DU LLM

Topic:- DU_J19_LLM

1) Which of the following elements are not essential for transferring of title to the buyer from
the seller?

[Question ID = 1803]

1. Payment of price [Option ID = 7210]

2. Determination of time of delivery [Option ID = 7211]
3. None of these [Option ID = 7212]
4. Physical Delivery of the goods [Option ID = 7209]

Correct Answer :-
Physical Delivery of the goods [Option ID = 7209]

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2) Which of the following statements is correct? ve
[Question ID = 1824]

1. The liability of master and servant is sometimes joint and sometimes several depending on circumstances
[Option ID = 7295]
fe
2. The liability of master and servant is joint and several [Option ID = 7296]
3. The liability of master and servant is joint [Option ID = 7293]
4. The liability of master and servant is several [Option ID = 7294]
u

Correct Answer :-
Ed

The liability of master and servant is joint [Option ID = 7293]

3) Which of the following statement is correct?

[Question ID = 1842]

1. None of these [Option ID = 7368]

2. Stranger to consideration has no right [Option ID = 7367]
3. Stranger to consideration can enforce a promise [Option ID = 7366]
4. Stranger to contract can enforce a promise [Option ID = 7365]

Correct Answer :-
Stranger to contract can enforce a promise [Option ID = 7365]

4) Which of the following statement is true?

[Question ID = 1843]

1. Both (In case of initial impossibility agreement is termed as void) and (In case of subsequent impossibility
contract becomes void) are true [Option ID = 7371]
2. Both (In case of initial impossibility agreement is termed as void) and (In case of subsequent impossibility
contract becomes void) are false [Option ID = 7372]
3. In case of initial impossibility agreement is termed as void [Option ID = 7369]
4. In case of subsequent impossibility contract becomes void [Option ID = 7370]

Correct Answer :-
In case of initial impossibility agreement is termed as void [Option ID = 7369]

5) Which of the following agreement(s) is/are void?

1. Agreements without Consideration
2. Agreement in the restraint of legal proceedings
3. Agreement effected by fraud
Choose the correct answer by using the codes given below.

[Question ID = 1841]

1. Agreements without Consideration and Agreement in the restraint of legal proceedings only [Option ID =
7364]
2. Agreements without Consideration, Agreement in the restraint of legal proceedings and Agreement effected
by fraud [Option ID = 7363]
3. Agreement effected by fraud only [Option ID = 7361]
4. Agreement in the restraint of legal proceedings only [Option ID = 7362]

Correct Answer :-
Agreement effected by fraud only [Option ID = 7361]

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ve
6) Which of the following is correct about International Criminal Tribunal for Yugoslavia (ICTY)?

[Question ID = 1792]
fe
1. It has been closed officially [Option ID = 7165]
2. It has been merged with International Criminal Court (ICC) [Option ID = 7167]
3. It will continue till the disposal of all appeals and other proceedings [Option ID = 7166]
u

4. It is permanent in nature [Option ID = 7168]

Ed

Correct Answer :-
It has been closed officially [Option ID = 7165]

7) Which of the following is related to the Compensatory Afforestation Management and

Planning Act, 2016

[Question ID = 1848]

1. [Link] Thirumulkpad v. Union of India [Option ID = 7391]

2. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India [Option ID = 7389]
3. Karnataka Industrial Development Board v. [Link] [Option ID = 7390]
4. A.P. Pollution Control Board v. [Link] [Option ID = 7392]

Correct Answer :-
Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India [Option ID = 7389]

8) Which of the following landmark case is not related to copyright law

[Question ID = 1777]

1. [Link] v. Delux Films, AIR 1978 SC 1613 [Option ID = 7106]

2. Feist Publications, Inc., v. Rural Telephone Service Co., 499 U.S. 340 (1991) [Option ID = 7107]
3. Eastern Book Company v. D.B. Modak, (2008) 1 SCC 1 [Option ID = 7105]
4. Diamond v. Chakrabarty, 447 U.S. 303 (1980) [Option ID = 7108]

Correct Answer :-
Eastern Book Company v. D.B. Modak, (2008) 1 SCC 1 [Option ID = 7105]

9) Which of the following cannot pertain to the tort of nuisance?

[Question ID = 1827]

1. Playing music through loudspeaker in the night [Option ID = 7305]

2. Creation of foul smell on one’s land which reaches neighbour’s residence [Option ID = 7306]
3. Construction of a flour mill on the ground floor, while the first floor is occupied by a tenant [Option ID =
7307]
4. Taking cattle on the field of the neighbor [Option ID = 7308]

Correct Answer :-
Playing music through loudspeaker in the night [Option ID = 7305]

10) Which of the following amendments to the Constitution of India is related with reservation
of seats in educational institutions for the economically weaker section of citizens?

r
[Question ID = 1812] ve
1. 103rd [Option ID = 7247]
2. 123rd [Option ID = 7245]
3. 101st [Option ID = 7246]
fe
4. 102nd [Option ID = 7248]

Correct Answer :-
u

123rd [Option ID = 7245]

Ed

11) Which of the following is a formulation of the historical school?

[Question ID = 1856]

1. Law is in a state of continuous change [Option ID = 7423]

2. Law has a spontaneous nature of growth like language [Option ID = 7422]
3. Law is found and not made [Option ID = 7421]
4. All of these [Option ID = 7424]

Correct Answer :-
Law is found and not made [Option ID = 7421]

12) Which of the following Section of the IPC was amended by the Criminal Laws(Amendment)
Act, 2018

[Question ID = 1833]

1. Section 370A [Option ID = 7331]

2. Section 354A [Option ID = 7332]
3. Section 228A [Option ID = 7329]
4. Section 370 [Option ID = 7330]

Correct Answer :-
 Section 228A [Option ID = 7329]

13) Which of the following is not related to Section 498A of IPC

[Question ID = 1837]

1. Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar [Option ID = 7347]

2. Rajesh Sharma v. UOI [Option ID = 7345]
3. Social Action Forum for Manavadhikar and another v. UOI [Option ID = 7346]
4. Gurmeet Singh v. State of Punjab [Option ID = 7348]

Correct Answer :-
Rajesh Sharma v. UOI [Option ID = 7345]

14) Which of the following is not included in the definition of Cinematograph film as defined
under Section 2(f) of the Copyright Act, 1957

[Question ID = 1779]

1. A work of visual recording [Option ID = 7113]

2. A sound recording accompanying a visual recording [Option ID = 7114]
3. Broadcast [Option ID = 7116]

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4. Video film [Option ID = 7115]
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Correct Answer :-
A work of visual recording [Option ID = 7113]
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15) Which of the following pairs is correct?
u

[Question ID = 1785]

1. Nottebohm Case Right of self defence [Option ID = 7139]

Ed

2. Nicaragua v. United States Counselor access [Option ID = 7140]

3. Anglo Norwegian Fisheries Case Delimitation of Continental Shelf [Option ID = 7138]
4. LaGrand Case, 2001 State Responsibility [Option ID = 7137]

Correct Answer :-
LaGrand Case, 2001 State Responsibility [Option ID = 7137]

16) Which of the following pairs is incorrect?

[Question ID = 1786]

1. Arvid Pardo For the concept of common heritage of mankind for seabed and the ocean floor beyond
national jurisdiction [Option ID = 7143]
2. Hugo Grotius Mare liberum [Option ID = 7141]
3. Calvo Clause Disputes arising out of contract shall be referred to municipal courts of state which grants
concession [Option ID = 7142]
4. Selden The Province of Jurisprudence Determined [Option ID = 7144]

Correct Answer :-
Hugo Grotius Mare liberum [Option ID = 7141]
17) Which of the following judges propounded the principle of absolute liability in M.C. Mehta v.
Union of India (AIR 1987 SC 1086)

[Question ID = 1823]

1. Justice R.S. Pathak [Option ID = 7292]

2. Justice Y.V. Chandrachud [Option ID = 7291]
3. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 7289]
4. Justice P.N. Bhagwati [Option ID = 7290]

Correct Answer :-
Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 7289]

18) Which of the following does not constitute the Electoral College for electing the President of
India?

[Question ID = 1813]

1. Elected members of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 7249]

2. Elected members of the Legislative Council [Option ID = 7252]
3. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state [Option ID = 7251]
4. Elected members of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 7250]

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Correct Answer :-
Elected members of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 7249]
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19) Which Section of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘sedition’?
fe
[Question ID = 1828]

1. Section 124 [Option ID = 7311]

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2. Section 123 [Option ID = 7310]

3. Section 124-A [Option ID = 7312]
Ed

4. Section 122 [Option ID = 7309]

Correct Answer :-
Section 122 [Option ID = 7309]

20) Which provision of the Information Technology Act, 2000 provides legal recognition to e-
records?

[Question ID = 1853]

1. Section 5 [Option ID = 7411]

2. Section 3 [Option ID = 7409]
3. Section 3A [Option ID = 7412]
4. Section 4 [Option ID = 7410]

Correct Answer :-
Section 3 [Option ID = 7409]

21) Which one of the following is not the object of the Central Consumer Protection Council?

[Question ID = 1809]
1. Education of seller of goods about their rights [Option ID = 7235]
2. Education of the consumer about their rights [Option ID = 7236]
3. Protecting the consumer against unfair trade practices [Option ID = 7234]
4. Protecting the rights of the consumer against the marketing of goods which are hazardous to life and
property [Option ID = 7233]

Correct Answer :-
Protecting the rights of the consumer against the marketing of goods which are hazardous to life and
property [Option ID = 7233]

22) Which one of the following is considered as a subsidiary source of international law as per
Article 38(1) of the Statute of International Court of Justice?

[Question ID = 1783]

1. Teachings of the highly qualified publicist [Option ID = 7130]

2. Rules relating to internal functioning of international organizations [Option ID = 7132]
3. Equity [Option ID = 7129]
4. Customs [Option ID = 7131]

Correct Answer :-
Equity [Option ID = 7129]

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23) Which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines the term “reciprocal promises”?

[Question ID = 1844]
fe
1. Section 2(e) [Option ID = 7376]
2. Section 2(g) [Option ID = 7375]
3. Section 2(d) [Option ID = 7374]
u

4. Section 2(f) [Option ID = 7373]

Ed

Correct Answer :-
Section 2(f) [Option ID = 7373]

24) Where the money received from a third party by the firm, in the ordinary course of its
business, is misapplied by one of the partners to his own use, then the

[Question ID = 1800]

1. Defaulting partner alone is liable for the same [Option ID = 7197]

2. Third party has no remedy [Option ID = 7200]
3. Firm is liable for the same [Option ID = 7198]
4. Firm is not liable for the same [Option ID = 7199]

Correct Answer :-
Defaulting partner alone is liable for the same [Option ID = 7197]

25) As per the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, a person who has an adopted son
living

[Question ID = 1869]

1. Can adopt another son with consent of the adopted son [Option ID = 7475]
2. Can adopt another son with the prior permission of the court [Option ID = 7476]
3. Can adopt another son [Option ID = 7473]
4. Cannot adopt another son [Option ID = 7474]

Correct Answer :-
Can adopt another son [Option ID = 7473]

26) As per Trade Marks Act, 1999, the word ‘comfort’ for T-shirt cannot be registered exclusively
due to

[Question ID = 1782]

1. Section 17 [Option ID = 7126]

2. Section 12 [Option ID = 7128]
3. Section 9 [Option ID = 7125]
4. Section 14 [Option ID = 7127]

Correct Answer :-
Section 9 [Option ID = 7125]

27) Under which of the provisions of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, two or more identical or similar
trademarks may be registered in respect of same or similar goods? [Question ID = 1774]

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1.
2.
Section
Section
9 [Option ID = 7093]
11 [Option ID = 7094]
ve
3. Section 14 [Option ID = 7095]
4. Section 12 [Option ID = 7096]
fe
Correct Answer :-
Section 9 [Option ID = 7093]
u
Ed

28) An incoming partner, who has been validly admitted in the firm, is

[Question ID = 1802]

1. Both (Not liable for the acts of the firm done before he became a partner) and (Liable for the acts of the
firm done after his admission) [Option ID = 7208]
2. Not liable for the acts of the firm done before he became a partner [Option ID = 7206]
3. Liable for the acts of the firm done before he became a partner [Option ID = 7205]
4. Liable for the acts of the firm done after his admission [Option ID = 7207]

Correct Answer :-
Liable for the acts of the firm done before he became a partner [Option ID = 7205]

29) When a Hindu inherits the property from his father under Section 8 of the Hindu Succession
Act 1956, he takes it as

[Question ID = 1868]

1. His separate property [Option ID = 7470]

2. A joint family property [Option ID = 7469]
3. Only as a joint family property or his separate property [Option ID = 7472]
4. Either as joint family property or His separate property, as decided amongst the heirs [Option ID = 7471]

Correct Answer :-
 A joint family property [Option ID = 7469]

30) X duly posts a letter of acceptance to Y. But the letter is lost in transit due to the negligence
of the post office.

[Question ID = 1838]

1. There is no contract concluded, because the proposer has not received the letter [Option ID = 7350]
2. There is no contract concluded, because the acceptance has not reached the proposer [Option ID = 7349]
3. None of the these [Option ID = 7352]
4. The contract is concluded, because the acceptance is complete, from the date of dispatch, notwithstanding
any delay or miscarriage in its arrival from causes not within the acceptor’s control [Option ID = 7351]

Correct Answer :-
There is no contract concluded, because the acceptance has not reached the proposer [Option ID =
7349]

31) After passing of a decree for judicial separation, co-habitation is

[Question ID = 1866]

1. Directory [Option ID = 7463]

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2. Either Obligatory or Directory [Option ID = 7464]
3. Not obligatory [Option ID = 7462]
ve
4. Obligatory [Option ID = 7461]

Correct Answer :-
fe
Obligatory [Option ID = 7461]
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32) A gratuitous or bare promise, devoid of consideration, is called

Ed

[Question ID = 1839]

1. Ex contractu [Option ID = 7356]

2. Nudum Pactum [Option ID = 7355]
3. Res extincta [Option ID = 7353]
4. Ubberima fides [Option ID = 7354]
Correct Answer :-
Res extincta [Option ID = 7353]

33) If Mr. A sells a watch to Mr. X which Mr. A has obtained by inflicting undue influence on Mr.
B, the title of Mr. X on the watch is

[Question ID = 1804]

1. Absolute [Option ID = 7213]

2. Subject to the fact whether Mr. B has rescinded the contract [Option ID = 7215]
3. Void [Option ID = 7216]
4. Partial [Option ID = 7214]

Correct Answer :-
Absolute [Option ID = 7213]
34) According to the jurists of Analytical School

[Question ID = 1854]

1. Customs are only positive morality even after recognition [Option ID = 7416]
2. Custom is a law from the very inception of it [Option ID = 7415]
3. Custom never becomes law [Option ID = 7414]
4. Custom becomes law after its recognition by the sovereign [Option ID = 7413]

Correct Answer :-
Custom becomes law after its recognition by the sovereign [Option ID = 7413]

35) According to Pound, Private interests include

[Question ID = 1862]

1. Individuals interests of personality like reputation, conscience [Option ID = 7447]

2. All of these [Option ID = 7448]
3. The interests of property, succession, testamentary disposition [Option ID = 7446]
4. The interest of domestic relations of persons such as husband and wife [Option ID = 7445]

Correct Answer :-
The interest of domestic relations of persons such as husband and wife [Option ID = 7445]

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ve
36) According to U.N. Convention on Law of the Sea 1982, the Contiguous Zone is established to
exercise the control necessary to prevent and punish infringement of coastal state’s laws relating
to
fe
[Question ID = 1787]

1. Fiscal, Fisheries, Immigration, and Security [Option ID = 7146]

u

2. Fiscal, Customs, Immigration and Environment [Option ID = 7147]

3. Fiscal, Customs, Immigration and Sanitary [Option ID = 7148]
Ed

4. Fiscal, Customs, Fisheries and Sanitary [Option ID = 7145]

Correct Answer :-
Fiscal, Customs, Fisheries and Sanitary [Option ID = 7145]

37) According to Hohfeldian analysis, Liability is the jural co-relative of

[Question ID = 1859]

1. Disability [Option ID = 7434]

2. Privilege [Option ID = 7436]
3. Power [Option ID = 7433]
4. Immunity [Option ID = 7435]

Correct Answer :-
Power [Option ID = 7433]

38) Under the Companies Act 2013, a private company can borrow funds for its financial needs
from

[Question ID = 1795]
1. directors, banks and financial institutions [Option ID = 7180]
2. directors, shareholders and relatives of directors [Option ID = 7179]
3. directors [Option ID = 7177]
4. banks and financial institutions [Option ID = 7178]

Correct Answer :-
directors [Option ID = 7177]

39) Under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, the limitation period for filing a complaint in
District Forum is

[Question ID = 1808]

1. Two year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 7231]

2. Six month from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 7232]
3. Three years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 7229]
4. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 7230]

Correct Answer :-
Three years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 7229]

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40) Under the Hindu law degrees of prohibited relationship include relationship by
ve
[Question ID = 1867]

1. Half or uterine blood [Option ID = 7466]

2. Adoption [Option ID = 7467]
fe
3. Full blood [Option ID = 7465]
4. All of these [Option ID = 7468]
u

Correct Answer :-
Full blood [Option ID = 7465]
Ed

41) ‘A’ a Muslim male during the life time of his wife ‘W’ with whom the marriage is subsisting
married the younger sister of his wife. The marriage is: [Question ID = 1778]

1. Void in Sunni as well as Shia law [Option ID = 7109]

2. Valid in Sunni as well as Shia law [Option ID = 7110]
3. Irregular in Sunni as well as Shia law [Option ID = 7111]
4. Irregular in Sunni law and void in Shia law [Option ID = 7112]

Correct Answer :-
Void in Sunni as well as Shia law [Option ID = 7109]

42) “A” intentionally tampers the computer source code developed by “B” and imitated it
substantially to create his own computer programme. Under which Law “A” can be made liable

[Question ID = 1851]

1. Both Copyright Act, 1957 & Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 7404]
2. Neither Copyright Act, 1957 nor Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 7403]
3. Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 7402]
4. Copyright Act, 1957 [Option ID = 7401]

Correct Answer :-
 Copyright Act, 1957 [Option ID = 7401]

43) “Private rights acquired under existing law do not cease on change of sovereignty” was held
in

[Question ID = 1791]

1. Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions case [Option ID = 7163]

2. Chorzow factory case [Option ID = 7161]
3. Island of Palmas case [Option ID = 7164]
4. German settlers in Poland case [Option ID = 7162]

Correct Answer :-
Chorzow factory case [Option ID = 7161]

44) If a seller is in possession of goods after the title has passed to the buyer, he can

[Question ID = 1806]

1. Cannot resell the goods [Option ID = 7222]

2. Resell the goods [Option ID = 7221]
3. Resell only if he gets a lower price than the previous sale [Option ID = 7224]

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4. Resell but the second buyer do not get good title [Option ID = 7223]
ve
Correct Answer :-
Resell the goods [Option ID = 7221]
fe
45) If a law is for long disregarded in practice then courts don’t give effect to it. Such state of
disuse of a norm is known as
u

[Question ID = 1861]
Ed

1. Themistes [Option ID = 7441]

2. Desuetudo [Option ID = 7442]
3. Static norm [Option ID = 7444]
4. Nomodynamics [Option ID = 7443]

Correct Answer :-
Themistes [Option ID = 7441]

46) Article 40 of the Constitution of India deals with

[Question ID = 1811]

1. Equal justice and free legal aid [Option ID = 7241]

2. Organization of Village Panchayats [Option ID = 7242]
3. Participation of workers in management of Industries [Option ID = 7244]
4. Right to education and work [Option ID = 7243]

Correct Answer :-
Equal justice and free legal aid [Option ID = 7241]

47)
Article 16(4A) of the Constitution of India which gives power to the State to make laws
regarding reservation in matters of promotion in favour of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes was added by the

[Question ID = 1816]

1. 78th Amendment to the Constitution of India [Option ID = 7264]

2. 75th Amendment to the Constitution of India [Option ID = 7261]
3. 77th Amendment to the Constitution of India [Option ID = 7263]
4. 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India [Option ID = 7262]

Correct Answer :-
75th Amendment to the Constitution of India [Option ID = 7261]

48) X, a fruit dealer, gives his agent Y a van for the supply of fruits to the customers. Y goes for
a free ride with his friend Z, and commits an accident resulting in an injury to A.
Which one of the following is correct?

[Question ID = 1822]

1. X is liable [Option ID = 7285]

2. X,Y and Z are all liable [Option ID = 7288]
3. Z is liable [Option ID = 7287]

r
4. Y is liable [Option ID = 7286]

Correct Answer :-
ve
X is liable [Option ID = 7285]
fe
49) In case of Private Company, as per section 2(68) of the Companies Act, 2013, what is the
minimum paid up capital?
u

[Question ID = 1797]
Ed

1. No minimum amount prescribed [Option ID = 7188]

2. 1 lakh rupees [Option ID = 7186]
3. 5 lakh rupees [Option ID = 7185]
4. 10 lakh rupees [Option ID = 7187]

Correct Answer :-
5 lakh rupees [Option ID = 7185]

50) A public company can borrow money

[Question ID = 1798]

1. After one year of incorporation [Option ID = 7191]

2. After obtaining certificate of commencement of business [Option ID = 7192]
3. Before incorporation [Option ID = 7189]
4. Soon after incorporation [Option ID = 7190]

Correct Answer :-
Before incorporation [Option ID = 7189]

51) A public company can be converted into a private company only after the approval of the
[Question ID = 1793]

1. State Government [Option ID = 7170]

2. High Court [Option ID = 7169]
3. Regional Director [Option ID = 7171]
4. National Company Law Tribunal [Option ID = 7172]

Correct Answer :-
High Court [Option ID = 7169]

52) Who said that ‘there was no real distinction between state law and international law, both
systems bound individuals, although international law as a matter of technique did so only
mediately and through the concept of the state’.

[Question ID = 1788]

1. Suarez [Option ID = 7152]

2. Savigny [Option ID = 7151]
3. Kelsen [Option ID = 7149]
4. Oppenheim [Option ID = 7150]

Correct Answer :-

r
Kelsen [Option ID = 7149] ve
53) Who is authorized to issue license to Section 8 company under Companies Act 2013?

[Question ID = 1796]
fe
1. NCLT [Option ID = 7181]
2. Any one of the above [Option ID = 7184]
u

3. Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 7183]

4. Regional Director [Option ID = 7182]
Ed

Correct Answer :-
NCLT [Option ID = 7181]

54) In which case, the International Court of Justice held that ‘UNO is a juristic person sui
generis’?

[Question ID = 1789]

1. Reparation of Injuries Suffered in the Services of UN [Option ID = 7155]

2. Anglo-Norwegian Case [Option ID = 7156]
3. Paquete Habana Case [Option ID = 7153]
4. North Sea Continental Shelf Case [Option ID = 7154]

Correct Answer :-
Paquete Habana Case [Option ID = 7153]

55) In which of the following cases it was held that there is no reason to compel non-smokers to
be helpless victims of air pollution?

[Question ID = 1845]

1. Sheela Barse v. UOI [Option ID = 7380]

2. M.C. Mehta v. UOI [Option ID = 7378]
3. Samantha v. State of A.P. [Option ID = 7377]
4. Murli Deora v. UOI [Option ID = 7379]

Correct Answer :-
Samantha v. State of A.P. [Option ID = 7377]

56) In which of the following offences punishment with imprisonment for life means
imprisonment for the remainder of that person’s natural life is provided under the IPC?

[Question ID = 1835]

1. Rape of woman under 12 years of age [Option ID = 7337]

2. Gang rape of woman under 16 years of age [Option ID = 7338]
3. Gang rape of woman under 12 years of age [Option ID = 7339]
4. All of these [Option ID = 7340]

Correct Answer :-
Rape of woman under 12 years of age [Option ID = 7337]

57) In which of the following instances, insulting words can form the basis of an action for

r
defamation? ve
[Question ID = 1826]

1. written by a husband to his wife [Option ID = 7302]

2. written by a client to his lawyer [Option ID = 7304]
fe
3. written in an inland letter [Option ID = 7303]
4. written in a post card [Option ID = 7301]
u

Correct Answer :-
written in a post card [Option ID = 7301]
Ed

58) In which one of the following case has the Supreme Court upheld the Constitutional validity
of the Constitution (93rd Amendment) introducing Article 15(5) of the Constitution of India?

[Question ID = 1817]

1. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India [Option ID = 7266]

2. M. Nagaraj v. Union of India [Option ID = 7267]
3. TMA Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka [Option ID = 7265]
4. Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India [Option ID = 7268]

Correct Answer :-
TMA Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka [Option ID = 7265]

59) To which of the following, the Corfu Channel Case, 1949 is concerned with?

[Question ID = 1784]

1. The delimitation of continental shelves [Option ID = 7133]

2. The right of innocent passage [Option ID = 7136]
3. The exploitation of seabed and subsoil of deep ocean [Option ID = 7134]
4. The adoption of straight base line for measuring territorial waters [Option ID = 7135]
Correct Answer :-
The delimitation of continental shelves [Option ID = 7133]

60) Children of annulled voidable marriages and void marriages are

[Question ID = 1871]

1. Neither heirs of their parents nor to anyone else [Option ID = 7483]

2. Heirs of their parents alone and to none else [Option ID = 7481]
3. Heirs of their parents and grandparents [Option ID = 7484]
4. Heirs of their parents as well as to others in the family of their parents [Option ID = 7482]

Correct Answer :-
Heirs of their parents alone and to none else [Option ID = 7481]

61) Frederick Karl Von Savigny has observed that

1. Custom precedes legislation
2. Legislation must confirm to customary practices
3. Custom is not important than legislation
4. Law is a product of general consciousness of the people and a manifestation of their spirit
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

r
[Question ID = 1863]
ve
1. 1,2 & 4 [Option ID = 7451]
2. 2,3 & 4 [Option ID = 7450]
3. 1, 2 & 3 [Option ID = 7452]
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4. 1,3 & 4 [Option ID = 7449]

Correct Answer :-
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1,3 & 4 [Option ID = 7449]

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62) Propositions are:

I. A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent
court.
II. A void marriage is never valid marriage and there is no necessity of any decree annulling it.
III. A voidable marriage is regarded as a valid subsisting marriage until a decree annulling it has
been passed by a competent court.
In respect of the aforesaid propositions which is correct

[Question ID = 1865]

1. I and III are correct and II is incorrect [Option ID = 7457]

2. I and III are incorrect and II is correct [Option ID = 7460]
3. I,II and III all are correct [Option ID = 7459]
4. II and III are correct and I is incorrect [Option ID = 7458]

Correct Answer :-
I and III are correct and II is incorrect [Option ID = 7457]

63) The Nice Classification (NCL), established by the Nice Agreement (1957), is an international
classification [Question ID = 1776]

1. For Semiconductor and layout designs [Option ID = 7104]

2. Of goods and services applied for the registration of designs and it contains 45 classifications [Option ID =
7102]
3. Of goods and services applied for the registration of marks and it contains 45 classifications [Option ID =
7101]
4. Of Geographical Indications [Option ID = 7103]

Correct Answer :-
Of goods and services applied for the registration of marks and it contains 45 classifications [Option ID =
7101]

64) Against which of the following offences, does the right of private defence of property extend
to the voluntary causing of death

[Question ID = 1831]

1. Robbery [Option ID = 7323]

2. Theft [Option ID = 7321]
3. Criminal misappropriation [Option ID = 7322]
4. Criminal trespass [Option ID = 7324]

Correct Answer :-
Theft [Option ID = 7321]

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65) In the absence of any agreement, the interest to partners on the amount of loan advanced
to the firm, is allowed at

[Question ID = 1799]
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1. 8% per annum [Option ID = 7195]
2. 6% per annum [Option ID = 7194]
u

3. 4% per annum [Option ID = 7193]

4. Market rate [Option ID = 7196]
Ed

Correct Answer :-
4% per annum [Option ID = 7193]

66) A, B and C jointly own an Almirah, but it is in possession of B. R enters into a contract of sale
with B to buy the almirah paying a reasonable amount, knowing that it is also owned by A and C.
But both B and R agree to keep this transaction a secret from A and C. Can A or C challenge the
title of R?

[Question ID = 1805]

1. No, because R holds an absolute and good title to it [Option ID = 7220]

2. No, because the title has already passed to R [Option ID = 7219]
3. Yes, because R had the knowledge about the joint owners and he did not act on good faith [Option ID =
7218]
4. Yes, because it was B who was only in possession of the property [Option ID = 7217]

Correct Answer :-
Yes, because it was B who was only in possession of the property [Option ID = 7217]

67) A police officer arrested and detained a person in the lockup despite production of a bail
order from the court. The Police Officer is guilty of
[Question ID = 1836]

1. Wrongful Confinement [Option ID = 7342]

2. Wrongful Restraint [Option ID = 7341]
3. Kidnapping [Option ID = 7344]
4. Abduction [Option ID = 7343]

Correct Answer :-
Wrongful Restraint [Option ID = 7341]

68) Every member of the Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission holds office for a term of

[Question ID = 1810]

1. Five years or up to the age of seventy years, whichever is later [Option ID = 7238]
2. Five years or up to the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier [Option ID = 7237]
3. Five years or up to the age of sixty five years, whichever is earlier [Option ID = 7239]
4. Five years or up to the age of sixty five years, whichever is later [Option ID = 7240]

Correct Answer :-
Five years or up to the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier [Option ID = 7237]

r
69) Consider the following statements:
ve
For defamation the plaintiff has to prove that the imputation is false and malicious. In this
context malicious means
1. with evil motive
2. without just cause
fe
3. a factor relevant in assessment of damages
4. an irrelevant plea of defamation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
u

[Question ID = 1821]
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1. with evil motive and without just cause only [Option ID = 7281]
2. without just cause, a factor relevant in assessment of damages and an irrelevant plea of defamation
[Option ID = 7284]
3. without just cause only [Option ID = 7283]
4. without just cause and a factor relevant in assessment of damages only [Option ID = 7282]

Correct Answer :-
with evil motive and without just cause only [Option ID = 7281]

70) Consider the following statements

1. Legislation is the main source of law
2. Legislation has both creative and abrogative powers
3. Custom is generally based on the will of the people
Which of the above statements are correct?

[Question ID = 1855]

1. 2 and 3 are correct [Option ID = 7419]

2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct [Option ID = 7417]
3. 1 and 2 are correct [Option ID = 7418]
4. 1 and 3 are correct [Option ID = 7420]

Correct Answer :-
 1, 2 and 3 are correct [Option ID = 7417]

71) A member of the UN may be suspended from the exercise of its rights and privileges of
membership by the

[Question ID = 1790]

1. Security Council [Option ID = 7158]

2. Security Council on the recommendation of General Assembly [Option ID = 7160]
3. General Assembly [Option ID = 7157]
4. General Assembly on the recommendation of Security Council [Option ID = 7159]

Correct Answer :-
General Assembly [Option ID = 7157]

72) On which Model Law of UNCITRAL (United Nations Commission on International Trade Law)
Information Technology Act, 2000 of India is based

[Question ID = 1852]

1. UNCITRAL Model Law on Cross-Border Insolvency (1997) [Option ID = 7406]

2. UNCITRAL Model Law on Electronic Signatures (2001) [Option ID = 7407]

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3. UNCITRAL Model Law on Electronic Commerce (1996) [Option ID = 7405]
4. UNCITRAL Model Law on
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International Credit Transfers (1992) [Option ID = 7408]

Correct Answer :-
UNCITRAL Model Law on Electronic Commerce (1996) [Option ID = 7405]
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73) Assertion (A): Homicide is the killing of a human being by a human being
u

Reason (R): Homicide is always culpable

Codes:
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[Question ID = 1829]

1. Both (A) and (R) are false [Option ID = 7314]

2. Both (A) and (R) are true [Option ID = 7313]
3. (A) is false but (R) is true [Option ID = 7316]
4. (A) is true but (R) is false [Option ID = 7315]

Correct Answer :-
Both (A) and (R) are true [Option ID = 7313]

74) Match the following:

A. Definition of Abduction 1. Section 362
B. Kidnapping a minor for purpose of begging 2. Section 363 A
C. Kidnapping for a ransom 3. Section 364 A
D. Importation of a girl from a foreign country 4. Section 366 B
E. Kidnapping in order to murder 5. Section 364

Codes:

[Question ID = 1834]

1. A B C D E
1 2 3 4 5 [Option ID = 7335]
2. A B C D E
5 1 4 3 2 [Option ID = 7336]
3. A B C D E
3 5 2 1 4 [Option ID = 7333]
4. A B C D E
1 4 3 2 5 [Option ID = 7334]

Correct Answer :-
ABCDE
3 5 2 1 4 [Option ID = 7333]

75) Match List I with Sections of Hindu Marriage Act 1955 given in List II and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
List I List II
A. Proceedings to be conducted in camera I. Section 24
B. Maintenance pendant lite and expense of proceedings II. Section 25
C. Appeals from decree and orders III. Section 22
D. Permanent alimony and maintenance IV. Section 28
Codes:

[Question ID = 1864]

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1. A B C D
IV II III I [Option ID = 7456]
2. A B C D
ve
III I IV II [Option ID = 7454]
3. A B C D
III I II IV [Option ID = 7453]
fe
4. A B C D
IV I III II [Option ID = 7455]
u

Correct Answer :-
A BCD
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III I II IV [Option ID = 7453]

76) Human beings have no rights only duties. This view was formulated by

[Question ID = 1860]

1. Manu [Option ID = 7438]

2. Inhering [Option ID = 7440]
3. Narada [Option ID = 7439]
4. Duguit [Option ID = 7437]

Correct Answer :-
Duguit [Option ID = 7437]

77) For the offence of affray under the IPC there must be

[Question ID = 1830]

1. More than 5 persons [Option ID = 7320]

2. More than 2 persons [Option ID = 7318]
3. At least 5 persons [Option ID = 7319]
4. At least 2 persons [Option ID = 7317]
Correct Answer :-
At least 2 persons [Option ID = 7317]

78) For a valid Muslim marriage

[Question ID = 1872]

1. Offer and acceptance may be at different times and different places [Option ID = 7488]
2. Offer and acceptance must be at the same place [Option ID = 7485]
3. Offer and acceptance must be at the same time [Option ID = 7486]
4. Offer and acceptance must be at the same time and place [Option ID = 7487]

Correct Answer :-
Offer and acceptance must be at the same place [Option ID = 7485]

79) ‘Ownership is the entirety of the power of use and disposal allowed by law’. This definition
was given by

[Question ID = 1858]

1. Pollock [Option ID = 7430]

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2. Austin [Option ID = 7431]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 7429]
4. Friedmann [Option ID = 7432]
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Correct Answer :-
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Salmond [Option ID = 7429]

80) ‘A’ gives his daughter D, aged 16 years, in marriage to B, a boy aged 22 years, without her
u

consent and against her wishes. The marriage is

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[Question ID = 1870]

1. Voidable and can be annulled at the option of D [Option ID = 7478]

2. Voidable and can be annulled at the option of A [Option ID = 7477]
3. Void ab initio [Option ID = 7479]
4. Valid but liable to be terminated through decree of divorce [Option ID = 7480]

Correct Answer :-
Voidable and can be annulled at the option of A [Option ID = 7477]

81) Internalization of externalities is associated with

[Question ID = 1850]

1. Polluter Pays Principle [Option ID = 7400]

2. Absolute Liability Principle [Option ID = 7399]
3. Preventive Principle [Option ID = 7398]
4. Precautionary Principle [Option ID = 7397]

Correct Answer :-
Precautionary Principle [Option ID = 7397]
82) What was the rule laid down by the Privy Council in “Wagon Mound” case?

[Question ID = 1825]

1. The defendant is liable for that injury which is the immediate consequence of defendant’s fault [Option ID
= 7299]
2. The defendant is liable for all the injuries which occurs as a direct consequence of defendant fault [Option
ID = 7298]
3. The defendant is liable only for that injury which could be reasonably foreseen as occurring due to
defendant’s fault [Option ID = 7297]
4. The defendant is not liable if he proves that the plaintiff suffered injury owing to his contributory negligence
[Option ID = 7300]

Correct Answer :-
The defendant is liable only for that injury which could be reasonably foreseen as occurring due to
defendant’s fault [Option ID = 7297]

83) Which of the following is not registrable under the Designs Act, 2000? [Question ID = 1773]

1. Mode or principle of construction [Option ID = 7089]

2. Configuration [Option ID = 7090]
3. Ornament [Option ID = 7091]
4. Features of shape [Option ID = 7092]

r
Correct Answer :-
Mode or principle of construction [Option ID = 7089]
ve
84) Which of the following is the first country to ratify the “Marrakesh Treaty to Facilitate Access
fe
to Published Works for Persons Who are Blind, Visually Impaired, or Otherwise Print Disabled
(MVT) (2013)” [Question ID = 1775]

1. India [Option ID = 7100]

u

2. Singapore [Option ID = 7098]

3. Sri Lanka [Option ID = 7099]
Ed

4. China [Option ID = 7097]

Correct Answer :-
China [Option ID = 7097]

85) At any time after the expiration of ……….from the date of the grant of a patent,
any…….person may make an application to the controller for grant of compulsory licence on
patent under the Patents Act, 1970.

[Question ID = 1781]

1. Two Years & Interested [Option ID = 7122]

2. Three Years & Interested [Option ID = 7123]
3. Four Years & Interested [Option ID = 7121]
4. None of these [Option ID = 7124]

Correct Answer :-
Four Years & Interested [Option ID = 7121]

86) Atul instigates Bipin to murder Chetan. Bipin refuses to do so. What offence, if any, has been
committed by Atul?
[Question ID = 1832]

1. Attempt to commit murder [Option ID = 7326]

2. No offence [Option ID = 7328]
3. Conspiracy to commit murder [Option ID = 7325]
4. Abetment to commit murder [Option ID = 7327]

Correct Answer :-
Conspiracy to commit murder [Option ID = 7325]

87) On the death of a partner, public notice of death is not given and the firm continues the
business, then for the acts of firm done after his death, the estate of the deceased partner is

[Question ID = 1801]

1. Proportionately liable [Option ID = 7204]

2. Treated as security [Option ID = 7203]
3. Not liable [Option ID = 7202]
4. Liable [Option ID = 7201]

Correct Answer :-
Liable [Option ID = 7201]

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ve
88) The defence of “non est factum” is available to the contracting party who has committed
mistake as to

[Question ID = 1840]
fe
1. Quality of the promise made by the other [Option ID = 7359]
2. Quality of the subject matter of the contract [Option ID = 7360]
u

3. Identity of the other contracting party [Option ID = 7358]

4. Nature of contract [Option ID = 7357]
Ed

Correct Answer :-
Nature of contract [Option ID = 7357]

89) The Central Consumer Protection Council consists of

[Question ID = 1807]

1. Either Chairperson and Ten other members or Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed
[Option ID = 7228]
2. Chairperson and Five other members [Option ID = 7226]
3. Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed [Option ID = 7227]
4. Chairperson and Ten other members [Option ID = 7225]

Correct Answer :-
Chairperson and Ten other members [Option ID = 7225]

90) The Central Government has been empowered to conduct investigation into the affairs of
the company under section 210 of Companies Act 2013
i. On the report of Registrar of Companies
ii. In public interest
iii. On passing of the special resolution
iv. On order of the court or tribunal
Select the correct answer:

[Question ID = 1794]

1. i and ii only [Option ID = 7173]

2. iii and iv only [Option ID = 7176]
3. ii and iii only [Option ID = 7174]
4. All i, ii, iii and iv [Option ID = 7175]

Correct Answer :-
i and ii only [Option ID = 7173]

91) The satisfaction of the President means the satisfaction of the Council of Ministers and not
his personal satisfaction was held in

[Question ID = 1815]

1. U.N. Rao v. Indira Gandhi [Option ID = 7258]

2. Ram Jawaya Kapoor v. State of Punjab [Option ID = 7259]
3. Samsher Singh v. State of Punjab [Option ID = 7257]
4. Sardari Lal v. Union Government [Option ID = 7260]

r
Correct Answer :-
ve
Samsher Singh v. State of Punjab [Option ID = 7257]

92) The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be preferred
fe
by

[Question ID = 1820]
u

1. Prime Minister of India [Option ID = 7279]

2. Chief Justice of India [Option ID = 7280]
Ed

3. Either House of Parliament [Option ID = 7277]

4. Speaker of LokSabha [Option ID = 7278]

Correct Answer :-
Either House of Parliament [Option ID = 7277]

93) The Supreme Court of India formulated the doctrine of eclipse in

[Question ID = 1814]

1. Bhikaji Narain Dhakras v. State of M.P. [Option ID = 7253]

2. State of W.B. v. Anwar Ali Sarkar [Option ID = 7255]
3. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India [Option ID = 7256]
4. Bashesharnath v. Income Tax Commissioner [Option ID = 7254]

Correct Answer :-
Bhikaji Narain Dhakras v. State of M.P. [Option ID = 7253]

94) The World Commission on Environment and Development’s report is known as

[Question ID = 1849]
1. Our Changing Environment [Option ID = 7396]
2. Our Common Future [Option ID = 7394]
3. Agenda 21 [Option ID = 7395]
4. Caring For Earth [Option ID = 7393]

Correct Answer :-
Caring For Earth [Option ID = 7393]

95) The ground “Internal Disturbance” in Article 352 of the Constitution of India for
proclamation of emergency was removed by

[Question ID = 1819]

1. 42nd Amendment [Option ID = 7274]

2. 44th Amendment [Option ID = 7276]
3. 39th Amendment [Option ID = 7273]
4. 43rd Amendment [Option ID = 7275]

Correct Answer :-
39th Amendment [Option ID = 7273]

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96) The Precautionary Principle is provided in
ve
[Question ID = 1846]

1. Principle 6 of Rio Declaration [Option ID = 7382]

fe
2. Principle 6 of Stockholm Declaration [Option ID = 7383]
3. Principle 15 of Rio Declaration [Option ID = 7384]
4. Principle 15 of Stockholm Declaration [Option ID = 7381]
u

Correct Answer :-
Ed

Principle 15 of Stockholm Declaration [Option ID = 7381]

97) The broadcast reproduction right is conferred to every broadcasting organisation for

[Question ID = 1780]

1. 60 years [Option ID = 7120]

2. 50 Years [Option ID = 7119]
3. 20 Years [Option ID = 7118]
4. 25 Years [Option ID = 7117]

Correct Answer :-
25 Years [Option ID = 7117]

98) The President of India does not have the power to

[Question ID = 1818]

1. Summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit [Option ID = 7269]
2. Remove a Minister from Union Council of Ministers [Option ID = 7271]
3. Dissolve both Houses of Parliament [Option ID = 7270]
4. Prorogue the Houses or either House [Option ID = 7272]
Correct Answer :-
Summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit [Option ID = 7269]

99) The Paris Agreement of 2016 is a part of

[Question ID = 1847]

1. UNFCCC [Option ID = 7385]

2. UNCED [Option ID = 7388]
3. UNCHE [Option ID = 7387]
4. CBD [Option ID = 7386]

Correct Answer :-
UNFCCC [Option ID = 7385]

100) To Hans Kelsen goes the credit of formulating

[Question ID = 1857]

1. Pure theory of law [Option ID = 7425]

2. All of these [Option ID = 7428]

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3. Functional approach to law [Option ID = 7427]
4. Imperative theory of law [Option ID = 7426]
ve
Correct Answer :-
Pure theory of law [Option ID = 7425]
u fe
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