Following questions are typical of those used in the examinations. There is only one correct answer to each question. INDTI/SAMPLE/BASIC/01 BASIC EXAMINATION ‘Administration of SNT-TC-1A- The following questions pertain to the administration of NDT personne! qualification and certification programs based upon the guidelines of Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A, Personnel Qualification and Certification in Nondestructive Testing. These questions are specific to SNT-TC-1A recommendations. Al. SNT-TC-1A recommends that all certifications shall be automatically terminated: a. At the end of three years. b. When the employee becomes qualified and certified in a new NDT method. ¢. If an employee has not worked in the method for which certified within the past six months. 4. When an employee leaves the employer where he had been certified. ‘A2. According to SNT-TC-1/A, thé employer's written practice for the control and administration of NDT personnel training examination, and certification: a. Should reflect the guidelines set forth in SNT-TC-1A. b. Should be prepared by quality control management. c. Should be reproduced verbatim from SNT-TC-1A. d. Should be submitted to ASNT for approval. e. Isa mandatory requirement of the U.S. government? A3, SNT-TC-1A recommends that in certification of Level III personnel, the employer:'. a. Must give written examinations. b. Must give a general and specific examination. c. May waive examination. d. May waive written examination if oral examination is given. A4. To be considered for certification as level III, SNT-TC-1A, provides that the candidate must: a. Have graduated from a four-year accredited engineering or science curriculum. b. Have completed two years of engineering or science study with passing giade. c. Bea high school graduate. d. Have at least four years NDT work experience.B. Basics of common NDT Methods BI. Very short wavelength electromagnetic radiation produced when electrons traveling at high speeds collide with matter is called: a. X-radiation. b. Beta radiation. c. Gamma radiation. d. None of the above. B2. In magnetic particle testing, detection of deep-lying defects in a one-inch thick weld is: . Very similar to the detection of surface cracks. Not difficult if the defect is attributable to fine non-metallic stringers. Simple if the defect’s width can be approximated. More of a problem than is the case of surface defects. . A not difficult if the defect is long and at the center of the weld. gaese [Link] inspection of castings is often difficult because of: a, Extremely fine grain structure. b. Coarse grain structure. c. Non-uniform flow lines. 4. Non-uniform solidification. B4, When penetrant examination is necessary for customer acceptance, the examination should be done: a. After the completion of all operations which may cause or expose discontinuities. b. After completion of primary forming, machining, or welding operations, but prior to final machining. : c. After all operations regardless of the type of operation. d. Immediately prior to shipping. BS, Which of the following are common applications for eddy current testing? a. Measurement of conductivity or a combination of conductivity and permeability. b. Measurement of the thickness of thin metal sections, cladding, or coating. c. Detection of surface and slightly subsurface discontinuities. d. Allof the above. B6. Which of the following is the most likely application of neutron radiography? a. Inspecting stainless steel pistons for internal cracks. b. Field inspection of a large pressure vessel for corrosion. c. Inspecting small stainless steel valve assemblies for the presence of a rubber O- ring seal. d. Inspecting small aluminum castings for core shift.B7. The best technique for leak testing an on-line low pressure piping system containing a liquid refrigerant would be: a. Bubble test. b. Pressure change test. c. Halogen diode detector test. d. Mass spectrometer test. C. Basic Materials, Fabrication and Product Technology C1. With which of the following is the term ‘‘anodizing” associated? a. Surface treatment of stainless steel alloys. b. Metal surface cleaning. c. Surface treatment of aluminum alloys. d._ Coated plastics. C2... The terms that best describes non-uniformity in the distribution of chemical elements in a metal alloy is: ‘a, Segregation. b. Convolution. c. Impurity. d. Defect. C3, Metal fatigue is most likely to be found in structures: a. Loaded under constant high stress. b. Having undergone a substantial over-load. c. Subject to cyclic, vibratory, or stress reversal loads. d. Loaded in constant tension. C4. A heat treatment process used to relieve residual stresses in metals is called: a. Austenitizing. b. Carburization. c. Hardening. d. Annealing.METHOD EXAMINATIONS Radiographic Testing Ri. An unshielded 15 curie radioisotope source is being used 20 feet from a barrier warning against unauthorized entry. ‘The source intensity is 5.9 r/hr/c at 1 foot. What dose rate could be received by personnel at the barrier? a. 221 mr/br b. 2.21 br c. 442 mi/hr d. 4.42 rhe R2. A material with a thickness of two half value layers will transmit: a. 50% of the incident radiation. b. 75% of the incident radiation. c. 25% of the incident radiation. d. 12.5% of the incident radiation. R3. To which of the following does the term “reference radiographs”’ apply? a. Radiographs used to show the position of each radiographic view. b. Radiograpts with discontinuity indications that are to be compared with indications on test object radiographs. ¢. File copies of duplicate radiographs made at the customer’s request. d. File copies of radiographs of your employer's products. R4. A casting is designed so that some portions are highly stressed while other areas are stressed relatively low. When establishing acceptance criteria one should consider: . One quality level for the entire casting. a b. A median quality level. c. Zoning the drawing and using different quality levels. 4, Recommending re-design. RS. It is desired to determine the depth of a discontinuity in a 4.5 inch thick casting section by producing two exposures at different positions of the target? aA $: bpd we b.d __ bd atbdd __bD Magnetic Particle Testing MI. In a DC circuit, where I is the current, E is the voltage and R is the resistance, which expression properly relates 1,E and R? a I=BR : bv. E=RI co. R=VE 4, I=ER M2. A steel forging 10 inches long and 2 inches diameter is to be inspected by DCcoil magnetization in a 5 tum coil with a 10 inch diameter, What current should be recommended? a, 3600 amperes b. 1800 amperes c. 1200 amperes 4d, 900 amperes M3. A good means for locating deep-lying discontinuities by magnetic particle testing is to use half-wave rectified Ac with dry powder. Which combination of factors makes this so? ‘a, Penetrating characteristics of AC and powder mobility of rectified AC. b. Penetrating characteristics of DC and powder mobility of DC. c. Low current characteristics of DC and powder mobility of AC. d. Penetrating characteristics of DC and powder mobility of AC. M4. In magnetizing a 1 ¥% inch diameter tube with a 0.125 inch wall thickness with direct conduction and direct current at 1500 amps. What is the approximate fiel strength on the internal diameter? . Zero. ). Near maximum. . About % maximum. |. About 1/16 maximum.. P eesM5. In shop magnetic particle inspection of small-weldments, the most versatile equipment is: a. One that can deliver both half-wave rectified and low voltage AC. b. Straight DC from a welding power supply. c. AC-DC electromagnet or yoke. 4. A storage battery with prods. ULTRASONIC TESTING UI A specification states, “The maximum scan index shall not be greater than one-half the effective diameter of the transducer as determined by the width of the half- amplitude points on a plot of reflection amplitude as a function of transducer diameter.” A% inch diameter, § MHz transducer is to be used to inspect a 1% thick section of a steel alloy using longitudinal waves. The transducer has the characteristic resonance frequency. What is the scan width? a. 0.12 inch. b. 0.20 inch. c. 0.36 inch. d, 0.40 inch, Beanerra stare 1 Diameter - Inches U2. In the absence of a reference specimen a preliminary test for detecting voids in a bonded structure would be; a. Penetrant inspection. b. Through transmission ultrasonic testing. c. Shear wave ultrasonic testing. d. Lamb wave ultrasonic testing. e. Rayleigh wave ultrasonic testing. U3. In immersion ultrasonic testing, the energy is transmitted to the test object as a compressional wave because: a. Compressional waves travel faster and will therefore reduce the distance of the interface signal from the main bang and allow more of an A-scan trace to be utilized for evaluating the object. ad b. Water will not sustain shear waves. c. Compressional waves are always utilized with immersion testing so there is no requirement for a shear wave mode of energy transfer. d. Itis not possible to generate a shear wave with commonly utilized transducers for immersion testing.U4, In the absence of test blocks of the same alloy as the test object, a reasonably accurate ultrasonic test can be performed by: a. Calibrating the equipment on aluminum test blocks. b. Calibrating the equipment on the back surface echo obtained from the material to be tested. Obtaining a comparison of the back surface echoes between existing reference blocks and the material to be tested to establish a correction factor for the appropriate reference target echo. |. Calibrating the equipment on the target hole in an aluminum test block for which the metal travel distance is not less than twice the thickness of the material to be tested. c e US. Using the data given below, the refracted angle of the shear wave is: a. Sin 62 = 0,866: 62 = 60° b. Sin 62 = 0.838: 62 = 57° c, Sin 62 = 0.327: 62 = 19° d. Sin 62 = 0.658: 62 = 41° Medium 2: Aluminum Vilong =2.48X10° in/sec Vong = 1.23 X10° in/sec Medium 1: Acrylic plastic 1,09X 10° in/sec .56 X10° in/sec First medium Sin 61=0.743 Second medium Penetrant Testing Pl. A visible dye penetrant indication in the form of an intermittent straight line is seen and measured to be 0.32-inch from end to end. Reliability engineering personnel have asked you to comment on the findings. Of the following the most nearly correct- statement you can make is: Y a, There is a tight crack 0.32 inch long. b. There is a tight crack less than or equal to 0.32 inch long. c. There is an intermittent crack with overall length of 0.32 inch. 4d. There is an intermittent indication with overall length of 0.32 inch.P2. Which penetrant process is best suited for parts with rough surfaces? Water washable. Post emulsification. Visible dye. Solvent removable, ‘All of the above are nearly equal. ppo se P3, Penetrant inspection should be performed prior to which of the following processes? a. Heat treatment. b. Passivating. c. Etching. d. Anodizing. 4. Low sulfur penetrant material should be used on. which of the following? a. Aluminum alloys. b. Carbon steel alloys. ‘ c. Nickel based alloys. 4. Copper based alloys. P5. Capillary action is a phenomenon in which liquids will enter and fill minute openings, irrespective of gravity. This action depends upon: a. Molecular attraction. b,, Chemical attraction. c. Electromagnetic attraction. d. Static charge. Eddy Current El. The three major specimen parameters which influence eddy current testing are: a. Electrical conductivity, frequency, and material geometry b. Density, magnetic permeability and frequency. ¢. Electrical conductivity, magnetic permeability and material geometry. d. Thermal conductivity, electrical conductivity and magnetic permeability. E2. Phase vector diagrams are used in eddy current testing to show amplitude an phase telatianships between AC signals having the same: . Current. . Resistance, . Energy. |. Impedance. . Frequency. PeerE3. An aluminum alloy has a resistivity of 3.44x 10° Ohm-om. If the conductivity of copper standard is 0.58 x 10°Simen/cm, the aluminum alloy has conductivity closest to 59% ACS ‘ . 54% IACS 50% IACS 46% LACS 17% IACS peose E4, Direct current is not used for generating eddy current because: a. It will not induce eddy current in the test object. b. It cannot be produced with adequate long-term stability. c. The current level required is impractically high. d. AC circuits are more simple and reliable. ES. Eddy current techniques can be used to: a. Measure thickness of epoxy paint on aluminum b. Measure thickness of epoxy paint on porcelain enamel. c. Measure thickness of aluminum foil. d, Both a and b above. e. Both a and c above. Neutron Radiographic Testing NI. In neutron radiography, the term “beam purity indicator” relates to: a. Radiographic sensitivity. , Measurement of the relative beam content of thermal, scattered and epithe neutrons and low energy gamma. c. Determining whether the neutron source was a reactor, accelerator or isotope. 4. The-chemical purity of CF. e. N2. Of the following elements, which has the highest thermal neutron cross-section? a, Be b. Fe c. Pb d. AlN3. Direct exposure screens of Gd can be reused: Only after 2-4 hours from the last exposure. . Only after 2-4 days from the last exposure. Essentially just following the last exposure. Only after determining when the residual radioactivity has diminished to a sa level for handling. Bese N4.-In general narrowing beam collimation results in: a. Higher epithermal neutron intensity b. Lower radiographic sensitivity. c. Higher gamma components in the beam. d. Lower neutron beam intensity. NS; Of the following which has theoretical capability of producing the greatest therm neutron flux: a, 252CE. b. A150 kilowatt charged particle accelerator. c. A25 mega volt electron linear accelerator. d. A nuclear reactor. Leak Testing LI. Of the following gases, which should not be used as a pressurizing medium fo pressure change test? a. Oxygen b. Nitrogen c. Argon 4, Air L2. An absolute pressure of 50 microns (micrometers) Hg is the same as: : . 5x 10“Torr . 5x 10% mm Hg . 5x 107 Torr |. 50 Torr BeepL3. Under normal shop or field conditions at a differential pressure of one atmospher: a solution film test enables detection of leakage as small as: a. 10% atm-cc/sec b. 10° to 10” atm-ce/sec c. 10%to 10° atm-ce/sec d. 10%to 10%atm-ce/see LA. A pressure hold test is performed with 5 surface temperature measuremen initially taken. The measurements were 68°F, 75°F, 73°F and 82°F. What is the avera initial absolute temperature? : a. 344K b. 534°R ©. 74°F d, 340°C LS. When a halogen sniffer test is to be performed in an area where some mild « movement may be encountered, the sniffing operation should begin at the: a. Most convenient location. b. Upstream side of the draft. c. Downstream side of the draft. d. Back eddy of the draft.SON 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) INDTI/SAMPLE/BASIC/02 LEVEL Il BASIC Which of the following is true as per SNT/TC/1A a) Employer is responsible for establishing written practice. b) Qualification of Level Il equal and exceed those of Level II. c) Employer can delegate the responsibility of certification to an outside agency. d) Allof the above. ©) a&bonly. As per SNT/TC/1A The recommended instruction periods are different a) For candidates with different educational background. b) For candidates with different experience background. ©) For candidates with different education and experience backgrounds. d) All of the above. Which of the following is not applicable to an NDT level III as per SNT/TC/1A_ a) Should have sufficient practical background in material, fabrication and product technology. * b) To verify the adequacy of procedure. c) To establish techniques. d) To assist in establishing acceptance criteria. e) Allof the above are applicable. Which of the following is not true as per CP-189 a) NDT instructor may use. specialized expertise as Metallurgist, Welding Engineers, b) NDT instructor is responsible for the course content ©) - NDT instructor is designated by NDT Level III d) Allof the above is true. Candidates for initial certification as NDT Level I or Level II should have required (As per CP 189) a) Education. b) Training c) Experience d) All of the above e) b&cOnly.9) 10) 11) As per SNT/TC/IA for color vision examination a candidate is a) Required to ditferentiate & distinguish among colors. b) Required to differentiate & distinguish among shades of grey. ) ‘av or‘b? d) None of the above. Which of the following is true for Level I practical examination as per CP-189. a) Candidate shall examine at least one test sample for each technique. b) The test sample shall be representative of the products the candidate will encounter in performing job functions. c) The NDT Level III shail use a written checklist and if level I will interpret or evaluate results the checklist should include it. 4) Allofthe above. e) ‘a’ & ‘b’ only. As per CP 189, the employer examination for NDT Level III will contain a) Basic Exam. b) Method Exam. ©) Specific Exam d) Allof the above. e)} ‘a’ & ‘b’ only. As per SNT/TC/IA ,the employer Level Ill examination a) May contain Basic exam. b) May contain method exam. c) May contain specific exam. d) Allofthe above. As per SNI/TC/LA for employer NDT Level Ill, the basic exam minimum number of questions are a) 15 questions for SNI/TC/IA. b) 20 questions from applicable material, fabrication and product technology. ©) 20 questions similar to published level II questions for other NDT methods. d) Allofthe above. As per SNT/TC/1A Recertification is based on a) Evidence of continuing satisfactory performance. b) Re-examination in those portions deemed necessary by employer's Level Ill. ©) Botha &b. d) None of the above.a) / 13) 14) 15) 16) af ination the minimum As per CP-189 for employer Level Il specific ¢: number of questions is a) 15 b) 20 °) 30 d) No specific exam as per CP-189. As per CP 189 the employer Level ILI examinations may contain a) Written practical exam. b) Specific examination. . c) Demonstration examination d) All of the above. ©) ‘ce’ & ‘b’ only. As per CP-189, which of the following was not correct regarding re-examination of a failed candidate a) Received additional documented training covering -the deficiencies that caused the failure. =. b) Examination was administered on a new specimen by the subordinate. ©) New examination paper was used. d) All of the above complied with CP-189 requirements. As per CP-189 employer shall revoke individual’s certification if a) Individual has not performed duties for 24 consecutive months in the method. b) For Level Ill if ASNT Level IlI-certificate has been revoked. ©) Performance is determined deficient with documented reason. d) a&b. ) a, Pate As per SNT/TC/IA recommendations, All Level I, Il & Il certification terminated due to change in employment can be recertified by new employer a) If employee has prior proof of certification & working within 6 months of termination. b) Employee is recertified within 6 months. c) In addition to meeting above he should be re examined. d) a&bonly18) 19) 20) 21) 22) ‘As per SNT/TC/IA recommendations an NDT Level III may a) Be qualified by employer examination alone. b) Be qualified by ASNT examination alone. ©) Be qualified by both above. d) All of the above is applicable. If a candidate spends 40% time in RT, 10% in PT, 50% in UT with total monthly hours of 200, then a) He can claim maximum 200 hrs each in RT, UT & PT. b) He can claim maximum 80 brs in UT. ¢) He can claim maximum 100 hrs in UT. 4) None of the above. As per CP-189, a NDT Level II is a) An individual certified to this standard as NDT Level I. b) An individual having current ASNT-NDT Level III in the particular method. c) Both of the above. d) Either ‘a’ & ‘b” . As per SNI/TC/1A recommendations, near vision examination can be carried out a) Using Jp at 12 inches distance b) With ability to perceive Ortho-Rater 8. ©) With ability to perceive pattem similar to ortho rater 8. d) All of the above. e) a&bonly. Passing grade for employer administered certification examination as per CP 189 is a) Average grade of at least 80%. b) Each grade of at least 70%. c) All examination grading with equal weight. d) All of the above. No of check points for Level I and Level II practical examination as per SNT/TC/LA recommendations is a) 10,10. b) 10, Not specified ©) Not specified 10. d) Both not specified23) 24) 28) 26) 21) As per SNT/TC/1A recommendations for an employer administered method examinations total no of questions are a) 20 questions b) 30 questions. c) 65 questions. d) Methods examination is not required as per SNT/TC/IA. As per CP-189 which of the following can be a test technique a) Ultrasonic Testing. b) Pulse echo Ultrasonic Testing. ©) Immersion Ultrasonic Testing. 4) Allof the above. e) b&conly. An individual certified to Level III by ASNT is considered to have met guidelines of SNT/TC/1A a) Basic examination. . b) Method examination. ©) Specific examination. d) Allof the above ©) ‘a’ & ‘b’ only. SNT/TC/IA is a) Arecommended practice to establish guidelines for qualification & certification of NDT personnel. b) Developed by ASNT. c) Should be applied with flexibility and reason. d) Allof the above. e) a&bonly. Which of the following is not true according to SNT/TC/1A. a) NDT Level II should be thoroughly familiar with the scope and limitations of the method for which qualified. b) The NDT Level III should have full knowledge of other appropriate NDT methods as demonstrated by ASNT Level III basic exam or other means. ©) NDT Level II may carry out on job training of Level I personnel. d) None of the above.a) The recommended experience level for Level I & Level II is expressed as a function of individuals education i.e.; High school or 2 years of University/College/Technical School etc. b) Candidates can be considered for certification if they’ve sufficient training & experience in related NDT method. ©) Ifa candidate has valid ASNT NDT Level Ill certificate in the applicable method then he fulfills the required education training and experience to ensure employer qualification. 4) None of the above. e) a&conly. 29) An individual has spent 80 hours in UT & 32 hours in MT & 28 hours in PT, which of the following is true regarding correct computation of his hours? (As per SNT/TC/1A) a) He can claim work experience of 80 hours in UT, MT & PT. b) He can claim work experience of 140 hours each in UT, MT, PT. ¢) He can only claim 140 hrs in UT, 32 hours in MT and 28 hours in PT. d) None of the above. +2) 3) 4) 5) 6) 7) 8) 9) 10) 1) 12) 13) 14) oe 16) IMPORTANT QUESTIONS Which of the following metallic arrangements is a characteristic of hard & strong material? Which arrangement has 17 atoms? What is smallest atomic cell called? Give two examples each of BCC, FCC and HCP? Which arrangement is characteristic of ductile metals? Which arrangement is succeptable to work hargening? The point at which material exists in solid liquid & gases is called? Conversion of solid into gas called Upto elastic limit a) Stress is proportional to strain. b) Material will resume its position after removal of load. c) Material is stretched elastically. d) — Allof the above. Plastic flow below recrystallization temperature is Plastic flow above recrystallization temperature is As plastic flow continues atoms rearrange making material harder increasing stress is called Highest strength in psi based on original area of cross section is Ratio of stress to strain which is the slope of curve is called Ductility is expressed as and % elongation is17) % reduction in area is 18) The youngs modules for 2000 force on 1” x 2” rectangular area with a strain of .002 inch/inches is psi. 19) Fracture with necking at breaking point is characteristic of _ material. 20) ‘True stress strain curve is based on area of cross section. 21) True stress strain curve differs from Engineer’s stress strain curve only in region and maximum stress is at 22) Most metals are equal in tension and compression but cast iron has compressive strength that of tensile strength. 23) Which of the elements is allotropic? a) Iron b) Aluminum ©) Carbon d) a&cboth. 24) Bar of 2”x 2” is loaded with 4000 ps? what will be the elongation if youngs modulus is 40 Mpsiusing a bar 40” long 4 or — a) .001 of an inck E+-- b) — .003 of an inch ¥ c) .01 ofan inch, ey, d) None of the above. OAL O 6 Ro. 25) Toughness is area under curve See 26) Test to determine notching effect is test. = Xa,o) oo. 27) Endurance limit is a) Highest reversed stress that will be indured for infinite cycle b) The stress at which SN curves flattens out. c) Is about 1/3" to half of tensile strength. d) Allof the above. 28) For materials when SN curve does flatten out,29) 30) 31) 32) 33) 34) 39) 36) a) The fatigue strength is the stress at some arbitrary no of cycles without failure. b) SN curve slopes hence indefinites cycles can cause failure. °c) Botha&b d) None of the above. Creep is a) Gradual deformation of material under constant load and elevated temperature. b) Stress is below elastic limit. c) Due to sliding between the grains. d) All of the above. Charpy impact specimens is supported at ends and Izod at _ ends. The notch in impact test specimen act as a point of. Temperature at which material behaviour (fracture) changes from ductile (with necking) to brittle (Shear) is called temperature. Ability of material to resist penetration is called Brinell hardness number a) — Calculated by load upon area of impression. b) Determines hardness over relatively large area reducing in consistencies caused by flows. c) Is directly related to tensile strength in plain carbon steel d) Allof the above. Rockwell test has a) Small marks left on surface. b) c) d) Investment castings is well suited for castings of a) Intricate shape37) 38) 39) 40) 41) 42) b) High melting temperature material c) Close dimensional tolerance & accuracy. d) All of the above. Machinability may be \y! it a) Finish. b) Power consumption. c) Tool life. 4 d) Combination of above. Roughness & waviness Chatter is Decreasing depth of cut machining finish. Increasing cutting speed tool life Increasing rake angle makes tool subject to edge chipping called