1.

It is the minimum usable Received Signal Level (RSL) and is the point where the RF carrier/noise
ration is 10dB and the FM quieting curve becomes linear.
a. FM Threshold
b. Carrier Threshold
c. Cut-off Region
d. Receiver Sensitivity
2. It is not among the Transport Factors to consider in tower selection
a. Space allotment
b. Soil Condition
c. Total Cost
d. Tower Height
3. It provides a good front-to-back ration, good VSWR and can be used for multiband operation on
both polarization but offers some mode and distortion problems particularly at higher
frequencies.
a. Shrouded Antenna
b. Periscope Antenna System
c. Crossband Parabolic Antenna
d. Horn Reflected Antenna
4. ____ is a graph wherein the terrain in which the microwave beam should traverse.
a. Topograph
b. Fresnel Graph
c. Radio Path Profile
d. Net Path Graph
5. The Fresnel zone is the circular zone about the ____ path
a. Reflected
b. LOS
c. Direct
d. Refracted
6. The radius in the circular zone is in the first Fresnel zone when the reflected path is ___ longer
than the direct path.
a. λ/2
b. λ/4
c. λ
d. 3λ/2
7. The microwave path wherein the microwave beam just barely touches the obstruction
a. LOS path
b. Obstructed path
c. Grazing path
d. Direct path
8. At ___ of the first Fresnel zone is a condition where there is no gain and no loss
a. 0.5
b. 0.7
c. 0.6
d. 0.8
9. The weakest signal the receiver could accept to be considered satisfactory
a. Threshold
b. RSL
c. Fade margin
 d. NPL
10. The frequency band from 8 to 12 GHz is known as the ___
a. C
b. X
c. Ku
d. Ka
11. The difference between the RSL and the FM Improvement Threshold
a. System Gain
b. Fade Margin
c. Noise Threshold
d. Reliability
12. A fade margin of 28 dB has a reliability of
a. 99%
b. 99.99%
c. 99.9%
d. 99.999%
13. Topographical maps are maps used for microwave communications system design because ____
are shown, thereby elevations are known.
a. Latitudes
b. Contour lines
c. Longitudes
d. Scales
14. The smallest free space wavelength that is just unable to propagate in the waveguide under
given conditions.
a. Guide
b. Cut-off
c. Phase
d. Group
15. Indicate which of the ff. cannot be followed by the word waveguide
a. Elliptical
b. Coaxial
c. Flexible
d. Ridged
16. If the MTBF of a communication circuit is 20,000 hours and its MTTR is 5 hours, what is its
unavailability?
a. 0.00025
b. 0.25%
c. 99.975%
d. 00.97%
17. Which is now an advantage of microwave link?
a. Minimal atmospheric disturbance
b. No transmission line maintenance
c. Some privacy
d. Zero downtime
18. In a microwave system, what part is considered to have a gain?
a. Parabolic antennas
b. Speaker
c. Transmission lines
 d. IF tuner
19. Which of the following is not used for microwave frequencies?
a. Coaxial
b. Twin lead
c. Waveguide
d. Strip line
20. Which of the following is not an application of microwaves?
a. Telecommunications
b. Biochemical
c. Radar
d. Cooking
21. What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on 2 different
frequencies over the same path?
a. Quadruple
b. Polarization
c. Frequency
d. Space
22. What diode makes a good low-noise detector at higher microwave frequencies?
a. Shottky
b. Led
c. Gunn
d. PIN
23. A microwave link uses only ____ propagation
a. Ground wave
b. Surface wave
c. Sky wave
d. Space wave
24. The best terrain between antennas is ___, which will prevent reflection effects on the hop
a. Plain and flat
b. Water surface
c. Rocky
d. Forested
25. What diversity reception is best to use in a ship-to-ship communication system?
a. A broadband antenna
b. Frequency diversity
c. Space diversity
d. A more directional antenna
26. The k-factor under a normal atmospheric condition in a microwave radio data profile calculation
is equal to ___.
a. 2/3
b. 4/3
c. 0
d. Infinity
27. A type of diversity reception where the output of a transmitter is fed to two or more antennas
that are physically separated by an appreciable number of wavelengths.
a. Frequency diversity
b. Angle diversity
c. Space diversity
 d. Polarization diversity
28. A means of beyond the line-of-sight propagation of microwave signal
a. Space wave
b. Troposcatter
c. Microwave link
d. Point-to-point
29. Two or more antennas separated by 9 wavelengths are used
a. Hybrid diversity
b. Polarized diversity
c. Space diversity
d. Frequency diversity
30. When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even Fresnel zone at the point
of reflection the RSL is:
a. Remains the same
b. Decreased
c. Above threshold
d. Increased
31. A one-hop, full duplex, microwave system is in a space diversity arrangement. Determine “how
many receivers in all are used?”
a. 8
b. 4
c. 2
d. 6
32. Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses
a. Log normal fading
b. Rayleigh fading
c. Multi-path fading
d. None of these
33. The atmospheric contains water vapor, fogs and other forms of precipitation such as rain and
snow which may absorb and/or scatter some of the radiated energy most especially for
frequencies beyond
a. 8GHz
b. 11GHz
c. 13GHz
d. 23GHz
34. It is usually accompanied or followed by an increase in signal strength and may continue for
several hours after the passage of the front.
a. Horizontal duct
b. Warm front
c. Cold front
d. Subsidence
35. It is the angle between a horizontal ray extending from the radiation center of the antenna to
the radio horizon
a. Scatter angle
b. Horizon angle
c. Take off angle
d. Azimuth angle
36. C-band is from
a. 0.390 – 1.550 GHz
b. 5.200 – 8.000 GHz
c. 8.000 – 16.700 GHz
d. 18.00 – 36.00 GHz
37. Military applications of LOS do not include:
a. Fixed point-to-point
b. Point-to-multipoint
c. Multipoint-to-point
d. Transportable point-to-point
38. Required fade margin for 99.999% single hop propagation reliability
a. 38 dB
b. 48 dB
c. 58 dB
d. 68 dB
39. For 2/3 earth profile, fading is minimized by providing at least a clearance of
a. 0.3 Fresnel zone
b. 0.6 Fresnel zone
c. 0.7 Fresnel zone
d. 0.65 Fresnel zone
40. The area of the First Fresnel Zone depends upon
a. Tx/Rx Antennas
b. Obstruction Height
c. Tree growth allowance
d. Fraunhofer Region
41. The slight penetration into the first Fresnel Zone causes
a. Shadow loss of power
b. Wave reinforcement
c. Multipath fading
d. Cancellation
42. This type of waves reflected from the earth’s surface are shifted by 180 degrees, effectively
changing the electrical path length by a half wavelength
a. Vertically polarized waves
b. Ground-reflected waves
c. Horizontally polarized waves
d. Surface waves
43. Atmospheric index of refraction decreases with
a. Temperature
b. Density
c. Distance
d. Altitude
44. At frequencies below approximately ___, waves may reach much farther beyond the horizon
than refraction can amount for.
a. 100MHz
b. 500MHz
c. 1GHz
d. 5GHz
45. It is usually based upon the received signal level (RSL), which is expected to be equaled or
exceeded 90 percent of the time
a. Reliability of the system
b. Outage time
c. Fade margin
d. MTTR
46. UHF/SHF bands are susceptible to be trapped in
a. Horizontal duct
b. Elevated duct
c. Superduct
d. Ground-based duct
47. Not an advantage of space diversity
a. Frequency conservation
b. Minimized multipath fading
c. Availability of sufficient signal output
d. Tower height
48. Tropospheric scatter system usually employs
a. 2 receivers
b. 3 receivers
c. 4 receivers
d. 5 receivers
49. It offers protection from rain attenuation
a. Frequency diversity
b. Space diversity
c. Crossband diversity
d. Polarization diversity
50. Type of equipment which is widely used for short haul or for distributed systems in the
telephone industry, and for either short or long hail for industrial systems.
a. Baseband
b. IF
c. Heterodyne
d. RF

1. A frequency of 27 MHz has a wavelength of approximately

a. 11 m
b. 27 m
c. 30 m
d. 81 m
2. The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8V and 0.3V.
The percentage of modulation is
a. 10.7%
b. 41.4%
c. 80.6%
d. 93.3%
3. An AM signal has a carrier power of 5W. The percentage of modulation is 80%. The total
sideband power is
a. 0.8W
 b. 1.6W
c. 2.5W
d. 4.0W
4. In H3E for 100% modulation, what percentage of power is in the sideband?
a. 16.67%
b. 33.3%
c. 80%
d. 20%
5. An AM transmitter has a percentage of modulation of 88. The carrier power is 440W. The power
in one sideband is
a. 85W
b. 110W
c. 170W
d. 610W
6. An AM transmitter antenna current is measured with no modulation and found to be 2.6 A.
With modulation, the current rises to 2.9 A. The percentage of modulation is
a. 35%
b. 70%
c. 42%
d. 89%
7. An input signal of 1.8 MHz is mixed with a local oscillation of 5MHz. A filter selects the
difference signal. The output is
a. 1.8 MHz
b. 3.2 MHz
c. 5 MHz
d. 6.8 MHz
8. The output of an SSB transmitter with a 3.85 MHz carrier and a 1.5 kHz sine wave modulating
tone is
a. A 3.8485 MHz sine wave
b. A 3.85 and 3.8485 MHz sine wave
c. A 3.85, 3.8485, and 3.8515 MHz sine wave
d. 3848.5, 3851.5-MHz sine waves
9. An SSB transmitter produces a 400 V peak-to-peak signal across a 52 ohms antenna load. The
PEP output is
a. 192.2 W
b. 384.5 W
c. 769.2 W
d. 3077 W
10. The inputs to a balanced modulator are 1 Mhz and a carrier of 1.5 Mhz. The outputs are
a. 500 kHz
b. 2.5 MHz
c. 1.5 MHz
d. All of the above
11. A crystal lattice filter has crystal frequencies of 27.5 and 27.502 MHz. The bandwidth is
approximately
a. 2 kHz
b. 3 kHz
c. 27.501 MHz
 d. 55.502 MHz
12. An SSB generator has a sideband filter centered at 3.0 MHz. The modulating signal is 3kHz. To
produce both upper and lower sidebands, the following carrier frequencies must be produced:
a. 2.7 and 3.3 MHz
b. 3.3 and 3.6 MHz
c. 2997 and 3003 MHz
d. 3000 and 3003 MHz
13. An NE602 mixer IC has a difference output of 10.7 MHz. The input is 146.8 MHz. The local
oscillator frequency is
a. 101.9 MHz
b. 125.4 MHz
c. 131.6 MHz
d. 157.5 MHz
14. A 100 MHz carrier is deviated 50 kHz by a 4 kHz signal. The modulation index is
a. 5
b. 8
c. 12.5
d. 20
15. The maximum deviation of an FM carrier is 2kHz by a maximum modulating signal of 400 Hz. The
deviation ration is
a. 0.2
b. 5
c. 8
d. 40
16. A 70 kHz carrier has a frequency deviation of 4 kHz with a 1000 Hz signal. How many significant
sideband pairs are produced?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
17. What is the relative amplitude of the third pair of sidebands of an FM signal with m=6?
a. 0.11
b. 0.17
c. 0.24
d. 0.36
18. A 200 kHz carrier is modulated by a 2.5 kHz signal. The fourth pair of sidebands are spaced from
the carrier by
a. 2.5 kHz
b. 5 kHz
c. 10 kHz
d. 15 kHz
19. An FM transmitter has a maximum deviation of 12 kHz and a maximum modulating frequency of
12 kHz. The bandwidth by Carson’s formula is
ANS: 48 kHz
1. Slope overload is a phenomenon that is generally observable on what bandwidth reduction
technique?
a. DPCM
b. ADPCM
c. DM
d. ADM
2. A compression characteristic of μ = 0 on μ-law indicated
a. Uniform quantization
b. Medium compression
c. Non-linear amplification
d. Non-uniform quantization
3. Approximately how much decibel improvement can one except for a linear PCM system utilizing
a 7-bit PCM code assignment?
a. 6
b. 24
c. 30
d. 42
4. In checksum, the check digit is usually the
a. First digit
b. Second digit
c. Middle digit
d. Last digit
5. What encoding technique is used by IEEE standard?
a. NRZ-L
b. AMI
c. Manchester
d. Differential Manchester
6. An input voltage of -7.275 V was measured on a PCM system whose resolution is 0.025 V. This
will be digitally compressed into 8-bits as
a. 01101010
b. 00010010
c. 01010110
d. Cannot be quantified
7. Simplest form of pulse modulation
a. PCM
b. PPM
c. PAM
d. PFM
8. ITU G.711 recommends the use of μ-law and A-law with a sampling rate of ___ and 8-binary
digits per sample
a. 4 kHz
b. 8 kHz
9. In keying techniques, this is also known as information density
a. Bandwidth efficiency
b. Eb/No
c. Dynamic range
d. SNR
10. In information theory, the ultimate data compression is bounded by the system’s ___
a. Encoding technique
b. Channel capacity
c. Information measure
d. Entropy
11. A baud of 10000 is the same as
a. 10 kbps
b. 10 kHz
c. 10000 symbols/sec
d. 10000 cycles/bit
12. Numerical indication of how a PCM code is efficiently utilized
a. Quantization
b. Entropy
c. Coding efficiency
d. Source efficiency
13. Message = 11100110, G(x) = x^4 + x^3 +1, find the CRC
a. 110
b. 0110*
c. 0011
d. 1100
14. This type of encoding uses two level s to represent a symbol
a. Unipolar
b. Polar
c. Bipolar
d. Multipolar
15. Which of the following has the least problem on the presence of dc components?
a. NRZ-L
b. AMI
c. NRZ-I
16. In this encoding, a symbol is represented by 1.58 bits
a. NRZ-L
b. NRZ-I
c. Manchester
d. Pseudoternary
17. Which of the following codes is an example of differential ecoding?
a. NRZ-L
b. NRZ-I
c. Manchester
d. AMI
18. The scrambling techniques, HDB3 and B8ZS, were based on the rules of
a. NRZ-L
b. NRZ-I
c. Differential Manchester
d. AMI
19. This method of error detection has the least likelihood of achieving error detection
a. The use of parity
b. Checksum
c. CRC
 d. Hamming code
20. Five channels, each with a 100-kHz bandwidth, are to be multiplexed together. What is the
minimum bandwidth of the like if there is a need for a guard band of 10 kHz between the
channels to prevent interference?
a. 500 kHz
b. 510 kHz
c. 530 kHz
d. 540 kHz
21. A supergroup has a bandwidth of
a. 60 kHz
b. 240 kHz
c. 2.52 MHz
d. 69.984 MHz
22. A T-1 line is used to implement a DS-1 service with a data rate of
a. 64 kbps
b. 1.544 Mbps
c. 2.048 Mbps
d. 6.312 Mbps
23. How many voice channels are supported in an E-1 line?
a. 24
b. 30
c. 60
d. 300
24. Statistical TDM is also known as
a. Asynchronous TDM
b. Synchronous TDM
c. Isochronous TDM
d. Multilayer TDM
25. TCM technique was primarily proposed by ___
a. Ungerboeck
b. Cutler
c. Reeves
d. Chiariglione
26. Bandwidth efficiency for 64 QAM with a rate of 10 Mbps
a. 1 bits/cycle
b. 2 bits/cycle
c. 6 bits/cycle
d. 8 bits/cycle
27. Determine the minimum bandwidth required to achieve a Eb/No of 14 dB for an 8-PSK system
operating at 20 Mbps with a C/N of 11 dB
a. 40 MHz
b. 45 MHz
c. 50.25 MHz
28. Determine the minimum bandwidth for a 32-QAM modulator with an input bit rate of 20 Mbps
a. 4 MHz
b. 5 MHz
c. 15 MHz
d. 20 MHz
29. Minimum bandwidth for a BPSK modulated signal with a baud rate of 10000 is ___ Hz
a. 1000
b. 2500
c. 5000
d. 10000
30. A binary source sends a 1 with a probability of 30%. Determine the entropy of this source
a. 0.881 bit/symbol
b. 0.921 bit/symbol
c. 1 bit/symbol
d. 1.5 bit/symbol
31. Maximum rate at which information can be transmitted thru a channel
a. Bit rate
b. Baud rate
c. Coding
d. Channel capacity
32. Question not taken
33. Channel capacity of a 6-MHz channel with a S/N ratio of 25 dB
a. 50 Mbps
b. 55 Mbps
c. 60 Mbps
d. 80 Mbps
34. A broadcast television channel has a bandwidth of 6 MHz. Calculate the maximum data rate that
could be carried in a TV channel using a 16-level code. Ignore noise.
a. 24 Mbps
b. 36 Mbps
c. 48 Mbps
35. Minimum allowable bandwidth for binary signal with a bit rate of 10 kbps
a. 5kHz
b. 200 kHz
c. 10 MHz
d. 20 MHz
36. Standard audio sampling rate in CD
a. 4 samples/sec
b. 8 samples/sec
c. 20 samples/sec
d. 44.1 samples/sec
37. Most common compression value for A-law
a. 87.6
b. 100
c. 255
d. 300
38. The generating polynomial x^7 + x^5 + x^4 + x^2 + x + 1 is equivalent to
a. 010010001
b. 101101110
c. 01101111
d. 10110111
39. System implementation for an 8-PSK transmitter is the same as 8-QAM transmitter except for
a. The absence of inverter on 8-PSK
 b. The absence of inverter on 8-QAM
c. The absence of linear summer on 8-PSK
d. The absence of linear summer on 8-QAM
40. Question not taken
41. Information theory has been attributed on the majority, through the works of
a. Reeves
b. Shannon
c. Armstrong
d. Chiariglione
42. Major component of a binary FSK receiver
a. VCO
b. PLL
c. AGC
d. AFC
43. The balanced modulator is common to what modulation techniques?
a. FSK
b. ASK
c. 8-PSK
d. FM
44. Matched filter technique is used to
a. Increase SNR
b. Decreases SNR
c. SNR is not affected
d. Increase system bandwidth
45. Quantization noise can be reduced by ___ the number of levels
a. Decreasing
b. Increasing
c. Doubling
d. Squaring
46. An ITU G.711 voice signal when processed on ADPCM encoder will be compressed to a voice
signal
a. 16 kbps
b. 32 kbps
c. 64 kbps
d. 128 kbps
47. DC wandering is a common phenomenon in ___ data streams
a. NRZ-L
b. Manchester
c. Differential Manchester
d. B8ZS
48. In PCM reception, one normally employs the use of a ___
a. Low pass filter
b. High pass filter
c. Bandpass filter
d. Band reject filter
49. Question not taken
50. DCPM encodes the PCM values based on
a. Quantization level
 b. Difference between the current and predicted value
c. Interval between levels
d. None of the mentioned
51. What encoding technique is used by traditional ethernet?
a. NRZ-L
b. AMI
c. Manchester
d. Differential Manchester
52. Mastergroup frequency – BW: 240 kHz, Spectrum: 312-552 kHz
53. Which of the following leased line services is most likely NOT to be implemented in practice?
ANS: T-2 line
54. Multimedia content description is prescribed on what MPEG standard?
a. MPEG-2
b. MPEG-3
c. MPEG-7
d. MPEG-11
55. Question not taken
56. MPEG-1 Audio Layer III, more commonly referred to as MP3, prescribes a bit rate of
a. 384 kbps
b. 256 kbps
c. 192 kbps
d. 128 kbps
57. Hamming code (hehe)
58. Which reduces the size of the data?
a. Source coding
b. Channel coding
c. Both a and b
d. Entropy
59. A variant of FSK applied as a modulation technique for GSM cellular radios
a. GFSK
b. GMSK
c. DECT
d. WLL
60. Assures that the sender is he who claims to be
a. Authentication
b. Channel coding
c. Error control
d. Redundancy
61. Which of the following is correct?
a. The bit rate may be greater than the baud rate
b. The baud rate may be greater than the bit rate
c. The bit and baud rate are always the same
d. The bit and baud rates are not related
62. It is the ratio of the transmission bit rate to the minimum bandwidth required for a particular
modulation scheme.
a. Bandwidth efficiency
b. Spectral efficiency
c. Information density
 d. All of the above
63. The correct sequence in PCM Generation is
ANS: Filtering – sampling – quantization – encoding
64. What is the bandwidth required to transmit at a rate of 10 Mbps in the presence of a 28 dB S/N
ratio?
a. 1.075 MHz
b. 10 MHz
c. 5 MHz
d. 10.5 MHz
65. Ideally, a 30 kbps, 16-QAM signal will have a bandwidth efficiency of
a. 4 bps/Hz*
b. 5 bps/Hz
c. 6 bps/Hz
d. 7 bps/Hz