Liquid Penetrant Level 3

General Exam
Part 3

Name:_________________________________________________________________

1. The hot oil technique utilizes:

a. the natural fluorescence of oil

b. a black light
c. hot lubricating oil
d. all of the above

2. In PT, the term “Family” refers to:

a. the manufacturer of the penetrant

b. either fluorescent or non-fluorescent penetrant
c. the compatible group of test materials
d. a secondary distribution organization

3. The reversed-fluorescence method employs:

a. a reversal order of the application of penetrant and developer

b. low intensity fluorescent developer
c. filtered white light for viewing
d. a photographic technique for viewing

4. Oil based penetrants cannot be used safely on:

a. ceramics
b. manganese castings
c. aluminum
d. rubber

5. Plastics are best tested using:

a. alcohol based penetrants

b. oil based penetrants
c. water based penetrants
d. any of the above
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6. Blacklight viewing is done with ultraviolet light having a wavelength of about:

a. 3650 angstroms
b. 0.36 m
c. 0.000365 mm
d. any of the above is correct

7. The viscosity of a good penetrant must be:

a. high
b. low
c. neither too high no too low
d. viscosity has little to do with whether or not a material will make a good
penetrant

8. The relationship between viscosity and drag out is:

a. more pronounced at higher viscosities

b. most notable for lower viscosities
c. exponential
d. linear

9. Evaluation of the sensitivity of a penetrant must be qualified by:

a. a given purpose or defect type

b. a given material tested
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

10. The relative amount of light reflected or emitted between an indication and its
background is termed:

a. seeability
b. contrast ratio
c. sensitivity
d. reflection coefficient

11. A combination of fluorescent dyes to produce a more intense fluorescence and

desirable colour is called:

a. multi dye
b. polyfluorescence
c. intensified dye
d. cascading
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12. Sensitivity of wet developer is usually considered to be:

a. better than dry developer

b. not as good as dry developer
c. about the same as dry developer
d. can be better or worse depending on part tested

13. When dipping parts in water suspendible developer, when the parts are slightly
warmer than room temperature:

a. extra safety precautions are needed

b. shock cooling is a risk
c. bath concentrations may increase too high
d. excessive bleed out is expected

14. On rough surfaces, solvent developers:

a. show up the finest cracks

b. have the lowest sensitivity
c. cause excessive bleed out
d. provide highest contrast

15. For the sharp fillet inspections, the best developer to use is:

a. water suspendible
b. water soluble
c. solvent
d. dry

16. A method of decreasing penetration time that is not effective is:

a. heating the test piece

b. vacuum
c. application of penetrant under pressure
d. vibration of the test piece

17. The use of vapour degreasing to remove excess penetrant is:

a. forbidden
b. effective in some cases
c. limited to small parts
d. to be avoided on thin sections

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18. Immersion washing for penetrant removal:

a. can be used with all self-emulsifying penetrants

b. is recommended for small parts
c. requires “over-flow” tanks with water at 150 degrees F
d. improves background conditions

19. Very strong water blast with or without the admixture of air is:

a. never used
b. used on fugitive dye
c. used on non-emulsifiable penetrant
d. harmful to ceramics

20. Infra-red heat lamps are not an effective drying method in PT because:

a. most energy is reflected

b. the frequency of light breaks down fluorescence
c. heating and drying is uneven
d. none of the above

21. For drying thin metal sections around 8mm thick, air temperature in the dryer
should be:

a. 250 degrees F
b. 65 degrees C
c. 100 degrees F
d. just under the boiling point of water

22. When using wet developer the developing time is usually:

a. completed after the part is removed from the dryer

b. longer than the dwell time
c. determined by the penetrant used
d. twice as long as the drying time

23. Where heavy bleed out is expected the best type of developer to use is:

a. dry powder
b. water soluble
c. water suspendible
d. solvent suspendible

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24. If a piece is retested with fluorescent penetrant after it was tested with colour
contrast penetrant:

a. result will be identical

b. sensitivity will increase
c. sensitivity will decrease
d. no change should be noticed

25. The main risk of testing cold parts is:

a. chilling the penetrant bath

b. condensed moisture forming on the part
c. increased drain time
d. none of the above

26. If a 200 litre tank of penetrant, with water tolerance of 10% picks up 200 ml of
water per day, how many days elapse prior to dumping?

a. 10
b. 20
c. 125
d. 200

27. Dip washing as a method of removing water washable penetrants is:

a. good for small parts

b. only for fluorescent parts
c. the simplest wash method
d. not recommended

28. In the absence of a dry powder bin, dry developer can be applied with:

a. a spray bulb
b. a dry paint brush
c. an air operated powder gun
d. all of the above

29. Alkaline content of some wet developers and some emulsifiers can cause pitting
if not removed from:

a. glass
b. steel
c. nickel
d. aluminum

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30. Probability or crack detection by PT increases with:

a. crack depth
b. crack length
c. both a and b
d. neither a or b

31. The pre-wash technique for hydrophilic emulsifiers has the advantage that:

a. emulsifier contamination is minimized

b. emulsifier consumption is reduced
c. it can reduce water pollution
d. all of the above

32. Control of emulsifier dwell time is improved by:

a. heating the test piece

b. adding water to the penetrant
c. increasing the viscosity of penetrant and or emulsifier
d. adding a wetting agent to the emulsifier

33. Strippable film-type plastic developers:

a. are sprayed on with a non-aqueous solvent

b. provide permanent records of PT indications
c. have very good resolution
d. all of the above

34. In PT, a refractometer is used to measure:

a. density of penetrant
b. concentration of hydrophilic emulsifier
c. concentration of water-developer suspension
d. none of the above

35. Self-developing penetrant indications occur:

a. only with “leaker” penetrant

b. only in the absence of atmosphere
c. without developer material
d. never

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36. For the purposes of codes, linear penetrant indications are defined as having a
length greater than:

a. the width
b. twice the width
c. three times the width
d. one third the thickness

37. For deep tight cracks, emulsification time is:

a. doubled
b. twice the drain time
c. not critical
d. none of the above

38. If there is doubt as to the type or even existence of a defect at a weak indication
you should:

a. add more developer

b. wipe the indication off and reapply developer
c. reject the piece
d. repeat the penetrant inspection

39. A diffuse penetrant indication over a large area is indicative of:

a. porosity
b. micro shrinkage
c. poor washing
d. all of the above

40. In filtered particle inspection suspended particles are drawn to defects by:

a. electrostatic charge
b. differential absorption
c. surface tension
d. capillary action

41. The only reliable way to determine depth extents of defects located by PT is:

a. radiographic triangulation
b. sectioning and micrographing
c. eddy current
d. ultrasonic surface waves

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42. The contrast ratio of red dye penetrant indications to a white developer
background is about:

a. 1:2
b. 1:6
c. 1:20
d. 1:100

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 ANSWER KEY

QUESTION # ANSWER QUESTION # ANSWER

#1 #24
#2 #25
#3 #26
#4 #27
#5 #28
#6 #29
#7 #29
#8 #30
#9 #31
#10 #32
#11 #33
#12 #34
#13 #35
#14 #36
#15 #37
#16 #38
#17 #39
#18 #40
#19 #41
#20 #42
#21 #43
#22 #44
#23 #45

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 ANSWER MARKING KEY

QUESTION # ANSWER QUESTION # ANSWER

#1 D
#2 C #24 C
#3 B #25 B
#4 D #26 C
#5 C #27 D
#6 D #28 D
#7 D #29 D
#8 A #30 C
#9 C #31 D
#10 B #32 C
#11 D #33 D
#12 D #34 B
#13 C #35 C
#14 C #36 C
#15 D #37 C
#16 C #38 D
#17 B #39 D
#18 C #40 B
#19 C #41 B
#20 C #42 B
#21 B
#22 A
#23 A

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