Passing score of 410 or higher on a scale of 200 to 500
Exam Composition
• 15% of Exam - Safety
• 25% of Exam - Electrical Testing Fundamentals and Theory
• 55% of Exam - Component Testing
• 5% of Exam - Systems and Commissioning
The ETT Certified Level 3 is capable of supervising ETT Trainee Level I and ETT
Certified Assistant Level 2.
Typical duties include, but are not limited to, performance and management of routine
and moderately complex tasks and projects, record keeping, evaluation of test data, and
responsibility for the safety of others.
Related Experience
• Five years*
• Candidates for Level 3 must have met the qualifications for Levels 1 and 2 in
successive order
• *Completion of two or more years of technical education in an electrical field shall
be equivalent to a maximum of one year of related experience
Examination
• 100-item, multiple-choice, closed-book, onsite proctored examination
• Two hours allowed to complete exam
• Passing score of 410 or higher on a scale of 200 to 500
Exam Composition
• 13% of Exam - Safety
• 23% of Exam - Electrical Testing Fundamentals and Theory
• 47% of Exam - Component Testing
• 17% of Exam - Systems and Commissioning
The ETT Certified Senior Technician, Level 4, supervises large projects and multiple
crews and can work independently.
Individual performs complex investigations, tests, and evaluations, and prepares written
reports as needed.
Related Experience
• Ten years*
• Candidates for Level 4 must have met the qualifications for Levels 1, 2, and 3 in
successive order
• *Completion of two or more years of technical education in an electrical field shall
be equivalent to a maximum of one year of related experience
Examination
• 65-item, multiple-choice, closed-book, onsite proctored examination
• Two hours allowed to complete exam
• Passing score of 410 or higher on a scale of 200 to 500
Exam Composition
• 10% of Exam - Safety
• 15% of Exam - Electrical Testing Fundamentals and Theory
• 55% of Exam - Component Testing
• 20% of Exam - Systems and Commissioning
What separates NETA Accredited Companies from other testing companies?
NETA promises the public that using a NETA Accredited Company provides quality
assurance. To maintain quality, it is very important for NETA to ensure the presence of
accreditation and certification of all its member companies.
• The NETA exam is not a "book smart" test but a field test.
• The test is based on the ANSI/NETA standards; no matter what formal education
a person has, he will not know the requirements of the standards and
specifications unless he has worked in the field using the ANSI/NETA standards.
It is important to study the ANSI/NETA standards.
• The NETA World Tech Quiz is a good basis for theory, and can be helpful in
studying. The questions on the quiz should not be confused with actual test
questions.
• Field engineers often think they don't need to do calculations; however, they
need to be able to answer questions in the field without calling a PE.
• "Cramming" does little good. Regular technical review sessions are needed.
• One company holds hourly sessions each week, choosing a specific topic to
review. The Representative states that this continuing education is excellent for
all company technicians as a whole, not just the ones preparing for the exam, for
it allows technical reinforcement. He states, "For us to put individuals into a
classroom all day is tough, but the 45-minute blocks work well."
• One company has a 7:00 - 8:30 session every Monday morning for safety, status
reports, and review of a section of the NETA specifications. They review the
NETA requirements in every section along with their own data sheets. If all
technicians are involved in these sessions, you are assured that your company
can provide uniform testing and uniform procedures for your clients.
• Owners and managers assist their technicians in how to take a test. For
example, before beginning the examinee should carefully read the front page of
the exam. This sheet suggests that the examinee read the entire question,
including all possible answers.
• The exam does allow test takers to make comments on individual items as well
as at the end of the exam. These comments will not receive a response, nor do
they have an impact on the overall score, but they are reviewed by the NETA
Exam Committee and used as a means of assuring that the exams remain
technically accurate.
• Non-technical comments, such as, “I was not trained in this,” or “My company
doesn’t do this,” or, “I don’t understand the question” are only valid if more
information is provided – what in the wording is confusing? Can you explain your
answer based on the way you understand the question? Additional insight into
your thought process is necessary to fully assess and evaluate the validity of a
comment.
• As in the field, sometimes negatively stated items are used on the exam –
questions which ask which answer NOT correct. While these items are used
sparingly, this is a real aspect of field work when troubleshooting an issue.
• There are questions on the exam that ask about specific values listed in NETA
Specifications. The Specifications are the basis for a large portion of the test.
While the Specifications explain which tests to perform, the exam expects the
technician to also know how to perform those tests, how to interpret the results,
and what to do with the results. They need to understand the whole process.
• One company hires a trainer from another NETA Accredited Company to conduct
in-house training.
2. Review the number of test items and time allowed and pace yourself. For
example, if a test has 100 items (questions) and you are given two hours to
take the test, you should allow yourself an average of 1.2 minutes per
question. Some questions may take a more or less time, but on average that
can be your pace.
3. Take the tutorial at the beginning of the exam. The tutorial is designed to
allow test takers to become familiar with the computer-based testing
environment and the tools available during the exam. Using what you saw in
the tutorial, make notes of anything you think you might forget. Write down
things that you used in learning the material that might help you remember.
4. If you’re stuck, skip it and move on. Make your best attempt at answering the
question, or come back to it when you are less pressured for time. Use the
“bookmark” function to mark questions that you want to come back to at the
end of your exam.
5. Look at the answer choices BEFORE you actually read the question. That
will help you screen for information related to the answers provided. It may
also help you interpret questions more appropriately.
6. Read the entire question. Pay attention to key words in the stem of the question
so you fully understand what the item is about.
7. Don’t try to remember all the answer options as you read through them.
Turn each answer option into a true/false statement. In your mind, think about
whether the option fits the situation described in the stem.
8. Answer all questions. You have a twenty-five percent chance of getting the
question right.
9. Use all of the time allotted for the test. If you have extra time, cover up your
answers and actually rework the question.
10. Start out right. Get a good night's sleep and be sure to eat breakfast on the day
of the test.
11. If you get off track…Take a brain break. Relax, take a few deep breaths, and
clear your mind.
Comments are allowed on individual test questions. Always reread the question completely. Be
sure you understand the question prior to submitting a comment.
• Has answer choices which do not include the answer you are sure is correct
Reread the question completely. Be sure you understand the question. If you are still
sure the correct answer is not available, complete a comment by stating your answer
and the basis for reaching it.
Test takers should keep in mind that each exam item has been carefully verified and proofread
to assure that it is not only technically correct but that it is also psychometrically sound. Errors
are possible, of course, but before commenting on a question the test taker should reread the
question completely and be sure he understands the question and the potential answers.
NOTE: Candidates must have met the qualifications and training requirements for all previous levels.
* Completion of two or more years of technical education in an electrical field shall be equivalent to a
maximum of one year of experience.
Certification Exams
Each outline is divided into different areas to help you determine what subject matter to study as you prepare for your exam.
1. Level
2. Domains
3. Percent of Exam Content
4. Subdomains
5. KSAs (knowledge, skills, abilities)
2. Domain 1. Level
3. Percent of Exam
4. Subdomain
5. KSA
Levels
• NETA offers three levels of certification that are achieved through meeting pre-requisites designated in the ANSI/NETA ETT, by achieving
a passing score on the certification exams, and by maintaining employment with a NETA Accredited Company or NETA Approved Military
Organization
• Level 2 – Certified Assistant Technician
• Level 3 – Certified Technician
• Level 4 – Certified Senior Technician
Domains Core Subjects Within Domain III., Component Testing
• Domains are designated by a Roman numeral, I, II, III, or IV, on the DCO
I. Safety
II. Electrical Testing Fundamentals and Theory
III. Component Testing
IV. Systems and Commissioning
• Each Domain also has a corresponding percentage of content on each exam
• These percentages vary by exam level
Subdomains
• Subdomains are designated by an Arabic numeral under each Domain on the exam
• Subdomains may vary depending on exam level
• Some subdomains are designated as core subjects within the Component Testing subdomain
KSAs
• KSAs are specific sets of knowledge, skills, and abilities that have been identified as pertinent to each specific exam level, domain, and
subdomain
• The KSAs provide detailed descriptions of the types of questions a technician may see on the certification exam
I. Safety 15% of Overall Score
A. Risk Assessment
1 . Identify safe work practices with regard to hazards encountered on the job
2 . Identify requirements to create a safe work environment
3 . Determine the location and implications of shock and arc-flash protection boundaries
B. Establishing an Electrically Safe Work Condition
1 . Apply requirements of NFPA 70E, Article 120: Establishing an Electrically Safe Work Condition
C. Lockout/Tagout Procedures
1 . Apply OSHA lockout/tagout requirements
D. Personal Protective Equipment
1 . Recognize and assess Arc-Flash Hazard/Risk Categories and Shock Protection Boundaries
2 . Apply correct use, storage, and testing of personal protective equipment
E. Safety Equipment Selection
1.
Identify the safety equipment needs of the project (e.g., hotstick, voltage detectors, insulated tools, fire extinguisher, etc.)
F. Confined Space
1 . Recognize confined space and its hazards
2.
Recognize when a confined space becomes a permit-required confined space along with the associated requirements
3 . Apply OSHA requirements
G. Switching and Temporary Protective Grounding
1 . Select and apply correct voltage detection equipment
2 . Select and apply correct temporary protective grounding equipment
3 . Interpret and apply system switching procedures
H. Incident Energy Analysis
1 . Interpret field-marked equipment labels
2 . Identify hazards where no field-marked labels exist
3 . Demonstrate knowledge of incident energy calculation methods
4 . Demonstrate knowledge of the variables involved in incident energy calculation methods
I. Codes and Standards
1 . Apply standards and regulatory organizations (e.g., OSHA, ANSI, ASTM, IEEE, NETA, NFPA, NEMA, etc.)
2.
Recognize key provisions of NFPA 70 (e.g., Articles 90, 110.16, 110.21, 225.56, 230.95(C), 250, and 310) and 70E (i.e.
Chapter 1: Safety-Related Work Practices and Chapter 2: Safety-Related Maintenance Requirements, etc.)
3 . Apply technical requirements of ANSI/NETA Acceptance and Maintenance Testing Standards
4 . Practice compliance with manufacturer's published data
II. Electrical Testing Fundamentals and Theory 25 % of Overall Score
A. Fundamentals of Electricity
1 . Define and apply terms and concepts from physics, electricity, heat, and chemistry
2 . Recognize and define the standard units used to describe electrical circuits, energy, and power
3 . Identify series and parallel circuits
4 . Recognize the sources and effects of electromagnetic fields
5 . Demonstrate knowledge of dielectric properties of various types of insulations
6 . Demonstrate knowledge of phasing and phase rotation
B. Electrical Calculations
1 . Perform mathematical calculations utilizing basic algebra, geometry, and trigonometry
2 . Apply fundamental electrical laws to simple circuits (e.g., Ohm's law, Kirchhoff's law, etc.)
3 . Apply conversions between units (e.g., microhms to milliohms, horsepower to kilowatts, etc.)
C. AC and DC Circuits
1 . Calculate simple single-loop ac circuits with RLC components
2 . Calculate equivalent resistance of and power consumed by resistive circuits
3 . Calculate equivalent capacitance and inductance
4 . Apply methods for measuring and calculating impedance and power
5 . Demonstrate knowledge of complex ac and dc circuits (e.g., voltage drop, current flow, power, etc.)
6 . Demonstrate knowledge of phase angle, power factor, and vectors
D. Insulation Testing
1 . Employ methods and procedures for insulation tests and analyze results
E. Resistance Testing
1 . Employ methods and procedures for resistance tests and analyze results (e.g., winding resistance, contact resistance, bolted
connections, etc.)
F. Thermographic Survey
1.
Employ methods and procedures for thermographic surveys and analyze results (e.g., emissivity, reflection, delta-T, etc.)
G. Current Testing
1 . Employ methods and procedures for current tests and analyze results (e.g., overcurrent pickup, circuit burden, voltage drop,
H. System Tests, Analysis, and Operation
1 . Interpret electrical one-line diagrams
2 . Interpret ac and dc schematic diagrams, ac three-line diagrams, and connection and interconnection drawings
3 . Identify electrical symbols and ANSI device numbers
4 . Interpret time-current curves
5 . Recognize essential components of short-circuit and coordination studies (e.g., cable size and length, available protective
device settings, raceway type, utility fault contribution, etc.)
6 . Demonstrate knowledge of short-circuit and coordination studies
III. Component Testing 55% of Overall Score
* A. Switchgear and Switchboard Assemblies
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* B. Transformers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Identify properties, types, and applications of auxiliary devices
3 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
4 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
5 . Evaluate test results
* C. Cables
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Identify properties, types, and applications of accessories
3 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
4 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
5 . Evaluate test results
6 . Demonstrate knowledge of cable fault locating
D. Metal-Enclosed Busways
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* E. Switches
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* F. Circuit Breakers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
III. Component Testing (Continued)
G. Circuit Switchers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
H. Network Protectors
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
* I. Protective Relays
1 . Identify types and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* J. Instrument Transformers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
K. Metering Devices
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
L. Regulating Apparatus
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
* M. Grounding Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
5 . Employ methods of enhancing effectiveness of grounding systems
* N. Ground-Fault Protection Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
III. Component Testing (Continued)
O. Rotating Machinery
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* P. Motor Control Centers and Motor Starters
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
Q. Adjustable-Speed Drive Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
* R. Direct-Current Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
S. Surge Arresters
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
T. Capacitors and Reactors
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
U. Outdoor Bus Structures
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
V. Emergency Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
III. Component Testing (Continued)
W. Automatic Circuit Reclosers and Line Sectionalizers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
X. Fiber-Optic Cables
. Recognize and correctly handle fiber-optic cables
* Y. Insulating Liquids and Gases
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply sampling procedures
3 . Employ methods and procedures in compliance with ASTM
4 . Evaluate test results
* Z. Fuses
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
IV. Systems and Commissioning 5% of Overall Score
A. Troubleshooting
1 . Investigate power or protective system faults or malfunctions to determine cause and corrective action required
B. Functional Testing
1 . Employ methods and procedures for system-function tests upon completion of the individual component tests defined, as
system conditions allow
2 . Apply concepts of functionality for electrical systems
I. Safety 13% of Overall Score
A. Risk Assessment
1 . Identify safe work practices with regard to hazards encountered on the job
2 . Identify requirements to create a safe work environment
3 . Determine the location and implications of shock and arc-flash protection boundaries
B. Establishing an Electrically Safe Work Condition
1 . Apply requirements of NFPA 70E, Article 120: Establishing an Electrically Safe Work Condition
C. Lockout/Tagout Procedures
1 . Apply OSHA lockout/tagout requirements
D. Personal Protective Equipment
1 . Recognize and assess Arc-Flash Hazard/Risk Categories and Shock Protection Boundaries
2 . Apply correct use, storage, and testing of personal protective equipment
E. Safety Equipment Selection
1 . Identify the safety equipment needs of the project (e.g., hotstick, voltage detectors, insulated tools, fire extinguisher, etc.)
F. Confined Space
1 . Recognize confined space and its hazards
2 . Recognize when a confined space becomes a permit-required confined space along with the associated requirements
3 . Apply OSHA requirements
G. Switching and Temporary Protective Grounding
1 . Select and apply correct voltage detection equipment
2 . Select and apply correct temporary protective grounding equipment
3 . Interpret and apply system switching procedures
H. Incident Energy Analysis
1 . Interpret field-marked equipment labels
2 . Identify hazards where no field-marked labels exist
3 . Demonstrate knowledge of incident energy calculation methods
4 . Demonstrate knowledge of the variables involved in incident energy calculation methods
I. Codes and Standards
1 . Apply standards and regulatory organizations (e.g., OSHA, ANSI, ASTM, IEEE, NETA, NFPA, NEMA, etc.)
2 . Recognize key provisions of NFPA 70 (e.g., Articles 90, 110.16, 110.21, 225.56, 230.95(C), 250, and 310) and 70E (i.e. Chapter 1: Safety-Related Work
Practices and Chapter 2: Safety-Related Maintenance Requirements, etc.)
3 . Apply technical requirements of ANSI/NETA Acceptance and Maintenance Testing Standards
4 . Practice compliance with manufacturers' published data
II. Electrical Testing Fundamentals and Theory 23% of Overall Score
A. Fundamentals of Electricity
1 . Define and apply terms and concepts from physics, electricity, heat, and chemistry
2 . Recognize and define the standard units used to describe electrical circuits, energy, and power
3 . Identify series and parallel circuits
4 . Recognize the sources and effects of electromagnetic fields
5 . Demonstrate knowledge of dielectric properties of various types of insulations
6 . Demonstrate knowledge of phasing and phase rotation
B. Electrical Calculations
1 . Perform mathematical calculations utilizing basic algebra, geometry, and trigonometry
2 . Apply fundamental electrical laws to simple circuits (e.g., Ohm's law, Kirchhoff's law, etc.)
3 . Apply conversions between units (e.g., microhms to milliohms, horsepower to kilowatts, etc.)
C. AC and DC Circuits
1 . Calculate simple single-loop ac circuits with RLC components
2 . Calculate equivalent resistance of and power consumed by resistive circuits
3 . Calculate equivalent capacitance and inductance
4 . Apply methods for measuring and calculating impedance and power
5 . Calculate variables of complex ac and dc circuits (e.g., voltage drop, current flow, power, etc.)
6 . Calculate phase angle, power factor, and vectors
D. Insulation Testing
1 . Employ methods and procedures for insulation tests and analyze results
E. Resistance Testing
1 . Employ methods and procedures for resistance tests and analyze results (e.g., winding resistance, contact resistance, bolted connections, etc.)
F. Thermographic Survey
1 . Employ methods and procedures for thermographic surveys and analyze results (e.g., emissivity, reflection, delta-T, etc.)
G. Current Testing
1 . Employ methods and procedures for current tests and analyze results (e.g., overcurrent pickup, circuit burden, voltage drop, etc.)
II. Electrical Testing Fundamentals and Theory (Continued)
H. System Tests, Analysis, and Operation
1 . Interpret electrical one-line diagrams
2 . Interpret ac and dc schematic diagrams, ac three-line diagrams, and connection and interconnection drawings
3 . Identify electrical symbols and ANSI device numbers
4 . Interpret time-current curves
5 . Recognize essential components of short-circuit and coordination studies (e.g., cable size and length, available protective device settings, raceway type, utility
fault contribution, etc.)
6 . Apply data extracted from short-circuit and coordination studies
7 . Recognize cause and effects of power system harmonics
III. Component Testing 47% of Overall Score
* A. Switchgear and Switchboard Assemblies
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* B. Transformers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Identify properties, types, and applications of auxiliary devices
3 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
4 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
5 . Evaluate test results
* C. Cables
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Identify properties, types, and applications of accessories
3 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
4 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
5 . Evaluate test results
6 . Demonstrate knowledge of cable fault locating
D. Metal-Enclosed Busways
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
E. Switches
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* F. Circuit Breakers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
G. Circuit Switchers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
III. Component Testing (Continued)
H. Network Protectors
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications of protection and control
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* I. Protective Relays
1 . Identify types and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* J. Instrument Transformers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
K. Metering Devices
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
L. Regulating Apparatus
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* M. Grounding Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
5 . Employ methods of enhancing effectiveness of grounding systems
* N. Ground-Fault Protection Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
III. Component Testing (Continued)
* O. Rotating Machinery
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
P. Motor Control Centers and Motor Starters
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
Q. Adjustable-Speed Drive Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* R. Direct-Current Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
S. Surge Arresters
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
T. Capacitors and Reactors
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
U. Outdoor Bus Structures
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* V. Emergency Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
III. Component Testing (Continued)
W. Automatic Circuit Reclosers and Line Sectionalizers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
X. Fiber-Optic Cables
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
* Y. Insulating Liquids and Gases
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply sampling procedures
3 . Employ methods and procedures in compliance with ASTM
4 . Evaluate test results
Z. Fuses
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
IV. Systems and Commissioning 17% of Overall Score
A. Troubleshooting
1 . Investigate power or protective system faults or malfunctions to determine cause and corrective action required
B. SCADA
1 . Recognize basic requirements, equipment, and configuration of SCADA/DCS systems
C. Monitoring/DCS Systems
1 . Apply procedures for microprocessor-based power monitoring and control systems
D. Functional Testing
1 . Employ methods and procedures for system-function tests upon completion of the individual component tests defined, as system conditions allow
F. Thermographic Survey
1 . Employ methods and procedures for thermographic surveys and analyze results (e.g., emissivity, reflection, delta-T, etc.)
G. Current Testing
1 . Employ methods and procedures for current tests and analyze results (e.g., overcurrent pickup, circuit burden, voltage drop, etc.)
H. System Tests, Analysis, and Operation
1 . Interpret electrical one-line diagrams
2 . Interpret ac and dc schematic diagrams, ac three-line diagrams, and connection and interconnection drawings
3 . Identify electrical symbols and ANSI device numbers
4 . Interpret time-current curves
5 . Recognize essential components of short-circuit and coordination studies (e.g., cable size and length, available protective device settings,
raceway type, utility fault contribution, etc.)
6 . Apply data extracted from short-circuit and coordination studies
7 . Recognize cause and effects of power system harmonics
III. Component Testing 55% of Overall Score
A. Switchgear and Switchboard Assemblies
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* B. Transformers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Identify properties, types, and applications of auxiliary devices
3 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
4 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
5 . Evaluate test results
C. Cables
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Identify properties, types, and applications of accessories
3 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
4 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
5 . Evaluate test results
6 . Demonstrate knowledge of cable fault locating
D. Metal-Enclosed Busways
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
E. Switches
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* F. Circuit Breakers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
III. Component Testing (Continued)
G. Circuit Switchers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
H. Network Protectors
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications of protection and control
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* I. Protective Relays
1 . Identify types and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* J. Instrument Transformers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
K. Metering Devices
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
L. Regulating Apparatus
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
M. Grounding Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
5 . Employ methods of enhancing effectiveness of grounding systems
III. Component Testing (Continued)
N. Ground-Fault Protection Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* O. Rotating Machinery
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
P. Motor Control Centers and Motor Starters
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
Q. Adjustable-Speed Drive Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
R. Direct-Current Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
S. Surge Arresters
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
T. Capacitors and Reactors
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
III. Component Testing (Continued)
U. Outdoor Bus Structures
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* V. Emergency Systems
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
W. Automatic Circuit Reclosers and Line Sectionalizers
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
X. Fiber-Optic Cables
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for optical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
* Y. Insulating Liquids and Gases
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply sampling procedures
3 . Employ methods and procedures in compliance with ASTM
4 . Evaluate test results
Z. Fuses
1 . Identify properties, types, and applications
2 . Apply visual and mechanical inspections
3 . Employ methods and procedures for electrical tests
4 . Evaluate test results
IV. Systems and Commissioning 20% of Overall Score
A. Troubleshooting
1 . Investigate power or protective system faults or malfunctions to determine cause and corrective action required
B. SCADA
1 . Recognize basic requirements, equipment, and configuration of SCADA/DCS systems
C. Monitoring/DCS Systems
1 . Apply procedures for microprocessor-based power monitoring and control systems
D. Functional Testing
1 . Employ methods and procedures for system-function tests upon completion of the individual component tests defined, as system conditions
allow
2 . Apply concepts of functionality for electrical systems
The NETA Exam Committee recommends that Technicians review and study following documents
when preparing for the NETA Level 2 Exam.
IEEE
• 43 - IEEE Recommended Practice for Testing Insulation Resistance of Rotating Machinery
IEEE
• The Authoritative Dictionary of IEEE Standards Terms
IEEE
• C57.19.03 - IEEE Standard Requirements, Terminology, and Test Code for Bushings for DC
Applications
IEEE
• C37.96 - IEEE Guide for AC Motor Protection
ASTM International
• D877 - Standard Test Method for Dielectric Breakdown Voltage of Insulating Liquids Using Disk
Electrodes
• D923 - Standard Practices for Sampling Electrical Insulating Liquids
• D974 - Standard Test Method for Acid and Base Number by Color-Indicator Titration
• D3487 - Standard Specification for Mineral Insulating Oil Used in Electrical Apparatus
Disclaimer
The following pages contain reproductions of the Tech Quizzes that have appeared in past issues of NETA
World Journal, NETA’s quarterly technical publication.
While these quizzes were written by subject matter experts and reviewed by NETA’s technical editors,
these quizzes have not undergone the same process as NETA’s certification exams. Tech Quizzes are not
intended to replicate the experience of taking the NETA Certification Exams and should not be considered
equivalent to the NETA Certification Exams.
Since these quizzes are not updated after they are published in NETA World Journal, it is important for
technicians studying this material to refer to the most recent edition of industry codes and standards
referenced to assure that the correct answers listed are still accurate. It is possible that references have
been updated, and that values and procedures have changed since these quizzes were published.
The intent of providing these quizzes in one location is to allow individuals preparing for the NETA
Certification Exams access relevant concepts that may appear on the certification exams.
Fall 2007
Fall 2007
Electrical Safety
2. You are about to begin work on an energized section of switchgear. The Flash
Protection Boundary is 27 inches, the Limited Approach Boundary is 42 inches,
the Restricted Approach Boundary is 12 inches and the Prohibited Approach
Boundary is 1 inch. Where do you set the boundary for the Safe Work Zone?
a. Limited Approach Boundary
b. Restricted Approach Boundary
c. Prohibited Approach Boundary
d. Flash Protection Boundary
1. C. The on-set of a second degree burn would possibly result in blisters similar to
a severe sun burn. This type of burn occurs when1.2 cal/cm2 of heat energy
impacts the surface of the body Note that the procedures required in NFPA 70E
are not intended to prevent injury, but to make an injury survivable.
2. A. The Safe Work Zone is established as either the Flash Protection Boundary or
the Limited Approach Boundary, whichever is farthest out. Thus, in this example
it is the Limited Approach Boundary.
3. D. The Limited Approach Boundary for a 4160 volt fixed circuit part is 60 inches
(5 feet, 0 inches.)
5. B. Typically, this means a qualified electrical worker would have to put on rubber
insulating gloves rated for the voltage to cross this boundary.
Winter 2007
Power Transformers
2. You are testing a 50 MVA power transformer. The ambient temperature is 800F,
and the oil temperature gauge reads 850C. The nameplate lists the maximum
temperature rise as 650C. Is the transformer temperature too high?
a. Yes
b. No
5. You have a delta-connected transformer bank, and one transformer is taken out
of service. What percentage of load can the remaining two transformers carry
when connected open-delta?
a. 75%
b. 66%
c. 58%
d. 37%
Winter 2007 Answers
1. C. The maximum allowable insulation power factor is 0.5 percent on new power
transformers.
The maximum allowable temperature rise is 65°C, which is greater than the
calculated temperature rise.
3. D. The maximum allowable deviation from nameplate ratio is 0.5 percent for a
turns ratio test.
2. A motor has a nameplate rating of 460 volts and is connected to a 230 volt
source. What torque will the motor produce in percent of rated torque?
a. 25%
b. 100%
c. 75%
d. 50%
3. An induction motor has 40 kVA input power, a power factor of 82 percent, and an
efficiency of 92 percent. What is its horsepower?
a. 30.2 HP
b. 40.5 HP
c. 53.6 HP
d. 44.4 HP
4. The ANSI/NETA MTS-07 lists several tests for ac motors. Which of the following
tests is not one of the tests listed?
a. Insulation resistance
b. Insulation power factor or dissipation factor
c. ac high potential
d. Surge comparison
1. The answer is A. A P.I. of 1.1 is a poor value for dry insulation. Good insulation
should have a P.I. of 2.0 or higher.
2. A is correct again. 25% torque is all you’ll get. Torque is related to the square
of the voltage difference: 230/460 = 0.5; 0.52 = 0.25 = 25%.
3. B is correct, 40.5 HP. 40 kVA x 0.82 power factor gives the real input power.
Multiply the input power by the efficiency, 0.92, to get output power. Now divide
the output kilowatts by 0.746 kW/HP to get the output horsepower, 40.5.
5. B. In case you didn’t read the answer to question 3, one horsepower is equal to
746 watts.
Summer 2008
Batteries
1. When should an equalize charge be given to a lead-acid wet cell battery bank?
a. After about 10 deep discharge/charge cycles
b. When sulfating of the plates occurs
c. When the electrolyte stratifies with higher concentration of acid at the
bottom
d. When there is a significant difference in the individual cell voltages
e. All of the above
4. What is the cell voltage deviation from the bank average that indicates an
equalizing charge is needed?
a. 1 volt
b. 0.5 volt
c. 0.05 volt
d. 0.005 volt
1. E. All of the above. Batteries should not be given an equalize charge until it is
needed, usually after a heavy discharge. Frequent equalizing shortens battery
life, increases water usage, and increases the overall cost. Batteries in float
service with infrequent discharge cycles may sulfate, requiring an equalize
charge to remove the sulfur from the lead plates.
2. B. Each battery cell produces only about two volts. The typical 12-volt auto
battery has six cells.
4. C. 0.05 volt from the average of all the cells according to NETA ATS and MTS.
5. Possible answers:
a. Specific gravity of pilot cells
b. Volts per cell of pilot cells
c. Battery charger output voltage
d. Electrolyte level of pilot cells
e. Temperature measurement
f. Verify all alarms are functional
g. Intercell connectors are tight
h. Internal impedance of pilot cells
i. Thermographic survey
Fall 2008
Grounding
5. For a ground system with fairly uniform soil and test electrodes driven at
sufficient spacing relative to the size of that ground system, what distance from
the tested electrode should the potential electrode be placed to measure the
theoretically correct ground resistance when performing a fall-of-potential test?
a. 20 feet.
b. 100 feet.
c. 62% of the distance between the current electrode and the tested
electrode
d. 57.7% of the distance between the current electrode and the tested
electrode
Fall 2008 Answers
4. B. The ANSI/IEEE Standard 81, “IEEE Guide for Measuring Earth Resistivity,
Ground Impedance, and Earth Surface Potentials of a Ground System” is the
reference.
5. C. If the soil is fairly homogeneous in content, the distance the voltage electrode,
P2, is driven is usually 62%. Often that may not provide the true resistance,
though. The best procedure is to drive P2 in several locations, in line with the
tested electrode, C1, and the test current electrode, C2. Obtain test data for P2
positions beginning about 50% of the distance from C1 to C2 until about 70% of
that distance. Plot the resulting earth resistances relative to the P2 distance from
C1. Where the plotted values level off is the true earth resistance. If the plotted
values do not level off, that indicates more distance is needed between C1 and
C2 and the tests need to be run again.
Winter 2008
Power Electronics
1. A poultry plant had to replace bearings in one of their motors about three times a
year. The application is a variable-speed drive (VFD) for an oven fan. The belt
tension was always found to be set properly. Mechanically, everything was in
proper order. What was happening and how could it be solved?
2. A maintenance technician added several more 120 Vac outputs on a PLC for a
machine expansion. Rather than adding a larger control power transformer to
handle the new I/O, he pulled a single wire carrying 120 Vac from an adjacent
panel to feed the new outputs. Over time the neutral wire in the existing PLC
control panel burned up. Why?
3. A dc drive had failed and was too costly to repair, so it was replaced with a new
digital drive. Several days went by and the customer noticed that the motor
oscillated in speed and drew slightly more current than it used to. Why would a
new drive cause this?
4. A newspaper in East Texas decided to upgrade its printing press with two new
digital dc drives and change all control relay logic with a PLC. The PLC used the
same 120 Vac power that fed their computer server room. Every Tuesday and
Thursday evening between 9:00 PM and 10:30 PM the PLC would lose its
memory and program. The servers, however, would be fine. What was the
problem?
Winter 2008 Answers
1. Bearings in motors that are powered by VFDs sometimes fail due to common
mode shaft voltage causing current to pass through the bearings. Because pulse
width modulated (PWM) voltages do not sum instantaneously to zero with
respect to ground, there is potential for CM voltage to build up on the shaft
causing current flow through motor bearings. The air gap and grease in the
bearing act like a dielectric. When the shaft voltage exceeds the dielectric
strength of the bearing lubricant, an arc occurs. This arcing causes pitting in the
bearing race and the rolling elements thus leading to premature failure. One
possible solution is to reduce the “carrier frequency” of the PWM. Also, make
sure that the motor is VFD compatible. (See NEMA MG-1, Section IV, Part 31.)
2. Although both new and old I/Os were supplied by 120 Vac potential, the sources
were not out of phase from one another, causing the existing neutral to carry the
current for both the existing and new outputs. If the two hot wires measure zero
volts between them, then they are in phase with one another and the neutral has
to carry the current for both hot conductors. If the two hot conductors measure
240 Vac between them, then the currents cancel each other and only the
difference flows through the neutral.
3. A3. If you are thinking drive to motor tuning, that would be an obvious place to
start. However, if this fails to correct the problem, check the polarity of the motor
armature conductors between the drive and motor. On all stabilized shunt-wound
dc motors the series field lead (labeled S2) must be connected to the negative
output of the drive and the shunt field wire (labeled F2 or F4 depending on field
wiring) must be connected to the negative side of the field supply. If the rotation
of the motor needs to be changed, then swap either A1 or A2 leads with the S1
lead. When stabilized shunt-wound motor connects are not polarized properly the
motor can exhibit higher than normal armature current and unstable speed
operation. IMPORTANT NOTE: if the motor is going to be used on a regenerative
drive, it would a good idea to drop the S1 and S2 connections out of the circuit
and tape them off.
4. A4. On those evenings the company that cleaned the offices for the newspaper
would plug a vacuum cleaner in an outlet in the server room in order to vacuum
the carpet in the hall. The servers were not affected because they were on a
UPS which filtered out the EMI from the vacuum cleaner.
Spring 2009
NFPA 70E
1. Article 110 states that CPR must be certified by the employer at a specific
interval. What is it?
a. Every three years, just like the American Heart Association recommends
b. Every two years
c. Every year
d. The interval is left up to the employer’s discretion.
2. In Article 100 there is a new requirement for training for a qualified electrical
worker. What is it?
a. All training must be certified by the authority having jurisdiction.
b. Qualified workers must now be trained to select an appropriate voltage
detector and demonstrate how to use it.
c. Training must include proper application of ground clusters, including
setting up an equipotential zone.
d. Qualified workers must be able to determine incident energy using IEEE
1584 or other industry-recognized software.
1. C. Every year (annually). CPR is a life safety skill that needs to be reinforced
annually in the opinion of the 70E committee. In 110.6(D)(1)(d), which is the
paragraph above the requirement, it states that “Tasks that are performed less
often than once per year shall require retraining…”. This would certainly apply to
something most people have never done in real life circumstances.
2. B. Training must include how to select the proper voltage detector, demonstrate
how to use it, and understand its indications and its limitations of use.
3. A. It didn’t make sense to say that incident energy above 1.2 cal/cm2 would
cause the onset of a second degree burn (limit of safe approach for the arc-flash
hazard) and then say it’s okay to exceed that on your face, up to 4 cal/cm2. This
requirement makes PPE for thermal protection uniform for the entire body. The
hearing protection was added because the 70E committee was presented
information indicating that even HRC 0 events could cause sound above 140 db,
which will damage hearing.
4. C. Most electrical workers do not have the information at their disposal or the
tools necessary to determine what is needed to protect themselves from the arc-
flash hazard. This requirement provides minimum information.
1. D. SF6 has a number of advantages, so the primary one is open to opinion. The
dielectric strength of SF6 increases with pressure so smaller breakers can be
used at higher voltages. The breakers have a smaller footprint, so they use less
real estate which can be very expensive. They are very reliable and require less
maintenance than air blast or oil breakers and can operate at higher voltages
effectively.
2. Answers:
• New gas – in cylinders from the gas manufacturer
• Non-arced – has been used or handled, but contains no arcing byproducts
• Normally arced – corrosive byproducts less than 200 ppm
• Heavily arced – contains arcing byproducts greater than one percent by
volume
Editor’s Note: Jim has referenced CIGRÉ Task Force B3.02.01 SF6 Recycling
Guide for this question.
3. C. Nitrogen and freon-14. They are added to keep the SF6 gasified at lower
temperatures. SF6 has a tendency to liquefy and pool at colder temperatures.
This reduces the internal pressure, which reduces the dielectric strength.
5. D. Dead tank breakers have grounded tanks. Live tank breakers use the
insulating column to house the mechanism and contact assemblies, so they are
energized at system voltage (live).
Fall 2009
Hazard/Risk Analysis
2. Based upon the figure, what is the safest method of racking the 480 V main
breaker?
3. You arrive at a job site to perform maintenance on a power system. Your partner
completes the JSA and the two of you begin work. What’s wrong with this
scenario?
Fall 2009
Hazard/Risk Analysis
1. False. Many people actually perform only a hazard analysis. They check the
label or use the tables in the NFPA 70E and don’t give the job another thought.
Whether the tables are used or the equipment has arc-flash labels, the risk must
also be assessed.
(See NFPA 70E, Annex F.)
2. D. Even though the switch has a voltage of 13.8 kV, there is only 3.03 cal/cm2
incident energy at that point. The other alternatives will expose the worker to
much higher incident energy than operating the switch in answer D.
3. Often on job sites one technician fills out the safety paperwork and the other has
already started the task(s) before the safety analysis is completed. All workers
need to be involved in the job safety analysis. Having one person complete the
paperwork without the others reviewing it will result in some of the workers not
being informed of the hazards and risks.
4. B. NFPA 70E Article 130.3(A)(1) allows the use of a 48” FPB if there is 50 kA
short-circuit current or less and a clearing time of no more than .033 second (2
cycles). Check the OCPD feeding the equipment about to be worked on to
determine that it has an instantaneous element that interrupts in 2 cycles or less.
Calculate the available short circuit current from the transformer feeding the
circuit to verify that it is 50 kA or less. If both of those requirements are met, the
four foot FPB can be used.
3. An internal fault can be discovered earliest using which gas test method?
a. Total combustible gases detector
b. Gas collector relay
c. Nitrogen blanket analysis
d. Dissolved-gas analysis
4. Sample valves should be flushed with _____ of waste liquid before collecting a
transformer liquid sample?
a. One quart
b. Two quarts
c. Three quarts
d. Four quarts
1. C. When full, the gauge will indicate at 25°C when the top oil temperature is
25°C. Insulating oil will expand and contract with temperature changes, so
nameplates will often state how much change in liquid level there will be due to
temperature. The best rule-of-thumb is to not add oil unless the level is below
the LOW mark.
2. A. We used to call this a no-load tap-changer, but that really was not accurate
and misled some people to try to change taps by just opening the secondary of
the transformer. A transformer always draws current from the power system
(excitation current) even with the secondary open. This current establishes and
maintains the flux within the core. Always isolate both the primary and
secondary of a transformer before operating this type of tap-changer.
4. B. At one time it was one quart, but that may not be enough for larger
transformers or transformers with a lot of gunk (that’s a technical term) inside the
sample valve, so now it is two quarts. If the transformer is already low on oil, do
not take a sample until it has been topped off and allowed to sit for at least a few
days so the oil can mix.
5. B. Mineral oil has a relatively low power factor when it is new. It will increase
with age, but a higher power factor does not necessarily mean the oil is bad.
Bushing compound, sealants, and gasketing may increase power factor without
harming the oil’s insulating properties. The cause of an increased power factor
should be determined.
Spring 2010
Electrical Hazard/Risk Analysis
2. List four of the five items OSHA requires employers to do as part of a hazard/risk
assessment:
a. ________________________________________________
b. ________________________________________________
c. ________________________________________________
d. ________________________________________________
3. In your own words, state the relationship between incident energy and time:
5. List four factors to consider when evaluating risk in an electrical power system:
a. ______________________________________
b. ______________________________________
c. ______________________________________
d. ______________________________________
Spring 2010 Answers
4. The NFPA 70E provides some guidance for hazard/risk analysis, but ANSI/AHIA
Z10 has additional information, including assessing the residual risk (risk that
cannot be eliminated or reduced by other measures).
a. NFPA 70E
b. ANSI/AIHA Z10
5. Any four of the below listed factors should be considered. Depending on the
specific installation and environment, other factors may also need to be
considered.
a. Equipment condition
b. Equipment age
c. Equipment loading
d. History of failure
e. Environment
f. Maintenance history
g. Potential for backfeed or induced voltages
h. Power system configuration/design
i. Skill level of personnel doing the work
Summer 2010
Medium-Voltage Circuit Breakers
1. When is the danger of an arc flash the greatest for drawout circuit breakers?
a. When opening the circuit breaker
b. When closing the circuit breaker
c. When racking the circuit breaker in
d. When racking the circuit breaker out
e. Both C and D
2. What electrical test can help determine the condition of the contact pivot’s
lubrication state?
a. Insulation power factor
b. Contact resistance
c. Insulation resistance
d. Vacuum bottle integrity test
e. DC overpotential
4. What dangerous energy could be released during a vacuum bottle integrity test?
a. Gamma rays
b. Nuclear radiation
c. X-rays
d. None
e. Both A and C
5. What are the insulation power factor tests typically performed on a medium-
voltage, air-magnetic circuit breaker?
a. Six guarded-specimen tests and three ungrounded-specimen tests
b. Three ungrounded-specimen tests and six grounded-specimen tests
c. Three guarded-specimen tests and six grounded-specimen tests
d. Six ungrounded-specimen tests and three guarded-specimen tests
Summer 2010 Answers
1. E. Racking the circuit breaker, whether racking in or racking out, presents the
greatest hazard. Whenever a bus connection is made or broken (and there are
no arc chutes or extinguishers), there is an increased hazard from arc flash.
2. B. The contact resistance test is almost like having x-ray vision. As the
lubricants in the contact pivot dry out (from the heat created by current passing
through the contact structures), the resistance of the pivot increases. If this is
trended the resistance can be seen to increase each year the circuit breaker is in
service.
4. C. X-rays could be released if a vacuum bottle fails during the vacuum bottle
integrity test. The amount of radiation is small and can be blocked by putting the
circuit breaker between yourself and the bottle being tested.
5. A. The guarded-specimen tests measure the insulation quality from each pole
unit to ground and the ungrounded-Specimen tests measures the insulation
quality across the arc chute.
Fall 2010
Medium-Voltage Motor Starters
1. Answers:
a. Contact gap
b. Contact pressure
c. Contact wipe
d. Contact alignment
2. D. No sign of failure. The one megohm/kV + one megohm is old school for
insulation resistance test values. This value is much too low for good insulation..
Use Table 100.1 instead.
5. C. As the arc current passes through the blowout coil a magnetic field is created
that pulls the arc into the chute. The same thing happens on medium-voltage air
circuit breakers.
Winter 2010
Diagnostics
True
False
5. When installing filtered capacitor banks to improve power quality, which of the
following items are necessary for proper tuning:
a. Harmonic load and harmonic spectrum at the site
b. Short-circuit current or kVA of the transformer feeding the site
c. Other capacitor banks installed at the site
d. More than one of the above
Winter 2010 Answers
1. A. Nonlinear loads like soft starters, rectifiers, etc., produce harmonics because
of the SCR/diode commutation. Motor starting generally causes the system
voltage to sag but the associated vacuum contactors will introduce spikes while
switching. Mother Nature delivers lighting strikes which causes ground planes to
shift or high voltage spikes.
2. A. According to IEEE-519-1992
4. True. Many VFD manufacturers still use line-to-ground voltage for SCR control,
surge protection, and filtering.
5. D. To properly tune a filtered capacitor banks all of the above and many other
factors must be considered.
TECH QUIZ
Arc-Flash Mitigation | By J im Wh it e
Shermco Industries
The topic of electrical arc flash has been an important issue for several years now. Engineers have
been creating and manufacturers are producing innovative new solutions for this life-threatening
problem. This month’s Tech Quiz will cover issues related to electrical arc flash.
Jim White is the 1. Electrical systems rated less than 4. At what voltage does the arc flash
Training director for 240 volts fed by a transformer with a hazard not exist?
Shermco Industries and
the principal Shermco
capacity of <125 kVA are not considered a. 480 volts
representative on the an arc-flash hazard. b. 277 volts
NFPA 70B committee. a. True, according to IEEE 1584 c. 208 volts
Jim is the alternate NETA b.
False d. None of the above
representative on the
NFPA 70E committee
and serves as the NETA
representative on the IEEE/ 2. Arc -flash protective clothing and 5. When wearing an arc-rated face shield,
NFPA Arc-Flash Hazard equipment are rated to: what is the correct body position when
Work Group (RTPC) a. Provide protection to the value operating electrical equipment?
Ad Hoc Committee. He
served as the Chairman of
indicated as the “arc rating” or a. Extend the left arm and turn the
the 2008 IEEE Electrical “ATPV” face away from the hazard
Safety Workshop. Jim is b. Provide a 50% probability of a burn b. Extend the right arm and turn the
a NETA Certified Level at the arc rating or ATPV face away from the hazard
IV Electrical Testing
c. Provide protection in excess of the arc c. Extend either arm and turn your
Technician and a member
of the NETA Safety rating or ATPV face towards the hazard
Committee. d. Allow a person to safely work on an d. Get an apprentice to do it for you
energized electrical power system
A N S W E R S
A ns we r 1 Ans w er 3 An sw er 5
b - False – I get this question d – The other three are good rules-of- c – Actually, I would go for “d”, but
a lot. Just because the IEEE 1584 thumb to keep in mind when working apprentices can be in short supply at
says that calculations may not be on exposed, energized electrical times. I like to follow what I call the
necessary, that does not automatically conductors or circuit parts. Keep hinge-side rule. I stand on the side
mean there is no hazard concerning in mind that if the incident energy with the hinge, extend whichever arm
arc flash. Firstly, that portion of the decreases by the inverse square of the is appropriate, face the hazard and
1584 guide only applies to three-phase distance, it will also increase by the operate the equipment. Some people
power systems fed by a transformer square of the distance as you go nearer fault that approach, reasoning that the
rated less than 125 kVA and less than to an arc source. PPE is designed to protect you, but I
240 volts. A single-phase transformer would say arc-rated PPE is designed to
can have more arc energy. Secondly, protect you if its rating is not exceeded.
there is a hazard to the hands and arms, Ans w er 4 Who knows if the OCPD is going
even at the lower energy levels, not to d – Trick question! At the October to function correctly? The door will
mention the hazard of flying molten NFPA 70E ROP meeting David Wallis probably blow open and could strike
metal that could be ejected from the with OSHA presented two instances the operator, causing injury. However,
equipment. The hazard is reduced, where people suffered serious injury at I will take a concussion or broken arm
not eliminated. These calculations are 120/240 volts. One worker received over being crispy-fried. Main point,
less than convincing, especially at the significant third-degree burns to his face the hazard so the face shield does
lower voltages. The new IEEE/NFPA chest, hand, and arm. not become a heat scoop.
Joint Collaboration Project should
shed some new light on this area.
A ns we r 2 NFPA Disclaimer: Although Jim White is a member of the NFPA Technical Committee for both
NFPA 70E “Standard for Electrical Safety in the Workplace” and NFPA 70B “Recommended Practice for
b – According to ASTM F1959, Electrical Equipment Maintenance”, the views and opinions expressed in this message are purely the author’s
arc-rated clothing and equipment are and shall not be considered an official position of the NFPA or any of its Technical Committees and shall not
rated to allow a 50 percent probability be considered to be, nor be relied upon as, a formal interpretation or promotion of the NFPA. Readers are
encouraged to refer to the entire text of all referenced documents.
of a second-degree burn if that
clothing is exposed to the rated
incident energy for 1/10th second.
Some clothing could experience break-
open at its rating.
a. 1 Megohm
b. 2 Megohm
c. 4 Megohm
d. No failure of insulation
A N S W E R S
A nswe r 1 A nsw e r 2 A ns w e r 4
NFPA Disclaimer: Although Jim White is a member of the NFPA Technical Committee for both
NFPA 70E “Standard for Electrical Safety in the Workplace” and NFPA 70B “Recommended Practice for
Electrical Equipment Maintenance”, the views and opinions expressed in this message are purely the author’s
and shall not be considered an official position of the NFPA or any of its Technical Committees and shall not
be considered to be, nor be relied upon as, a formal interpretation or promotion of the NFPA. Readers are
encouraged to refer to the entire text of all referenced documents.
No. 96
With summer fast approaching (at least in Texas) I thought it might be a good time to do a little
weather trivia and IQ. Answers are from the National Weather Service.
Jim White is the 1. Which state had the most heat-related 4. What are the signs of heatstroke?
Training Director for fatalities in 2010? a.____________________
Shermco Industries and
the principal Shermco
a. Texas b. ____________________
representative on the b. Nevada c. ____________________
NFPA 70B committee. c. Pennsylvania d. ____________________
Jim is the alternate NETA d. Florida
representative on the
5. What steps should you take to
NFPA 70E committee
and serves as the NETA 2. Which state had the most cold weather- treat heatstroke?
representative on the IEEE/ related fatalities? a. _____________________
NFPA Arc-Flash Hazard a. Wisconsin b. _____________________
Work Group (RTPC) b. South Carolina c. _____________________
Ad Hoc Committee. He
served as the Chairman of
c. Florida d. _____________________
the 2008 IEEE Electrical d. Illinois
Safety Workshop. Jim is
a NETA Certified Level 3. Which state had the most weather-related
IV Electrical Testing
fatalities in 2010?
Technician and a member
of the NETA Safety a. Tennessee
Committee. b. Arkansas
c. Illinois
d. Pennsylvania
See answers on page 107.
No. 96
A N S W E R S
A NS WE R 1 ANS W ER 3 AN SW ER 5
1. Which state had the most heat- 3. Which state had the most weather- 5. What steps should you take to
related fatalities in 2010? related fatalities in 2010? treat heatstroke?
In order from highest to lowest: In order from highest to lowest: If someone you are working with
a. Nevada 23 a. Tennessee 53 exhibits the symptoms of heatstroke,
b. Pennsylvania/ b. Arkansas 36 do the following:
Tennessee (tied) 22 c. Illinois 29 a. Move them into the shade
c. Mississippi/ d. Mississippi, Texas and b. Call 911
New York (tied) 10 Pennsylvania 27 c. Lie on your back with the head
d. Arkansas 7 and shoulders elevated
Texas had four and Florida had 1. ANS W ER 4 d. Remove outer layers of
Louisiana and Maryland both had 6. clothing, if possible
These numbers were quite a surprise. 4. What are the signs of heatstroke? e. Wet underlayers with tepid
Recognizing the symptoms of water (not warm or cool)
A NS WE R 2 heatstroke is important to surviving f. Drip water on skin to cool
heatstroke. slowly
2. Which state had the most cold a. Skin is hot to the touch g. Rehydrate with small sips of
weather-related fatalities? b. Rapid strong pulse water once temperature comes
In order from highest to lowest: c. Severe headache down some (if conscious)
a. Illinois 18 d. Nausea
b. Tennessee 6 e. Possible unconsciousness
c. Mississippi 3
d. Florida 2
Indiana, Kentucky, Louisiana, South
Carolina and Wisconsin all had 1 each.
What’s going on in Illinois?
NFPA Disclaimer: Although Jim White is a member of the NFPA Technical Committee for both
NFPA 70E “Standard for Electrical Safety in the Workplace” and NFPA 70B “Recommended Practice for
Electrical Equipment Maintenance,” the views and opinions expressed in this message are purely the author’s
and shall not be considered an official position of the NFPA or any of its technical committees and shall not
be considered to be, nor be relied upon as, a formal interpretation or promotion of the NFPA. Readers are
encouraged to refer to the entire text of all referenced documents.
No. 97
PLACING EQUIPMENT IN AN
ELECTRICALLY-SAFE WORK CONDITION
B Y JI M W H IT E, Shermco Industries
1. List the seven steps involved with 4. Which NFPA 70E article covers placing
placing equipment in an electrically-safe equipment in an electrically-safe
Jim White is the work condition: work condition?
Training Director for a. ________________ a. Article 100
Shermco Industries and
the principal Shermco
b. ________________ b. Article 110
representative on the c. ________________ c. Article 120
NFPA 70B committee. d. ________________ d. Article 130
Jim is the alternate NETA e. ________________
representative on the
f. ________________ 5. Name the hazard involved with placing an
NFPA 70E committee
and serves as the NETA g. ________________ electrical system in an electrically-safe
representative on the IEEE/ work condition.
NFPA Arc-Flash Hazard 2. Which OSHA regulation contains the a. Backfeeds
Work Group (RTPC) requirements for electrical lockout/tagout? b. Induced voltages
Ad Hoc Committee. He
served as the Chairman of
a. 1910.147 c. Misreading single-lines or inaccurate
the 2008 IEEE Electrical b. 1910.335 single-lines
Safety Workshop. Jim is c. 1910.333 d. Inaccurate or incomplete procedures
a NETA Certified Level d. 1910.137 e. Assumptions made by workers
IV Electrical Testing
and employers
Technician and a member
of the NETA Safety 3. How does electrical lockout/tagout differ f. All the above
Committee. from mechanical lockout/tagout?
a. Equipment is not considered
deenergized until it has been tested.
b. Electrical equipment has to be
disconnected from energy sources.
See answers on page 113.
No. 97
A N S W E R S
A NS WE R 1 ANS W ER 3 AN SW ER 5
1. List the seven steps involved 3. How does electrical lockout/tagout 5. Name the hazard involved
with placing equipment in an differ from mechanical with placing an electrical system in
electrically-safe work condition: lockout/tagout? an electrically-safe work condition.
The seven steps are: a. Equipment is not considered f. All the above
a. Determine all possible sources deenergized until it has f. There are specific hazards associated
of electrical energy. been tested. with the different configurations of
b. After properly interrupting a. is the correct answer. 1910.147 electrical power systems. Double-
the load, open the disconnecting requires that energy sources be blocked ended substations have twice the
device for each source. or restrained, and it also requires that incident energy if both main breakers
c. When possible, visually verify all a nylon cable tie or its equivalent be and the tie breaker are closed. Ring
blades or contacts are open. used for tags. The main difference is bus or loop systems will usually have
d. Apply lockout/tagout devices. that electrical lockout/tagout requires energized stabs on the end breakers.
e. Operate the circuit or device, if a test to verify the absence of voltage. Tie breakers can have both sets of stabs
possible, to ensure deactivation. Until this test is performed, it must be energized. The important thing is to
f. Test each conductor for the considered energized. be aware of the configuration of the
absence of voltage. system and expect the unexpected. In
g. If necessary, ground the circuit. ANS W ER 4 other words, don’t make assumptions.
No. 98
No. 98
A N S W E R S
ANS WE R 1 AN SW ER 3 AN SW ER 5
1. What is a phasor? 3. A three-phase bolted fault will 5. Identify the following three currents:
b. Similar to a vector, a phasor is primarily produce what type a. IO – zero sequence current
used to indicate both amplitude of current? b. I2 – negative sequence current
and phase angle. Phasors can a. Positive sequence current c. I1 – positive sequence current
represent any quantity that can A three-phase bolted fault will produce Although we have used current as
be represented by a sinusoid. primarily positive sequence currents, the example in these questions, positive,
My personal answer would be A, but while a phase-to-ground fault will cause negative and zero sequence voltages can
that’s not correct. The correct answer is equal values of positive, negative, and also be present in the electrical system.
B. A phasor is used to show amplitude zero sequence current. Any imbalance in
(magnitude) and phase angle. Using the electrical system causes some negative
phasors to analyze a three-phase system sequence current.
is much easier than trying to use
sine waves. AN SW ER 4
No. 99
LUBRICANTS USED IN
CIRCUIT BREAKERS AND SWITCHES
B Y JI M W H IT E, Shermco Industries
James R. (Jim) White is
the Training Director of
Electrical equipment consists mostly of mechanical components.
Shermco Industries, Inc., In low- and medium-voltage switches, circuit breakers and
in Dallas, Texas. He is the
principal member on the disconnects these components have parts that slide, rotate and
NFPA technical committee
“Recommended Practice wear against each other. Lubricants reduce the effects of this wear
for Electrical Equipment
Maintenance” (NFPA
and prevent binding and seizing.
70B). Jim represents
NETA as an alternate
member of the NFPA 1. Circuit breaker contacts should 4. Which single lubricant is acceptable for use
Technical Committee be lubricated: in both the conductive and mechanical areas
“Electrical Safety in the a. every six months. of circuit breakers and switches?
Workplace” (NFPA 70E) b. only in corrosive atmospheres. a. D50H38® (zinc chromate-based)
and represents NETA
on the ASTM F18 c. to prevent burning. b. No-Ox-Id A-Special®
Committee “Electrical d. only in hospitals. c. Mobil 28®
Protective Equipment For d. Molykote®
Workers”. Jim is an IEEE 2. Conventional grease is typically
Senior Member and in
2011 received the IEEE/
composed of: 5. List the three types of lubricants (not the
PCIC Electrical Safety a. emulsifiers and oil. specific lubricant) and where they are used in
Excellence award. Jim is a b. long-chain hydrocarbons. a circuit breaker:
past Chairman (2008) of c. natural esters and emulsifiers. a. _______________________________
the IEEE Electrical Safety d. finely ground bronze and oil. b._______________________________
Workshop (ESW).
c. _______________________________
3. List three important areas to lubricate on
circuit breakers and switches.
See answers on page 117.
a. _______________________________
b. _______________________________
c. _______________________________
No. 99
A N S W E R S
A NS WE R 1 ANSWER 4
1. Circuit breaker contacts should be lubricated: 4. Which single lubricant is acceptable for use in both the
b. Circuit breaker contacts usually should not be lubricated. conductive and mechanical areas of circuit breakers and switches?
The heat from the current flow through the contacts breaks c. Each manufacturer recommends a specific lubricant for the
the lubricant down and causes contact resistance to increase. mechanical components such as the operating mechanism
Each time the contacts are opened or closed, arcing takes and one for the conductive areas such as the contact pivot.
place on the contact surfaces, breaking the lubricant down These lubricants cannot be mixed. For example, on GE
even more quickly. Bolted pressure switches, however, often circuit breakers D50H38 was recommended for use only
recommend lubricating their main contacts. There are in the conductive areas, while D50H15 was used in the
some greases that add different ingredients to obtain better mechanical areas. Mobile 28, a red, synthetic lubricant,
characteristics, such as graphite, zinc chromate or silver. is acceptable to most manufacturers for use in both the
They still use an emulsifier, which dries out over time. conductive and mechanical areas. Before substituting
lubricants, always contact the manufacturer for your specific
ANSWER 2 application. This may sound like a dodge on my part, but
2. Conventional grease is typically composed of: Mobil 28 may not be the best lubricant at some temperatures
a. Conventional greases, that is, greases made from petroleum or environmental or load conditions for every circuit breaker
compounds, are made from emulsifiers and oil. Emulsifiers or switch. Also, when using a synthetic lubricant, such as
keep the oil in suspension and allow it to cling to surfaces. Mobil 28, take special care not to overlubricate. It should
The oil does the actual lubrication. As the grease ages and/ be applied in a very thin coating; just enough to see on the
or is heated, the oil evaporates, leaving only the emulsifiers, surface. Overlubrication will cause it to liquefy and run,
which get gummy. which in turn attracts dirt, unlike the thicker greases, which
have more “cling”.
ANSWER 3
3. List three important areas to lubricate on circuit breakers ANSWER 5
and switches. 5. List the three types of lubricants (not the specific lubricant) and
a. Contact pivot where they are used in a circuit breaker:
b. Linkages a. Conductive. For use in the contact pivot, primary and
c. Operating mechanism secondary disconnects and other conductive areas.
These can consist of zinc chromate, silver, graphite
or other compounds.
b. Nonconductive. For use on latches, bearings and bearing
surfaces. Usually petroleum-based, but can be lithium-based.
c. Oil. For use on linkages. Typically a 20-30 weight
oil is recommended.
NFPA Disclaimer: Although Jim White is a member of the NFPA Technical Committee for both NFPA 70E “Standard for Electrical Safety in the Workplace” and
NFPA 70B “Recommended Practice for Electrical Equipment Maintenance,” the views and opinions expressed in this message are purely the author’s and shall not be
considered an official position of the NFPA or any of its technical committees and shall not be considered to be, nor be relied upon as, a formal interpretation or promotion of
the NFPA. Readers are encouraged to refer to the entire text of all referenced documents.
No. 100
is indicated by:
a. streaks of oil on the surface of
the electrolyte.
b. brownish nodules adhering to the case.
c. white salts appearing on the surface
of the plates.
d. white milky substance that appears on the
cells and jar.
No. 100
A N S W E R S
-7
,Ê£ -7
,Ê{
1. An indication that a vented lead-acid battery is in trouble 4. When performing a load test on a battery bank,
is when its internal impedance increases ___% above what percent remaining capacity indicates the need to
its as-installed impedance. replace the batteries?
b. When the internal impedance of a cell increases by more d. When battery capacity decreases to 80% of its initial rating,
than 20%, it is an indication that the battery is starting to it is time to look for a replacement.
deteriorate and should be monitored more closely. This test
is often referred to as the ohmic test and is performed by -7
,Êx
applying an ac voltage across the battery and measuring the 5. The only repair for sulfation is to:
internal impedance of the battery. a. Since sulfation occurs when a battery is in a discharged
state, equalizing is the cure. The problem is that all of
-7
,ÊÓ the sulfates usually do not recombine and the battery
2. Which of the following is not an example of a VRLA loses some capacity. This is a normal part of the
(valve-regulated lead-acid) battery? charge/discharge cycle, but when a battery stays in a low
a. VRLA batteries (valve-regulated lead-acid) are increasingly state of charge, sulfation can be permanent.
used for various standby electrical power applications Battery shedding will also increase as the discharged
including emergency generators and switchgear. electrolyte now contains more water and will soften the lead
The most common types of VRLA batteries are gel cells plate material. If that shedded material builds up to about
and absorbed glass mat. These batteries are often referred halfway to the plates, a constant discharge begins
to as maintenance free, although low maintenance would between the shedded material and the plates, which results
better describe them. in a battery that will not maintain a charge.
-7
,ÊÎ
3. Sulfation in flooded-cell, lead-acid batteries
is indicated by:
c. Sulfation results from the battery being in an undercharged
state for an extended period of time. As the battery
discharges, the active lead material on the plates will react
with the sulfates in the electrolyte and form a lead sulfate
on the plates. This appears as a white, granular deposit on
the plates.
NFPA Disclaimer:"MUIPVHI+JN8IJUFJTBNFNCFSPGUIF/'1"5FDIOJDBM$PNNJUUFFGPSCPUI/'1"&i4UBOEBSEGPS&MFDUSJDBM4BGFUZJOUIF8PSLQMBDFwBOE
/'1"#i3FDPNNFOEFE1SBDUJDFGPS&MFDUSJDBM&RVJQNFOU.BJOUFOBODF
wUIFWJFXTBOEPQJOJPOTFYQSFTTFEJOUIJTNFTTBHFBSFQVSFMZUIFBVUIPSTBOETIBMMOPUCF
considered an official position of the NFPA or any of its technical committees and shall not be considered to be, nor be relied upon as, a formal interpretation or promotion of
the NFPA. Readers are encouraged to refer to the entire text of all referenced documents.
No. 101
No. 101
A N S W E R S
ANSWER 1 ANSWER 4
1. First-Out Timing is performed to ensure: 4. What test will indicate the serviceability of a medium-
c. Circuit breakers often sit for extended periods of time voltage vacuum interrupter?
without operating. As they sit, current is flowing through a. Vacuum bottle integrity test. The vacuum bottle integrity
them, drying out their lubricants. When they are called test will detect vacuum bottles that have insufficient vacuum
on to operate, maybe they will or maybe they won’t. The to safely interrupt fault-level current.
problem is that they will often work just fine after a few
operations, but what will they do on that very first trip? ANSWER 5
That’s the one that really counts. 5. When performing insulation power factor tests on
medium-voltage circuit breakers, what quantity is
normally measured?
ANSWER 2 a. Because the device is mostly resistive, the specimen’s watts
2. What two quantities are usually measured with a circuit loss is usually recorded, instead of percent power factor.
breaker motion analyzer?
a. Circuit breaker time/travel analyzers can measure many
things; contact bounce, overtravel and contact wipe.
Their primary purpose though, is to measure the distance
the contacts travel (displacement) and how fast they
move (velocity).
ANSWER 3
3. Partial discharges are created by:
a. Voids and air pockets in insulation can have electrical
discharges (ionization) when they are in high-voltage fields.
This discharge can be measured and monitored, either while
the equipment is energized (for continuous monitoring) or
during specific tests.
NFPA Disclaimer: Although Jim White is a member of the NFPA Technical Committee for both NFPA 70E “Standard for Electrical Safety in the Workplace” and
NFPA 70B “Recommended Practice for Electrical Equipment Maintenance,” the views and opinions expressed in this message are purely the author’s and shall not be
considered an official position of the NFPA or any of its technical committees and shall not be considered to be, nor be relied upon as, a formal interpretation or promotion of
the NFPA. Readers are encouraged to refer to the entire text of all referenced documents.
No. 102
WIND POWER
B Y JI M W H I TE , Shermco Industries
James R. (Jim) White
is the Training Director Wind power generation sites have become common throughout
of Shermco Industries,
Inc., in Dallas, Texas.
the U.S. Wind generation presents some unique challenges for
He is the principal maintenance personnel, as well as for safety concerns.
member on the NFPA
technical committee 1. Which state has the most wind generation 4. On average, wind generators produce power
“Recommended Practice
for Electrical Equipment capacity (in MW)? ___ % of the time.
Maintenance” (NFPA a. Illinois a. 30
70B). Jim represents b. California b. 50
NETA as an alternate c. Iowa c. 60
member of the NFPA
Technical Committee
d. Texas d. 90
“Electrical Safety
in the Workplace” 2. The most common cause of failure 5. The cost to install a wind generator is
(NFPA 70E) and in a wind turbine is: approximately ___ to ___ per MW of
represents NETA
on the ASTM F18
a. Gearboxes installed nameplate capacity.
Committee “Electrical b. Blades a. $800,000 to $1,200,000.
Protective Equipment c. Control system b. $1,000,000 to $1,300,000.
For Workers”. Jim is an d. Electrical system c. $1,500,000 to $2,000,000.
IEEE Senior Member
d. $1,300,000 to $2,200,000.
and in 2011 received the
IEEE/PCIC Electrical 3. The largest commercially-available wind
Safety Excellence
generator produces:
award. Jim is a past
Chairman (2008) of the a. 8.0 MW
IEEE Electrical Safety b. 7.6 MW
Workshop (ESW). c. 6.6 MW
d. 5.0 MW
See answers on page 120.
No. 102
A N S W E R S
A NS W ER 1 AN S WE R 3
1. Which state has the most wind generation capacity 3. The largest commercially-available wind
(in MW)? generator produces:
d. Texas currently has the largest installed wind generation b. Vestas is set to manufacture an 8 MW wind turbine in
capacity at 10,929 MW, per Wikipedia. California has 2015, but the current winner goes to Enercon at 7.58
4,570 MW, Iowa has 4,536 MW, and Illinois has 3,055 MW. It has a rotor diameter of 127 meters and is not
MW. The Alta Wind Energy Center in Kern County, used for offshore applications, although the Vestas
California is the largest US wind site with 1,020 MW of turbine will be.
generation, and the Roscoe Wind farm in Nolan County,
Texas is second with 781 MW of generation. AN S WE R 4
4. On average, wind generators produce power ___ %
A NS W ER 2
of the time.
2. The most common cause of failure in a wind turbine is: a. In the US, wind generators produce power at about
d. Failure of the gearbox is a major concern due to the 30 percent of the time (source Energy Information
downtime involved, but the electrical system is the Agency). In Europe, it is closer to 13 percent of the
primary cause of failure for wind generators. Figure time. Once a wind generator’s speed falls below its
1 shows relative failure rates of components based optimum output speed, the power it produces falls
on a study performed by B. Hahn, Institut für Solare rapidly. As an example, for every halving of wind speed
Energieversorgungstechnik in a paper titled Reliability a wind generator’s output falls by a factor of 8. Most
Assessment of Wind Turbines in Germany. Other studies wind generators produce maximum power at about 25
have shown a similar pattern. to 30 mph.
Drive Train AN S WE R 5
Sensors
2% Hydraulics
12%
10% 5. The cost to install a wind generator is approximately
Control
System Break ___ to ___ per MW of installed nameplate capacity.
16% 6% d. According to Windustry, the cost per MW of installed
Hub capacity is between $1,300,000 and $2,200,000. This
6%
cost has gone down substantially over the last few years.
Electrical
Gear Box The larger the turbine, the more cost effective it becomes.
3%
Structural
Electrical Parts
NFPA Disclaimer: Although Jim White is a member of
System 3%
the NFPA Technical Committee for both NFPA 70E “Standard
19% Yaw System
Mechanical for Electrical Safety in the Workplace” and NFPA 70B
10%
Components “Recommended Practice for Electrical Equipment Maintenance,”
Generator Rotor Blades the views and opinions expressed in this message are purely
6% 9% the author’s and shall not be considered an official position of
the NFPA or any of its technical committees and shall not be
considered to be, nor be relied upon as, a formal interpretation
Figure 1: Component Failure for Wind Turbines or promotion of the NFPA. Readers are encouraged to refer to the
entire text of all referenced documents.
No. 103
OVERCURRENT COORDINATION
B Y JI M W H I TE , Shermco Industries
James R. (Jim) White
is the Training Director This Tech Quiz looks at alternatives to overcurrent protective
of Shermco Industries,
Inc., in Dallas, Texas.
relaying due to coordination issues. Depending on the specific
He is the principal
member on the NFPA
type of system, there can be many choices.
technical committee 1. Differential protective relay schemes 4. Directional overcurrent relays have a charac-
“Recommended Practice typically have their zones established by teristic known as the maximum torque angle.
for Electrical Equipment
Maintenance” (NFPA current transformers. In the figure below, at How is the MTA determined during testing?
70B). Jim represents the instant current flows into _____, it also a. Find the zero torque angles and divide
NETA as an alternate flows out of _____. by two.
member of the NFPA a. H1 – X2 b. Plot the characteristic circle and find the
Technical Committee
“Electrical Safety
b. H2 – X1 minimum current to close the contacts.
in the Workplace” c. H1 – X1 c. Apply rated voltage and increase the
(NFPA 70E) and d. H2 – X2 current slowly until contact closure.
represents NETA d. Maintain the restraint current and
on the ASTM F18 increase the operating current until
Committee “Electrical
Protective Equipment contact closure.
For Workers”. Jim is an
IEEE Senior Member 5. Directional overcurrent relays must see two
and in 2011 received the
conditions in order to operate. What are they?
IEEE/PCIC Electrical
Safety Excellence a. Current below the overcurrent unit
award. Jim is a past 2. Calculate the following values for a set point and the polarizing quantity
Chairman (2008) of the percentage differential relay with a 25 at an angle that closes the directional
IEEE Electrical Safety percent slope characteristic: unit contact.
Workshop (ESW). r3FTUSBJOUDVSSFOU " b. Current above the overcurrent unit
r3FTUSBJOUDVSSFOU " set point and the polarizing quantity
r0QFSBUJOHDVSSFOU @@@@@@ at an angle that opens the directional
See answers on page 120.
No. 103
A N S W E R S
A NS W ERS 4. Directional overcurrent relays have a characteristic
1. Differential protective relay schemes typically have known as the maximum torque angle. How is the
their zones established by current transformers. In MTA determined during testing?
the figure below, at the instant current flows into a. A typical directional overcurrent relay has a directional
_____, it also flows out of _____. unit and an overcurrent unit. Both units must close
c. H1 – X1. It’s the rule of instantaneous current flow. their contacts in order to cause a trip. The directional
Current in the electrical system changes direction unit is frequently constructed to have maximum closing
instantaneously 120 times each second (60 cycles). As it torque when the voltage and current are in quadrature,
changes direction it does so throughout the entire system. i.e. 90 degrees apart. Theoretically, the closing zone
As current flows into H1, it flows out of X1 on the of the directional unit is +/- 90 degrees from the
positive half-cycle. On the next half-cycle, it flows into maximum torque angle. From a practical standpoint,
H2 and out X2, maintaining the relative instantaneous the closing zone is dependent on the maximum available
polarity of the differential scheme. test current. Thus, the maximum torque angle can be
calculated as being in the center of the two extreme
closing angles.
2. Calculate the following values for a percentage
differential relay with a 25 percent slope characteristic:
The operating current is the difference between the two 5. Directional overcurrent relays must see two conditions
restraining currents (differential), so it would be 25A. in order to operate. What are they?
The calculated imbalance (percent slope) of this example d. Directional overcurrent relays must have sufficient
would be: current to close the overcurrent contact and at an angle
relative to the applied polarizing quantity to cause the
directional unit to close its contact.
No. 104
No. 104
A N S W E R S
A NS W ERS
1. C. Zone selective interlocking requires that the circuit breakers Breaker 1 will go into STD mode, and if Breaker 2 does
in a downstream zone communicate with breakers in the next not trip, it will trip after the set delay. Breaker 2 will trip on
upstream zone. If the downstream breaker sees fault current, Instantaneous mode as it is the breaker closest to the fault.
it sends a restraint signal to all breakers in the next upstream The advantage of zone selective interlocking is that there can
zone. The restraint signal keeps the breaker receiving it from be a time delay for protective devices coordination, but the
tripping with no intentional delay (instantaneously) and that breaker closest to the fault will function as an instantaneous
breaker will trip in its set time delay, if the downstream breaker trip breaker. Since Breaker 3 does not see any fault current, it
fails to clear the fault. A breaker seeing fault current, but not will restrain and not trip.
receiving a restraint signal, will trip instantaneously, regardless
of its delay setting. 4. A and D. Current-limiting circuit breakers often use the
magnetic force of the fault current to blow the contacts
2. B. The bimetal element in a molded-case circuit breaker has a apart. The greater the fault current, the more magnetic force
characteristic known as thermal memory. This characteristic is applied to the parting of the contacts. This action limits
allows the bimetal element to respond to current on the same both the operating time and short circuit pass-through
basis that the conductor will be heated by the current. As the current. At lower-level currents the breaker acts like a normal
current passes through the bimetal element, it will begin to LTD function breaker. Although old technology, current-
deflect, based on the value of the current. If the current drops limiting fuses provide a highly reliable method of decreasing
(such as in a motor starting), the bimetal will slow, then reset operating time and the short circuit pass-through current.
to an appropriate level for the current. If the current stays With both technologies, the short-circuit current has to be
at that higher level, it may stop or, if the current magnitude great enough to be in the current-limiting characteristic or
is high enough, continue to deflect until it trips the breaker. they will respond as time delay devices.
0MEFSTPMJETUBUF0$1%TEJEOPUJODPSQPSBUFBOZNFUIPE
to mimic this characteristic and could false trip if the load 5. $%JHJUBMBOENJDSPQSPDFTTPSDPOUSPMMFE0$1%FNQMPZ
fluctuated. thermal imaging to mimic thermal memory that is a
characteristic of thermal bimetal breakers.
3. A. Breaker 1 will restrain. Breaker 2 will communicate with
it and send a restraint signal, telling Breaker 1 that it sees the
fault current.
B. Breaker 2 will trip instantaneously. It does not receive a
restraint signal from Breaker 3, since Breaker 3 does not see NFPA Disclaimer: Although Jim White is a member of
the fault current. the NFPA Technical Committee for both NFPA 70E “Standard
C. Breaker 3 will restrain. It does not see the fault current and for Electrical Safety in the Workplace” and NFPA 70B
the absence of a restraint signal from it allows Breaker 2 to trip “Recommended Practice for Electrical Equipment Maintenance,”
the views and opinions expressed in this message are purely
instantaneously. the author’s and shall not be considered an official position of
the NFPA or any of its technical committees and shall not be
considered to be, nor be relied upon as, a formal interpretation
or promotion of the NFPA. Readers are encouraged to refer to the
entire text of all referenced documents.
No. 105
James R. (Jim) White
is the Training Director
of Shermco Industries,
FIELD TESTING TECHNIQUES FOR
Inc., in Dallas, Texas.
He is the principal
member on the NFPA
LOW-VOLTAGE CIRCUIT BREAKERS
B Y JI M W H I TE , Shermco Industries
technical committee
“Recommended Practice Low-voltage circuit breaker testing technology is moving forward, albeit at a relaxed
for Electrical Equipment
Maintenance” (NFPA
pace, it seems. Field testing can include a number of different test methods and types
70B). Jim represents of test equipment. Your task, if you choose to accept it, will be to successfully answer
NETA as an alternate the Tech Quiz questions this issue. As always, choose the most correct answer.
member of the NFPA
Technical Committee
“Electrical Safety 1. Figure 1 shows a jumper cable used to:
in the Workplace” a. defeat the zone selective interlocking
(NFPA 70E) and function.
represents NETA
on the ASTM F18
b. increase the bias current through
Committee “Electrical the programmer.
Protective Equipment c. change the phase angle of the primary
For Workers”. Jim is an injection current.
IEEE Senior Member d. defeat the ground fault function.
and in 2011 received the
IEEE/PCIC Electrical 2. When the thermal memory is switched on
Safety Excellence
for digital overcurrent protective devices
award. Jim is a past
Chairman (2008) of the (OCPDs) used on low-voltage circuit breakers,
IEEE Electrical Safety what effect will it have on the long time delay
Workshop (ESW). (LTD) operating time?
a. It has no effect on LTD.
b. It will decrease LTD somewhat. Figure 1: Low-Voltage Circuit Breaker
c. It will increase LTD somewhat. Testing Scheme
d. It will cause the trip unit to operate on the
instantaneous element.
4. What type of light source can be used to field
3. When performing primary injection testing of a
circuit breaker that has zone selective interlocking, test arc-flash detection relays?
current is injected into individual phases on the a. Compact point-and-shoot camera flash
b. 200W light bulb or LED
See answers on page 122.
No. 105
A N S W E R S
A NS W ERS
1. D. Figure 1 shows a test connection designed to defeat the 3. B. Zone Selective Interlocking should cause the breaker
trip unit ground fault (GF) function by injecting current in that is supposed to trip change from a STD function to
one phase and out in the opposite direction through a second an Instantaneous one, while it also sends a blocking signal
phase. This causes the GF element to see a net current of to upstream breakers. If it does not trip, the next breaker
zero. There are various methods to defeat GF, depending on upstream will operate.
manufacturer, model and generation of the OCPD. Older
GF elements were often defeated by placing a jumper between 4. C. Some manufacturers have a field test module that
two terminals on the trip unit. Later, a cable was needed to synchronizes a burst of light with an overcurrent that is
defeat the GF element. Some manufacturers required using a injected into the overcurrent control relay. Even in those field
secondary injection test set. A better way to defeat GF during test modules, it is necessary to supply the light source, which is
primary injection is similar to that in Figure 1, except that the recommended to be a professional style camera flash. Point-
return is through the two other poles in parallel. The reason to and-shoot cameras apparently do not have the intensity to
go through the extra work is to cause test current in other poles trigger the light detector.
to be substantially lower than the one being tested.
5. A. One of the characteristics listed in several of the
I might be jaded, but I see a trend of increasing costs for no
additional benefit. The loop method will defeat the GF on manufacturer’s test specifications for the light source is that it
any circuit breaker OCPD. Bus bar may be required instead must have a minimum duration of 1ms.
of cable.
No. 106
ROTATING MACHINERY
James R. (Jim) White
is the Training Director
of Shermco Industries,
Inc., in Dallas, Texas.
He is the principal
member on the NFPA
AND PROTECTION
B Y JI M W H I TE , Shermco Industries
technical committee
“Recommended Practice
for Electrical Equipment 3. Digital motor protection relays contain
Maintenance” (NFPA
Low-voltage circuit breaker testing
70B). Jim represents technology is moving forward, albeit at several functions that mimic older
NETA as an alternate a relaxed pace, it seems. Field testing electromechanical protective relays.
member of the NFPA can include a number of different test Which function uses thermal damage
Technical Committee characteristics (I2t) for motor protection?
“Electrical Safety methods and types of test equipment.
Your task, if you choose to accept it, will a. Thermal replica
in the Workplace”
b. Locked rotor
(NFPA 70E) and be to successfully answer the Tech Quiz
represents NETA c. Overcurrent
on the ASTM F18
questions this issue. As always, choose d. All the above
Committee “Electrical the most correct answer. e. None of the above
Protective Equipment 1. With electromechanical relay motor
For Workers”. Jim is an 4. Which of the following functions do not use
protection, what two types of relays were not
IEEE Senior Member the thermal damage characteristics?
and in 2011 received the provided for induction motor protection?
IEEE/PCIC Electrical a. Overcurrent and undervoltage a. Overcurrent (50/51)
Safety Excellence b. Differential and overvoltage b. Current Unbalance (46)
award. Jim is a past c. Current balance and thermal replica c. Differential (87)
Chairman (2008) of the d. Number of Starts Per Time Period (66)
IEEE Electrical Safety
d. Loss-of-field and sync-check
Workshop (ESW).
e. Time Between Starts
2. The biggest enemy to insulating systems is
heat. Current magnitude during most of 5. During normal operation of a motor, when is a
the starting acceleration time is very close locked rotor condition produced?
to locked-rotor current. What is the typical a. During starting
current range for locked-rotor current of b. If a phase is dropped to the motor
a large induction motor? c. If the gearbox or coupling is misaligned
a. 2 to 4 times rated current d. If there is a short circuit in the motor
windings
See answers on page 122.
No. 106
A N S W E R S
A NS W ERS
1. Since induction motors were specified, loss-of-field and
sync-check would not be useful. The correct answer is d.
No. 107
MEDIUM-VOLTAGE
James R. (Jim) White
is the Training Director
of Shermco Industries,
Inc., in Dallas, Texas.
He is the principal
member on the NFPA
CIRCUIT BREAKERS
BY JIM WHITE, Shermco Industries
technical committee
“Recommended Practice Medium-voltage circuit breakers can cover multiple types of arc-extinguishing
for Electrical Equipment
Maintenance” (NFPA methods. If they misoperate, they can be extremely hazardous due to their higher
70B). Jim represents voltages. Some new technologies have been introduced that can help detect problems
NETA as an alternate and help ensure safe operation. As with low-voltage circuit breakers, medium-voltage
member of the NFPA
Technical Committee
circuit breakers require maintenance and testing to prevent accidents.
“Electrical Safety
in the Workplace” 1. The vacuum bottle Integrity test provides an 4. To what does anti-pump refer?
(NFPA 70E) and indication of: a. The ability of a circuit breaker to
represents NETA a. remaining life of a vacuum bottle withstand the available short circuit
on the ASTM F18 b. how many short circuits the vacuum current
Committee “Electrical
Protective Equipment
bottle can handle b. The circuit breaker can only be closed
For Workers”. Jim is an c. the vacuum pressure inside a vacuum once for an operation of the control
IEEE Senior Member bottle switch to the close position
and in 2011 received the d. the current state of the vacuum bottle c. The method the circuit breaker operating
IEEE/PCIC Electrical
mechanism operates
Safety Excellence
award. Jim is a past d. A test to measure the velocity and
2. The term medium voltage typically refers to
Chairman (2008) of the displacement of a circuit breaker
IEEE Electrical Safety
what voltage range?
Workshop (ESW). a. 1,000 V to 100,000 V
b. 1,000 V to 34,500 V 5. What is the recommended level of PPE from
c. 1,000 V to 25,000 V NFPA 70E Table 130.7(C)(15)(a) for racking
d. 1,000 V to 15,000 V a circuit breaker in or out of its cubicle?
a. HRC 1
b. HRC 2
3. Medium-voltage circuit breakers are usually
c. HRC 3
identified by their arc interruption method. List
d. HRC 4
five of those common interrupting methods:
See answers on page 108.
a. _____________________________
b. _____________________________
c. _____________________________
d. _____________________________
e. _____________________________
No. 107
A N S W E R S
ANSWERS
1. d. Vacuum bottle integrity tests can only show that the
vacuum bottle has sufficient vacuum to prevent arcing across
the open contacts at a specified voltage. The Magnetron
atmospheric condition test, which is new on the market,
provides an indication of remaining interrupter life.
3. a. Oil
b. Gas or SF6
c. Air or air magnetic
d. Vacuum
e. Air blast (these have been mostly replaced with gas
circuit breakers)
No. 108
NFPA 70E
James R. (Jim) White
is the Training Director
of Shermco Industries,
Inc., in Dallas, Texas. BY JIM WHITE, Shermco Industries
He is the principal
member on the NFPA With this NETAWorld Journal’s focus on NFPA 70E, it’s only appropriate to
technical committee have the Tech Quiz look at some of the finer points of it. I hope everyone scores
“Recommended Practice 100% on this one.
for Electrical Equipment
Maintenance” (NFPA 1. In order to be considered a qualified worker, list 4. State the Limited and Restricted Approach
70B). Jim represents
five demonstrated skills or knowledge required: Boundaries for the following voltages:
NETA as an alternate
member of the NFPA a. ______________________________ a. 208 V
Technical Committee b. ______________________________ Limited ___________
“Electrical Safety c. ______________________________ Restricted ___________
in the Workplace” d. ______________________________ b. 480 V
(NFPA 70E) and
represents NETA
e. ______________________________ Limited ___________
on the ASTM F18 Restricted ___________
Committee “Electrical c. 4.16 kV
Protective Equipment 2. How often does the 70E require retraining for
Limited ___________
For Workers”. Jim is an qualified persons?
Restricted ___________
IEEE Senior Member a. Every year
and in 2011 received the d. 13.8 kV
b. Every 2 years
IEEE/PCIC Electrical Limited ___________
c. Every 3 years
Safety Excellence Restricted ___________
award. Jim is a past d. Every 4 years
d. 25 kV
Chairman (2008) of the e. Every 5 years
IEEE Electrical Safety
Limited ___________
Workshop (ESW). Restricted ___________
3. Using the given information, determine the
approximate short circuit current available at
5. When can an unqualified person enter the
a transformer’s secondary:
Limited Approach Space?
Voltages: 13.8 kV to 277Y/480 V
a. When continuously escorted
Impedance: 5%
b. When performing minor
kVA: 2,500
housekeeping duties
See answers on page 118.
No. 108
A N S W E R S
ANSWERS
1. To be a qualified worker (having the skills and knowledge A simple way to determine the full-load current of a 480 V
required to work on or near energized electrical conductors transformer is that for every 500 kVA of transformer size, there is
and circuit parts) is not a simple thing. Many workers approximately 600 A of full-load current. Our example 2,500 kVA
believe that they are qualified if they have the technical transformer would then have about 3,000 A capacity. The percent
skills needed for the job. That is only half right. OSHA and impedance of the transformer is divided by 100 to make it an
70E require a level of electrical safety knowledge and skill, actual impedance, so 5% becomes 0.05. Plugging the numbers in:
as well. Without those, a person is unqualified. Reference
NFPA 70E Section 110.2(D)(1). 2,500 kVA = 60,000 A short-circuit available current
at the secondary.
a. Skills and techniques to determine energized parts from 5%
deenergized parts 100
b. Skills and techniques to determine the nominal voltage
c. Skills and techniques to determine the minimum safe 4. This is another piece of knowledge every field service technician
approach distances to energized should know. The approach distances for the following voltages:
conductors and circuit parts a. 208 V
d. Correct use of precautionary techniques Limited – 42” (3’ 6”) Restricted - Avoid contact
e. Correct use of PPE, including arc flash suit b. 277Y/4890 V
f. Correct use of insulating and shielding materials Limited – 42” (3’ 6”) Restricted -12” (1’)
g. Correct use of insulated and insulating tools c. 4.16 kV
h. Ability to determine the degree and extent of the hazard Limited – 60” (5’) Restricted - 26” (2’ 2”)
and be able to plan the job safely d. 13.8 kV
Limited – 60” (5’) Restricted – 26” (2’ 2”)
2. c. Retraining is required every three years. Note that e. 25 kV
retraining is required, not just refresher training. Refresher Limited – 72” (6’) Restricted – 31” (2’ 7”)
training can take place at shorter intervals (and should), but
the intent of this section was to have people receive training 5. a. By definition an unqualified person cannot determine the
that would cover the changes in NFPA 70E and any changes hazards or be able to avoid them. The only time an unqualified
to procedures or their electrical safety program that needed person can be in the Limited Space (the space between the
to be communicated. Reference Section 110.2(D)(3). Limited and Restricted Approach Boundaries) is if they are
continuously escorted. Continuously is the key word. If
3. a. Everyone should be able to perform this calculation. their escort leaves the Limited Space, the unqualified person
Sometimes accurate information is just not available and the must also leave it. An unqualified person can not cross the
nearest upstream transformer has to be used to determine the Restricted Approach Boundary under any circumstances.
available short circuit current. It is a conservative method,
but that is not a bad thing in this case. The equation is: NFPA Disclaimer: Although Jim White is a member of the NFPA
Technical Committee for both NFPA 70E “Standard for Electrical Safety
in the Workplace” and NFPA 70B “Recommended Practice for Electrical
Transformer Full-Load Current = Short-Circuit Current Equipment Maintenance,” the views and opinions expressed in this message
are purely the author’s and shall not be considered an official position of the
Transformer % Impedance NFPA or any of its technical committees and shall not be considered to be,
100 nor be relied upon as, a formal interpretation or promotion of the NFPA.
Readers are encouraged to refer to the entire text of all referenced documents.
No. 109
COMMISSIONING
James R. (Jim) White
is the Training Director
of Shermco Industries,
Inc., in Dallas, Texas. B Y JI M W H I TE , Shermco Industries
He is the principal
member on the NFPA Commissioning involves many aspects of testing and operability verification.
technical committee Commissioning ensures the electrical power system and all connected devices will
“Recommended Practice function in the way it was designed.
for Electrical Equipment
Maintenance” (NFPA 1. One aspect of commissioning is acceptance 4. When energizing a substation after
70B). Jim represents
testing. List three primary purposes of commissioning, what is one of the most
NETA as an alternate
member of the NFPA commissioning (wording does not have to important safety steps that should be taken?
Technical Committee be exact): a. Restrict access to only those directly
“Electrical Safety a. ______________________________ involved in the energization process
in the Workplace” b. ______________________________ b. Make sure all the test equipment has been
(NFPA 70E) and
represents NETA
c. ______________________________ properly calibrated within the last year
on the ASTM F18 c. Verify that all employees have a current
Committee “Electrical electrical safety orientation sticker
Protective Equipment 2. Before acceptance testing begins, what
d. Move everyone back from the substation
For Workers”. Jim is an steps should be taken as part of the
a minimum of 100 feet from the area
IEEE Senior Member commissioning process?
and in 2011 received the a. Inspect devices for proper settings
IEEE/PCIC Electrical
and installation completeness 5. There are several steps that should be taken
Safety Excellence
award. Jim is a past b. Perform a seismic drop test on each after energization. Which one of the following
Chairman (2008) of the device to be installed would not be one of those?
IEEE Electrical Safety c. Inspect devices for variations from a. Remove personal protective grounds
Workshop (ESW). design specifications b. Obtain post-energization oil and gas
d. Both b and c analysis on applicable devices
e. Both a and c c. Verify temperature monitoring and
protective devices are set up to established
criteria and parameters
3. The series of checks that verify all parts of a
d. Perform thermographic survey of
system are working together is known as:
equipment
a. End-to-end testing
See answers on page 126.
b. Acceptance testing
c. Maintenance testing
d. System functional testing
e. “Ringing out” the wires
No. 109
A N S W E R S
A NS W ERS
1. a. To verify proper functioning of the equipment/system 3. d. Once the components and devices are installed, they
after installation must be functionally tested to ensure they will operate as
b. To verify the installed equipment meets design and a system. The name may change somewhat from region to
manufacturer’s specifications region, but the idea is to test the system for functionality.
c. To capture and record performance data of the installation
as the baseline for future operation and maintenance 4. Personally, I’d vote for answer d, but answer a is the correct
answer. The larger the number of people present, the
2. e. The seismic drop test is dropping a component from greater the chance for things to go wrong. Limiting access
a 3 foot height and then sweeping the pieces up. Not also limits the number of people who might be injured if
something should go wrong.
recommended for NETA test companies. Answer e is the
most correct answer. Both of these (a and c) go to the
heart of the commissioning process; verify settings against 5. a. It would really be a good plan to remove personal protective
specifications and inspect devices for deviations from grounds prior to energizing. The other items may be included
specifications. It’s amazing (maybe not once you’ve been post-energiziation.
in the field for a while) how often the wrong part or device
gets shipped, and no one seems to catch it until the drop
dead date.
IEEE/PCIC Electrical
Saftty Excellence
award. Jim is a past 3. ANSI/NETA MTS specifies a maximum of
Chairman (2008) ojthe __ ppm moisture for in-service SF6 gas.
IEEE Electrical Saftty
Workshop (ESW). a. 40
b. 70
c. 110
d. 200
ANSWERS
ANSWERS
1. Take your pick (except for answer d). It seems what is 3. d. In-service SF6 gas should have no more than 200 ppm
medium-voltage depends on which standard you read (and moisture using a hygrometer ( reference ANSI/NETA
even how you interpret a given standard). IEEE gives> 1,000 MT S Table 100.13). New SF6 gas should have no more
V to 35,000 V in one standard, then> 1,000 V to 100,000 V than 71 PPMv ( parts per million by volume) moisture or
in another. NETA uses> 1,000 V to 100,000 V, while ANSI about 8.76 PPMw ( parts per million by weight). PPMw
C84 gives 2,400 V to 69,000 V. So what's the right answer =PPMv /8.1. ( Reference IEEE Guidefor Moisture
well the NETA Standards of course! (answer c). Measurement and Control in SF6 Gas-Insulated Equipment
-IEEE Standard 1125). E ach manufacturer sets the
allowable moisture limits for their equipment, which can
2. a. Secondary Class. For low-voltage systems. These provide some
vary considerably.
protection to homes and businesses from lightning strikes.
b. Distribution Class. Lowest cost and least durable of
4. b. Functional operation. This test is used to verify that
power equipment surge protection devices. Otten found
the protection elements of the relay are correctly set and
on transformers rated 1,000 kVA or less. Not available for
working as intended.
equipment rated higher than 1,000 kVA.
c. Intermediate Class. Designed primarily for medium
voltage applications ( see question 1, above, to be confused).
Application includes utility substations, transformers,
and other equipment that merits better than distribution
class protection
d. Station Class. Most expensive and durable surge arresters
( and physically largest). Used for high-voltage substations
and transformers. Also used on medium-voltage equipment,
that due to application or importance/cost, require the
highest level of protection.
No. 111
No. 111
A N S W E R S
ANSWERS
1. b. When the internal impedance of a cell increases by 4. d. When battery capacity decreases to 80 percent of its
more than 20 percent, it is an indication that the battery is initial rating, replacement is needed. It probably won’t last
starting to deteriorate and should be monitored more a year without problems.
closely. This test is often referred to as the ohmic test and
is performed by applying an ac voltage across the battery 5. a. Since sulfation occurs when a battery is in a discharged
and measuring the internal impedance of the battery. state, equalizing is the cure. The problem is that all of the
sulfates usually don’t recombine, and the battery loses some
2. a. Increasingly, VRLA batteries are used for various capacity. This is a normal part of the charge/discharge cycle;
stand-by electrical power applications, including emergency but when a battery stays in a low state of charge, sulfation
generators and switchgear. The most common types of can be permanent. Battery shedding will also increase, as the
VRLA batteries are gel cells and absorbed glass mat. discharged electrolyte now contains more water and will soften
These batteries are often referred to as “maintenance free,” the lead plate material. If that shedded material builds up about
although “low maintenance” would better describe them. half-way to the plates, a constant discharge begins between
the shedded material and the plates, resulting in a battery that
won’t maintain a charge.
3. c. Sulfation results from the battery being in an under-
charged state for an extended time. As the battery
discharges, the active lead material on the plates will react
with the sulfates in the electrolyte and form a lead sulfate
on the plates. This appears as a white, granular deposit on
the plates.
No. 112
No. 112
A N S W E R S
A NS W ERS
1. a. OA ONAN (self-cooled) the workers installing the nitrogen bottles were using their
b. FA ONAF (forced-air/air-cooled) — two stages feet to push the bottle into its cabinet. The bottle would hit
of cooling would be ONAN/ONAF/ONAF. the back of the tank, causing a false trip.
c. FOA ODAF or OFAF (forced-air/air-cooled) —
these transformers have no self-cooled rating 4. a. Only a fiber optic cable can be used to directly measure
and must run their pumps. the hottest-spot temperature. The hot-spot temperature is
d. OA/FOA ONAN/ODAF (self-cooled, with one stage (theoretically) two-thirds up and one-third into the high-
of directed-oil pumping, with fans). voltage winding. Any metallic object or sensor would cause
a short circuit between windings or turns. Don’t expect
2. a. Buchholz relays are used with conservator tank to see many fiber optic hot-spot temperature detectors in
transformers and detect internal faults by responding to the field. Most will be the type where oil in a separate well
combustible gas generation directly or by abnormal oil flows is heated by an auxiliary CT and heating element. This is
created by rapid gas generation. calibrated to approximate the hot-spot temperature.
No. 113
No. 113
A N S W E R S
A NS W ERS
1. d. Circuit breakers often sit for extended periods of time a screening test to show that here may be a problem.
without operating. As they sit, current is flowing through Further testing can make a final determination.
them, drying out their lubricants. When called on to
operate, maybe they will do so correctly or maybe they 4. c. 16 kV rms
won’t. The problem is that they will often work just fine
after a few operations, but what will they do on that very 5. c. 100 MΩ
first trip? That’s the one that really counts.
6. a. VLF testing is typically performed at 0.1 Hz. The
2. b. Voids and air pockets in insulation can have electrical advantage of this test is that it does not create treeing
discharges (ionization) when they are in high-voltage inside power cable insulation. The downside is it can cause
fields. This discharge can be measured and monitored, existing treeing to grow, possibly failing the cable under
either while the equipment is energized (for continuous test.
monitoring) or during specific tests.
7. c. Unless there is a different value provided by the
3. a. 0.5%/1%pf. Usually I look for 0.5% on a new manufacturer, ≤ 200 ppm is recommended.
transformer, per Doble recommendations, but there
are variations between specimens. Some transformers
can have higher percent power factors and be perfectly
fine. That is why the insulation power factor test is not
considered to be rigidly interpreted test. It is more of
No. 114
No. 114
A N S W E R S
A NS W ERS
1. a. 50 3. Instantaneous overcurrent
b. 86 4. Lockout
c. 87 1. Differential
d. 27 2. Undervoltage
e. 25 6. Synch check
f. 67 5. Directional overcurrent
No. 115
No. 115
A N S W E R S
A NS W ERS
1.
e. NFPA 70E specifies the requirements for a safety backup 5. e. This is a topic that comes up frequently at NFPA 70E
or standby person (second person). The electrical safety committee meetings. Some committee members believe
program should specify what PPE, training, and experience that the 70E should provide best safe work practices. As
that person should have. Informational Notes cannot NETA Board President Ron Widup once stated, if that were
contain requirements but are used to clarify and provide the case, the 70E could be boiled down into one sentence:
additional direction as to the committee’s thinking on a Turn it off !
subject. Even though Informational Note No. 2 says that
such information may be specified, this information should What the 70E really provides is the minimum acceptable
be considered whenever a safety backup is used. safe work practices, much as OSHA regulations do.
Employers and employees are expected to exceed
2. a. In all the electrical incidents I have seen over the years, these minimum requirements to protect their safety.
one step might have prevented 90 percent of these incidents. Unfortunately, many people take the 70E at face value and
If technicians would faithfully perform an absence-of- do not do what is needed to prevent themselves or others
voltage test — whether they think the circuit is energized from being injured.
or not — they could save themselves and their families a lot
of pain, suffering, and grief. It is the single most important
safety task to perform.









