Cardiovascular
A. Heart:
1. List the 3 leading causes of death in the US. (according to [Link])
a)
b)
c)
2. Discuss the anatomic borders of the heart with surgical precision.
3. Regarding the heart
a) The base is at the level of the 2nd rib
b) The apex (PMI) is in the 5th intercostal space, slightly medial to the mid clavicular line
c) Both
d) Neither
4. Regarding the heart
a) It is the size of a fist
b) It has a mass of 200-390 grams
c) It pumps @ 35 Liters of blood per minute
d) All
e) None
5. The heart is covered by a double layered membrane called the ______________.
6. The space between the visceral and parietal pericardium called the
_________ ___________ normally contains _______ml of fluid.
7. Common causes of pericarditis include
a) Infections b) Lupus and other “systemic” diseases
c) Both d) Neither
Discuss Pericardial friction rub:
8. Complications of pericarditis include
a) Effusion b) Tamponade c) Fibrous adhesions d) All
9. Which of the following is characterized by elevated intrapericardial pressure
(>15 mmHg), which restricts venous return and ventricular filling with a consequence of
decreased stroke volume and pulse pressure, and elevated heart rate and venous pressure.
a) Effusion b) Tamponade c) Fibrous adhesions d) All
10. (Complications of cardiac tamponade include: (according to Harrisson,s Principles
of internal medicine)
a) Shock b) Death c) Both d) Neither
11. Removal of fluid from the pericardial space is called ____________________
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12. The heart wall consists of
a) Endocardium b) Myocardium c) Epicardium d) All
13. Which layer of the heart wall contains Perkinje fibers
a) Endocardium
b) Myocardium
c) Epicardium
d) All
e) None
14. The myocardium is most developed in the
a) Right atrium b) Right ventricle c) Left atrium d) Left ventricle
15. The heart is divided into lateral compartments by Artial and ventricular _______
16. Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary and systemic circuits enter the
a) Artia b) Ventricles c) Both d) Neither
17. Regarding the surface anatomy of the heart, the coronary sulcus is a groove that
marks the division between
a) Left and right atria b) Left and right ventricles
c) The atria and the ventricles d) None of the above
18. On each side of the heart, the atrium and ventricle communicate through atrio-
ventricular orifice which is protected by a ______________
19. Which valve guards the right atrio-ventricular orifice.
a) Mitral b) Tricuspid c) Aortic d) Pulmonic
20. Blood flow into the right atrium includes
a) Blood returning from the systemic circuit via the superior and inferior vena cavae
b) Blood returning from the heart via the coronary sinus
c) Both
d) Neither
21. Blood flow through heart valves is unidirectional due to the action of
a) Chordae tendinae b) Papillary muscles c) Both d) Neither
22. When the RA contracts, blood flows through the ______________valve into the RV
23. Most blood flow entering the RV is due to
a) Contraction of the RA b) Passive flow through the tricuspid valve
c) Back flow from the pulmonary circuit d) None of the above
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24. Discuss the sequence of activity which is intitated by contraction of the right
ventricle.
[Link] only example in the adult in which venous blood is oxygenated is
___________________
26. Blood from the pulmonary circuit returns to the heart by entering the
a) Left ventricle b) Left atrium c) Right ventricle d) Right atrium
27. Blood flows into the LV through the
a) Aortic valve b) Mitral valve c) Tricuspid valve d) Pulmonic valve
28. When the left ventricle contracts, blood is pushed through the Aortic valve into the
a) Aorta and systemic circuit b) Pulmonary trunk and pulmonary circuit
c) Both d) Neither
29. Dysfunction of heart valves include
a) Prolapse b) Stenosis c) Regurgitation d) All
30. Which heart valve is most commonly involved in prolapse.
a) Tricuspid b) Pulmonic c) Mitral d) Aortic
31. Regarding mitral propapse
a) Affects 3% of the population
b) May progress to regurgitation
c) Females 14-30 affected most
d) Common in connective tissue disease
e) All
32. Narrowing of the lumen of a valve, with or without calcification, scarring or
degeneration is called:
a) Prolapse b) Stenosis c) Regurgitation d) None of the above
33. Aortic stenosis is associated with
a) Left ventricular hypertrophy
b) Angina
c) Syncope on exertion
d) Heart failure
e) All of the above
34. According to the formula BP=CO x TPR, it is understandable that persons with
aortic stenosis would experience syncope on exertion due to low blood pressure because
a) Exercise decreases TPR
b) A decrease in TPR is normally compensated for by raising CO to maintain BP
c) The stenosis prevents an increase in CO
d) All
e) None
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35. Regarding aortic stenosis
a) 50% of cases who experience angina will die within 5 years if untreated
b) 50% of cases who experience heart failure will die within 1 year if untreated
c) Both d) Neither
36. Aortic stenosis may be treated with
a) Diuretics
b) Nitrates and Beta blockers
c) Antioagulants
d) Valve repair or replacement
e) All of the above
37. Regarding Mitral stenosis
a) Most cases in adults are due to rheumatic heart disease
b) 60% of patients are female
c) It is often precipitated by pregnancy
d) Left ventricular filling is impaired
e) All of the above
38. Mitral stenosis may be associated with all except
a) Left ventricular hypertropathy
b) Hemoptysis
c) Systemic embolism
d) Heart failure
e) All
39. Right heart failure includes all of the following except
a) Orthopnea b) Edema c) Anorexia d) Ascites e) Fatigue
40. Left heart failure includes
a) Orthopnea
b) Dyspnea on exeretion
c) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
d) All
e) None
41. Aortic regurgitation may be associated with
a) Hill’s sign
b) Hypertension
c) Rheumatic heart disease
d) Infective endocarditis
e) All
42. Which of the following may be associated with spontaneous rupture
of cordae tendinae
a) Mitral prolapse b) Mitral regurgitation c) Mitral stenosis d) None
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43. Mitral regurgitation is characterized by heart murmur and symptoms of
a) Left heart failure B) Right heart failure c) Both d) Neither
44. In tricuspid regurgitation there is back flow of blood into the
a) Right atrium b) Right ventricle c) Left atrium d) Left ventricle
45. Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by all except
a) Murmur b) Hepatic congestion with RUQ pain
c) Symptoms of left heart failure d) Pulsatile liver
46. Defective heart valves may be Rx with
a) Commissurotomy
b) Percutaneous Balloon valvuplasty
c) Valve replacement
d) All
47. Branches of the left coronary artery include
a) Circumflex artery
b) Posterior interventricular artery
c) Both
d) Neither
48. The marginal artery is a branch of the
a) Left coronary artery b) Right coronary artery c) Both d) Neither
49. An insult to any branch of the coronary arteries may result in
a) Valve disease b) Ischemic heart disease c) Both d) Neither
50. Common syndromes associated with ischemic heart disease include:
a) Atherosclerotic Coronary Artery Disease (ASCAD)
b) Myocardial infarction
c) Both
d) Neither
51. List the major risk factors for ASCAD
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
g)
[Link] mortality rate associated with ASCAD is ___ per 1000 persons
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53. ASCAD may be associated with
a) Gouty arthritis
b) Arcus senilis
c) Diagonal ear lobe crease
d) All
e) None of the above
54: Define Angina, discuss the various types:
a) Angina pectoris
b) Unstable angina
c) Variant angina
True or False or fill in the blank
55. Myocardial infarction occurs when the heart’s demand for oxygen is less than its
supply.
[Link] infarction may range in severity from asymptomatic to fatal.
57. Persons taking nitroglycerine should enhance their quality of life by using viagra
58. Electrocardiography (EKG) is 85% accurate in determining myocardial infarction
59. The worst complication of a MI is _________________
60. A person comes to the clinic with chest pain, he should be sent home without further
evaluation if his EKG is normal.
61. The MB isoenzyme of Creatine Kinase (CK) is elevated 6 hours before a heart attack.
62. Serum Glutamine Oxaloacetate (SGOT) now known as Aspartate Aminotransferase
(AST) is elevated 12 hours following a myocardial infarction.
63. Lactic Acid Dehydrogenase (LDH) is decreased 24 hours post infarction
64. A focal area of increased uptake on a radionucleotide heart scan can identify the
location of a myocardial infarction.
65. If you suspect that someone is having a heart attack you should
a) Start CPR if there is no pulse
b) Use an AED if available
c) Both
d) Neither
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66. Discuss a generic protocol for Rx of myocardial infarction
a) Oxygen status
b) Pain and anxiety
c) Arrhythmias
d) Conduction disturbance
e) Pump failure
67. What is the sequence of activity during the cardiac cycle
a) Ventricular systole, ventricular systole, atrial diastole, atrial systole
b) Atrial diastole, atrial systole, ventricular diastole, ventricular systole
c) Atrial systole, atrial diastole, ventricular systole, ventricular diastole
d) Ventricular systole, atrial systole, ventricular diastole, atrial diastole
e) None of the above
68. The term diasystole refers to
a) Contraction b) Relaxation c) Both d) Neither
69. The first heart sound (S1) relates to opening of
a) Mitral and tricuspid valves b) Aortic and Pulmonic valves
c) Both d) Neither
70. The first heart sound may be described as a
a) “Lub” b) “Dub” c) Click d) Snap
71. Normal heart sounds (S1 and S2) are related to
a) Atrial activity b) Ventricular activity c) Both d) Neither
72. S1 is heard during
a) Ventricular systole b) Ventricular diastole
c) Atrial systole c) Atrial diastole
73. A split S2 may reflect
a) Normal condition
b) Heart block
c) Atrial septal defect
d) Pulmonic stenosis
e) All of the above
74. A split S2 is usually best heard
a) On inspiration b) While holding the breath
c) On expiration d) None of the above
75. An accentuated S2A may indicate
a) Arterial hypertension b) Aortic valve syphilis
c) Both d) Neither
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76. An accentuated S1 may be due to
a) Strenuous exericise
b) Anemia
c) Hyperthyroidism
d) Mitral stenosis
e) All of the above
Matching
77. Mitral or tricuspid stenosis a) Diminished S1
78. Physiologic in new born but pathologic in older persons
(Infarction, Mitral/tricuspid incompetence) b) Varying S1
79. May relate to hypertension, CAD, aortic stenosis,
cardiomyopathy or may occur without heart disease c) Split S1
[Link] heart block d) S3
81. First degree heart block e) S4
82. Mitral regurgitation f) Diastolic opening
snap
83. Dilation of the aorta, HTN, aortic valve dysfunction,
pulmonary HTN, Pulmonic stenosis g) Systolic ejection
click
84. Heart murmurs may result from
a) Heart valve disease
b) Dilated heart chamber
c) Intravascular irregularity
d) Increased blood flow or shunting
e) All
85. An A-V malformation could cause a murmur due to
a) Shunting b) Increased blood flow c) Both d) Neither
86. Murmurs may be classified as
a) Systolic b) Diastolic c) Continuous d) All
87. Murmurs may be classified by their
a) Pitch b) Quality c) Radiation d) All
88. The most common cause of cardiomyopathy is ______________
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[Link] cardiomyopathy is usually due to
a) Endocrine disorder b) Metabolic disorder
c) Heavy metal toxicity d) None of the above
90. Radiologic changes associated with cardiomyopathy include
a) Enlarged heart b) Pulmonary vascular congestion
c) Both d) Neither
91. Which of the following is caused by an autosomal dominant gene
a) Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS)
b) Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
c) Both
d) Neither
92 IHSS involves all except
a) Hypertrophy of the interventricular septum
b) Decreased function of the mitral valve
c) Angina with syncope on exertion
d) CHF with dyspnea,orthopnea and PND
e) Increased vigor and vitality
93. Regarding atrial septal defect (ASD)
a) Blood is shunted Left to Right through the foramen ovale
b) Patients may be sympton free for years, but usually die between
30 and 50 years of age.
c) S/S include dyspnea on exertion and respiratory tract problems
d) Rx is surgery
e) All
94. All of the following are true regarding VSD except
a) Involves L to R shunting
b) Surgery should be done during the first year
c) Most common congenital heart defect
d) S/S include severe pulmonary hypertension, CHF, aortic regurgitation
and cardiomegaly
95. Regarding Patent Ductus Arteriosus
a) Represents 12% of congenital heart disease
b) Risk factors include maternal rubella and birth at high altitude
c) Females affected more
d) Prognosis is variable depending on size of shunt.
e) All
96. Right to Left shunts include
a) Pulmonary stenosis b) Tetrology of Fallot
c) Coartation of the aorta d) All
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97. The electrical conduction system of the heart begins in the ______________
at the __________________node which is also called the ____________________
98. If the ___________________fails to fire, a heartbeat will be initiated by another
group of cells called an ectopic pacemker.
99. When different groups of cells around the heart compete for initiation of the heart
beat the patient is diagnosed with __________________ __________________
100. When the SA node initiates a wave of depolarization the EKG will record a
a) P wave b) QRS complex c) T wave d) PR interval
101. Regarding the EKG tracing
a) The P wave represents atrial contraction (depolarization)
b) The QRS represents atrial diastole
c) Both
d) Neither
102. The electrical impulse from the SA node travels through the atria to trigger the
a) Bundle of His
b) Left and right bundle branches
c) Atrio-ventricular node
d) None of the above
103. The AV node contains small diameter fibers which _________ the rate of
conduction.
104. When the electrical impulse passes through the AV node
a) The atria continue to empty
b) The ventricles fill
c) The EKG begins to record a pause
d) All
105. Leaving the AV node, the electrical impulse travels along the atrio-ventricular
septum through large fibers (high speed) called the _________________ or the
____________________________ which also runs through the interventricular septum.
106. The fibers described in #102 sepearate to form left and right __________________
______________ which terminate in Perkinje fibers.
107. As an electrical impulse passes through the perkinje fibers
a) Left ventricle contracts b) Right ventricle contracts
c) A QRS complex is recorded d) All
108. Which of the following represents depolarization of the ventricles
a) T wave b) QRS complex c) ST segment d) T wave
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109. Regarding electrocardiography
a) Results are recorded on graph paper
b) System is calibrated so that 0.2 seconds elapse between the heavy black lines
c) There are 5 small squares between two heavy black lines
d) Each small square (time between 2 light lines) is 0.04 seconds
e) All of the above
110. The typical EKG reading is recorded on a ______second strip
111. The patient may be attached to ____ leads
112. Limb leads involve all except
a) Leads 1, 11 and 111 b) V1, V2 and V3
c) AVR, AVL,AVF d) Right arm, left arm, left foot
113. V4, V5 and V6 represent
a) Limb leads b) Chest leads c) Both d) Neither
114. Which lead are placed near the apex of the heart
a) V1 b) V2 c) V3 d) V6 e) None of the above
115 Lead AVR records electrical activity of the heart at
a) Left arm b) Left foot c) Right arm d) None of the above
116. A “demand pacemaker” is located at the
a) SA node b) AV node c) Both d) Neither
117. Ectopic pacemakers are located in the
a) Atria b) Ventricles c) Both d) Neither
118. In emergencies or pathology, ectopic pacemakers may stimulate to contract
as fast as _____ to ______ beats per minute.
Matching
119. SA node a) 30-40 beats per minute
120. AV node b) 75
121. Ectopic atrial pacemaker c) Rate on demand
122. Ventricular pacemaker d) 60
123. Important factors to consider in reading an EKG include
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
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124. Heart rate is usually determined by the distance between
a) P waves b) R waves c) T waves d) None
125. Which set of numbers is most commonly used to determine heart rate
a) 300, 150, 100, 75, 60, 50
b) 300, 250, 214, 187, 167, 150
c) 150, 136, 125, 115, 107, 100
d) 100, 94, 88, 83, 79, 75
e) 75, 71, 68, 65 62, 60
126. In determining heart rate, you should check for
a) Abnormal waves, pauses or irregularity
b) Relationship between P waves and QRS complexes
c) P-R interval
d) QRS interval
e) All
127. Major disturbances of heart rate include
a) Bradycardia b) Tachycardia c) Both d) Neither
128. Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by
a) All waves are present b) Equal distance between similar waves
c) Both d) Neither
129. EKG tracing #1 represents
a) Bradycardia b) Tachycardia c) NSR d) None
130. EKG #2 represents__________ with a heart rate of _______
131. EKG # 3 represents _______ with a rate of _______________
132. EKG tracing #4 represents
a) Bradycardia b) Tachycardia c) NSR d) None
133. Regarding Sinus arrhythmia
a) P waves are identical b) Heart rhythm varies c) Both d) Neither
134. In wandering pacemaker, the EKG (#5) shows
a) P waves change shape b ) Varying rhythm c) Both d) Neither
135. Regarding atrial flutter (#23)
a) Heart rate 250-350
b) Identical P waves
c) May be normal
d) May reflect myocardial damage
e) All
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136. EKG # 6 shows a varying rhythm with multiple ectopic spikes but no real P waves.
This represents:
a) Normal sinus rhythm
b) Atrial fibrillation
c) Wandering pacemaker
d) Atrial flutter
e) None of the above
137. Premature ventricular contractions (PVC’s) ( seen on EKG #7-10)
a) A wide QRS is seen because electrical conduction does not follow the usual
bundle branch distribution
b) Originates from ectopic forces in the ventricle
c) followed by a long pause
d) All of the above
138. The tracing in EKG #7 represents _____________________
139. PVC’s may combine with normal beats to create
a) Bigeminy b) Trigeminy c) Both d) Neither
140. The tracing in EKG # 8 represents
a) Bigeminy b) Trigeminy c) Both d) Neither
141. A dual rhythm caused by 2 different pacemakers acting independently
as seen in EKG #11 is called ___________________________
142. Regarding EKG # 10
a) This is a normal EKG
b) The ventricle throws an uncomplicated PVC
c) A PVC falls on a T wave indicating an unstable heart
d) None of the above
143. If the SA node fails to fire
a) The heart stops b) An “escape beat” may restart the heart
c) Both d) Neither
B. Vascular
144. List five arteries where a pulse may be felt: (Must know or drop the course now!)
a)____________________
b)____________________
c)____________________
d)____________________
e)____________________
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145. The radial artery is the most common point for taking of
a) Pusle b) Arterial Blood Gases(ABG) c) Both d) Neither
142. The effectiveness of CPR is best measured at the ___________ or _________artery.
143. The adequacy of circulation in persons with diabetes or atherosclerotic disease best
determined by bilateral evaluation of :
a) Pedal pulse b) Foot temperature c) Both d) Neither
144. Systolic blood pressure refers to the force of blood against the inner wall of blood
vessels during
a) Atrial systole b) Ventricular systole c) Both d) Neither
145. What is the pulse pressure of a person who has a systolic pressure of 110 and a
diastolic pressure of 70____________
146. Blood pressure is determined by
a) Heart action
b) Blood volume
c) Peripheral resistance
d) Blood viscosity
e) All of the above
147. Regarding heart action, Cardiac output is affected by
a) Stroke volume b) Heart rate c) Both d) Neither
148. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) refers to
a) CO x TPR b) Diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure
c) Both d) Neither
149. Factors influencing peripheral resistance include
a) Vasoconstriction
b) Vasodilation
c) Psychogenic factors
d) All
e) None
150. Peripheral resistance through a blood vessel is influenced by the vessel’s
a) Length b) Radius c) Both d) Neither
151. Regarding viscosity of blood
a) Increased by hemorrhage and anemia thereby increasing BP
b) Decreased by polycythemia thereby decreasing BP
c) Both d) Neither
152. Discuss Starling’s Law of the heart in reference to blood pressure and cardiac
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output.
153. Blood flow through the venous system is largely facilitated by
a) Skeletal muscle contractions b) Respiratory movements
c) Vasoconstriction of veins d) All of the above
154. The most common cause of hypertention (persistently elevated arterial pressure) is
a) Kidney disease b) Increased blood volume c) Endocrinopathy d) Idiopathic
155. Blood returning to the right atrium constitutes
a) Pre-load b) After-load c) Both d) Neither
156. According to Starling’s Law, increased preload will increase
a) End-diastolic pressure b) Stroke volume c) Cardiac output d) All of the
above
157. Blood pressure may be elevated by
a) Nutritional factors
b) Diabetes
c) Oral contraceptives
d) Blood vessel disorder
e) All
158. Blood pressure may be influenced by abnormal function of
a) Pituitary b) Thyroid c) Adrenal d) Parathyroid e) All
159. Complications of HTN include
a) Stroke b) Atherosclerosis c) Heart failure d) All
160. Rx of Hypertension may include: (pick any and as many as you deem appropriate)
a) Stress reduction b) Low sodium diet
c) Diuretics d) Beta adrenergic blockers
e) Vasodilators f) Calcium channel blockers
g) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors h) Peripherally acting Alpha
adrenergic blockers
i) Other - please indicate:
161. Central venous pressure measures blood pressure in the _____________________
162. Regarding CVP
a) Engorged neck veins may indicate an elevated CVP
b) Elevated CVP indicates a weak heart
c) Normal or decreased CVP suggest a strong heartbeat
d) All of the above
163. When two heart beats occur so close together that the second beat may be heard
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with a stethescope but no pulse is felt because it pumped little or no blood (ectopic
arrthythmia or A-Fib), the patient is said to have a _____________ ___________
164. Variations in pulse include
a) Pulsus alterans b) Pulsus parodoxus c) Both d) Neither
165. Pressorceptors are found in
a) Aorta b) Carotid arteries c) Both d) Neither
166. Which of the following arteries represent the first branches of the aorta:
a) Phrenic b) Coronary c) Celiac c) Carotid
167. Branches of the aortic arch include
a) Brachiocephalic
b) Left common carotid
c) Left subclavian
d) All of the above
168. The right subclavian and right common carotid arteries are branches of the
_______________________ artery
169. List 5 branches of the thoracic aorta
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
170. Branches of the celiac artery include
a) Left gastric b) Splenic c) Hepatic d) All
171. The upper digestive tract is supplied by branches of the
a) Left gastric b) Splenic c) Hepatic d) All
172. The gallbladder recieves its blood supply from a branch of the
______________artery.
173. Regarding the phrenic artery
a) It is unpaired b) Supplies the diaphragm c) Both d) Neither
174. Blood supply to the gallbladder is via the cystic artery, a branch of
the:________________
175. Blood supply to the appendix is via a branch of which artery?
a) Celiac b) Superior mesenteric c) Inferior mesenteric d) Common iliac
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[Link] section of the umbilicus would reveal the presence of:
a) One umbilical vein and two arteries
b) One umbilical vein and one artery
c) Two umbilical veins and one artery
d) Two umbilical veins and two arteries
177. Events which occur soon after birth include:
a) Closure of the foramen ovale
b) Closure of the ductus arteriosus
c) Closure of the ductus venosus
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
Fill in the blanks
178. The artery most associated with stroke is the______________________________
179. The walls of large arteries are nourished by small blood vessels called ___________
180. Blood is usually drawn from the forearm by inserting a hypodermic needle into
the __________________vein.
181. When the Inferior vena cava is blocked, blood can be shunted to the Superior vena
cava via the____________________________.
182. The largest blood vessel in the body is the________________________________.
183. The Phrenic artery supplies blood to the
a) Lungs
b) Diaphragm
c) Both
d) Neither
185. The blood supply to the vermiform appendix is derived from a branch of the
a) Superior mesenteric artery b) Inferior Mesenteric artery
c) Both d) Neither
184. Important branches of the superior mesenteric artery include
a) Renal
b) Supra Renal
c) Gonadal
d) All or the above
e) None of the above
186. Which branches of the abdominal aorta ate unpaired
a) Celiac
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b) Superior mesenteric
c) Inferior Mesenteric
d) All
187. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the
a) Descending colon
b) Sigmoid colon
c) Rectum
d) All or the above
188. The brachiocephalic veins merge to form the
a) Superior Vena cava
b) Inferior Vena cava
c) Coronary sinus
d) None of the Above
189. All blood vessels from the stomach, intestines, spleen and pancreas drain into the
a) Hepatic vein b) Portal Vein
c) Azygous vein d) Inferior Vena cava
190. Which of the following branches of the internal carotid artery is called the
artery of stroke.
a) Opthalmic
b) Anterior chorid
c) Anterior Cerebral
d) Middle cerebral
191. Which areas on the lateral surface of the brain ate supplied by the middle cerebral
artery
a) Primary motor area b) Sensory areas for face and arms
b) Speech d) All of the above
192. Important branches of the internal carotid artery include
a) Ophthalmic b) Posterior communicating artery
c) Anterior chorid artery d) All of the above
193. Terminal Branches of the internal carotid artery include
a) Anterior cerebral b) Posterior cerebellar
d) Both d) Neither
194. Which of the following contribute the Circle of Willis
a) Internal carotid aterey b) Vertebral artery
b) Both d) Neither
195. In the fetus , blood is shunted away from the liver via the
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a) Ductus Arteriosus b) Ductus Venosus
c) Both d) Neither
196. Blood passing through the fetal foramen ovale constitutes a
a) R to L Patologic shunt b) L to R Pathologic shunt
c) L to R physiologic shunt d) R to L physiologic shunt
[Link] Blood in the Pulmonary trunk is shunted to the aorta via the
a) Ductus Arteriosus b) Ductus Venosus
c) Both d) Neither
198. At birth plumonary vascular pressure
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No change
d) Increases then decreases
e) Decreases then increases
199. Cardiovascular changes which occur at birth include
a) Closure of Ductus Arteriosus
b) Closure of Ductus Venosus
c) Both
d) Neither
200. When does the Ductus Arteriosus normally close
a) 1st week Post partum
b) 1st Month
c) 1st Year
d) In the older child
201. Which of the following is not comparable with life after birth
a) Failure of foramen ovale to close
b) Failure of Ductus Arteiosus to close
c) Failure of Ductus Venosus to close
d) All
e) None
202. Describe the first pass effect
203. A woman experiences heavy bleeding following minor gynecologic surgery. Which
of the following arteries is not likely to be involved ?
a) Uterine
b) Internal Pudenal
c) External Pudenal
d) Lingual
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204. A person gets “blood poisoning” after picking his face. This situation is frequently
associated with thrombosis of the __________________________
205. Regarding the walls of blood vessels, the tunica adventicia is the
a) Inner layer b) Middle layer
c) Outer layer d) None of the above
206. Varicose veins involve
a) Distended blood vessels b) Incompetnt valves
c) Both d) Neither
207. Factors which promote varicosity include
a) Prolonged standing
b) Obesity
c) Pregnancy
d) Genetics
e) All of the above
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