QUESTION BOOKLET

Subject: AGRONOMY
Book No.
Post Applied for: ASSISTANT SPECIALIST
Name of the Candidate: …………………………...
Date of Examination:
0 7 2 0 1 6

Roll Number: Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet
before filling the Answer sheet
2. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for the test.
3. Write your name (in Capital letters), roll number, date and booklet number on the question
booklet and Answer sheet and sign at the appropriate place.
4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions for 200 marks
(@ 1 mark per question) and the total time allotted is 2 hours. The correct answer will be given one
mark and for every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
5. Each objective question is followed by four options. Your task is to choose the correct answer and
write your answer on the answer sheet provided. DO NOT write your answer on the Question
Booklet.
6. Write your option/answer for each question legibly in the box provided next to the question in the
answer sheet. Writing the multiple answers within the same box or overwriting or corrections made
if any, will be treated as wrong answer.
7. Do not make any stray marks anywhere on the answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the answer
sheet. Rough work SHOULD NOT be done on the answer sheet.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones, scanning
devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in possession of such
unauthorized material, including copying or impersonation or adopting unfair means, is liable to be
summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action.
9. After completing the examination, the candidate should write the total number of questions answered
and affix the signature in the space provided on the answer sheet. Then, hand over the admit card,
question booklet and the original copy of Answer sheet to the invigilator. The carbon copy of the
answer sheet may be obtained after due verification/signature by the Invigilator.
10. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination hall. If any candidate
is found carrying the booklet such candidates are liable to be disqualified.
11. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he/she has completed his/her paper. After
completion of the examination, all the candidates should remain seated until all booklets and answer
sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination hall.
*****
Page 1 of 23
 Directions for questions 1-100: In each of the following questions, out of the four options
given, choose the right answer
1. What is the length of growing period in semi-arid regions?
a. 70 – 210 days b. 150 - 210 days
c. 90 – 150 days d. More than 270 days
2. The important approach in micro watershed is
a. Soil conservation b. Productivity improvement
c. Storage of runoff water d. All of these

3. Surface runoff depends on

a. Intensity of rain fall b. Amount of rain fall
c. Duration of rain fall d. All of these

4. Area with less than 500 mm rain fall is suitable for

a. Mono cropping b. Crop holding
c. Fallowing d. All of these

5. Major soil type of southern Karnataka is

a. Red soil b. Black soil
c. Alluvial soil d. Both a & b

6. Which of the following cultural methods will reduce the weed population
a. Arresting flowering b. Deep ploughing
c. Puddling d. All of these

7. Phalaris minor is a crop associated weed with ………….. crop

a. Wheat b. Maize
c. Rice d. Cotton
8. Objectives of intercropping are
a. Suppression of weeds b. Reduction of pests and diseases
c. Stability in yield and income d. All of these

9. The component crops of intercropping should not be

a. Competitive b. Suppressive
c. Mutually inhibitive d. All the above
10. Phyllotaxy is defined as
a. Arrangement of roots b. Arrangement of flowers
c. Arrangement of fruits d. Arrangement of leaves
11. After thinning the number of plants per hectare at 50 cm x 20 cm is
a. 50000 b. 100000
c. 75000 d. 125000

12. Sesbania rostrata is

a. A root nodule plant b. A stem nodule plant
c. Both a & b d. None of these

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 2 of 23

 13. The organic matter content of Indian soils lingers around
a. 0.25% b. 0.5%
c. 1-2% d. 3.0%

14. About …. % of world’s rice production and consumption is in Asian region

a. 50 b. 75
c. 90 d. 25

15. C:N ratio of 80:1 to 100:1 is noticed in

a. Legumes b. Cereals
c. Oil seeds d. None of these

16. A farmer having two hectare area grows maize in two hectare during kharif and
groundnut in one hectare during rabi. The cropping intensity of the farm is
a. 100% b. 150%
c. 200% d. 300%

17. Water erosion follows the following sequence

a. Sheet, Splash, Rill and Gully b. Splash, Rill, Sheet and Gully
c. Splash, Sheet, Rill and Gully d. Rill, Splash, Gully and Sheet

18. Ability of rainfall to cause soil erosion is

a. Runoff b. Erosivity
c. Erodability d. Soil erosion
19. TMC means
a. Thousand metre cube b. Thousand million cubic feet
c. Ten metre cube d. Ten million cubic feet

20. CAZRI is located at

a. Lucknow b. Jodhpur
c. Kasaragod d. Cuttack

21. Which part of country has more area of rain-fed rice?

a. North b. East
c. South d. West

22. In which of the following crops, manual harvesting is done in the early hours of morning
a. Potato b. Soybean
c. Safflower d. Cowpea

23. Which is a soil active herbicide

a. Fluchloralin b. Paraquat
c. Isoproturon d. Glyphosate

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 3 of 23

 24. Which one of the following microbial agents is being commercially exploited as biocontrol
agent
a. Penecillium notatum b. VAM
c. Trichoderma viridae d. Rhizobium

25. Optimum temperature range for cultivation of gram is

a. 15-250C b. 25-350C
0
c. 30-35 C d. 35-400C

26. Fertilizer application in maize should be completed before

a. Tasseling b. Silking
c. Ripening d. Knee high stage

27. In agri-horticulture system for arable land the tree component is

a. Timber b. Hedge row
c. Fruit d. All

28. Which portion of sugarcane stalk should normally be used for sett purpose?
a. Bottom one-third to half portion b. Bottom one-fourth portion
c. Top one-third to half portion d. Entire cane

29. Country which is pioneer in hybrid rice is

a. China b. India
c. Philippines d. Japan

30. Suitable herbicide for pigeon pea is

a. Alachlor b. Fluchloralin
c. Both a and b d. Atrazine
31. Glyphosate is a ------------ herbicide
a. Selective b. Pre emergence
c. Non selective d. Pre planting
32. Short duration pulses like cowpea, blackgram and green gram are ideal crops of southern
Karnataka for
a. Rabi season b. Early kharif
c. Late kharif d. None of these

33. Which order explains the soil moisture disappearance in order of preference?
a. Hygroscopic water - capillary water b. Capillary water – hygroscopic
– gravitational water water– gravitational water
c. Gravitational water – capillary d. Capillary water – gravitational
water – hygroscopic water water – hygroscopic water

34. Field capacity of black soil is around

a. 8-12% b. 12-18%
c. 30-40% d. 18-25%

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 35. Movement of nutrient ions from soil to plant roots by
a. Diffusion b. Mass flow
c. Root interception d. All of these

36. The inflorescence of safflower is

a. Head b. Arrow
c. Spike d. Raceme

37. Which species of sugarcane is known as noble cane?

a. Saccharum sinense b. Saccharum barberi
c. Saccharum officinarum d. Saccharum robustum

38. Wherever only one irrigation is available, the wheat crop should be irrigated at
a. Tillering stage b. Flowering stage
c. Milking stage d. CRI stage

39. Coffee belongs to the family

a. Theacae b. Rubiaceae
c. Poaceae d. Euphorbiaceae

40. The centre of origin of Coffee arabica is

a. Brazil b. Ethiopia
c. Liberia d. Columbia

41. What is that special operation which is done during tea manufacture so that the end product
is green tea
a. Steaming the shoots soon after b. Slowing down rolling process
plucking to destroy leaf oxidase, the
fermentation enzyme
c. Alternate rolling & jerking d. All the operations

42. Blackgram is also known as

a. Mung b. Urd
c. Khesari d. None

43. Which of the following operations is associated with the process of nipping in gram
a. Treating the seed with Rhizobium b. Tying the branches to avoid
lodging
c. Picking green leaves for vegetable d. Plucking the apical buds to
purposes promote branches
44. Which of the following soil types are suited for cultivation of groundnut
a. Sandy loam soils b. Loam soils
c. Black soils with good drainage d. All these soils

45. The diurnal variation in temperature is less at

a. Inlands b. Equator
c. Coastal areas d. None of the above

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 5 of 23

 46. Planting of shade trees in coffee plantation is an example of
a. Allelopathy b. Annidation in space
c. Annidation in time d. None
47. Cultivation of long duration crops will result in…………in Cropping Intensity Index (CII)
a. Increase b. Decrease
c. No change d. None
48. The world’s most problematic weed is
a. Ambrosia b. Parthenium
c. Utrica sp d. Cyperus rotundus

49. Under dry land conditions most preferred herbicide for maize is
a. Atrazine b. Fluchloralin
c. Propanil d. Butachlor

50. If the rate of application per hectare is 3.00 kg a.i., the quantity of Simazine WP (80% a.i.,)
required to be sprayed in 0.33 hectare area would be
a. 0.50 kg b. 0.75 kg
c. 1.25 kg d. 1.87 kg

51. The analytical method most suitable for estimation of available phosphorous in acid soils
is
a. Olsen’s method b. Mehlich’s method
c. Bray & Kurtz’s method d. All

52. The plastic mulch helps to

a. Reduce the soil moisture b. Increase the soil moisture
c. Increase the soil temperature d. None of the above

53. A green manure crop would

a. Increase nitrogen content b. Lower water penetration
c. Decrease aeration d. None of the above

54. The ICRISAT was established in ……………. year

a. 1987 b. 1972
c. 1967 d. None of these

55. What is crop rotation?

a. Growing of crops one after other b. Growing more than one crop at a
time
c. Growing of an associate crop in d. Growing of crops together in
between the rows of the main crop strips

56. The ratio between evapotranspiration of crop and potential evapotranspiration is called
a. Water coefficient b. Irrigation coefficient
c. Crop coefficient d. All of these

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 6 of 23

 57. The term trickle irrigation is used synonymously with
a. Sprinkle irrigation b. Drip irrigation
c. Micro sprinkler irrigation d. Both a and c

58. The amount of water consumed by the crop to the total volume of water delivered through
irrigation is called as
a. Irrigation efficiency b. Water conveyance efficiency
c. Water application efficiency d. Water distribution efficiency

59. Which nutrient stimulates flowering and also aid in seed formation?
a. Phosphorous b. Potassium
c. Ca & Mg d. Sulphate

60. A fertilizer which supplies three essential plant nutrients is

a. DAP b. MoP
c. SSP d. SoP

61. The law of Minimum was given by

a. Juston Von Liebig b. Spillman
c. Mitcherlich d. Thomas Way

62. Which one of the following is a greenhouse gas

a. Oxygen b. Ammonia
c. Chlorine d. Methane

63. Ideal pH for coffee cultivation………

a. 4.0-4.5 b. 5.0-5.5
c. 6.0-6.5 d. 7.0-7.5

64. Lime requirement is calculated by

a. Shoemaker & other method b. Schoonover method
c. Chepil & Woodruff method d. White & Beckett method

65. Which of the following is the critical symptom of boron deficiency in Cauliflower?
a. Young curds developing small b. Turning brown, necrotic & decay
water-soaked areas
c. Petioles developing small blisters d. All of the above

66. Which of the following nutrient is highly immobile in plants?

a. B b. Mg
c. K d. P

67. Inbred lines that have same genetic constitution but differ only at one locus are called
a. Multi lines b. Monohybrid
c. Isogenic lines d. Pure lines

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 7 of 23

 68. The most ground water polluting fertilizers are……..
a. Nitrate fertilizers b. Ammonical fertilizers
c. Potassic fertilizers d. Amide fertilizers

69. Potassic fertilizer most suitable for potato & tobacco is

a. Murate of Potash b. Sulphate of Potash
c. Schoenite d. All

70. Which of the following mechanical soil conservation measures is more suitable for fruit
trees or other plantation crops on steep slopes?
a. Contour bunds b. Half-moon terraces
c. Graded bunds d. Bench terraces

71. The study of relationship between soil properties and plant production is known as
a. Soil science b. Agronomy
c. Edaphology d. Pedology

72. The depth of the seedling in wheat depends on the length of

a. Mesocotyl b. Radicle
c. Coleoptile d. Plumule

73. Indian Seed Act was enacted in the year

a. 1961 b. 1971
c. 1966 d. 1976

74. Blast of rice is a ….. disease

a. Viral b. Bacteria
c. Fungal d. Deficiency of zinc

75. Which of the following does not apply to SRI method of paddy cultivation?
a. Reduced water application b. Reduced plant density
c. Increased application of chemical d. Reduced age of seedlings
fertilizers

76. The Indian state, which is the largest producer of saffron is

a. Maharashtra b. Rajasthan
c. Jammu & Kashmir d. Tamilnadu

77. Segregation of gene occurs in

a. F1 generation b. F2 generation
c. Gamete formation of F1 d. F3 generation

78. Which of the following is not a characteristic of dryland crop?

a. Potential for high yield b. Fertilizer responsive
c. High water requirement d. Strong root system

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 8 of 23

 79. A year in which rainfall of a particular place is short by more than ------- is known as
drought year
a. Twice the mean deviation b. Twice the standard deviation
c. Twice the median d. Twice the standard error

80. The broad beds and furrows method is suitable for

a. Sandy soil b. Loamy soil
c. Black soil d. All of these

81. When all the pores are filled with water and the soil is said to be saturated this condition is
termed as:
a. Maximum water holding capacity b. Field capacity
c. Water holding capacity d. None

82. Which oil contains maximum linoleic acid:

a. Safflower b. Groundnut
c. Cotton d. Mustard

83. The scientist who is considered as the father of Taxonomy is?

a. Mendel b. Darwin
c. Linnaeus d. Lamark

84. The process through which energy is released by plants?

a. Transpiration b. Respiration
c. Photosynthesis d. None of these

85. The crop also sown for green manuring is?

a. Safflower b. Sorghum
c. Green gram d. Mustard

86. First KVK of India was established at?

a. Hyderabad b. Nagpur
c. Chennai d. Pondicherry

87. The organization related to export of Agricultural processed produce is

a. FCI b. APEDA
c. NABARD d. CACP

88. Which of the following insecticide has fumigant action?

a. DDVP b. Malathion
c. Cypermethrin d. Dimethoate

89. If one gram of pesticide formulation containing 50 % active ingredient is mixed with 1 litre
of water, then what will be concentration of the active ingredient in the spray fluid?
a. 5 ppm b. 50 ppm
c. 500 ppm d. 5000 ppm

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 9 of 23

 90. Following fungus is effective on root grubs
a. Fusarium sp. b. Beauveria sp.
c. Nomuraea rileyi d. Mettarrhizium anisopliae

91. If fertility variation in the field is in two directions at right angles, which of the
experimental design is suitable.
a. CRBD b. RBD
c. Latin Square d. Split Plot

92. Correlation coefficient is,

a. More than + 1 b. Less than – 1
c. Lies between – 1 and + 1 d. None of the above

93. Coefficient of variation is useful for comparing,

a. Comparison between different b. Same population
populations
c. Both of the above d. None of these

94. In an experimental plot 7 rows were sown with 50 cm row spacing and 5 m length, while
harvesting one row on either side of the plots were discarded. The net plot size will be;
a. 2.0 x 5.0 m b. 2.5 x 5.0 m
c. 4.0 x 5.0 m d. 3.5 x 5.0 m

95. In a field experiment the net plot size was 2.5 x 4.0 m and the yield were recorded in kg.
What is the conversion factor for q /ha.?
a. 10 b. 100
c. 1000 d. 50

96. In a fertilizer trial 40 kg N / ha. has to be applied to the plot of 10.00 sq. m. area. What
quantity of Urea is needed?
a. 95 g b. 87 g
c. 98 g d. 115 g

97. Standard deviation is,

a. Expressed in the same unit of b. Free from unit of measurements
measurements
c. It is in percentage d. None of these

98. The randomization of treatments in the field experiment is essential:

a. As statistical procedures hold good b. To average out the effects of
when randomization is done environment differences
c. For comparison of treatment effects d. None of the above

99. Local control helps in

a. Reducing the experimental error b. Homogeneity of experimental
units
c. Both of the above d. None of the above

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 10 of 23

 [Link] principles of filed experiments are
a. Randomization b. Replication
c. Local control d. All of these

Directions for the questions 101 to 104: Read each sentence to find out whether there is
any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that
part is the answer.
101. My daughter never (a) would write to me (b) so I never know (c) what she is doing(d)
102. Nowadays, the cost of living (a) is so high that (b) people find it difficult(c) to make both
ends meeting (d)
103. Nothing ever becomes real (a) till it is experienced (b) Even a proverb is no proverb to
you (c) till your life has illustrated with it. (d)
104. The house where the dead man was found (a) is being guarded by police (b) to prevent it
from being entered (c) and the evidence interfered with. (d)

Directions for the questions 105 to 107: In each sentence below four words that the printed
in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or
inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or
inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer.
105. The government has ready (a) adopted (b) many recommendations (c) of the
Narasimhan Committee on banking sector reforms (d)
106. The guidelines (a) of the new scheme (b) are expected (c) to be finally (d) soon
107. In case of any land dispute (a) Panchayat officials (b) will determine (c) how the
property is to be dividend (d)
Directions for the questions 108 to 111: In each of the following sentences there are two
blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a),
(b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the
sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
108. We are proud to say that today _____________ 26 per cent of our total accounts are
_________ by women and senior citizens.
a. approximate, held b. nearly, authorized
c. over, maintain d. around, operated

109. Although religion does not ______________ the acquisition of wealth, the tenor of its
teaching is to _____________ an attitude of indifference to worldly things.
a. proclaim, prohibit b. inhibit, induce
c. manifest, proud d. delink, develop

[Link] we study the lives of great men we are _________ that we too can achieve greatness and
when we die, we leave behind our _____________
a. convinced, children c. reminded, footmarks
b. conveyed, followers d. commended, belongings

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 11 of 23

 111. India’s _____________ over the past half century since independence has been unique
and ______________ in many ways.
a. thinking, feeling b. development, commendable
c. victory, celebrating d. crash, overbearing

Directions for the questions 112 to 116: In each of the following questions, out of the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
112. CANDID
a. Rude b. Impertinent
c. Blunt d. Frank

113. PROGNOSIS
a. Identification b. Preface
c. Forecast d. Scheme

114. EFFACE
a. Wipe out b. Weaken
c. Insult d. Repair

115. STAID
a. Depressive b. Sedate
c. Backward d. Dull

[Link]
a. Clear b. Calm
c. Enjoyable d. Dull

Directions for the questions 117 to 121: In each of the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word.
117. CULPABLE
a. Irresponsible b. Careless
c. Blameless d. Defendable

118. DENOUNCE
a. Defend b. Gather
c. Fight d. Rally

[Link]
a. Commend b. Pray
c. Admonish d. Worship

120. MORBID
a. Healthy b. Clever
c. Upright d. Sickly

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 12 of 23

 121. DEFIANCE
a. Dismay b. Suspicion
c. Obedience d. Anxiety

Directions for the questions 122 - 125: In each of the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence

122. A person living permanently in a certain place

a. Native b. Resident
c. Domicile d. Subject

123. Relationship by blood or birth

a. Parentage b. Affiliation
c. Consanguinity d. Nepotism

124. A person who makes love without serious intentions

a. Consort b. Philanderer
c. Romeo d. Goon

125. One who cannot die

a. Stable b. Immortal
c. Perpetual d. Perennial

Directions for the questions 126 - 129: In each of the following questions, an idiomatic
expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one
which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb

126. To be at loggerheads
a. To have tough encounter b. To be at enmity or strife
c. To face stiff opposition d. To tax one’s mind & body

127. To give up the ghost

a. To die b. To make false appearance
c. To terrify others by acting in d. To leave useless pursuits
suspicious manner
128. To lose one’s head
a. To go mad b. To become nervous
c. To become confused and over d. To lose the balance
excited

129. To be at daggers drawn

a. To be frightened b. To be ready to face danger
c. To threaten one d. To be bitter enemy

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 13 of 23

 Directions for the questions 130 to 133: In each of the following questions, a sentence has
been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the
one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice
130. They are building a house next door to our school.
a. Next door to our school a house is b. Next door to our school is being
being built by them. built a house by them.
c. A house next door to our school is d. A house is being built by them
being built by them. next door to our school.

131. Who is creating this mess?

a. Who has created this mess? b. By whom has this mess been
created?
c. By whom this mess is being d. By whom is this mess being
created? created?

132. A lion may be helped even by a little mouse.

a. A little mouse may even help a lion. b. Even a little mouse may help a
lion.
c. A little mouse can even help a lion. d. Even a little mouse ought to help
a lion.

133. The noise of the traffic kept me awake

a. I remained awake by the noise of b. I was kept awake by the noise of
the traffic the traffic
c. I was kept awakened by the noise of d. The traffic kept me awake by the
the traffic noise
Directions for the questions 134 - 137: In each of the following questions, a sentence has
been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one
which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech.
[Link] said to Gaurav, “Will you help me in my work just now?”
a. Pinky asked Gaurav if he would b. Pinky questioned to Gaurav that
help her in her work just then. will you help me in my work just
now.
c. Pinky told Gaurav whether he will d. Pinky asked to Gaurav that will
help her in her work just now. he help her in her work just now.

135. Sarita said to me, “I will do it now or never.”

a. Sarita told me that I would do it b. Sarita told me that she would do it
then or never. now or never.
c. Sarita told me that she will do that d. Sarita told me that she would do it
now or never. then or never.
136. She said to him, “why don’t you go today?
a. She said to him that why he don’t b. She asked him if he was going
go today. that day.
c. She asked him why he did not go d. She asked him why he did not go
today. that day.

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 14 of 23

 137. He said to me, “Where is the post office?
a. He wanted to know where the post b. He asked me that where the post
office was. office was.
c. He asked me where the post office d. He asked me where was the post
was. office.

Directions for the questions 138 - 139: In each of the following questions, a word has been
written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word.
138. a. Sacrilegeous b. Sacrilegious
c. Sacriligious d. Sacreligious

139. a. Delinquescent b. Deliquecent

c. Deliquescent d. Delinquesent

Directions for the questions 140 - 141:Out of the given group of words choose the mis-spelt
word
140. a. Lonesome b. Lovely
c. Ludicruous d. Logical

141. a. Handicraft b. Hand bar

c. Handkerchef d. Handicap

Directions for the questions 142 to 145: In this type of questions, you are provided with the
first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts
labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a
complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination.
142. (1) After a laborious life
(P) and moved to the quiet village where he was born
(Q) most of which he had spent in the metropolis
(R) and where he intended to spend
(S) he retired in his old age
(6) his remaining years
a. QRPS b. QSPR
c. SPQR d. SQPR

143. (1) Though the exact dimensions

(P) involved in the rocket
(Q) and the precise amounts
(R) it is clear that such a large scale operation
(S) are yet to be ascertained
(6) could not have been possible without the connivance of officials at various levels
a. PSRQ b. QPSR
c. RQPS d. SPRQ

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 15 of 23

 144. (1) In spite of repeated attempts,
(P) in the dictionary
(Q) and finally had to ask his teacher
(R) he could not locate
(S) the strange – looking word
(6) what it meant
a. PQRS b. SPQR
c. QRSP d. RSPQ

145. (1) If the sovereignty

(P) of the people and their elected representatives,
(Q) and the unity
(R) in the hands
(S) of a country is not safe
(6) it cannot be safe in any other hands
a. PQRS b. QSRP
c. RPQS d. SRPQ

Directions for the questions 146 to 150: Comprehension : Read the passage and answer
the questions
Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product
markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross
domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40
per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in this sector.
Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products
(cereals) in the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have significant potential impact
on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic
market for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among
the low-income groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural & industrial growth has
shown that the 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by
5% & urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment & price
deflation. However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of
agricultural goods. An increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate
increase in demand for intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side
adjustments involving reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity
expansion take a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like
India, the demand stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less
social and economic costs.
Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development
process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward
shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the
technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift
in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence
between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output
elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 16 of 23

 output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55 to
o.50 and that for cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other important interdependency which plays a
crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through
demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any
reduction in the food price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower
food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an
increase in the food price would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the
prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in
demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour
demand out-paces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand.
Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence
living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic
pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to
starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the
energy provided by food. Food-grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in
agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-grains accounts for about four-
fifths of the calorie intake of the poor.

146. Which of the following, according to the passage, benefits do the urban workers get from
increased agricultural production?
i) Urban worker get agricultural products at a cheaper rate.
ii) Urban workers get more job offers in the agricultural sector
iii) Urban workers get more job offers in the industrial sector
a. i & ii only b. ii & iii only
c. i & iii only d. All i, ii & iii

147. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘deflation’ as used in the
passage?
a. Reduction b. Index
c. Inflation d. Improvement
148. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?
a. Increase in labour productivity in b. Agriculture sector can provide the
agriculture can reduce poverty. impetus for greater
industrialization at lower cost
c. Increase in food supply will d. Concentration of low-income
increase the demand for labour group people is relatively higher
forces. in the non-agricultural sector.

149. Which of the following, according to the passage, can lead to demand deficiency in India?
a. Widespread import of food-grains b. Oversupply of agricultural
products
c. Increase in prices of industrial d. Foresight in gauging the demand-
products supply of labour

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 17 of 23

 150. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘interdependence’ as
used in the passage?
a. Correlated b. Dependence
c. Independence d. Interrelated

151. Indian standard time is related to longitude of

a. 82.58oE b. 80.00oE
c. 82.00oE d. 90.00oE

152. North East Monsoon gets rainfall mainly to which states

a. Assam b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Tamil Nadu d. Himachal Pradesh

153. Largest Tea producing county in the world

a. China b. Kenya
c. India d. Sri Lanka

154. During the visit of Prime Minister of India to China, agreements were signed on
establishment of sister cities between India and China. Which one of the following WAS
NOT one of them
a. Aurangabad and Dunhuang b. Chennai and Chongqing
c. Guwahati and Kunming d. Hyderabad and Qingdao

155. Recently UNESCO has designated ……….. as members of creative city network
a. Varanasi and Jaipur b. Hyderabad and Secendrabad
c. Hubli and Dharwad d. None

156. Which among the water bodies separate the Andaman and Nicobar Island
a. Eight Degree Channel b. Ten Degree Channel
c. Palk Strait d. Strait of Malacca
157. Which one of the following is NOT true of the post-World War global trading system?
a. GATT was signed in 1947 b. GATT was a forum for trade
negotiations among contracting
parties
c. WTO replaced GATT as an interim d. The Headquarters of WTO is
forum located in Geneva

158. Who has been appointed as new CEO of National Institution for Transforming India
(NITI) Aayog?
a. Nandan Nilekani b. Bibek Debroy
c. Sindhushree Khullar d. Amitabh Kant

159. Who among the following was the author of the book ‘Advantage India-From Challenge
to Opportunity’?
a. Amratya Sen b. Vinod Rai
c. APJ Abdul Kalam d. T S Papola

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 18 of 23

 160. Soils of Western Rajasthan have a high content of:
a. Aluminum b. Calcium
c. Nitrogen d. Phosphorus

161. Which one of the following is not the means of enforcing responsibility upon the cabinet?
a. Questioning Ministers b. Vote of censure
c. Call attention motion d. No confidence motion

162. Mixed economy means:

a. Co-existence of small and large b. Promoting both agriculture and
industries industries in the economy
c. Co-existence of public and private d. Co-existence of rich and poor
sectors

163. Googly is a ball in cricket bounded by

a. Fast bowler bowling outside off b. Leg spinner bowling with off spin
stump action
c. Fast bowler bowling outside leg d. None of these
stump
164. Department of Space is located at
a. Hyderabad b. Allahabad
c. Bengaluru d. Delhi

165. Who designed National Flag of India

a. Bankimchandra Chatterji b. Rajendra Prasad
c. Pingali Venkayya d. None of these

166. The year 2016 has been declared by the UN as the

a. International year of youth b. International year of pulses
c. International year of Bio diversity d. International year of soil

167. During 2015, India ranks out of 188 countries with a Human Index Value
a. 133 b. 130
c. 136 d. 140

168. Using which powers vested into it under article 142 of the constitution, Supreme Court of
India has recently appointed the Lokayukta in which of the following state?
a. Uttar Pradesh b. Bihar
c. Delhi d. Gujarat

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 19 of 23

 169. During June 2015, India’s Mars Orbiter Mission ‘Mangalyaan’ had a communication
break with the ISR Scientists for about a fortnight. Which of the following statements
with regard to that is/are correct?
1. The communication break occurred due to the positioning of Earth, the Sun & Mars
aligning themselves in one line
2. The Sun disrupts the radio transmissions between the two planets during the
alignment
3. During this period the Mangalyaan could not take any decision as there was no
signal from ISRO
a. 1 and 3 b. 1 only
c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 2 only

170. Which of the following committees has been recently submitted its report on ‘Possible
Tax rates under GST’?
a. Y V Reddy Committee b. C Rangarajan Committee
c. A P Shah Committee d. Arvind Subramanian Committee

171. Who became the first male member to be appointed in National Commission for Women
(NCW)?
a. Sunil Kanoria b. Ashok Chawla
c. Pahlaj Nihalani d. Alok Rawat

172. Tulbul project is associated with the river:

a. Beas b. Ravi
c. Jhelum d. Sutlej

173. Which one of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental
Duties in the Constitution?
a. Barua Committee b. Ramaswamy Committee
c. Sikri Committee d. Swarn Singh Committee

174. Which sector got high rate of growth in its co-operative units?
a. Sugar b. Cotton Textile
c. Jute d. Cement

175. Mahatma Gandhi’s famous Dandi March took place in the year
a. 1940 b. 1935
c. 1925 d. 1930
176. The central path of an atom is called
a. Proton b. Nucleus
c. Neutron d. Electron
177. The number of languages recognized by Indian constitution
a. 15 b. 22
c. 30 d. 10

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 20 of 23

 178. According to IMF, the Indian economy is expected to grow at how many percentage in
2016-17 fiscal
a. 7.0% b. 6.5%
c. 8.0% d. 7.5%

179. Apurvi Chandela has qualified for Rio Olympic in which of the following sports?
a. Badminton b. Shooting
c. Boxing d. Weight Lifting

180. Who founded Aligarh Muslim University?

a. Mohammad Ali Jinnah b. Abdul Kalam
c. Syed Ahmed Khan d. Liaquat Ali Khan

181. Who is the general secretary of UN presently?

a. Barrack Obama b. Ban Ki-moon
c. B B Ghali d. Kofi Annan

182. The initiative Transformative Carbon Asset Facility (TCAF) was launched by which of
the following organizations?
a. Uniited Nations b. World Bank
c. UNFCC d. G20

183. Where did COP (UNFCC) summit 2015 took place?

a. New Delhi b. London
c. Paris d. Bejing

184. Which one of the following sets of states stands to benefit the most from the Konkan
Railway?
a. Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra, b. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Kerala Tamil Nadu, Kerala
c. Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, Tamil d. Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Tamil
Nadu Nadu

185. Which one of the following schedules in not directly related to the functioning of the
Indian Federal system?
a. First Schedule b. Second Schedule
c. Fourth Schedule d. Seventh Schedule

186. Which city is known as Electronic City:

a. Gurgaon b. Bengaluru
c. Jaipur d. Salem (Tamil Nadu)

187. Which of the following countries has recently launched Dark Matter Particle Explorer
(DAMPE) satellite to shed light on mysterious dark matter?
a. Japan b. China
c. USA d. India

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 21 of 23

 188. Temple of Bel , which for nearly 2,000 years has been the centre of religious life in
Palmyra, was recently destroyed by the ISIS. Palmyra is a city of which of the following
country?
a. Turkey b. Iraq
c. Syria d. Lebanon

189. What is the percentage of Swachh Bharat cess on services (as of 15 November 2015)?
a. 0.25% b. 0.50%
c. 0.75% d. 1.00%

190. Which of the following writs is issued by an appropriate judicial body in order to free a
person who has been illegally detained?
a. Quo Warranto b. Mandamus
c. Certiorari d. Habeas Corpus

191. CAPART is related with:

a. Assisting and evaluating rural b. Computer hardware
welfare programmes
c. Consultant service of export d. Controlling pollution in big
promotion industries

192. A rainy day as defined by the Indian Meteorological Department is a day when the
rainfall at a point received is:
a. 0.5 mm to 1.00 mm in 24 hours b. 1.1 mm to 1.50 mm in 24 hours
c. 1.60 mm to 2.00 mm in 24 hours d. Above 2.50mm in 24 hours

193. Satyajit Ray : Film, Picasso : ?

a. Painting b. Drama
c. Poetry d. Literature

194. Who is the current Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh?

a. Nabam Tuki b. Dorjee Khandu
c. Gegong Apong d. Pema Khandu

195. Which of the following state in India has the largest area under forest?
a. Himachal Pradesh b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Assam d. Kerala

196. Which one of the following Indian state is the largest producer of natural rubber?
a. Tamil Nadu b. Assam
c. Kerala d. Karnataka

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 22 of 23

 197. In the early atmosphere of earth, before the origin of life, which one of the following was
not present?
a. Ammonia b. Free hydrogen
c. Free oxygen d. Methane

198. In India which form of coal is mainly used in thermal power plants?
a. Anthracite b. Lignite
c. Bituminous d. Peat

199. Which one of the following is not an African country?

a. Cameroon b. Gabon
c. Yemen d. Mauritania

200. Which of the following determines that the Indian constitution is federal?
a. Written and rigid constitution b. Distribution of powers between
the centre and states
c. An independent judiciary d. Vesting of residuary powers with
the centre

Question Booklet - Agronomy Page 23 of 23

 QUESTION BOOKLET

Subject: BIOCHEMISTRY
Booklet No.
Post Applied for: ASSISTANT SPECIALIST
Name of the Candidate: …………………………...

Date of Examination: 0 7 2 0 1 6

Signature of the Invigilator

Roll Number:

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
1. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet
before filling the Answer sheet
2. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for the test.
3. Write your name (in Capital letters), roll number, date and booklet number on the question
booklet and Answer sheet and sign at the appropriate place.
4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions for 200
marks (@ 1 mark per question) and the total time allotted is 2 hours. The correct answer will be
given one mark and for every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
5. Each objective question is followed by four options. Your task is to choose the correct answer
and write your answer on the answer sheet provided. DO NOT write your answer on the
Question Booklet.
6. Write your option/answer for each question legibly in the box provided next to the question in
the answer sheet. Writing the multiple answers within the same box or overwriting or corrections
made if any, will be treated as wrong answer.
7. Do not make any stray marks anywhere on the answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the answer
sheet. Rough work SHOULD NOT be done on the answer sheet.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones,
scanning devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in
possession of such unauthorized material, including copying or impersonation or adopting unfair
means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action.
9. After completing the examination, the candidate should write the total number of questions
answered and affix the signature in the space provided on the answer sheet. Then, hand over the
admit card, question booklet and the original copy of Answer sheet to the invigilator. The carbon
copy of the answer sheet may be obtained after due verification/signature by the Invigilator.
10. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination hall. If any
candidate is found carrying the booklet such candidates are liable to be disqualified.
11. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he/she has completed his/her paper. After
completion of the examination, all the candidates should remain seated until all booklets and
answer sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination
hall.
*****

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 1 of 22

 Directions for the questions 1 – 100 : Choose the right answer from the given options

1. Xanthophylls are ................ in colour?

a. Red b. Yellow
c. Purple d. White

2. Urease is related to?

a. Cu2+ b. Mn2+
c. Ni2+ d. Mg2+

3. The structural polysaccharide abundantly present in plant cell wall is:

a. Chitin b. Starch
c. Cellulose d. Inulin

4. An amino acid with imidazole “R” group is:

a. L-Arginine b. Tyrosine
c. L- L-Histidine d. L-Tryptophan

5. The protein component of holoenzyme is called as:

a. Coenzyme b. Apoenzyme
c. Proenzyme d. None of the above

6. Iodine number of an oil signifies:

a. Rancidity b. Carbon chain length
c. Degree of unsaturation d. None of these
7. The α-helix of proteins represents ------------ structure:
a. Primary b. Secondary
c. Tertiary d. Quaternary
8. The backbone structure of DNA is made up of:
a. Alternate sugar-phosphate b. Purine bases
c. Pyrimidine bases d. None of these
9. The RNA species which is also known as an acceptor RNA is:
a. m-RNA b. r-RNA
c. t-RNA d. hn-RNA
10. Coenzyme-A is derivative of the vitamin:
a. Niacin b. Pantothenic acid
c. Folic acid d. Ascorbic acid
11. The initiation codon in protein biosynthesis is:
a. UAG b. AGU
c. AUG d. GUA

12. In the cell, glycolytic pathway takes place in:

a. Mitochondria b. Nucleus
c. Cytosol d. Chloroplast

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 2 of 22

 13. Which of the following is a nucleoside
a. Adenine b. Adenosine
c. Adenosine-5'-monophosphate d. None of these

14. β-oxidation of fatty acid takes place in:

a. Mitochondria b. Nucleus
c. Cytosol d. Endoplasmic reticulum

15. Role of Lipoic acid in oxidized form in the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
reaction?
a. Oxidizes FADH2 b. Accepts a acetyl group from reduced
lipoic acid
c. Oxidizes the reduced form of d. Initial electron acceptor in oxidation
lipoic acid of pyruvate

16. α-keratin is
a. Fibrous protein rich in b. Transmembrane protein
Cysteine residues
c. A protein with a large d. A protein with large number of
proportions of β-sheets and intramolecular and intermolecular
almost devoid of α-helices covalent linkages

17. The amino acid that contains disulphide linkage is:

a. Methionine b. Cystine
c. Cysteine d. Homocysteine.

18. The shikimic acid pathway is common to bacteria, fungi and plants, but is not
found in..............................
a. Animals b. Viruses
c. Both a & b d. None of the above
19. Carotenoids are..................................
a. Monoterpene b. Diterpene
c. Tetraterpenes d. None of the above
20. Which among the following is determinant of human blood group?
a. Quinovose b. Kestose
c. Fucose d. Xylitol
21. The colour of the tomato fruit is due the presence of
a. Flavonols b. Anthocyanins
c. Carotenoids d. None of the above
22. Which enzyme is involved in gluconeogenesis?
a. Glucose-6-P-dehydrogenase b. Phosphoglucomutase
c. Glyceraldehyde kinase d. Glucose-6-phosphatase
23. According to .................................law, each layer of equal thickness absorbs an
equal fraction of the light that traverses it.
a. Beer’s law b. Lambert’s law
c. Stefan-Boltzmann law d. None of the above
Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 3 of 22

 24. Which of the following is a ω-3 fatty acid?
a. Alpha-linolenic acid b. Gamma-linolenic acid
c. Arachidonic acid d. Linoleic acid

25. The light emitting group in Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) is a derivative of
following three consecutive amino acids
a. Phenylalanine, tryptophan b. Serine, tyrosine and glycine
and tyrosine
c. Histidine, glutamic acid and d. Glycine, alanine and cysteine
phenylalanine
26. DNA with alternate purine and pyrimidines exists in which form?
a. A-form b. B-form
c. C-form d. Z-form
27. The most rapid method to resynthesise ATP during exercise is through:
a. Glycolysis b. Gluconeogenesis
c. Phosphocreatine breakdown d. Tricarboxylic acid cycle
28. How many enzymes are required in Calvin cycle?
a. 12 b. 13
c. 14 d. None of the above
29. First enzyme to be isolated in pure crystalline form is
a. Invertase b. Diastase
c. Zymase d. Urease

30. An excellent example of inducible enzyme in higher plant is

a. Nitrate reductase b. α-amylase
c. Both d. None of the above

31. The active site of enzymes is formed by some of its

a. Exposed sulphur bonds b. Carboxyl groups of amino acids
c. Amino groups of amino acid d. None of the above

32. The modern system of enzyme classification was introduced by International

Union of Biochemistry (IUB) in
a. 1961 b. 1962
c. 1963 d. None of the above

33. The unit of molar extinction coefficient is

a. [Link]-1 b. [Link]-1
c. [Link]-1 d. [Link]-1

34. Rubisco activase causes the activation of Rubisco by

a. Decarbamylation of an b. Facilitating the removal of 2-
active site lysine residue of carboxyarabinitol-1-phosphate
Rubisco (CA1P) from Rubisco
c. ADP-ribosylation of Rubisco d. Binding RuBP to the E-form of
Rubisco
Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 4 of 22

 35. Which one of the following is a fatty acid polyester?
a. Pectin b. Agar
c. Lignin d. Suberin

36. Which of the following proteins is absent in H1N1 virus?

a. Nucleocapsid protein b. Haemagglutinin
c. Neuraminidase d. Hexosaminidase

37. Glucose and Galactose are

a. Enantiomers b. Epimers
c. Exomers d. Anomers

38. Which of the following is not a dietary antioxidant?

a. Vitamin C b. Beta carotene
c. Vitamin K d. Lipoic acid

39. Plant cell walls contain

a. Proteoglycan b. Peptidoglycan
c. Pectin d. Glycosaminoglycan

40. Flip-flop movement is also known as

a. Lateral diffusion b. Transverse diffusion
c. Both d. None of the above

41. Which of the following lipid is commonly found in biological membranes?

a. Monoglycerides b. Diglycerides
c. Triglycerides d. None of the above

42. A universal hydrogen acceptor in electron transport system is

a. ATP b. UDP
c. FMN d. NAD

43. How many water molecules will be released to make a nucleotide from a
nucleoside?
a. One b. Two
c. Three d. None of the above

44. Most proteins bind SDS in the ratio of

a. 0.6g SDS/ g protein b. 4g SDS/ g protein
c. 2g SDS/ g protein d. 1.4g SDS/ g protein

45. A nucleoside consists of which of the following?

a. Phosphate and pentose sugar b. Pentose sugar and organic base
c. Phosphate and organic base d. Pentose, base and phosphate

46. Among the followings, which of the DNA polymerase is involved in DNA repair
only?
a. DNA polymerase I b. DNA polymerase II
c. DNA polymerase III d. None of the above

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 5 of 22

 47. One-gene-one enzyme hypothesis was proposed by
a. Lederberg b. Southern
c. Woodward d. Beadle and Tatum

48. t RNA is found in which of the following part of the cell?

a. ER b. Cytoplasm
c. Vacuole d. None of the above

49. Removal of unwanted base of hn-RNA is known as

a. Restricting b. Splicing
c. Both d. None of the above

50. Synthesis of new complementary polynucleotide chain over the old polynucleotide
chain of mother DNA is known as
a. Replication b. Translation
c. Transcription d. None of the above

51. Long-lived mRNA is found in which of the following?

a. Roots b. Seeds
c. Leaves d. None of the above

52. Photosynthesis and respiration both requires

a. Cytochromes b. Chlorophyll
c. Sunlight d. Carbohydrates

53. An optically inactive amino acid is

a. Valine b. Glycine
c. Proline d. Alanine

54. Chemical commonly used for somatic hybridization is

a. EtBr b. CTAB
c. PEG d. SDS

55. What enzyme do cows have that allows digestion of cellulose?

a. Alpha amylase b. Beta amylase
c. Beta lactase d. Beta hydroxyl beta methylglutaryl
coenzyme A reductase

56. Sulphur containing amino acids which constitute proteins are

a. Cysteine and methionine b. Methionine and histidine
c. Cysteine and serine d. None of the above

57. Sodium hydroxide present in it’s 100 ml of 1 N solution is

a. 2 g b. 40 g
c. 4 g d. 20 g

58. Which of the following is the example of disaccharides?

a. Sucrose b. Maltose
c. Lactose d. All of the above
Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 6 of 22

 59. Amalgam is a mixture of
a. Any non-metal and chlorine b. Any metal and mercury
c. Any metal and fluorine d. Any non-metal and lead

60. Name the organic compound which undergoes simultaneous oxidative

decarboxylation during Krebs cycle
a. α-ketoglutarate b. Succinate
c. Malate d. None of the above

61. Ubiquitin is a protein required for?

a. Protein synthesis b. Protein degradation
c. Amino acid degradation d. Glycoprotein degratation

62. Chromatography was first developed by

a. Tswett b. Kendrew
c. Cech d. Perutz

63. Phenylalanine is the precursor of

a. Throxine b. Histamine
c. L-DOPA d. Tyrosine

64. Galactose is a main constituent of

a. Milk sugar b. Cane sugar
c. Honey d. Chitin

65. Pasteur effect is

a. Inhibition of glycolysis b. Oxygen is involved
c. Inhibition of enzyme d. All of these
phosphofructokinase

66. Iodine test is positive for starch, dextrin and

a. Mucoproteins b. Agar
c. Glycogen d. Cellulose

67. A cup of strong coffee would be expected to

a. Interfere with the synthesis b. Decrease the effect of glucagon
of prostaglandins
c. Enhance the effect of d. Provide the vitamin nicotinic acid
epinephrine

68. Body water is regulated by the hormone:

a. Oxytocin b. ACTH
c. FSH d. Epinephrine

69. The phospholipids present in cytoplasmic membrane of eubacteria are mainly:

a. Phosphoglycerides b. Polyisoprenoid
c. Phospholipoprotein d. None of these

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 7 of 22

 70. Yeast play an important role in the alcohol industry, converting pyruvic acid into
carbon dioxide and ethyl alcohol by the process of
a. Glycolysis b. Respiration
c. Fermentation d. Krebs cycle

71. ANOVA was defined by

a. Pearson b. Howzard
c. Ebberhart d. Fisher

72. The Central Agricultural University is located at

a. Manipur b. Hyderabad
c. Bangalore d. Chennai

73. Profit maximization is the objective of which farming system?

a. Peasant farming b. State farming
c. Capitalistic Co-operative d. Co-operative farming
farming

74. Which of the following fertilizers are not produced in India

a. Nitrogen b. Potassium
c. Phosphorous d. Gypsum

75. The enzyme responsible for the fixation of CO2 in mesophyll cells of C4 plant is
a. Malic enzyme b. PEP carboxylase
c. PEP carboxykinase d. RuBisCO

76. Botanically pineapple fruit is

a. Sorosis b. Balusta
c. Berry d. Poem

77. ‘Roughing’ is performed to

a. Control of disease in plants b. Control of weeds from crops
c. Removal of plants other than d. None of the above
the desired ones

78. CIMMYT is working mainly for

a. Wheat b. Maize and wheat
c. Rice d. Cotton

79. Haploids are having

a. Somatic chromosome number b. Small chromosome
c. Very long chromosome d. Gametic chromosome number

80. In order to supply 40:30:40 kg Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P2O5) & Potash (K2O)
respectively, how many kg of Urea, DAP & Potash are required.
a. 61, 66, 67 b. 87, 63, 67
c. 71, 68 , 67 d. 62, 70, 67

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 8 of 22

 81. Which one can be called as Dry land farming?
a. When rainfall received is less b. When rainfall received is less then
then 1000 mm 500 mm
c. When rainfall received is less d. When rainfall received is less then
then 750 mm 1500 mm

82. Most commonly followed method of planting of black gram in India is

a. Direct seeding in rows b. Transplanting on raised seed beds
c. Direct seeding in puddle beds d. Transplanting in standing water in
puddle fields

83. The edible part in cauliflower is called as?

a. Panicle b. Bolt
c. Curd d. Caryopsis

84. In India, the most common method of irrigating crops is?

a. Drip b. Sprinkler
c. Check Basin d. Border strip

85. Which of the following is the biennial vegetable?

a. Cucumber b. Tomato
c. Carrot d. Chilli

86. The father of modern biology is?

a. Aristotle b. Lamarck
c. Mendel d. Darwin
87. A soil may be called as alkaline when the pH of the soil is more than
a. 6.5 b. 7.0
c. 5.5 d. 5.0

88. Which insect of mango has quarantine importance?

a. Hoppers b. Mealy bugs
c. Fruit fly d. None of these

89. Which of these is a cultural method for controlling insects?

a. Crop rotation b. Quarantine
c. Window screens d. Sex pheromone traps

90. In which insect, ovipositor is modified into spine?

a. Hoppers b. Thrips
c. Wasp d. Termites

91. Which is not a measure of dispersion?

a. Mode b. Range
c. Mean deviation d. Standard deviation

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 9 of 22

 92. In null hypothesis, the chi – square is
a. 1 b. 0
c. 2 d. 3

93. The coefficient of variation (C.V) is calculated by the formula

a. (Mean / S.D.) x 100 b. S.D. / Mean
c. (S.D./ Mean) x 100 d. Mean / S.D.

94. Correlation coefficient ‘ r ’ lies between

a. 0 and 1 b. -1 and 1
c. -1 and 0 d. 0 and 2

95. The relationship between Arithmetic mean (A), Harmonic mean (H) and geometric
mean (G) is
a. G2 = AH b. G = A + H
c. H2 = GA d. A2 = GH

96. X2 test is applied to

a. Quantative observations b. Qualitative observations
c. In both the cases d. None of the above

97. As a general rule, the number of classes in the frequency distribution should be
about
a. 30 b. 15
c. 18 d. 06

98. The best measure of Dispersion / Spread is

a. Coefficientofvariation b. Standard Deviation
c. Both a and b d. None of the above

99. Which is used to measure the average relationship between two or more variables?
a. Regression b. Correlation
c. Both a and b d. None of the above

100. Repeated application of treatments

a. Randomization b. Local control
c. Replication d. All of the above

Directions for question 101 - 104: Read each sentence to find out whether there is
any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of
that part is the answer.
101 (a) The ministry of Labour conducts its basic survey (b) on trade unions each year
(c) gathering information with all (d) labour unions as of June 30.
102 (a) He telephoned from a public call – box (b) so that the call (c) would not be
traced (d) to his own address

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 10 of 22

 103 (a) We were happy that (b) the audience responded well (c) and gave all the
speakers (d) a patiently listening
104 (a) The limitations and constrains with which (b) we have been managing our
work (c) have been duly realized (d) by our superiors

Directions for question 105 to 107: In each sentence below four words that the
printed in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly
spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is
wrongly spelt or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer.
105 In our opinion these (a) norms are not (b) applicant in this (c) kind (d) of
situation.
106 As per your (a) request this is a (b) detail list of our (c) basic (d) requirements.
107 Though the government (a) initiated a large (b) sum of money in the (c) scheme,
it was a (d) failure.
Directions for questions 108 to 111: In each of the following sentences there are two
blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by
numbers (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the
blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully
complete.
108. A company can __________ the potential of its employees _______ various training
programmes.
a. emphasise, for b. exploit, from
c. enhance, through d. appraise, by

109. A good management will decide not only the __________ for equipment but also its
______ for deciding priorities.
a. need, urgency b. usefulness, utility
c. cost, value d. requirement, necessities

110. If the system _________ to yield the desired result, try to ______ the whole
procedure in the given sequence.
a. entitles, dump b. ignores, reproduce
c. fails, reoperate d. imitates, generate

111. We must _____ according to the situation as we wear _____ clothes during winter.
a. observe, pretty b. plan, plain
c. change, warm d. appear, attractive

Directions for questions 112-116: In each of the following questions, out of the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
112. FEIGN
a. elaborate b. pretend
c. drag d. condone

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 11 of 22

 113. AMBITION
a. expectation b. desire
c. aspiration d. goal
114. BROWSE
a. strike b. examine
c. deceive d. heal

115. AUDACIOUS
a. obvious b. daring
c. manifest d. venture

116. COY
a. beautiful b. sweet
c. talented d. shy
Directions for questions 117-121: In each of the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word.

117. BRIDGE
a. divide b. bind
c. release d. open

118. NADIR
a. progress b. liberty
c. zenith d. modernity

119. CONCEAL
a. unfold b. reveal
c. open d. discover

120. UNREALISTIC
a. natural b. visionary
c. reasonable d. actual

121. ELUDE
a. pursue b. to escape
c. quicken d. mock

Directions for questions122 to 125: In each of the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

122. Custom of having many wives

a. Monogamy b. Bigamy
c. Polygamy d. Matrimony

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 12 of 22

 123. To cause troops etc. to spread out in readiness for battle
a. Align b. Collocate
c. Deploy d. Disperse

124. The policy of extending a country’s empire and influence

a. Imperialism b. Capitalism
c. Internationalism d. Communism

125. The short remaining end of a cigarette

a. Stump b. Stub
c. Rag d. Scrap
Directions for questions 126 to 129: In each of the following questions, an idiomatic
expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one
which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.

[Link] the skin of one’s teeth

a. Hardly b. In time
c. Hurriedly d. Only just

127.A chip off the old block

a. A piece of wood b. An old friend
c. Characteristics of one’s d. A good bargain
ancestors

[Link] on
a. To comment b. To criticize
c. To keep on talking d. To keep on insulting

129. To hit below the belt

a. To work confidently b. To harm unfairly
c. To strike at the exact d. To hit the correct mark
position
Directions for the questions 130-133: In each of the following questions, a sentence
has been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested
select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice.

130. Someone gave her a bull dog

a. She was given a bull dog b. A bull dog was given to her
c. She has been given a bull dog d. She is being given a bull dog by
someone

131. A stone struck me on the head

a. I was struck by a stone on b. My head was struck by a stone
the head
c. I had been struck by a stone d. I was struck on the head by a stone
on the head
Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 13 of 22

 132. You must look into this matter
a. This matter has been looked b. This matter may be looked into by
into by you you
c. This matter should be looked d. This matter into looked by you
into by you

133. Darjeeling grows tea

a. Tea grows in Darjeeling b. Tea is grown in Darjeeling
c. Let the tea be grown in d. Tea is being grown in Darjeeling
Darjeeling
Directions for questions 134-137: In each of the following questions, a sentence has
been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select
the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech.

134. He said to her, “Are you coming to the party”?

a. He asked her whether she b. He told her if she was coming to
was coming to the party the party
c. He asked her if she was d. He asked her if she will be coming
coming to the party to the party
135. He said, “I clean my teeth twice a day.”
a. He said that he cleaned his b. He said that he cleans his teeth
teeth twice a day twice a day
c. He said that he used to clean d. He said that he is used to cleaning
his teeth twice a day his teeth twice a day

136. He said, “Where shall I be this time next year!”

a. He asked that where should b. He wondered where he should be
he be that time next year that time the next year
c. He contemplated where shall d. He wondered where he would be
he be that time the following that time the following year
year

137. He asked his teacher, “Need I read this chapter”?

a. He asked his teacher whether b. He asked his teacher whether he
there was a need to read that needed to read this chapter
chapter
c. He asked his teacher if it was d. He asked his teacher if he had to
necessary to read this read that chapter
chapter

Directions for questions 138 to 141: In each of the following questions, a word has
been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the
correctly spelt word

138. a. Exemple b. Exampel

c. Example d. Exampal

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 14 of 22

 139. a. Sedantry b. Sedentery
c. Sedentary d. Sedantary

140. a. Aproched b. Aproached

c. Appraoched d. Approached

141. a. Scriptur b. Skripture

c. Scripture d. Scripcher

Directions for questions 142-145:In this type of questions, you are provided with the
first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts
labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form
a complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination

142. (1) When I reached my office

(P) to get home early
(Q) I phoned my mother
(R) that I wouldn’t be able
(S) to tell her
(6) as I had promised
a. PQRS b. QSRP
c. QSPR d. RPSQ

143. (1) The department has initiated steps

(P) from the corporate sector
(Q) to evolve appropriate schemes
(R) and financial institutions for
(S) for mobilizing investment
(6) the development of wastelands.
a. PRSQ b. QPSR
c. QSPR d. RPSQ

144. (1) Paintings

(P) have been
(Q) which were submitted
(R) totally ruined by rain
(S) for the exhibition
(6) last night.
a. PQRS b. PRQS
c. QRPS d. QSPR

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 15 of 22

 145. (1) Though Indian sportsmen
(P) who accompanied them
(Q) the large number of
(R) did not set many records in Seoul Asiad
(S) officials and politicians
(6) did set a record of sorts.
a. PRQS b. QSRP
c. PRQS d. SPRQ

Directions to questions 146-150 : Comprehension: Read the following passage and

answer the questions

In modern times Abraham Lincoln stands as the model of a compassionate

statesman. He showed this quality not only in striving for the emancipation of the
American blacks but in the dignity with which he conducted the American Civil War.
Lincoln did not fancy himself as a liberator. He thought it would be better for all
if emancipation was a gradual process spread over many years. He proposed
compensation for slave-owners in US bonds and grants for the rehabilitation of blacks-
‘colonization’ as he called it. But fate was to deem otherwise. The haste with which the
south wanted to break away from the Union with the North, compelled him to move
faster than he expected. Perhaps more than most men of his time he had thought through
the issue of slavery. ‘We must free the slaves’, he said, ‘or be ourselves subdued’. Before
reading his first draft of the Proclamation of Emancipation, he told his colleagues, ‘In
giving freedom to the slaves, we assure freedom to the free’.
On September 22, 1862, Lincoln set his hand on the Proclamation of
Emancipation declaring that on the first day of January 1863, all persons held as slaves
within any state, ‘shall be then, and forever free’.
Lincoln’s revulsion for the slavery left him without any moral indignation or
passion against the slave-owners. The guilt of the slave-owners, he felt, should be shared
by the whole country, the North and the South, for it seemed to him that everyone in the
nation was an accomplice in perpetuating that system. To have whipped up any hatred
against slave-owners would, to him, have been an act of malice.
I shall do nothing in malice; he wrote, ‘what I deal’ with is too vast for malicious
dealing; As the Civil War was coming to a successful conclusion, a Northerner
demanded of Lincoln: ‘Mr President, how are you going to treat the southerners when the
war is over?’ Lincoln replied, ‘As of they never went to war’.
When the news came of the victory of the Northern against the confederate
forces, someone suggested that the head of the confederation Administration, Jefferson
Davies, really ought to be hanged. ‘Judge not, that ye be not judged’, Lincoln replied. As
to the demand for the prosecution of rebels, Lincoln replied. We must extinguish our
resentments if we expect harmony and union. This was his last recorded utterance.
Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 16 of 22

 146. What came in Lincoln’s way of carrying out emancipation as a gradual process?
a. His proposition to give grant for b. His own over-enthusiasm to complete
the rehabilitation of slaves. the process fast.
c. The inadequate compensation d. The haste of the south to break away
given to slave-owners. from the union with the North.
147. The sentence ‘In giving freedom ................ to the free’ means:
a. If we give freedom to the slaves, b. If we do not give freedom to the
they will serve us better. slaves, they will free themselves.
c. By freeing the slaves, we are d. By freeing the slaves, we are safe-
honouring the concept of guarding our own interests.
freedom.
148. The term ‘colonisation’ as used in the passage means:
a. Handling over slaves to the b. Efforts made by American blacks to
slave-owners. free themselves.
c. Making separate dwelling d. None of the above.
arrangements for slave-owners.

149. Which of the following make Abraham Lincoln a compassionate statesman?

a. His hesitation in striving for b. His efforts to force the American
emancipation of American blacks from slavery.
blacks.
c. His indifference in conducting d. None of the above.
the American Civil War.
150. The incidents in the passage prove that Lincoln was:
a. Not an administrator. b. Sympathetic and kind-hearted
statesman.
c. Afraid of the majority of slaves. d. Unduly concerned for the safety of
rebels.

Directions for questions 151 – 200: Choose the right answer from the given options

151. Indian luger Shiva Keshavan won a silver medal at the Asian Championship 2015.
The tournament was organized in which of the following countries?.
a. Chaina b. Japan
c. South Korea d. Thailand

152. Which of the following scheduled commercial bank has entered into an agreement
with railways to become the first ever Non-IRCTC platform to sell online railway
tickets?
a. SBI b. Axis bank
c. ICICI d. PNB

153. Jordan Spieth, who made headlines for his achievements in 2015, is a player of
which of the following sports?
a. Snooker b. Golf
c. Basketball d. Pro-Boxing
Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 17 of 22

 154. On which of the following days, National Good Governance day is observed in
India?
a. 15th March b. 25th December
rd
c. 23 January d. 1st July

155. Who among the following has been chosen for the prestigious CK Nayudu lifetime
achievement award for 2015?
a. Kapil Dev b. Dilip Vengsarkar
c. Salim Durani d. Syed Kirmani

156. Which of the following shipyards has become India’s first licensed shipyard to
make LNG ships?
a. Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) b. Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL)
c. Garden Reach Shipbuilders and d. Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL)
Engineers Limited (GRSE)

[Link] one of the following multi-sectoral development programmes for minorities

for upgrading skills and training in preservation of traditional ancestral arts / crafts
was launched recently?
a. Hamari Dharohar b. Nai Manzil
c. USTAAD d. Nai Umeed

158. The Constitution of India (100th Amendment) Act, 2015 deals with:
a. Right to Fair Compensation and b. Motor Vehicles
Transparency in land
Acquisition, Rehabilitation and
Resettlement
c. Land Boundary Agreement d. Mines and Minerals
between India and Bangladesh

159. Kambala and Jallikattu, the two traditional and cultural practices belong to which of
the following set of states?
a. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh b. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
c. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu d. Kerala and Tamil Nadu

160. A Judicial Committee to look into the implementation of One Rank One Pension
(OROP) scheme for the ex-Servicemen has been appointed by the government. The
committee will be headed by
a. A. P. Shah b. Vijay L. Kelkar
c. L. Narasimha Reddy d. B. N. Srikrishna

161. Which of the following country was recently affected by the tropical cyclone
“Melor”?
a. Philippines b. South Korea
c. Mexico d. Oman

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 18 of 22

 162. Who among the following has written the book titled –‘Flood of Fire’?
a. Salman Rushdie b. Amitav Ghosh
c. Arundhati Roy d. Jhumpa Lahiri

163. For what purpose, Operation Smile – II will be launched across India?
a. To aware people about b. To eliminate poverty
sanitation
c. To track missing children d. To provide free education to SC/ST
students
164. The next Commonwealth summit CHOGM 2018 will be held in which of the
following countries?
a. United Kingdom b. India
c. Australia d. Malta

165. Name the vaccine which is being used in injectable inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)
programme in India?
a. Swasth IPV vaccine b. Bharat IPV vaccine
c. Desh IPV vaccine d. Shan IPV vaccine

166. The first metal tool was discovered by man was used for?
a. Pot-making b. Clearing jungles
c. House-building d. Making wheels

167. The Indus Valley Civilization was not spread over:

a. Egypt b. Greece
c. Ceylon d. Mesopotamia

168. Relics of Buddha are preserved in a

a. Vihara b. Stupa
c. Chaitya d. Monastery

169. The Monolithic image of Jain Saint ‘Gomatiswara’ is at

a. Sravanabelgola b. Mount Abu
c. Kusinagara d. Kalinga

170. Kancheepuram is in which of the following state?

a. Tamil Nadu b. Karnataka
c. Kerala d. Andhra Pradesh

171. Who built Char Minar?

a. Quli Qutb Shah b. Ibrahim Qutb Shah
c. Ali Adil Shah d. Ibrahim Adil Shah

172. Who was the first Indian to become the member of British Parliament?
a. Badruddin tyyabji b. Dadabhai Naoroji
c. W. C. Banerjee d. Pandit Motilal Nehru

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 19 of 22

 173. Who among the following was selected as the President of All-India Khilafat
Conference when it met in Delhi in 1919?
a. Motilal Nehru b. Mahatama Gandhi
c. M. A. Jinnah d. ShaukatAli

174. Which is considered as the oldest civilization of the world?

a. Egyptian Civilization b. Harappan Civilization
c. Greek Civilization d. Mesopotamia Civilization

175. When was the NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) formed for defence
against Soviet Union?
a. 1939 b. 1942
c. 1949 d. 1950

176. The oldest mountain in India are:

a. Nilgiri hills b. Aravalis
c. Vindhyas d. Satpuras

177. The length of India’s coastline is about:

a. 5500 km b. 6000 km
c. 7000 km d. 7500 km

178. Which state has largest coastline in India?

a. Gujarat b. Tamil Nadu
c. Karnataka d. Andhra Pradesh

179. The Karakoram Highway connects which of the following pairs of countries?
a. India – Nepal b. India – China
c. India – Pakistan d. China – Pakistan

180. Which one of the following countries has the longest international boundary with
India?
a. Bangladesh b. Bhutan
c. China d. Pakistan

181. An Election Commission in India is creation of the:

a. Constitution b. Executive order
c. Statutes d. Extra-constitutional

182. The first general election in India was held in:

a. 1949 b. 1950
c. 1951 d. 1953

183. The power of the Election Commission are given in which of the following Articles
of Constitution?
a. 286 b. 356
c. 324 d. 382

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 20 of 22

 184. The Panchayati Raj System was adopted to:
a. Make people aware of politics b. Decentralize the power of Democracy
c. Educate the peasants d. None of the above

185. Which of the following is incorrect in respect to Local Government in India?

a. According to the Indian b. 30% seats in local bodies are reserved
Constitution local government is for women
not an independent tier in the
federal system
c. Local government finances are d. Elections to local bodies are to be
to be provided by a commission determined by a Commission

186. Which was the capital of Andhra state when it was made a separate state in 1953?
a. Guntur b. Kurnool
c. Nellore d. Warangal

187. The concept of Five Years Plan in India was introduced by?
a. Lord Mountbatten b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Indira Gandhi d. Lal Bahadur Shastri

188. Unemployment which occurs when workers move from one job to another job is
called:
a. Seasonal unemployment b. Frictional unemployment
c. Cyclic unemployment d. Technological unemployment

189. Which of the following groups suffer the most from inflation?
a. Debtors b. Creditors
c. Budiness class d. Holders of Real Estates

190. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy
needs is
a. Solar energy b. Nuclear energy
c. Hydropower d. Wind energy

191. Which of the following is a source of methane?

a. Wetlands b. Foam Industry
c. Thermal Power Plants d. Cement Industry

192. Photo bleeding means

a. Photo cropping b. Photo placement
c. Photo cutting d. Photo colour adjustment

193. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2?
a. 100 b. 110
c. 120 d. 180

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 21 of 22

 194. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on
a. Primary data only b. Secondary data only
c. Both a and b d. None of the above

195. RAM stands for

a. Really Accessable Memory b. Real Access Memory
c. Random Available Mode d. Random Access Memory
196. Where was the first computer installed in India
a. Indian Statistical Institute b. Indian Institute of Management
c. Indian Institute of Science d. Indian Institute of Statistics
197. Which Indian State is the largest producer of Soyabeans?
a. Rajasthan b. Gujarat
c. Uttar Pradesh d. Madhya Pradesh
198. Which State is known as India’s Spice Garden..?
a. Kerala b. Karnataka
c. Bihar d. Uttaranchal

199. Which bird lays the world’s smallest egg?

a. Hornbill b. Bee Humming bird
c. Gulls d. Woodpecker

200. Which of the following types of light are majorly absorbed by plants
a. Violet and orange b. Indigo and yellow
c. Yellow and violet d. Blue and red

Question Booklet – Biochemistry Page 22 of 22

 QUESTION BOOKLET

Subject: COFFEE QUALITY

Booklet No.

Post Applied for: ASSISTANT SPECIALIST

Name of the Candidate: ………………………………….

Date of Examination: 0 7 2 0 1 6

Signature of the Invigilator

Roll Number:

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet
before filling the Answer sheet
2. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for the test.
3. Write your name (in Capital letters), roll number, date and booklet number on the question
booklet and Answer sheet and sign at the appropriate place.
4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions for 200
marks (@ 1 mark per question) and the total time allotted is 2 hours. The correct answer will be
given one mark and for every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
5. Each objective question is followed by four options. Your task is to choose the correct answer
and write your answer on the answer sheet provided. DO NOT write your answer on the Question
Booklet.
6. Write your option/answer for each question legibly in the box provided next to the question in the
answer sheet. Writing the multiple answers within the same box or overwriting or corrections
made if any, will be treated as wrong answer.
7. Do not make any stray marks anywhere on the answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the answer
sheet. Rough work SHOULD NOT be done on the answer sheet.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones,
scanning devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in
possession of such unauthorized material, including copying or impersonation or adopting unfair
means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action.
9. After completing the examination, the candidate should write the total number of questions
answered and affix the signature in the space provided on the answer sheet. Then, hand over the
admit card, question booklet and the original copy of Answer sheet to the invigilator. The carbon
copy of the answer sheet may be obtained after due verification/signature by the Invigilator.
10. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination hall. If any
candidate is found carrying the booklet such candidates are liable to be disqualified.
11. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he/she has completed his/her paper. After
completion of the examination, all the candidates should remain seated until all booklets and
answer sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination
hall.
*****

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 1 of 21

1. The most important mycotoxin with respect to cereals is
a. Aspergillus flavus b. Aspergillus niger
c. Aspergillus oryze d. All of the above

2. Ragi is a rich source of

a. Iron b. Calcium
c. Both a & b d. Magnesium

3. ................... is a hydrothermal treatment followed by drying before milling

a. Steaming b. Instantization
c. Paraboiling d. Wet cooking

4. Whisky is made by fermentation and distillation of fermented

a. Grapes b. Potato
c. Cereal d. Molasses

5. Durum wheat is suitable for the production of

a. Pasta b. Biscuits and cakes
c. Cakes d. Bread

6. Active dried yeast contain approximately.................percent solids and....................percent

moisture
a. 30 & 70 b. 92 & 8
c. 70 & 30 d. 60 & 20

7. Baking Soda is chemically known as

a. NaHCO3 b. Na2CO3
c. Na2NH4CO3 d. NH4CO3

8. Rolling is done in the processing of

a. Tea b. Coffee
c. Cashew nut d. Cocoa

9. Dough development is measurement by

a. Brabender farinograph b. Extensiograph
c. Amylograph d. Mixograph

10. The colour of virgin olive oil is mainly due to the presence of
a. Chlorophyll b. Pheophytin
c. Xanthophyll d. Both a & b

11. pH of fresh water of lakes and streams is controlled by which one of the following
physical factors
a. Microbial activity b. Rate of CO2 removed by
photosynthesis
c. Terrestrial input d. All the above

12. .................... is the enzyme that finally turns the trick in dough fermentation of sugars
a. Invertase b. Maltase
c. Zymase d. All of the above

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 2 of 21

13. Optimum storage moisture for wheat is less than …………. %
a. 13.5 b. 12.5
c. 14.5 d. 15.5

14. ................. is a sprouting inhibitor in onion bulbs

a. Maleic hydrazide b. Cytokinin
c. Alar (B9) d. Gibberelic acid

15. .................. is an antibiotic commonly found in milk, curd, cheese & other fermented milk
products
a. Pimaracin b. Nisin
c. Subtilin d. All of the above

16. Which is the inhibitory concentration of CO2 in beverages

a. 14.6 g CO2/l b. 24.6 g CO2/l
c. 10.6 g CO2/l d. 6 g CO2/l

17. From the packaging point of view which of the following is important for coffee
a. Particle size b. Moisture
c. Bulk density d. Density

18. In canning, all fruits can be processed satisfactorily at.............. temperature

a. 100οC b. 115οC
ο
c. 121 C d. 105οC

19. Vinegar made from apple juice is known as

a. Potato Vinegar b. Spirit Vinegar
c. Cider Vinegar d. None of the above

20. Fish proteins are slightly low in

a. Methionine b. Cystine
c. Both a & b d. None of the above

21. Fat content in human milk is

a. 3.6 b. 4.6
c. 5.6 d. 3.0

22. Milk proteins are

a. Casein b. ß-lactoglobulin
c. α-lactalbumin d. All of the above

23. Specific sweets of pindi khoa are

a. Burfi b. Peda
c. Pantooa d. both a & b

24. ------------------ is the only cereal grain other than wheat capable of forming gluten
a. Rye b. Oats
c. Millets d. Barley

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 3 of 21

25. What is the protein, which inhibits trypsin in egg
a. Ovalbumin b. Flavoprotein
c. Conalbumin d. Ovomucoid

26. Natural inhibitory compounds in allspice (pimento), cloves, cinnamon are

a. Lactenin b. Benzoic acid
c. Eugenol d. All of the above

27. Temperature for Ultra pasteurization is ----------------

a. 71.7οC/15 sec b. 62.8οC/15 sec
c. 137.8οC/15 sec d. None of the above

28. Which species of bacteria is used as test organism for Steam sterilization
a. B. subtilis (ATCC 6653) b. B. stearothermophillus (ATCC 7953)
c. Both a & b d. None of the above

29. Factors used for food preservation are called as

a. Preservatives b. Antioxidants
c. Hurdles d. None of the above

30. Disinfection of water during water purification is usually done with application of which
of the following chemical?
a. Chlorine b. Ozone
c. Both a & b d. None of the above

31. In general fungi derive nutrients through

a. Digesting organic substances b. Photosynthesis
c. Parasitism d. None of the above

32. The traditional whipping agent used in nougat preparation is

a. Egg albumin b. Milk
c. Air d. None of the above

33. A flavour produced by the use of butter & brown sugar

a. Butter Scotch b. Caramel
c. Tutifruity d. Chocolate

34. The time during which dough rises between molding & baking is termed as
a. Proofing b. Standing
c. Staling d. None of the above

35. To have higher moisture content and soften bread the following ingredients is used
a. Lactose b. Casein
c. Milk d. Water

36. Maize is deficient in

a. Niacin b. Vitamin B1
c. Vitamin B2 d. All of the above

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 4 of 21

37. The organism involved in production of Dosa or Idly
a. Saccharomyces sake b. Leuconostoc mesenteroides
c. Pediococcus spp d. None of the above

38. Meat Food Products Order is regulated by

a. Directorate of Marketing and b. Ministry of Health
Inspection
c. Ministry of commerce d. None of the above

39. Food manufacturers use hydrogenated vegetable oils to control................in foods

a. Deodorization b. Rancidity
c. Bleaching d. None of the above

40. It is also known as fruit sugar as it is found in fruits and honey

a. Fructose b. Sucrose
c. Maltose d. Lactose

41. The mechanism by which one or more products are released from the enzymes before all
the substrate are added are known as
a. Sequential reaction b. Ping pong reaction
c. Random order reaction d. Compulsory order reaction

42. Streptokinase is produced by which one of the following microbe?

a. Bacillus b. Streptococcus
c. Salmonella d. Staphylococcus

43. Chicory is obtained from

a. Leaf b. Stem
c. Flower d. Root

44. Fat percent in butter

a. 90 b. 80
c. 89 d. 95

45. Pink spots on egg caused by

a. Sporotrichum b. Cladosporium
c. Pseudomonas d. All of the above

46. Most resistant organism for irradiation

a. Virus b. Bacteria
c. Yeast d. Mould

47. Cells in the sense organs that receive sensory information are called as
a. Stimulus b. Acceptor cells
c. Receptor cells d. Lachrymal cells

48. The physical factor deteriorating the food grains during storage are
a. Temperature b. Humidity
c. Both a & b d. None of the above

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 5 of 21

49. How many kinds of taste receptors are present on the tongue?
a. 4 b. 5
c. 6 d. 7

50. Many coenzymes are

a. Vitamins b. Proteins
c. Metals d. Substrates

51. The smell of chemicals dissolved in mucus is detected by

a. Tactile receptors b. Cutaneous receptors
c. Olfactory receptors d. Photoreceptors

52. Discrimination of odd sample among three unknown is known as

a. Triangle Test b. Duo Trio Test
c. Paired Comparison Test d. None of the above

53. For strain improvement, which one of the following fungi was first reported to be used
a. Pencillium b. Aspergillus
c. Rhizoctonia d. Yeast

54. Flavour is the output of

a. Taste & aroma b. Aroma only
c. Mouthfeel & aftertaste d. Taste only

55. Food Safety and Standards Act 2006 enacted in the year
a. 2009 b. 2010
c. 2011 d. 2006

56. ELISA test is

a. Enzyme Linked Immune b. Enzyme Linked Immune assay
syndrome assay
c. Enzyme Linked Inhibition assay d. Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent
assay

57. ISO 22000

a. Food Safety Management b. Food Standards Management
System System
c. Laboratory Management d. None of the above
System

58. NABL stands for

a. National Accreditation Board b. National Assessment Board for
for Laboratories Laboratories
c. National Accreditation Board d. None of the above
for Testing and Calibration
Laboratories

59. Which system follows the principles of HACCP?

a. ISO 14000 b. ISO 22000
c. ISO 9001 d. ISO 17025

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 6 of 21

60. Modified atmospheric packaging utilizes
a. O2 & CO2 b. O2 & N2
c. N2 & CO2 d. O2, N2 & CO2

61. Which species of coffee contains highest caffeine content?

a. Arabica b. Robusta
c. Liberica d. None of the above

62. The volatile coffee essence developed in the bean during roasting is
a. Coffee oil b. Decoction
c. Coffee fluid d. Coffee juice

63. Arabica plantation is derived from which method?

a. Wet processing b. Dry processing
c. Pulped Natural process d. Monsooning.

64. The chemical name of the Caffeine is

a. Trimethyl xanthine b. Trimethyl benzene
c. Trimethyl amine d. Trimethyl phosphine

65. Sharp smell of onion is due to

a. Ammonia b. Chlorine
c. Sulphur d. Combined effect of the above

66. Expand HACCP

a. Hazard Analysis and Critical b. Hazard Analysis and Critical
Control Point Control Power
c. Harmful Analysis and Critical d. Harmful Assessment and Critical
Control Point Control Point

67. Decaffeinated coffees are harmful to health

a. True b. False
c. Partially true d. None of the above

68. Flavour is sensed through

a. Nose b. Ears
c. Tongue d. Nostrils
69. “Kapi Luwak” coffee is connected with
a. Elephant b. Birds
c. Monkeys d. Civet

70. Expand ICO

a. Indian Coffee Organization b. International Coffee Organization
c. Indian Coffee Office d. Internal Coffee Organization

71. Dangerous gas for depletion of ozone layer is

a. Methane b. Ethane
c. CFC d. Carbon-dioxide

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 7 of 21

72. The edible part of jack fruit is
a. Hilum b. Peduncle
c. Perianth d. Endosperm

73. Nutrient Magnesium (Mg) is found in

a. Gypsum b. Dolomite
c. Rock phosphate d. None of these

74. Coffee leaf rust is caused by

a. Hemileia vastatrix b. Cronartium ribicola
c. Colletotrichum spp d. Fusarium spp

75. Green revolution has mainly been successful in

a. Maize b. Tur
c. Wheat d. Gram

76. The cost of production of a crop can be minimized by using economic principle
a. Law of diminishing return b. Law of opportunity cost
c. Cost principle d. Principle of least cost combination

77. The concept of agro climatic zoning was developed by:

a. World Bank b. U.S.A
c. F.A.O d. IARI

78. Which of the following is the pest of apple?

a. Sylepta lunalis b. Nodostoma subcostalum
c. Cydia hemidoxa d. Eriosoma lanigerum

79. The primary objective of greenhouse cultivation of vegetables is:

a. To get crop throughout the year b. To get off-season crops
c. To protect crop from Pest & d. All of the above
diseases

80. Which of the following is not a cross pollinated crop?

a. Carrot b. Groundnut
c. Muskmelon d. Lettuce

81. The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is located at:

a. Washington b. Moscow
c. Geneva d. London

82. Sorghum is considered as camel crop because of:

a. Less water potential b. Resistance to drought
c. Shallow root system d. Nutrient exhaustiveness

83. Rice grain is deficient in?

a. Glycine b. Lysine
c. Alanine d. Isoleucine

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 8 of 21

84. Which of the following requires Silicon (Si) for its growth?
a. Maize b. Groundnut
c. Rice d. Green gram

85. Lichen is an association of?

a. Algae & Fungus b. Fungus & Virus
c. Bacteria & Fungus d. Algae & Virus

86. SRI technique of paddy has been evolved at?

a. Japan b. China
c. Madagascar d. Korea

87. What is upper limit of available water in soil

a. Permanent wilting point b. Hygroscopic point
c. Field capacity d. All

88. Honeydew is an important variety of

a. Water melon b. Papaya
c. Musk melon d. Guava

89. Which of the following are useful insects?

a. Leaf miner b. Predators
c. Vectors d. Borers

90. The mango stem borer belongs to the family

a. Scolytidae b. Tenebrionidae
c. Scarabaeridae d. Cerambycidae

91. Indian Agricultural Statistics Institute is located at

a. Bhopal, M.P b. Kanpur, U.P
c. Kolkata, W.B. d. New Delhi

92. One ha. is equivalent to

a. 2.271acre b. 2.471acre
c. 2.371acre d. 2.671acre

93. The simple measure of variability in a data set is

a. Mean b. Median
c. Mode d. Range

94. Most suitable design for experiment involving varying number of tillage and nitrogen level
is
a. RBD b. Split plot
c. Strip plot d. Lattice design

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 9 of 21

95. In a RBD experiment having 9 treatments and 4 replications, the error degree of freedom
will be
a. 36 b. 18
c. 24 d. 21

96. The ‘ t test’ is applicable when the number of treatments are

a. 4 b. 10
c. 2 d. 8

97. Experimental design suitable for field having one directional fertility gradient is
a. LSD b. CRD
c. RBD d. SPD

98. The statistical test used to determine the goodness of fit is

a. Z – test b. t – test
c. F – test d. Chi – square test

99. Which is not a measure of central tendency?

a. Mean b. Mode
c. Median d. Range

100. The population variance can be calculated by

a. t – test b. F- test
c. Z – test d. None of these

Directions for the questions 101-105: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is
the answer.
101. This laboratory of physics is (a) not only equipped with (b) all state-of-the-art-instruments
(c) but also with outstanding physicists (d)

102. I was pretty sure that (a) he would support my views (b) for changing the age-old (c) and
static structure of our organisation (d)

103. No sooner did (a) we reach the station (b) than the train had (c) started moving out of the
station (d)

104. I am sure about it, (a) nobody has lived (b) in that house (c) for a hundred years (d)

Directions for the questions 105-107 : In each sentence below four words that the printed in
bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or
inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or
inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer.
105. Gandhiji is known (a) for his successful (b) afforts (c) to liberate (d) India

106. The environment has a profounde (a) /influence (b) on the way a Society (c)/ develops
(d)

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 10 of 21

107. Mr. Sharma refused to acknowledge (a) that he had committed (b) an error (c) while
taking that desision (d)

Directions for the questions 108-111: In each of the following sentences there are two blank
spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c)
and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the
same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
108. People _____________ to work hard if you _____________ certain conditions on them.
a. decide, negotiate b. try, thrust
c. plan, invoke d. hesitate, impose

109. The recent _____________ in oil prices has given an unexpected additional ___________
to the cost-spiral.
a. slump, drawback b. cut, blow
c. rise, twist d. development, out

110. _____________________ your colleagues for important decision-making activities

ensures their ____________________ cooperation.
a. counselling, whole-hearted b. Helping, occasional
c. Guiding, meagre d. Neglecting, enthusiastic

111. All the performances of human art, at which we look with praise or wonder, are
__________ of the restless _____________ of perseverance.
a. manifestations, pronouncement b. projections, component
c. instances, force d. proofs, humanity

Directions for questions 112-116: In each of the following questions, out of the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word

112. TYRANNY
a. Misrule b. Power
c. Madness d. Cruelty

113. OSTENTATIOUS
a. Pretty b. Modest
c. Showy d. Flagrant

114. ABNEGATION
a. Self-denial b. Self-sacrifice
c. Self-praise d. Self-criticism
115. SANGUINE
a. Clever b. Proud
c. Hopeful d. Modest

116. DILIGENT
a. Intelligent b. Energetic
c. Modest d. Industrious

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 11 of 21

Directions for the questions 117-121: In each of the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word.
117. OVERT
a. Deep b. Shallow
c. Secret d. Unwritten
118. BLISS
a. Anguish b. Sorrow
c. Agony d. Suffering

119. SPREAD
a. Subdue b. Repress
c. Suppress d. Contract

120. PODGY
a. Short b. Thin
c. Weak d. Slim

121. CULPABLE
a. Irresponsible b. Careless
c. Blameless d. Defendable

Directions for questions 122 - 125 : In each of the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
122. To examine one’s own thoughts and feeling
a. Meditation b. Retrospection
c. Immigration d. Introspection

123. Large scale departure of people

a. Migration b. Emigration
c. Immigration d. Exodus

124. A government run by a dictator

a. Democracy b. Autocracy
c. Oligarchy d. Theocracy

125. Commencement of words with the same letter

a. Rhyme b. Alliteration
c. Pun d. Oxymoron
Directions for questions 126 - 129 : In each of the following questions, an idiomatic
expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which
best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb
126. To turn over a new leaf
a. To change completely one’s b. To shift attention to new problems
course of action after having studied the old ones
thoroughly
c. To cover up one’s faults by d. To change the old habits and adopt
wearing new marks new ones

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 12 of 21

127. To wrangle over an ass’s shadow
a. To act in a foolish way b. To quarrel over trifles
c. To waste time on petty things d. To do something funny

128. To stand to one’s guns

a. To keep the guns close to oneself b. To persevere when hardships press
even amid danger
c. To maintain dignified and d. To maintain one’s position
unbending attitude

129. To bring one’s eggs to a bad market

a. To face a humiliating situation b. To bring one’s commodities to a
market where there is no demand for
them
c. To show one’s talents before d. To fail in one’s plans because one
audience which is incapable of goes to the wrong people for help
appreciating them

Directions for the questions 130 - 133 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has
been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the
one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice

130. Mona was writing a letter to her father

a. A letter was written to her father b. A letter has been written to her father
by Mona by Mona
c. A letter was being written by d. A letter was written by Mona to her
Mona to her father father

131. A stone struck me on the head

a. I was struck by a stone on the b. My head was struck by a stone
head
c. I had been struck by a stone on d. I was struck on the head by a stone
the head

132. Rain disrupted the last day’s play between India and Sri Lanka
a. The last day’s play of India and b. India and Sri Lanka’s play of the last
Sri Lanka was disrupted by rain day was disrupted by rain
c. The last day’s play between India d. The last day’s play between India and
and Sri Lanka was disrupted by Sri Lanka were disrupted by rain
rain
133. My uncle promised me a present
a. A present was promised by my b. I was promised a present by my uncle
uncle to me
c. I had been promised a present by d. I was promised by my uncle a present
my uncle

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 13 of 21

Directions for question 134 - 137 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been
given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which
best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech
134. The sage said, “God helps those who help themselves.”
a. The sage said that God helps b. The sage said that God helped those
those who help themselves whose helped themselves
c. The sage said that God helps d. The sage said that God helped those
those who helped themselves who help themselves

135. Rajesh said, “I bought a car yesterday”

a. Rajesh said that I have bought a b. Rajesh told that he had bought a car
car the previous day yesterday
c. Rajesh said the he bought a car d. Rajesh said that he had bought a car
the previous day the previous day

136. He asked his teacher, “Need I read this chapter?”

a. He asked his teacher whether b. He asked his teacher whether he
there was a need to read that needed to read this chapter
chapter
c. He asked his teacher if it was d. He asked his teacher if he had to read
necessary to read this chapter that chapter

137. He said, “what a beautiful scene!”

a. He said that what a beautiful b. He wondered that it was a beautiful
scene it was scene
c. He exclaimed what a beautiful d. He exclaimed that it was a very
scene it was beautiful scene

Directions for questions 138 to 141 : In each of the following questions, a word has been
written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word

138. a. Mustach b. Moustach

c. Mustache d. Moustache

139. a. Acquiescence b. Aquicence

c. Acquisence d. Acquissence

140. a. Translucent b. Translusent

c. Transluscent d. Tranclucent

141. a. Exaggerate b. Exagerate

c. Exagarate d. Exaggarate

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 14 of 21

Directions for questions 142 to 145 : In this type of questions, you are provided with the
first or first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts
labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a
complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination
142. Jawaharlal Nehru
(P) under the Cabinet Mission Scheme
(Q) was the first to articulate
(R) long before such an assembly was set up
(S) the idea of a Constituent Assembly
a. PQSR b. QSRP
c. RPQS d. SRPQ

143. (1) There are people

(P) to be able to say
(Q) not because they enjoy the book
(R) who read a book
(S) but because they want
(6) that they have read it.
a. PSQR b. RQSP
c. RSPQ d. SQPR

144. Sugar
(P) and our average consumption of sugar
(Q) provides something like
(R) itself is rich in calories
(S) 1/5th of our
(6) total calorie intake
a. PQRS b. RPQS
c. QRPS d. RSPQ

145. The administration will soon launch

(P) to educate the people about their rights
(Q) a consumer protection drive
(R) against using fraudulent means
(S) and to warn traders
a. PQSR b. PSQR
c. QPSR d. SPQR

Directions for questions 146 to 150 : Comprehension : Read the passage and answer the
following qustions
Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product
markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross
domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 per
cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in this sector. Due to
the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals) in
the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have significant potential impact on poverty.
Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market for industry

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 15 of 21

by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the low-income
groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural & industrial growth has shown that the
10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5% & urban
workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment & price deflation. However,
there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An
increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for
intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving
reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much
longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand
stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and
economic costs.
Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development process.
An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the
labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of
production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour
supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces
of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output elasticity and the income
elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment output elasticity in
agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55 to o.50 and that for
cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other important interdependency which plays a crucial role in
inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through demand linkages.
Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food
price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates
employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an increase in the food price
would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products.
In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly,
the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand out-paces its supply and
food supply outpaces its demand.
Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence
living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic
pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to
starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the
energy provided by food. Food grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in
agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-grains accounts for about four-
fifths of the calorie intake of the poor.
146. Which of the following, according to the passage, signifies influence of agricultural
products on poverty?
i. Higher labour productivity in agriculture reduces poverty.
ii. Agricultural products are the main constituent of the food of the poor.
iii. Agricultural output spurs industrial growth which ultimately helps the poor.
a. i & ii only b. ii & iii only
c. i & iii only d. All i, ii & iii

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 16 of 21

147. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘sheer’ as used in the passage?
a. Simple b. Undiluted
c. Mere d. Outright

148. Which of the following is meant by “the labour supply curve turns elastic at the
subsistence wage rate” as used in the passage?
a. People refuse to work at the b. People still work at the minimum
minimum wage rate wage rate
c. People are eager to work at the d. None of these
minimum wage rate

149. Which of the following in addition to employment-output elasticity, according to the

passage, creates indirect employment?
a. Interlinkage of demand of food b. Interdependence of forces of labour
and other sectors supply and food demand
c. Income elasticity of demand for d. All of these
food

150. Which of the following, according to the passage, will be the result of increase in non-
agricultural production?
i. Increase in demand of non-agricultural products
ii. Increase in demand of intermediate agricultural products
iii. Increase in demand of final agricultural products
a. Only i & ii b. Only ii & iii
c. Only i & iii d. All i, ii & iii

Directions for the questions from 151 -200: Choose the right answer from the given options
151. Which of the following is not a state subject in India
a. Defence b. Education
c. Health d. Transport

152. Which among the following is a permanent body

a. Lok Sabha b. Rajya Sabha
c. None of these d. Both

153. Lira is the currency of

a. Spain b. Italy
c. Bulgaria d. France

154. What is the percentage of Swachh Bharat Cess

a. 0.25 b. 0.75
c. 1.00 d. 0.50

155. ISO 9000 is a popular standard by ISO for

a. Quality Management b. Energy Management
c. Social Responsibility d. Risk Management

156. Which of the following states has recently won the bid to host National Games in 2019?
a. Goa b. Kerala
c. Andhra Pradesh d. Meghalaya

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 17 of 21

157. Which one of the following statements with regard to Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima
Yojana is NOT correct?
a. The yearly premium is Rs. 12 b. It is available to all savings bank
account holders in the age group of
18 to 50 years
c. It has accidental death and d. There is provision of payment of Rs.
disability cover of Rs. 2,00,000 1,00,000 for partial permanent
disability

158. Which among the following cities has hosted the first India International Science Festival
(IISF) 2015?
a. Hyderabad b. New Delhi
c. Mumbai d. Gurgaon

159. Which among the following Northeast states is famous for Black rice; famous for its
pleasant nutty flavour and rich in antioxidants?
a. Nagaland b. Assam
c. Manipur d. Tripura

160. Vembanad Lake is in

a. Andhra Pradesh b. Kerala
c. Orissa d. Tamil Nadu

161. Which one of the following is not an All India Service?

a. Indian Administrative Service b. Indian Police Service
c. Indian Foreign Service d. Indian Forest Service

162. The first public sector bank in India which obtained licence for Internet Banking from
RBI is
a. Punjab National Bank b. Oriental Bank of Commerce
c. Corporation Bank d. State Bank of India

163. The percentage of water in typical plant cell is about

a. 10 b. 50
c. 85 d. 20

164. Olympic 2016 is held at

a. Athens b. Brazil
c. Sydney d. London

165. End product of glycolysis is

a. Citric Acid b. Pyruvic Acid
c. Picric Acid d. Acetic Acid

166. Who won the WBO Asia Pacific Super middleweight title 2016?
a. Mary Kom b. Vijender Singh
c. Muhammad Ali d. Kerry Hope

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 18 of 21

167. Who became the first male member to be appointed in National Commission for women
a. Ashok Chawla b. Alok Rawat
c. Pahlaj Nihalani d. Sunil Kanoria

168. Which of the following American universities has launched APJ Abdul Kalam Fellowship
worth $156, 000 (Rs 1,03,71,660) for students who wish to pursue PhD in specified fields
of science & engineering at the institution?
a. Columbia university b. University of Southern California
c. University of South Florida d. University f Pennsylvania

169. Who among the following was conferred with the ‘Bangladesh Liberation War Honour’
recently?
a. Narendra Modi b. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
c. Sonia Gandhi d. Ajit Doval

170. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG)?
a. Brazil b. Mexico
c. India d. Spain

171. The correct sequence of the given planets in increasing order of their distance from the
sun is:
a. Mercury, Venus, Mars, Saturn b. Venus, Mercury, Mars, Saturn and
and Jupiter Jupiter
c. Mercury, Venus, Mars, Jupiter d. Venus, Mercury, Jupiter, Mars and
and Saturn Saturn

172. Which of the following states in India does not share boundary with Myanmar?
a. Assam b. Manipur
c. Nagaland d. Arunachal Pradesh

173. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was initiated in 1983 with the pioneering efforts of
a. Justice R N Mishra b. Justice Chandrachud
c. Justice P N Bhagwati d. Justice Venkatswami

174. Which state uses the maximum area for producing coffee?
a. Karnataka b. Kerala
c. Tamil Nadu d. Gujarat

175. In cyclone affected areas disinfection should be given against

a. Enthraphalitis b. Anthrax
c. TB d. Cholera

176. Which of the following is capable of rotating its head almost in complete circle?
a. Snake b. Lizard
c. Humming Bird d. Owl

177. Who among the following has been honoured with the Garwood award for “Outstanding
global leader in open innovation” from US Berkeley-Hass School
a. Narendra Modi b. Pranab Mukherjee
c. Sonia Gandhi d. Sashi Tharoor

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 19 of 21

178. State affected by the Hud Hud Cyclone
a. Andhra Pradesh b. Telegana
c. Tamil Nadu d. Maharashtra

179. Name the famous Kannada epigraphist and academician who passed away during August
2015
a. Kuvumpu b. Dr. M.M. Kalburgi
c. Bendre d. U.R. Anathamoorthy

180. Migration & Remittance Fact book 2016 has recently been released by which of the
following organization?
a. European Union b. World Bank
c. International Monetary Fund d. International Organisation for
Migration
181. Indian-origin politician Pravin Gordhan has recently been appointed which of the
following country’s Finance Minister?
a. Canada b. South Africa
c. USA d. United Kingdom
182. The year 2016 has been declared by the United Nation as the --------?
a. International Year of Small b. International Year of Youth
Island Developing States
c. International Year of Pulses d. International Year of Biodiversity
183. Which one of the following is known as the “Coffee port” of the world?
a. Sao Paulo b. Santos
c. Rio de Janeiro d. Buenos Aires

184. The 99th Constitutional amendment Act in Indian Constitution is related to

a. Inclusion of Panchayati Raj b. Addition of four new languages in
System Eighth Schedule
c. Formation of National Judicial d. Anti-defection Law
Appointment Commission
185. Which bacterial strain developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations, can be
used for degrading oil spills?
a. Agrobacterium b. Clostridium
c. Nitrosomonas d. Pseudomonas

186. The Indian Police Institute (IPI) has been established in which of the following cities?
a. Kolkata b. New Delhi
c. Hyderabad d. Chandigarh
187. Universal donor is
a. O +ve b. O –ve
c. AB +ve d. AB –ve
188. Which gland in the human body is called Master grand
a. Liver b. Thyroid gland
c. Pituitary gland d. Bulbourethral gland

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 20 of 21

189. Global warming is mainly due to increase of ………………….. in atmosphere
a. Oxygen b. Nitrogen oxide
c. Carbon dioxide d. Hydrogen

190. Who won Wimbledon 2016?

a. Roger Federer b. Novak Djokovic
c. Rafael Nadal d. Andy Murray

191. India’s first interplanetary mission (MOM) completed one year in the orbit around the red
planet on
a. 26th September 2015 b. 24th September 2015
c. 5th October 2015 d. 9th October 2015

192. Which India poet has written the Bangladesh Nation Anthem “Amar Shonar Bangla”
a. Sri Aurobindo b. Debendranath Tagore
c. Sarojini Naidu d. Rabindranath Tagore

193. Which one among the following vitamins is necessary for blood clotting?
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin C

194. Father of local self-government in India is

a. Lord Mayo b. Acharya Vinobha Bhave
c. Mahatma Gandhi d. Lord Ripon

195. The International Institute for Population Science is located in

a. Kolkatta b. Mumbai
c. Delhi d. Thiruvanantapuram

196. ‘X-Rays’ were discovered by

a. Becquerel b. Roentgen
c. Marie Curie d. Van Lue

197. President is to country, as ........... is to State?

a. Chief Minister b. State Minister
c. Governor d. Lieutenant

198. Which day is known as International Coffee Day?

a. 1st October b. 1st September
st
c. 1 November d. 1st December

199. The instrument used for finding out wind direction is:
a. Anemometer b. Wind wane
c. Wind gauge d. Hygrometer

200. The most fertile region of India is

a. Himalayas b. Indo-Gangetic plain
c. Central highlands d. Peninsular plateau

Question Booklet – Coffee Quality Page 21 of 21

 QUESTION BOOKLET

Subject: ENTOMOLOGY
Booklet No.
Post Applied for: ASSISTANT SPECIALIST
Name of the Candidate: …………………………...
Date of Examination: 0 7 2 0 1 6

Signature of the Invigilator

Roll Number:

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet before
filling the Answer sheet
2. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for the test.
3. Write your name (in Capital letters), roll number, date and booklet number on the question booklet
and Answer sheet and sign at the appropriate place.
4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions for 200 marks
(@ 1 mark per question) and the total time allotted is 2 hours. The correct answer will be given one
mark and for every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
5. Each objective question is followed by four options. Your task is to choose the correct answer and
write your answer on the answer sheet provided. DO NOT write your answer on the Question Booklet.
6. Write your option/answer for each question legibly in the box provided next to the question in the
answer sheet. Writing the multiple answers within the same box or overwriting or corrections made if
any, will be treated as wrong answer.
7. Do not make any stray marks anywhere on the answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the answer
sheet. Rough work SHOULD NOT be done on the answer sheet.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones, scanning
devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in possession of such
unauthorized material, including copying or impersonation or adopting unfair means, is liable to be
summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action.
9. After completing the examination, the candidate should write the total number of questions answered
and affix the signature in the space provided on the answer sheet. Then, hand over the admit card,
question booklet and the original copy of Answer sheet to the invigilator. The carbon copy of the
answer sheet may be obtained after due verification/signature by the Invigilator.
10. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination hall. If any candidate is
found carrying the booklet such candidates are liable to be disqualified.
11. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he/she has completed his/her paper. After
completion of the examination, all the candidates should remain seated until all booklets and answer
sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination hall.
*****

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 1 of 23

 Directions for questions 1 to 100: Choose the right answer from the given options
1. Most pheromone trap attracts
a. Female moths b. Caterpillars
c. Male moths d. None of the above

2. The members of this family are egg parasitoids

a. Braconidae b. Bethylidae
c. Chalcididae d. Richogrammatidae

3. The higher LD 50 value indicate the following

a. Less toxic b. Highly toxic
c. Neutral d. None of these

4. The most important excretory product in terrestrial insects is

a. Uric Acid b. Ammonia
c. Amino Acids d. Urea

5. Protocerebrum supplies nerves to

a. Compound eyes b. Antennae
c. Mouthparts d. Wings

6. The insect pest which got introduced into our country before the enforcement of quarantine
measures is
a. Anthonomis grandis b. Oxycaraenus laetus
c. Icerya purchase d. Gnorimochema heliopa

7. Accessory glands are modified as “milk glands” in

a. Glossina b. Honeybee
c. Chironomid larva d. Strepsiptera

8. Which of the following anticoagulant is used for rat control

a. Magnesium phosphide b. Warfarin
c. Hydrogen cyanide d. Aluminium phosphide

9. Hypermetamorphosis is observed in
a. Blister beetle b. June beetle
c. Weevils d. Hover fly

10. The sting of a honey bee is modified ----------------

a. Galea b. Hind leg
c. Ovipositor d. Mouthparts

11. Termites have -------------------- type of antenna

a. Serrate b. Moniliform
c. Setaceous d. Geniculate

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 2 of 23

 12. The beetle Zygogramma bicolorata, introduced for the control of congress grass weed, but
it was also found feeding on
a. Sunflower b. Cauliflower
c. Soyabean d. Mustard

13. Atropine sulphate is an

a. Antifeedant b. Antidote
c. Antibiotic d. Antipheramone

14. Dengue fever is transmitted by

a. Anopheles spp b. Dung beetles
c. Culex spp d. Aedes spp

15. The major detoxifying enzymes involved in resistance to pyrethroids are

a. Esterases b. MFOs (mixed function
oxidases)
c. Transferases d. Phosphatases

16. Methyl eugenol is a food attractant for

a. Melon fruit fly b. Eye fly
c. Banana fly d. Oriental fruit fly

17. Spinosad is the chemical derived from

a. Actinomycetes b. Fungus
c. Bacteria d. Virus

18. The insects which feed on living plants are called

a. Herbivores b. Carnivores
c. Omnivores d. Scavengers

19. Computer generated IPM models as practised in developed countries like USA have
synthesised menu based IPM systems comprising of
a. Input of weather data + developmental b. Pest risk analysis data
models of significant pests
c. IPM protocols of a single major pest d. Simulated host phenology + input of
weather data + developmental
models of significant pests

20. Blue triangle on insecticide container indicates

a. Not poisonous b. Highly poisonous
c. Medium poisonous d. Low poisonous

21. An example for systemic insecticide

a. Quinolphos b. Chlorpyriphos
c. Dimethoate d. Fenvelerate

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 3 of 23

 22. The sterile-male technique works best when
a. Target population is large b. The pest species can be mass
reared
c. Females mate repeatedly d. All of the above

23. The transgene present in Boll guard-I cotton is -----------------

a. Cry 1 AC b. Cry-1 Ab
c. Cry-1 C d. Cry- IC

24. Lac is a
a. Resinous matter b. Liquid matter
c. Solid matter d. None of the above

25. Which among these is major pest of arabica coffee in India?

a. Xylosandrus compactus b. Xylotrechus quadripes
c. Zeuzera coffeae d. Coccus viridis

26. In which year insecticide act in India came into force?

a. 1970 b. 1971
c. 1968 d. 1972

27. The sooty mould black fungal growth on leaves of Sapota is caused by secretion of sugary
solution by
a. Aphids & mealy bugs b. Moths & Butter flies
c. Bats & birds d. Beetles & weevils

28. The larva of Latoia lepida feed on

a. Leaves b. Shoots
c. Capsules d. Flowers

29. The quantity of Malathion 50EC required for mixing 250 litre of water to obtain 0.05%
spray solution, for one acre of paddy to control leaf webber is
a. 150ml b. 250ml
c. 200ml d. 300ml

30. Application of Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV) is effective against

a. Early shoot borer b. American bollworm
c. Pink bollworm d. Spotted bollworms

31. Study of group organisms associated as a unit is called as

a. Autoeclogy b. Bioecology
c. Synecology d. None of the above

32. Chilli murda complex is due to

a. Aphids & mealy bugs b. Scales & white flies
c. Thrips& Mites d. Leaf hoppers & borers

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 4 of 23

 33. Directorate of Plant protection, Quarantine and Storage is located in
a. Gurgaon b. New Delhi
c. Faridabad d. Ghaziabad

34. Sucking mouth parts are not found in

a. Thrips b. Aphids
c. Whitefly d. Ants

35. Eri Silkworm is reared on

a. Mulberry b. Coconut
c. Castor d. Banana

36. In coffee ------------ pheremone is used for IPM of white stem borer
a. Female pheromone b. Male pheromone
c. Both A & B d. None of the above

37. Which of the following order comprises predaceous insects?

a. Neuropteran b. Phasmida
c. Isoptera d. Lepidoptera

38. In mango, the withering and shedding of inflorescence is a symptom of damage due to
a. Leaf hopper b. Gall midges
c. Stem borer d. Fruit fly

39. Bt cabbage is being developed against

a. Cabbage borer b. Diamond back moth
c. Painted bug d. None of these

40. Which of the following order has pupal stage only in males?
a. Dictyptera b. Isoptera
c. Orthoptera d. Strepsiptera

41. The nervous system of insects is derived from

a. Ectoderm b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm d. None of these

42. Which of the following is a neuropteran predator?

a. Chrysoperla b. Cryptolaemus
c. Scymnus d. Brumus

43. First insecticide resistance in agriculturally important insect in India was observed in?
a. Singhara beetle b. Chilli Thrips
c. Diamond black moth d. Cotton whitefly

44. Which of the following laboratory host is used for the multiplication of egg parasitoids?
a. Spodopteralitura b. Chilopartellus
c. Corcyra cephalonica d. Helicoverpaarmigera

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 5 of 23

 45. Semiloopers belong to the order?
a. Lepidoptera b. Coleoptera
c. Isoptera d. Diptera

46. Insects that become sexually mature and produce offspring before they molt in to adults
are said to be?
a. Embroynic b. Parthenogenic
c. Paedogenic d. Viviparous

47. The eco-friendly insecticide is

a. Malathion b. Nimbicidine
c. Thiodan d. Permethrin

48. Use of resistant varieties in the IPM is an example of

a. Legal control b. Chemical control
c. Biological control d. Cultural control

49. The type of parthenogenesis where only males are produced is

a. Arrhenotoky b. Amphitoky
c. Thelytoky d. None of these

50. Which of the following is an example of insect hormone

a. Ecdyson b. Lindane
c. Chitin d. Allethrin

51. Which of the following is an example of the mammalian pest

a. Rana tigris b. Rattusratus
c. Bufo spp. d. Achetinafulica

52. Which of the following insect orders are exclusively herbivorous?

a. Lepidoptera & Hemiptera b. Thysanoptera & N europtera
c. Orthoptera & Phasmatodea d. Psocoptera & Trichoptera

53. Antidote for the insecticide group ‘pyrethroids’ is

a. Diazepam b. Potassium permanganate
c. Atropine d. Atropine sulphate
54. In beetle vine yellowing of leaves with grey coloured insects covering them is due to
a. Mite b. Leaf hopper
c. Scales d. Thrips

55. Which of the following type of mouth parts is found in honey bee?
a. Chewing & biting type b. Piercing & sucking type
c. Chewing & lapping type d. Rasping & sucking type

56. Which of the following insect is a gregarious pest?

a. Sorghum shoot fly b. Migratory locust
c. Spotted boll worm d. Rice case worm

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 6 of 23

 57. The relationship between economic threshold level of pest and market value of the produce
is
a. Negative (Inverse) b. Positive (Direct)
c. Both a & b d. None of these

58. Which of the following insecticide belongs to organophoshphate group?

a. Quinolphos b. Cypermethrin
c. Sulphur d. Endosulphan

59. Which one of the following is an ingredient of universal antidote?

a. Acetic acid b. Charcoal
c. Phenol d. Glycine

60. What is the technical name of the insecticide with trade name Pride?
a. Fipronil b. Acetamiprid
c. Spinosad d. Imidacloprid

61. Central Sericulture Research and training Institute is located at

a. Bengaluru b. Mysuru
c. Ranchi d. Bhubaneswar

62. Citrus greening bacterium is transmitted by

a. Aphid, Toxoptera citrida b. White fly, Bemisia tabaci
c. Aphid, Pentalonia nigronervosa d. Psyllid, Diaphorina citri

63. Any manipulation of environment intended to reduce the pest numbers is referred to as
a. Ecological control b. Ecosystem control
c. Bio- intensive control d. Habitat manipulation

64. Nozzle in which spray fluid is fed into the air stream within the nozzle and split into droplets
by the velocity of air is called
a. Disc nozzle b. Annular nozzle
c. Shear nozzle d. Low volume nozzle

65. Complete metamorphosis is found in

a. Cricket b. Butterfly
c. Bugs d. Aphid

66. The National Bureau of Agriculturally Important insects was established by ICAR in
------------- was earlier known as --------------
a. Bengaluru; PDBC b. New Delhi; National Pusa
Collection
c. Ranchi; Indian Lac Research Institute d. New Delhi; NCIPM
e.
67. ATP molecules required for synthesis of a glucose molecule in Calvin- Benson cycle are
a. 12 b. 20
c. 18 d. 38

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 7 of 23

 68. During organophosphate insecticide poisoning, the muscarinic effect results in:
a. Anorexia b. Bradycardia
c. Hypertension d. All of these

69. Which of the following is a vector for Banana streak disease

a. Thrips b. Caterpillar
c. Mealybug d. None of these
70. Isotima javensis is a parasitoid of
a. Sugarcane top borer b. Sugarcane pyrilla
c. Sugarcane d. Sugarcane mealy bug
71. Dangerous gas for depletion of ozone layer is
a. Methane b. Ethane
c. CFC d. Carbon-dioxide
72. The edible part of jack fruit is
a. Hilum b. Peduncle
c. Perianth d. Endosperm
73. Nutrient Magnesium (Mg) is found in
a. Gypsum b. Dolomite
c. Rock phosphate d. None of these

74. Coffee rust is caused by

a. Hemileia vastatrix b. Cronartium ribicola
c. Colletotrichum spp d. Fusarium spp

75. Green revolution has mainly been successful in

a. Maize b. Tur
c. Wheat d. Gram

76. The cost of production of the crop can be minimized by using economic principle
a. Law of diminishing returns b. Law of opportunity cost
c. Cost principle d. Principle of least cost
combination
77. The concept of agro climatic zoning was developed by:
a. World Bank b. U.S.A
c. F.A.O d. I.C.A.R

78. Which of the following is the pest of apple?

a. Sylepta lunalis b. Nodostoma subcostalum
c. Cydia hemidoxa d. Eriosoma lanigerum

79. The primary objective of greenhouse cultivation of vegetables is:

a. To get crop throughout the year b. To get off-season crops
c. To protect crop from Pest & diseases d. All

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 8 of 23

 80. Which of the following is not a cross pollinated crop?
a. Carrot b. Groundnut
c. Muskmelon d. Lettuce

81. The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is located at:

a. Washington b. Moscow
c. Geneva d. London

82. Sorghum is considered as camel crop because of:

a. Less water potential b. Resistance to drought
c. Shallow root system d. Nutrient exhaustiveness

83. Rice grain is deficient in?

a. Glycine b. Lysine
c. Alanine d. Isoleucine

84. Which of the following requires Silicon (Si) for its growth?
a. Chilli b. Groundnut
c. Rice d. Green gram

85. Lichen is an association of?

a. Algae & Fungus b. Fungus & Virus
c. Bacteria & Fungus d. Algae & Virus

86. SRI technique of paddy has been evolved at?

a. Japan b. China
c. Madagascar d. Korea

87. What is upper limit of available water in soil

a. Permanent wilting point b. Hygroscopic point
c. Field capacity d. All

88. Honeydew is an important variety of

a. Water melon b. Papaya
c. Musk melon d. Guava

89. Which of the following are useful insects?

a. Leaf miner b. Predators
c. Vectors d. Borers

90. The mango stem borer belongs to the family

a. Scolytidae b. Tenebrionidae
c. Scarabaeridae d. Cerambycidae
91. Indian Agricultural Statistics Institute is located at
a. Bhopal, M.P b. Kanpur, U.P
c. Kolkata, W.B. d. New Delhi

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 9 of 23

 92. One ha. is equivalent to
a. 2.271acre b. 2.471 acre
c. 2.371acre d. 2.671acre

93. The simple measure of variability in a data set is

a. Mean b. Median
c. Mode d. Range

94. Most suitable design for experiment involving varying number of tillage and nitrogen level
is
a. RBD b. Split plot
c. Strip plot d. Lattice design

95. In a RBD experiment having 9 treatments and 4 replications, the error degree of freedom
will be
a. 36 b. 18
c. 24 d. 21

96. The ‘ t test’ is applicable when the number of treatments are

a. 4 b. 10
c. 2 d. 8

97. Experimental design suitable for field having one directional fertility gradient is
a. LSD b. CRD
c. RBD d. SPD

98. The statistical test used to determine the goodness of fit is ----------
a. Z – test b. t – test
c. F – test d. Chi – square test

99. Which is not a measure of central tendency?

a. Mean b. Mode
c. Median d. Range

100. The population variance can be calculated by

a. t – test b. F- test
c. Z – test d. None of these

Directions for the questions 101-105: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part
is the answer.
101. This laboratory of physics is (a) not only equipped with (b) all state-of-the-art-
instruments (c) but also with outstanding physicists (d)

102. I was pretty sure that (a) he would support my views (b) for changing the age-old (c) and
static structure of our organisation (d)

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 10 of 23

 103. No sooner did (a) we reach the station (b) than the train had (c) started moving out of the
station (d)

104. I am sure about it, (a) nobody has lived (b) in that house (c) for a hundred years (d)

Directions for the questions 105-107 : In each sentence below four words that the printed
in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or
inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt
or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer.
105. Gandhiji is known (a) for his successful (b) afforts (c) to liberate (d) India

106. The environment has a profounde (a) influence (b) on the way a Society (c) develops
(d)

107. Mr. Sharma refused to acknowledge (a) that he had committed (b) an error (c) while
taking that desision (d)

Directions for the questions 108-111: In each of the following sentences there are two blank
spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b),
(c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in
the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
108. People _____________ to work hard if you _____________ certain conditions on them.
a. decide, negotiate b. try, thrust
c. plan, invoke d. hesitate, impose

109. The recent _____________ in oil prices has given an unexpected additional
___________ to the cost-spiral.
a. slump, drawback b. cut, blow
c. rise, twist d. development, out

110. _____________________ your colleagues for important decision-making activities

ensures their ____________________ cooperation.
a. counselling, whole-hearted b. Helping, occasional
c. Guiding, meagre d. Neglecting, enthusiastic

111. All the performances of human art, at which we look with praise or wonder, are
__________ of the restless _____________ of perseverance.
a. manifestations, pronouncement b. projections, component
c. instances, force d. proofs, humanity

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 11 of 23

 Directions for questions 112-116: In each of the following questions, out of the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
112. TYRANNY
a. Misrule b. Power
c. Madness d. Cruelty

113. OSTENTATIOUS
a. Pretty b. Modest
c. Showy d. Flagrant

114. ABNEGATION
a. Self-denial b. Self-sacrifice
c. Self-praise d. Self-criticism

115. SANGUINE
a. Clever b. Proud
c. Hopeful d. Modest

116. DILIGENT
a. Intelligent b. Energetic
c. Modest d. Industrious

Directions for the questions 117-121: In each of the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word.
117. OVERT
a. Deep b. Shallow
c. Secret d. Unwritten

118. BLISS
a. Anguish b. Sorrow
c. Agony d. Suffering

119. SPREAD
a. Subdue b. Repress
c. Suppress d. Contract

120. PODGY
a. Short b. Thin
c. Weak d. Slim

121. CULPABLE
a. Irresponsible b. Careless
c. Blameless d. Defendable

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 12 of 23

 Directions for questions 122 - 125 : In each of the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence

122. To examine one’s own thoughts and feeling

a. Meditation b. Retrospection
c. Immigration d. Introspection

123. Large scale departure of people

a. Migration b. Emigration
c. Immigration d. Exodus

124. A government run by a dictator

a. Democracy b. Autocracy
c. Oligarchy d. Theocracy

125. Commencement of words with the same letter

a. Rhyme b. Alliteration
c. Pun d. Oxymoron

Directions for questions 126 - 129 : In each of the following questions, an idiomatic
expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one
which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb
126. To turn over a new leaf
a. To change completely one’s course of b. To shift attention to new
action problems after having studied
the old ones thoroughly
c. To cover up one’s faults by wearing d. To change the old habits and
new marks adopt new ones

127. To wrangle over an ass’s shadow

a. To act in a foolish way b. To quarrel over trifles
c. To waste time on petty things d. To do something funny

128. To stand to one’s guns

a. To keep the guns close to oneself even b. To persevere when hardships
amid danger press
c. To maintain dignified and unbending d. To maintain one’s position
attitude

129. To bring one’s eggs to a bad market

a. To face a humiliating situation b. To bring one’s commodities to
a market where there is no
demand for them
c. To show one’s talents before audience d. To fail in one’s plans because
which is incapable of appreciating one goes to the wrong people
them for help

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 13 of 23

 Directions for the questions 130 - 133 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has
been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the
one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice
130. Mona was writing a letter to her father
a. A letter was written to her father by b. A letter has been written to her
Mona father by Mona
c. A letter was being written by Mona to d. A letter was written by Mona
her father to her father
131. A stone struck me on the head
a. I was struck by a stone on the head b. My head was struck by a stone
c. I had been struck by a stone on the d. I was struck on the head by a
head stone

132. Rain disrupted the last day’s play between India and Sri Lanka
a. The last day’s play of India and Sri b. India and Sri Lanka’s play of
Lanka was disrupted by rain the last day was disrupted by
rain
c. The last day’s play between India and d. The last day’s play between
Sri Lanka was disrupted by rain India and Sri Lanka were
disrupted by rain

133. My uncle promised me a present

a. A present was promised by my uncle b. I was promised a present by
to me my uncle
c. I had been promised a present by my d. I was promised by my uncle a
uncle present

Directions for question 134 - 137 : In each of the following questions, a sentence has been
given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one
which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech

134. The sage said, “God helps those who help themselves.”
a. The sage said that God helps those who b. The sage said that God helped
help themselves those whose helped
themselves
c. The sage said that God helps those who d. The sage said that God helped
helped themselves those who help themselves

135. Rajesh said, “I bought a car yesterday”

a. Rajesh said that I have bought a car the b. Rajesh told that he had bought
previous day a car yesterday
c. Rajesh said the he bought a car the d. Rajesh said that he had bought
previous day a car the previous day

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 14 of 23

 136. He asked his teacher, “Need I read this chapter?”
a. He asked his teacher whether there was b. He asked his teacher whether
a need to read that chapter he needed to read this chapter
c. He asked his teacher if it was necessary d. He asked his teacher if he had
to read this chapter to read that chapter

137. He said, “what a beautiful scene!”

a. He said that what a beautiful scene it b. He wondered that it was a
was beautiful scene
c. He exclaimed what a beautiful scene it d. He exclaimed that it was a very
was beautiful scene

Directions for questions 138 to 141 : In each of the following questions, a word has been
written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word
138. a. Mustach b. Moustach
c. Mustache d. Moustache

139. a. Acquiescence b. Aquicence

c. Acquisence d. Acquissence

140. a. Translucent b. Translusent

c. Transluscent d. Tranclucent

141. a. Exaggerate b. exagerate

c. exagarate d. exaggarate

Directions for questions 142 to 145 : In the following questions, you are provided with the
first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts
labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a
complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination
142. Jawaharlal Nehru
(P) under the Cabinet Mission Scheme
(Q) was the first to articulate
(R) long before such an assembly was set up
(S) the idea of a Constituent Assembly
a. PQSR b. QSRP
c. RPQS d. SRPQ
143. (1) There are people
(P) to be able to say
(Q) not because they enjoy the book
(R) who read a book
(S) but because they want
(6) that they have read it.
a. PSQR b. RQSP
c. RSPQ d. SQPR

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 15 of 23

 144. Sugar
(P) and our average consumption of sugar
(Q) provides something like
(R) itself is rich in calaries
(S) 1/5th of our
(6) total calary intake
a. PQRS b. RPQS
c. QRPS d. RSPQ

145. The administration will soon launch

(P) to educate the people about their rights
(Q) a consumer protection drive
(R) against using fraudulent means
(S) and to warn traders
a. PQSR b. PSQR
c. QPSR d. SPQR
Directions for the questions 146-150: Comprehension : Read the passage and answer the
following questions
Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product
markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of the gross
domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40
per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in this sector. Due
to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its major products (cereals)
in the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have significant potential impact on
poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the domestic market
for industry by raising labour productivity in agriculture and spreading its gains among the
low-income groups. Modelling of the linkages between agricultural & industrial growth has
shown that the 10 per cent increase in agricultural output would increase industrial output by
5% & urban workers would benefit by both increased industrial employment & price deflation.
However, there is an asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods.
An increase in non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for
intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving
reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much
longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand
stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and
economic costs.
Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development
process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward
shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the
technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift
in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of interdependence

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 16 of 23

 between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the employment-output
elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent estimate of the employment
output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity of food is in the range of 0.55
to o.50 and that for cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other important interdependency which plays a
crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between food and other sectors through
demand linkages. Since food accounts for a major share in the budget of the poor and any
reduction in the food price leaves a significant proportion of income for other items, a lower
food price stimulates employment in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an
increase in the food price would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the
prices of industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in
demand deficiency. Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour
demand out-paces its supply and food supply outpaces its demand.
Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence
living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic
pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would be willing to
starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the
energy provided by food. Food grain price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in
agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-grains accounts for about four-
fifths of the calorie intake of the poor.

146. Which of the following, according to the passage, signifies influence of agricultural
products on poverty?
i) Higher labour productivity in agriculture reduces poverty.
ii) Agricultural products are the main constituent of the food of the poor.
iii) Agricultural output spurs industrial growth which ultimately helps the poor.
a. i & ii only b. ii & iii only
c. i & iii only d. All i, ii & iii

147. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘sheer’ as used in the passage?
a. Simple b. Undiluted
c. Mere d. Outright

148. Which of the following is meant by “the labour supply curve turns elastic at the
subsistence wage rate” as used in the passage?
a. People refuse to work at the minimum b. People still work at the
wage rate minimum wage rate
c. People are eager to work at the d. None of these
minimum wage rate

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 17 of 23

 149. Which of the following in addition to employment-output elasticity, according to the
passage, creates indirect employment?
a. Interlinkage of demand of food and b. Interdependence of forces of
other sectors labour supply and food
demand
c. Income elasticity of demand for food d. All of these

150. Which of the following, according to the passage, will be the result of increase in non-
agricultural production?
i) Increase in demand of non-agricultural products
ii) Increase in demand of intermediate agricultural products
iii) Increase in demand of final agricultural products
a. Only i & ii b. Only ii & iii
c. Only i & iii d. All i, ii & iii
Directions for the questions 151-200: Choose the right answer from the given options
151. Which of the following is not a state subject in India
a. Defence b. Education
c. Health d. Transport

152. Which among the following is a permanent body

a. Lok Sabha b. Rajya Sabha
c. None of these d. Both

153. Lira is the currency of

a. Spain b. Italy
c. Bulgaria d. France
154. What is the percentage of Swachh Bharat Cess
a. 0.25 b. 0.75
c. 1.00 d. 0.50

155. ISO 9000 is a popular standard by ISO for

a. Quality Management b. Energy Management
c. Social Responsibility d. Risk Management

156. Which of the following states has recently won the bid to host National Games in 2019?
a. Goa b. Kerala
c. Andhra Pradesh d. Meghalaya

157. Which one of the following statements with regard to Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima
Yojana is NOT correct?
a. The yearly premium is Rs. 12 b. It is available to all savings
bank account holders in the
age group of 18 to 50 years
c. It has accidental death and disability d. There is provision of payment
cover of Rs. 2,00,000 of Rs. 1,00,000 for partial
permanent disability

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 18 of 23

 158. Which among the following cities has hosted the first India International Science Festival
(IISF) 2015?
a. Hyderabad b. New Delhi
c. Mumbai d. Gurgaon

159. Which among the following Northeast states is famous for Black rice; famous for its
pleasant nutty flavour and rich in antioxidants?
a. Nagaland b. Assam
c. Manipur d. Tripura

160. Vembanad Lake is in

a. Andhra Pradesh b. Kerala
c. Orissa d. Tamil Nadu

161. Which one of the following is not an All India Service?

a. Indian Administrative Service b. Indian Police Service
c. Indian Foreign Service d. Indian Forest Service

162. The first public sector bank in India which obtained licence for Internet Banking from
RBI is
a. Punjab National Bank b. Oriental Bank of Commerce
c. Corporation Bank d. State Bank of India

163. The percentage of water in typical plant cell is about

a. 10 b. 50
c. 85 d. 20

164. Olympic 2016 is held at

a. Athens b. Brazil
c. Sydney d. London

165. End product of glycolysis is

a. Citric Acid b. Pyruvic Acid
c. Picric Acid d. Acetic Acid

166. Who won the WBO Asia Pacific Super middleweight title 2016?
a. Mary Kom b. Vijender Singh
c. Muhammad Ali d. Kerry Hope

167. Who became the first male member to be appointed in National Commission for women
a. Ashok Chawla b. Alok Rawat
c. Pahlaj Nihalani d. Sunil Kanoria

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 19 of 23

 168. Which of the following American universities has launched APJ Abdul Kalam
Fellowship worth $156, 000 (Rs 1,03,71,660) for students who wish to pursue PhD in
specified fields of science & engineering at the institution?
a. Columbia university b. University of Southern
California
c. University of South Florida d. University f Pennsylvania

169. Who among the following was conferred with the ‘Bangladesh Liberation War Honour’
recently?
a. Narendra Modi b. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
c. Sonia Gandhi d. Ajit Doval

170. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG)?
a. Brazil b. Mexico
c. India d. Spain

171. The correct sequence of the given planets in increasing order of their distance from the
sun is
a. Mercury, Venus, Mars, Saturn and b. Venus, Mercury, Mars, Saturn
Jupiter and Jupiter
c. Mercury, Venus, Mars, Jupiter and d. Venus, Mercury, Jupiter, Mars
Saturn and Saturn
172. Which of the following states in India does not share boundary with Myanmar?
a. Assam b. Manipur
c. Nagaland d. Arunachal Pradesh

173. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was initiated in 1983 with the pioneering efforts of
a. Justice R N Mishra b. Justice Chandrachud
c. Justice P N Bhagwati d. Justice Venkatswami

174. Which state uses the maximum area for producing coffee?
a. Karnataka b. Kerala
c. Tamil Nadu d. Gujarat

175. In cyclone affected areas disinfection should be given against

a. Enthraphalitis b. Anthrax
c. TB d. Cholera

176. Which of the following is capable of rotating its head almost in complete circle is
a. Snake b. Lizard
c. Humming Bird d. Owl

177. Who among the following has been honoured with the Garwood award for “Outstanding
global leader in open innovation” from US Berkeley-Hass School
a. Narendra Modi b. Pranab Mukherjee
c. Sonia Gandhi d. Sashi Tharoor

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 20 of 23

 178. State affected by the Hud Hud Cyclone
a. Andhra Pradesh b. Telegana
c. Tamil Nadu d. Maharashtra

179. Name the famous Kannada epigraphist and academician who passed away during August
2015
a. Kuvumpu b. Dr. M.M. Kalburgi
c. Bendre d. U.R. Anathamoorthy

180. Migration & Remittance Fact book 2016 has recently been released by which of the
following organization?
a. European Union b. World Bank
c. International Monetary Fund d. International Organisation for
Migration

181. Indian-origin politician Pravin Gordhan has recently been appointed which of the
following country’s Finance Minister?
a. Canada b. South Africa
c. USA d. United Kingdom

182. The year 2016 has been declared by the United Nation as the --------?
a. International Year of Small Island b. International Year of Youth
Developing States
c. International Year of Pulses d. International Year of
Biodiversity

183. Which one of the following is known as the “Coffee port” of the world?
a. Sao Paulo b. Santos
c. Rio de Janeiro d. Buenos Aires

184. The 99th Constitutional amendment Act in Indian Constitution is related to

a. Inclusion of Panchayati Raj System b. Addition of four new
languages in Eighth Schedule
c. Formation of National Judicial d. Anti-defection Law
Appointment Commission

185. Which bacterial strain developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations, can be
used for degrading oil spills?
a. Agrobacterium b. Clostridium
c. Nitrosomonas d. Pseudomonas

186. The Indian Police Institute (IPI) has been established in which of the following cities?
a. Kolkata b. New Delhi
c. Hyderabad d. Chandigarh

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 21 of 23

 187. Universal donor is
a. O +ve b. O -ve
c. AB +ve d. AB -ve

188. Which gland in the human body is called Master grand

a. Liver b. Thyroid gland
c. Pituitary gland d. Bulbourethral gland

189. Global warming is mainly due to increase of ………………….. in atmosphere

a. Oxygen b. Nitrogen oxide
c. Carbon dioxide d. Hydrogen

190. Who won Wimbledon 2016?

a. Roger Federer b. Novak Djokovic
c. Rafael Nadal d. Andy Murray

191. India’s first interplanetary mission (MOM) completed one year in the orbit around the
red planet on
a. 26th September 2015 b. 24th September 2015
th
c. 5 October 2015 d. 9th October 2015

192. Which India poet has written the Bangladesh Nation Anthem “Amar Shonar Bangla”
a. Sri Aurobindo b. Debendranath Tagore
c. Sarojini Naidu d. Rabindranath Tagore

193. Which one among the following vitamins is necessary for blood clotting?
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin C

194. Father of local self government in India is

a. Lord Mayo b. Acharya Vinobha Bhave
c. Mahatma Gandhi d. Lord Ripon

195. The International Institute for Population Science is located in

a. Kolkatta b. Mumbai
c. Delhi d. Thiruvanantapuram

196. ‘X-Rays’ were discovered by

a. Becquerel b. Roentgen
c. Marie Curie d. Van Lue

197. President is to country, as ........... is to State?

a. Chief Minister b. State Minister
c. Governor d. Lieutenant

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 22 of 23

 198. Which day is known as International Coffee Day?
a. 1st October b. 1st September
c. 1st November d. 1st December

199. The instrument used for finding out wind direction is:
a. Anemometer b. Wind wane
c. Wind gauge d. Hygrometer

200. The most fertile region of India is

a. Himalayas b. Indo-Gangetic plain
c. Central highlands d. Peninsular plateau

Question Booklet - Entomology Page 23 of 23

 QUESTION BOOKLET
Subject: PLANT BREEDING AND GENTICS
Post Applied for: ASSISTANT SPECIALIST Booklet No.

Name of the Candidate: ………………………………….

Date of Examination:
0 7 2 0 1 6

Signature of the Invigilator

Roll Number:

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet
before filling the Answer sheet
2. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for the test.
3. Write your name (in Capital letters), roll number, date and booklet number on the
question booklet and Answer sheet and sign at the appropriate place.
4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions for 200
marks (@ 1 mark per question) and the total time allotted is 2 hours. The correct answer will be
given one mark and for every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
5. Each objective question is followed by four options. Your task is to choose the correct answer
and write your answer on the answer sheet provided. DO NOT write your answer on the
Question Booklet.
6. Write your option/answer for each question legibly in the box provided next to the question in
the answer sheet. Writing the multiple answers within the same box or overwriting or corrections
made if any, will be treated as wrong answer.
7. Do not make any stray marks anywhere on the answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the answer
sheet. Rough work SHOULD NOT be done on the answer sheet.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones,
scanning devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in
possession of such unauthorized material, including copying or impersonation or adopting unfair
means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action.
9. After completing the examination, the candidate should write the total number of questions
answered and affix the signature in the space provided on the answer sheet. Then, hand over the
admit card, question booklet and the original copy of Answer sheet to the invigilator. The carbon
copy of the answer sheet may be obtained after due verification/signature by the Invigilator.
10. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination hall. If any
candidate is found carrying the booklet such candidates are liable to be disqualified.
11. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he/she has completed his/her paper. After
completion of the examination, all the candidates should remain seated until all booklets and
answer sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination
hall.
*****

Question Booklet - Plant Breeding and Genetics Page 1 of 21

1. The dwarfing genes in rice that contributed to green revolution is
a. Dee-Geo-Woo-Gen b. sd 1/sd 2
c. Norin 10 d. Rht 1

2. What is the Scientific name of Banana

a. Musa paradisiaca b. Musa sativa
c. Musa aestivum d. Mangifera indica

3. Which of the following is the most commonly used for chromosome doubling
a. Colchicine b. Nitrous oxide
c. Callous culture d. Anther culture

4. The mechanism/s favouring maize as an allogamous crop species is

a. Dicliny b. Dichogamy
c. Both a & b d. Neither a nor b

5. Which are the parental lines of pepper variety Panniyur -1

a. Karimunda and Aimpiriyan b. Uthiramkotta x Cheriyakanikkadan
c. Karimunda and Uthiramkotta d. Uthiramkotta and Aimpiriyan

6. The genetic constitution of a single cross F1 hybrid of a cross-pollinated crop is

a. Heterozygous & homogenous b. Heterozygous &heterogenous
c. Homozygous & Homogenous d. Homozygous &Heterogenous

7. Frequency of individuals with the genotype AAbbCC that are expected to be obtained from a
mating between two tri-hybrid (AaBbCc) individuals is
a. 1/32 b. 1/64
c. 1/27 d. 1/8

8. Which of the following increases heterozygosity

a. Random mating b. Phenotypic disassortative mating
c. Genetic disassortative mating d. Both b & c

9. The breeding method employed by Norman E. Borloug to develop multiline varieties

in wheat was
a. Pedigree method b. Bulk method
c. Single seed descent method d. Back cross method

10. Which among these is a hybrid coconut developed by CPCRI, Kasargod

a. Kalpa sankara b. Kalpa sree
c. Kalpa surya d. Kalpajyothi

11. Chasmogamy is the evolutionary mechanism that ensures self-pollination in

a. Rice b. Sunflower
c. Groundnut d. Chickpea

12. The concept of progeny test was proposed by

a. Le Couteur b. Gardner
c. Vilmorin d. Johhannsen

Question Booklet - Plant Breeding and Genetics Page 2 of 21

13. Which component of transcribed RNA in eukaryotes is present in the initial transcript but is
removed before translation
a. Introns b. 3’ Poly A tail
c. Exons d. Codons for protein to be produced

14. In a triplet code, three RNA bases code for

a. One amino acid b. Three amino acids
c. Three amino acids d. Many amino acids

15. Mutation breeding can be used to achieve which of the following

a. Induced desirable mutant alleles b. Improve a specific character
c. Improve polygenic traits d. All the above

16. Which type of onion varieties have good storage capacity

a. Yellow skin varieties b. White skin varieties
c. Red skin varieties d. All the above

17. The process of transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another bacterium through
a virus/vector is known as
a. Lysogeny b. Transformation
c. Transduction d. Conjugation

18. Pusa Rasraj is a

a. Pure line variety of muskmelon b. Hybrid variety of muskmelon
c. Hybrid variety of watermelon d. Seedless variety of watermelon

19. Kufri Chandramukhi is the variety of which of the following

a. Potato b. Sweet Potato
c. Cauliflower d. Vegetable Peas

20. Inflorescence in sugarcane is referred to as

a. Panicle b. Spike
c. Spadix d. Arrow

21. The alleles controlling self-incompatibility in crops is a classic example for

a. Polygenic inheritance b. Cytoplasmic inheritance
c. Gene interaction d. Multiple allelism

22. “Origin of species” was wriiten

a. Charles Darwin b. Gregor Mendel
c. J B S Haldane d. Mather

23. The process that does not lead to natural evolution is

a. Mutation b. Selection
c. Migration d. Crossing over

24. The largest number of mutant varieties have been developed in which of the following crops
a. Pulses b. Cereals
c. Cash crops d. Oil seeds

Question Booklet - Plant Breeding and Genetics Page 3 of 21

25. Ambrapali Mango variety is a cross between
a. Dashereri x Neelum b. Dashereri x Totapari
c. Bombay x Kallapady d. Neelum x Chausa

26. Which of the following aneuploids is most commonly used?

a. Monosomics b. Trisomics
c. Nullisomes d. All the above

27. Allogamy is also known as

a. Self pollination b. Cross pollination
c. Autogamy d. None of the above

28. Protected areas of genetic diversity under natural conditions are called as
a. Gene pool b. Gene sanctuaries
c. Gene junction d. Gene microcenters

29. Narrow genetic base of crop cultivars due to the use of limited germplasm is referred to as
a. Genetic vulnerability b. Genetic erosion
c. Genetic advance d. Acclimatization

30. 15:1 ratio in F2 is found under

a. Masking gene action b. Duplicating gene action
c. Innhibitory gene action d. None of the above

31. Papain is obtained from

a. Mango b. Bel
c. Papaya d. Ficus spp.

32. Who discovered structure of DNA (Double helix model of DNA)

a. Martin and Synge b. Muller
c. Watson and Crick d. N. E. Borlaug

33. In hybrid seed production, availability of male-sterility system eliminates the process of
a. Selection b. Emasculation
c. Hybridization d. Progeny testing

34. Aberrations involving changes in whole chromosomal complement of a crop species is

called as
a. Aneuploidy b. Euploidy
c. Monosomy d. Tetrasomy

35. The term ideotype was proposed by which of the following Scientist?
a. Donald b. Rasmusson
c. Jenning d. Allard

36. The law of parallel variation was proposed by

a. NI Vavilov b. Otto Frankel
c. Kimura d. Harlan

Question Booklet - Plant Breeding and Genetics Page 4 of 21

37. Which of the following is a pre-requisite for crop improvement?
a. Allogamy b. Easy pollination control
c. Cytoplasmic male sterility d. Genetic variability

38. Gene-for-gene hypothesis of disease resistance was proposed by Flor for which of the
following systems?
a. Wheat-wheat stem rust b. Flax-flax rust
c. Potato-potato late blight d. Bean-bean anthracnose

39. Which of the following types of male sterility has been exploited in the hybrid seed
production of Pennisetum glaucum?
a. Genetic b. Cytoplasmic-genetic
c. Chemically induced d. Transgenic

40. Heterosis is mainly the result of which of the following?

a. Dominance and epistatic interactions b. G × E interactions
c. Over dominance d. Pleiotropic effect of genes

41. Genetic polymorphism occurs when there is selection for which of the following?
a. For recessive homozygote b. Against heterozygotes
c. For dominant homozygote d. In favour of heterozygotes

42. ‘Conventional hybrids’ are represented by which of the following crosses?

a. Single crosses b. Double crosses
c. Three-way crosses d. All of the above

43. The concept of super-rice was proposed by which of the following scientists?
a. D. S. Barar b. M. S. Swaminathan
c. E. A. Siddique d. G. S. Khush

44. Which of the following varieties was developed through marker-assisted selection?
a. Improved Sambha Mahsuri b. Vivek QPM 9
c. Improved PB 1 d. All of the above

45. For the improvement of polygenic trait, which of the following method is expected to be the
most effective?
a. Recurrent selection b. Back cross
c. Pure line selection d. Pedigree method

46. Near isogenic lines are usually developed by which of the following breeding methods?
a. Single seed descent b. Backcross
c. Continued inbreeding d. Mutagenesis

47. Which of the following has been responsible for extinction of biodiversity?
a. Introduction of foreign species b. Habitat destruction
c. Infrastructure development d. All of the above

Question Booklet - Plant Breeding and Genetics Page 5 of 21

48. In case of species propagated asexually, germplasm is represented by which of the
following?
a. Seed b. Vegetative propagules
c. Pollen grain d. Zygotic embryos

49. In Dihybrid cross how many different types of genotypes are produced in F2
a. 3 b. 4
c. 9 d. 8

50. Adventive embryos occur naturally in which of the following?

a. Mango and citrus b. Guava and citrus
c. Mango and apricot d. Citrus and apple

51. Each anther has how many pollen sacs?

a. One b. Two
c. Four d. Three

52. The ploidy level of the microspores is

a. Diploid b. Haploid
c. Tripliod d. Tetraploid

53. The phenomenon of gene interaction was first described by which of the following
scientists?
a. Morgan b. Bateson and Punnett
c. Watson and Punnett d. Bateson

54. Line × tester analysis is a good approach for screening germplasm on the basis of which of
the following?
a. GCA and SCA variances b. GCA and SCA effects
c. GCA and SCA variances and effects d. Per se performance of hybrids

55. Bartlett’s test is used to test which of the following?

a. Homogeneity of variances b. Heterogeneity of variances
c. Additive effect of genes d. Both (b) and (c)

56. Sterilty in distant hybrids may be due to which of the following?

a. Lack of chromosome pairing b. Lethal genes
c. Cytoplasm of alien species d. All the above

57. The concept of pureline was proposed in 1903 by which of the following scientists?
a. Vilmorin b. Johannsen
c. Hallet d. Cooper

58. Agar – agar is obtained from

a. Red algae b. Green algae
c. Yellow algae d. All of the above

59. Among the given breeding methods, which one is the oldest method of selection?
a. Recurrent selection b. Ear-to-row selection
c. Mass selection d. Mass-pedigree selection

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60. Meiosis does not occur in
a. Spore mother cells b. Apical cells
c. Zygospore d. None of the above

61. In a random mating population, selection cannot achieve, which of the following?
a. Increase in gene frequency b. Increase in genotype frequency
c. Fixation of an allele d. Increase in mean performance of
population
62. Intervarietal hybridisation is also called as
a. Interspecific hybridization b. Distant hybridisation
c. Intraspecific hybridization d. Intergeneric hybridization

63. For accurate genetic studies, which of the following emasculation methods will be suitable?
a. Self-incompatibility b. Male Sterility
c. Hand emasculation d. Hot water treatment

64. In transgressive breeding, which is the most relevant consideration for the choice of parents?
a. Genetic diversity b. Per se performance
c. Combining ability d. Both (a) and (c)

65. The chief purpose of emasculation is

a. To prevent selfing b. To promote seed purity
c. To promote seed set d. To prevent outcrossing

66. Which of the following does not concern with horizontal resistance?
a. Race non-specificity b. Polygenic control
c. Reduced reproduction rate d. None of the above

67. The process under which genes do not show independent segregation is called
a. Linkage b. Mutation
c. Heritability d. None of the above

68. Which of the following is not a quantitative character

a. Plant height b. Colour
c. Protein content d. Yield

69. The fertilization, in which the entry of pollen tube into the ovule through the funiculus is
known as
a. Acrogamy b. Mesogamy
c. Chalazogamy d. Porogamy

70. The chromosome number of Coffea arabica, one of the cultivated species of coffee is
a. 22 b. 44
c. 11 d. 33

71. ANOVA was defined by

a. Pearson b. Howzard
c. Ebberhart d. Fisher

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72. The Central Agricultural University is located at
a. Manipur b. Hyderabad
c. Bangalore d. Chennai

73. Profit maximization is the objective of which farming system?

a. Peasant farming b. State farming
c. Capitalistic Co-operative farming d. Co-operative farming

74. Which of the following fertilizers are not produced in India

a. Nitrogen b. Potassium
c. Phosphorous d. Gypsum

75. The enzyme responsible for the fixation of CO2 in mesophyll cells of C4 plant is:
a. Malic enzyme b. Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
c. Carbonic acid anhydrase d. RuBP carboxylase

76. Botanically pineapple fruit is:

a. Sorosis b. Balusta
c. Berry d. Poem

77. ‘Roughing’ is performed to:

a. Control of disease in plants b. Control of weeds from crops
c. Removal of plants other than the d. None of the above None of the above
desired ones

78. CIMMYT is working mainly for

a. Wheat b. Maize and wheat
c. Rice d. Cotton

79. Haploids are having:

a. Somatic chromosome number b. Small chromosome
c. Very long chromosome d. Gametic chromosome number

80. In order to supply 40:30:40 kg Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P2O5) & Potash (K2O)
respectively how many kg of Urea, DAP & Potash are required.
a. 61, 66, 67 b. 87, 63, 67
c. 71, 68 , 67 d. 62, 70, 67

81. Which one can be called as Dry farming?

a. When rainfall received is less then 1000 b. When rainfall received is less then
mm 500 mm
c. When rainfall received is less then 750 d. When rainfall received is less then
mm 1500 mm

82. Most commonly followed method of planting of blackgram in India is:

a. Direct seeding in rows b. Transplanting on raised seed beds
c. Direct seeding in puddle beds d. Transplanting in standing water in
puddle fields

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83. The edible part in cauliflower is called as?
a. Panicle b. Bolt
c. Curd d. Caryopsis

84. In India, the most common method of irrigating crops is?

a. Drip b. Sprinkler
c. Check Basin d. Border strip

85. Which of the following is the biennial vegetable?

a. Cucumber b. Tomato
c. Carrot d. Chilli

86. The father of modern biology is?

a. Aristotle b. Lamarck
c. Mendel d. Darwin

87. A soil may be called as alkaline when the pH of the soil is more than
a. 6.5 b. 7.0
c. 5.5 d. 5.0

88. Which insect of mango has quarantine importance?

a. Hoppers b. Mealy bugs
c. Fruit fly d. None of these

89. Which of these is a cultural method for controlling insects?

a. Crop rotation b. Quarantine
c. Window screens d. Sex pheromone traps

90. In which insect, ovipositor is modified into spine?

a. Hoppers b. Thrips
c. Wasp d. Termites

91. Which is not a measure of dispersion?

a. Mode b. Range
c. Mean deviation d. Standard deviation

92. In null hypothesis, the chi – square is

a. 1 b. 0
c. 2 d. 3

93. The coefficient of variation (C.V) is calculated by the formula

a. (Mean / S.D.) x 100 b. S.D. / Mean
c. (S.D./ Mean) x 100 d. Mean / S.D.

94. Correlation coefficient ‘ r ’ lies between

a. 0 and 1 b. -1 and 1
c. -1 and 0 d. 0 and 2

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95. The relationship between Arithmetic mean (A), Harmonic mean (H) and geometric mean
(G) is
a. G2 = AH b. G = A + H
2
c. H = GA d. A2 = GH

96. X2 test is applied to

a. Quantitative observations b. Qualitative observations
c. In both the cases d. None of the above

97. As a general rule, the number of classes in the frequency distribution should be about
a. 30 b. 15
c. 18 d. d06

98. The best measure of Dispersion / Spread is

a. Coefficient of variation b. Standard Deviation
c. Both a and b d. None of the above

99. Which is used to measure the average relationship between two or more variables?
a. Regression b. Correlation
c. Both a and b d. None of the above

100. Repeated application of treatments

a. Randomization b. Local control
c. Replication d. All of the above

Directions for question 101 - 104: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error
in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the
answer.
101 (a) The ministry of Labour conducts its basic survey (b) on trade unions each year (c)
gathering information with all (d) labour unions as of June 30.
102 (a) He telephoned from a public call – box (b) so that the call (c) would not be traced (d)
to his own address
103 (a) We were happy that (b) the audience responded well (c) and gave all the speakers (d)
a patiently listening
104 (a) The limitations and constrains with which (b) we have been managing our work (c)
have been duly realized (d) by our superiors

Directions for question 105 to 107: In each sentence below four words that the printed in
bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt or
inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or
inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer.
105 In our opinion these (a) norms are not (b) applicant in this (c) kind (d) of situation.
106 As per your (a) request this is a (b) detail list of our (c) basic (d) requirements.
107 Though the government (a) initiated a large (b) sum of money in the (c) scheme, it was
a (d) failure.

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Directions for questions 108 to 111: In each of the following sentences there are two blank
spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c)
and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the
same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
108. A company can __________ the potential of its employees _______ various training
programmes.
a. emphasise, for b. exploit, from
c. enhance, through d. appraise, by

109. A good management will decide not only the __________ for equipment but also its
______ for deciding priorities.
a. need, urgency b. usefulness, utility
c. cost, value d. requirement, necessities

110. If the system _________ to yield the desired result, try to ______ the whole procedure in
the given sequence.
a. entitles, dump b. ignores, reproduce
c. fails, reoperate d. imitates, generate

111. We must _____ according to the situation as we wear _____ clothes during winter.
a. observe, pretty b. plan, plain
c. change, warm d. appear, attractive

Directions for questions 112-116: In each of the following questions, out of the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word

112. FEIGN
a. elaborate b. pretend
c. drag d. condone

113. AMBITION
a. expectation b. desire
c. aspiration d. goal

114. BROWSE
a. strike b. examine
c. deceive d. heal

115. AUDACIOUS
a. obvious b. daring
c. manifest d. venture

[Link]
a. beautiful b. sweet
c. talented d. shy

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Directions for questions 117-121: In each of the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word
117. BRIDGE
a. divide b. bind
c. release d. open

118. NADIR
a. progress b. liberty
c. zenith d. modernity

119. CONCEAL
a. unfold b. reveal
c. open d. discover

120. UNREALISTIC
a. natural b. visionary
c. reasonable d. actual

121. ELUDE
a. pursue b. to escape
c. quicken d. mock

Directions for questions122 to 125: In each of the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
122. Custom of having many wives
a. Monogamy b. Bigamy
c. Polygamy d. Matrimony

123. To cause troops etc. to spread out in readiness for battle

a. Align b. Collocate
c. Deploy d. Disperse

124. The policy of extending a country’s empire and influence

a. Imperialism b. Capitalism
c. Internationalism d. Communism

125. The short remaining end of a cigarette

a. Stump b. Stub
c. Rag d. Scrap

Directions for questions 126 to 129: In each of the following questions, an idiomatic
expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which
best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb
[Link] the skin of one’s teeth
a. Hardly b. In time
c. Hurriedly d. Only just

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127.A chip off the old block
a. A piece of wood b. An old friend
c. Characteristics of one’s ancestors d. A good bargain

[Link] on
a. To comment b. To criticize
c. To keep on talking d. To keep on insulting

129. To hit below the belt

a. To work confidently b. To harm unfairly
c. To strike at the exact position d. To hit the correct mark

Directions for the questions 130-133: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been
given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one
which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice
130. Someone gave her a bull dog
a. She was given a bull dog b. A bull dog was given to her
c. She has been given a bull dog d. She is being given a bull dog
by someone
131. A stone struck me on the head
a. I was struck by a stone on the head b. My head was struck by a
stone
c. I had been struck by a stone on the head d. I was struck on the head by a
stone
132. You must look into this matter
a. This matter has been looked into by you b. This matter may be looked
into by you
c. This matter should be looked into by you d. This matter into looked by
you
133. Darjeeling grows tea
a. Tea grows in Darjeeling b. Tea is grown in Darjeeling
c. Let the tea be grown in Darjeeling d. Tea is being grown in
Darjeeling
Directions for questions 134-137: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been
given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which
best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech
134. He said to her, “Are you coming to the party”?
a. He asked her weather she was coming to b. He told her if she was
the party coming to the party
c. He asked her if she was coming to the d. He asked her if she will be
party coming to the party

135. He said, “I clean my teeth twice a day.”

a. He said that he cleaned his teeth twice a b. He said that he cleans his
day teeth twice a day
c. He said that he used to clean his teeth d. He said that he is used to
twice a day cleaning his teeth twice a day

Question Booklet - Plant Breeding and Genetics Page 13 of 21

136. He said, “Where shall I be this time next year!”
a. He asked that where should he be that b. He wondered where he
time next year should be that time the next
year
c. He contemplated where shall he be that d. He wondered where he
time the following year would be that time the
following year

137. He asked his teacher, “Need I read this chapter”?

a. He asked his teacher whether there was a b. He asked his teacher whether
need to read that chapter he needed to read this chapter
c. He asked his teacher if it was necessary d. He asked his teacher if he
to read this chapter had to read that chapter

Directions for questions 138 to 141: In each of the following questions, a word has been
written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word.
138. a. Exemple b. Exampel
c. Example d. Exampal

139. a. Sedantry b. Sedentery

c. Sedentary d. Sedantary

140. a. Aproched b. Aproached

c. Appraoched d. Approached

141. a. Scriptur b. Skripture

c. Scripture d. Scripcher
Directions for questions 142-145:In this type of questions, you are provided with the first
and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labelled (P),
(Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a complete
meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination

142. (1) When I reached my office

(P) to get home early
(Q) I phoned my mother
(R) that I wouldn’t be able
(S) to tell her
(6) as I had promised
a. PQRS b. QSRP
c. QSPR d. RPSQ

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143. (1) The department has initiated steps
(P) from the corporate sector
(Q) to evolve appropriate schemes
(R) and financial institutions for
(S) for mobilizing investment
(6) the development of wastelands.
a. PRSQ b. QPSR
c. QSPR d. RPSQ

144. (1) Paintings

(P) have been
(Q) which were submitted
(R) totally ruined by rain
(S) for the exhibition
(6) last night.
a. PQRS b. PRQS
c. QRPS d. QSPR

145. (1) Though Indian sportsmen

(P) who accompanied them
(Q) the large number of
(R) did not set many records in Seoul Asiad
(S) officials and politicians
(6) did set a record of sorts.
a. PRQS b. QSRP
c. PRQS d. SPRQ

Directions to questions 146-150 : Comprehension: Read the following passage and answer
the questions
In modern times Abraham Lincoln stands as the model of a compassionate statesman.
He showed this quality not only in striving for the emancipation of the American blacks but in
the dignity with which he conducted the American Civil War.
Lincoln did not fancy himself as a liberator. He thought it would be better for all if
emancipation was a gradual process spread over many years. He proposed compensation for
slave-owners in US bonds and grants for the rehabilitation of blacks-‘colonization’ as he called
it. But fate was to deem otherwise. The haste with which the south wanted to break away from
the Union with the North, compelled him to move faster than he expected. Perhaps more than
most men of his time he had thought through the issue of slavery. ‘We must free the slaves’, he
said, ‘or be ourselves subdued’. Before reading his first draft of the Proclamation of
Emancipation, he told his colleagues, ‘In giving freedom to the slaves, we assure freedom to the
free’.
On September 22, 1862, Lincoln set his hand on the Proclamation of Emancipation
declaring that on the first day of January 1863, all persons held as slaves within any state, ‘shall
be then, and forever free’.
Lincoln’s revulsion for the slavery left him without any moral indignation or passion
against the slave-owners. The guilt of the slave-owners, he felt, should be shared by the whole
country, the North and the South, for it seemed to him that everyone in the nation was an

Question Booklet - Plant Breeding and Genetics Page 15 of 21

accomplice in perpetuating that system. To have whipped up any hatred against slave-owners
would, to him, have been an act of malice.
I shall do nothing in malice; he wrote, ‘what I deal’ with is too vast for malicious
dealing; As the Civil War was coming to a successful conclusion, a Northerner demanded of
Lincoln: ‘Mr President, how are you going to treat the southerners when the war is over?’
Lincoln replied, ‘As of they never went to war’.
When the news came of the victory of the Northern against the confederate forces,
someone suggested that the head of the confederation Administration, Jefferson Davies, really
ought to be hanged. ‘Judge not, that ye be not judged’, Lincoln replied. As to the demand for the
prosecution of rebels, Lincoln replied. We must extinguish our resentments if we expect
harmony and union. This was his last recorded utterance.

146. What came in Lincoln’s way of carrying out emancipation as a gradual process?
a. His proposition to give grant for b. His own over-enthusiasm to complete the
the rehabilitation of slaves. process fast.
c. The inadequate compensation d. The haste of the south to break away from
given to slave-owners. the union with the North.

147. The sentence ‘In giving freedom ................ to the free’ means:
a. If we give freedom to the slaves, b. If we do not give freedom to the slaves,
they will serve us better. they will free themselves.
c. By freeing the slaves, we are d. By freeing the slaves, we are safe-guarding
honouring the concept of freedom. our own interests.

148. The term ‘colonisation’ as used in the passage means:

a. Handling over slaves to the slave- b. Efforts made by American blacks to free
owners. themselves.
c. Making separate dwelling d. None of the above.
arrangements for slave-oweners.

149. Which of the following make Abraham Lincoln a compassionate statesman?

a. His hesitation in striving for b. His efforts to force the American blacks
emancipation of American blacks. from slavery.
c. His indifference in conducting the d. None of the above.
American Civil War.

150. The incidents in the passage prove that Lincoln was:

a. Not an administrator. b. Sympathetic and kind-hearted statesman.
c. Afraid of the majority of slaves. d. Unduly concerned for the safety of rebels.

Directions for the questions 151 – 200: Choose the right answer from the given options
151. Indian luger Shiva Keshavan won a silver medal at the Asian Championship 2015. The
tournament was organized in which of the following countries?.
a. Chaina b. Japan
c. South Korea d. Thailand

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152. Which of the following scheduled commercial bank has entered into an agreement with
railways to become the first ever Non-IRCTC platform to sell online railway tickets?
a. SBI b. Axis bank
c. ICICI d. PNB

153. Jordan Spieth, who made headlines for his achievements in 2015, is a player of which of
the following sports?
a. Snooker b. Golf
c. Basketball d. Pro-Boxing

154. On which of the following days, National Good Governance day is observed in India?
a. 15th March b. 25th December
c. 23rd January d. 1st July

155. Who among the following has been chosen for the prestigious CK Nayudu lifetime
achievement award for 2015?
a. Kapil Dev b. Dilip Vengsarkar
c. Salim Durani d. Syed Kirmani

156. Which of the following shipyards has become India’s first licensed shipyard to make LNG
ships?
a. Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) b. Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL)
c. Garden Reach Shipbuilders and d. Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL)
Engineers Limited (GRSE)

[Link] one of the following multi-sectoral development programmes for minorities for
upgrading skills and training in preservation of traditional ancestral arts / crafts was
launched recently?
a. Hamari Dharohar b. Nai Manzil
c. USTAAD d. Nai Umeed

158. The Constitution of India (100th Amendment) Act, 2015 deals with:
a. Right to Fair Compensation and b. Motor Vehicles
Transparency in land Acquisition,
Rehabilitation and Resettlement
c. Land Boundary Agreement d. Mines and Minerals
between India and Bangladesh

159. Kambala and Jallikattu, the two traditional and cultural practices belong to which of the
following set of states?
a. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh b. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
c. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu d. Kerala and Tamil Nadu

160. A Judicial Committee to look into the implementation of One Rank One Pension (OROP)
scheme for the ex-Servicemen has been appointed by the government. The committee will
be headed by
a. A. P. Shah b. Vijay L. Kelkar
c. L. Narasimha Reddy d. B. N. Srikrishna

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161. Which of the following country was recently affected by the tropical cyclone “Melor”?
a. Philippines b. South Korea
c. Mexico d. Oman

162. Who among the following has written the book titled –‘Flood of Fire’?
a. Salman Rushdie b. Amitav Ghosh
c. Arundhati Roy d. Jhumpa Lahiri

163. For what purpose, Operation Smile – II will be launched across India?
a. To aware people about sanitation b. To eliminate poverty
c. To track missing children d. To provide free education to SC/ST
students

164. The next Commonwealth summit CHOGM 2018 will be held in which of the following
countries?
a. United Kingdom b. India
c. Australia d. Malta

165. Name the vaccine which is being used in injectable inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)
programme in India?
a. Swasth IPV vaccine b. Bharat IPV vaccine
c. Desh IPV vaccine d. Shan IPV vaccine

166. The first metal tool was discovered by man was used for?
a. Pot-making b. Clearing jungles
c. House-building d. Making wheels

167. The Indus Valley Civilization was not spread over:

a. Egypt b. Greece
c. Ceylon d. Mesopotamia

168. Relics of Buddha are preserved in a

a. Vihara b. Stupa
c. Chaitya d. Monastery

169. The Monolithic image of Jain Saint ‘Gomatiswara’ is at

a. Sravanabelgola b. Mount Abu
c. Kusinagara d. Kalinga
170. Kancheepuram is in which of the following state?
a. Tamil Nadu b. Karnataka
c. Kerala d. Andhra Pradesh

171. Who built Char Minar?

a. Quli Qutb Shah b. Ibrahim Qutb Shah
c. Ali Adil Shah d. Ibrahim Adil Shah

172. Who was the first Indian to become the member of British Parliament?
a. Badruddin tyyabji b. Dadabhai Naoroji
c. W. C. Banerjee d. Pandit Motilal Nehru

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173. Who among the following was selected as the President of All-India Khilafat Conference
when it met in Delhi in 1919?
a. Motilal Nehru b. Mahatama Gandhi
c. M. A. Jinnah d. ShaukatAli

174. Which is considered as the oldest civilization of the world?

a. Egyptian Civilization b. Harappan Civilization
c. Greek Civilization d. Mesopotamia Civilization

175. When was the NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) formed for defence against
Soviet Union?
a. 1939 b. 1942
c. 1949 d. 1950

176. The oldest mountain in India are:

a. Nilgiri hills b. Aravalis
c. Vindhyas d. Satpuras

177. The length of India’s coastline is about:

a. 5500 km b. 6000 km
c. 7000 km d. 7500 km

178. Which state has largest coastline in India?

a. Gujarat b. Tamil Nadu
c. Karnataka d. Andhra Pradesh

179. The Karakoram Highway connects which of the following pairs of countries?
a. India – Nepal b. India – China
c. India – Pakistan d. China – Pakistan

180. Which one of the following countries has the longest international boundary with India?
a. Bangladesh b. Bhutan
c. China d. Pakistan

181. An Election Commission in India is creation of the:

a. Constitution b. Executive order
c. Statutes d. Extra-constitutional

182. The first general election in India was held in:

a. 1949 b. 1950
c. 1951 d. 1953

183. The power of the Election Commission are given in which of the following Articles of
Constitution?
a. 286 b. 356
c. 324 d. 382

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184. The Panchayati Raj System was adopted to:
a. Make people aware of politics b. Decentralize the power of Democracy
c. Educate the peasants d. None of the above

185. Which of the following is incorrect in respect to Local Government in India?

a. According to the Indian b. 30% seats in local bodies are reserved
Constitution local government for women
is not an independent tier in
the federal system
c. Local government finances are d. Elections to local bodies are to be
to be provided by a determined by a Commission
commission

186. Which was the capital of Andhra state when it was made a separate state in 1953?
a. Guntur b. Kurnool
c. Nellore d. Warangal

187. The concept of Five Years Plan in India was introduced by?
a. Lord Mountbatten b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Indira Gandhi d. Lal Bahadur Shastri

188. Unemployment which occurs when workers move from one job to another job is called:
a. Seasonal unemployment b. Frictional unemployment
c. Cyclic unemployment d. Technological unemployment

189. Which of the following groups suffer the most from inflation?
a. Debtors b. Creditors
c. Budiness class d. Holders of Real Estates

190. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is
a. Solar energy b. Nuclear energy
c. Hydropower d. Wind energy

191. Which of the following is a source of methane?

a. Wetlands b. Foam Industry
c. Thermal Power Plants d. Cement Industry

192. Photo bleeding means

a. Photo cropping b. Photo placement
c. Photo cutting d. Photo colour adjustment
193. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2?
a. 100 b. 110
c. 120 d. 180

194. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on

a. Primary data only b. Secondary data only
c. Both a and b d. None of the above

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195. RAM stands for
a. Really Accessable Memory b. Real Access Memory
c. Random Available Mode d. Random Access Memory

196. Where was the first computer installed in India

a. Indian Statistical Institute b. Indian Institute of Management
c. Indian Institute of Science d. Indian Institute of Statistics

197. Which Indian State is the largest producer of Soyabeans?

a. Rajasthan b. Gujarat
c. Uttar Pradesh d. Madhya Pradesh

198. Which State is known as India’s Spice Garden..?

a. Kerala b. Karnataka
c. Bihar d. Uttaranchal

199. Which bird lays the world’s smallest egg?

a. Hornbill b. Bee Humming bird
c. Gulls d. Woodpecker

200. Which of the following types of light are majorly absorbed by plants
a. Violet and orange b. Indigo and yellow
c. Yellow and violet d. Blue and red

Question Booklet - Plant Breeding and Genetics Page 21 of 21

 QUESTION BOOKLET

Subject: PLANT PATHOLOGY

Post Applied for: ASSISTANT SPECIALIST Booklet No.
Name of the Candidate: …………………………...
Date of Examination: 0 7 2 0 1 6

Roll Number: Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet
before filling the Answer sheet
2. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for the test.
3. Write your name (in Capital letters), roll number, date and booklet number on the
question booklet and Answer sheet and sign at the appropriate place.
4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions for 200
marks (@ 1 mark per question) and the total time allotted is 2 hours. The correct answer will be
given one mark and for every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
5. Each objective question is followed by four options. Your task is to choose the correct answer
and write your answer on the answer sheet provided. DO NOT write your answer on the
Question Booklet.
6. Write your option/answer for each question legibly in the box provided next to the question in
the answer sheet. Writing the multiple answers within the same box or overwriting or corrections
made if any, will be treated as wrong answer.
7. Do not make any stray marks anywhere on the answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the answer
sheet. Rough work SHOULD NOT be done on the answer sheet.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones,
scanning devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in
possession of such unauthorized material, including copying or impersonation or adopting unfair
means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action.
9. After completing the examination, the candidate should write the total number of questions
answered and affix the signature in the space provided on the answer sheet. Then, hand over the
admit card, question booklet and the original copy of Answer sheet to the invigilator. The carbon
copy of the answer sheet may be obtained after due verification/signature by the Invigilator.
10. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination hall. If any
candidate is found carrying the booklet such candidates are liable to be disqualified.
11. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he/she has completed his/her paper. After
completion of the examination, all the candidates should remain seated until all booklets and
answer sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination
hall.
*****

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 1 of 22

Directions for the questions 1 to 100: Choose the right answer from the given options
1. The bacterial cell wall is made up of
a. Peptides b. Glycosides
c. Peptidoglycan d. Cellulose

2. The epidemiology and disease cycle of stem rust of wheat in India was studied by
a. Mehta, K. C. b. Mundkur, B. B.
c. Payak, M. M. d. Luthra

3. Foul smell of wheat grains infected by stinking smut is due to

a. LSD b. Aflatoxin
c. Trimethylamine d. Cytokinin

4. Bacteria as causal agent of plant disease was first reported by

a. N. A. Cobb b. Anton de Bary
c. T. J. Burill d. Adolf Mayer

5. Red onion is resistant to smudge due to presence of

a. Silicon b. Proline
c. Methyl amine d. Protocatechuic acid

6. Coffee leaf rust is caused by

a. Fusarium sp. b. Hemileia vastatrix
c. Puccinia graminis d. Colletotrichum sp.

7. In bacteria, plasmid can be eliminated by treating with

a. Crystalviolet dye b. Acridine dye
c. Malachite green d. Nigrosin

8. Karnal bunt pathogen is

a. Tilletia foetida b. Tilletia caries
c. Neovossia indica d. Neovossia horrida

9. Which of the following is the first step for the activation of defense response in plant
against the invading plant pathogen?
a. Recognition b. Elicitation
c. Signaling d. Deposition
10. Downy mildew of sunflower was reported for the first time in India from
a. Maharashtra b. Tamil Nadu
c. Karnataka d. Andhra Pradesh

11. The process of reduction in horizontal resistance in course of breeding for vertical
resistance is called
a. Vertifolia effect b. Vertical effect
c. Horizontal effect d. Breeding effect

12. Pinwheel inclusion bodies are developed in the cytoplasm of plant cells infected by
a. Potexvirus b. Tobamovirus
c. Potyvirus d. Bromovirus

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 2 of 22

13. Saucer shaped ascocarp is
a. Pycnium b. Perithecium
c. Cleistothecium d. Apothecium

14. Motile spore of fungi is called as

a. Zoospore b. Oidium
c. Aplanospore d. Oospore

15. Concentric ring or target-board symptoms found in diseases caused by

a. Phytophthora b. Alternaria
c. Cercospora d. Pyricularia

16. Covering tomato nursery with nylon net is followed for the control of
a. Bacterial wilt b. Leaf curl
c. Root knot d. Fruit rot

17. A cushion shaped stroma covered with conidiophore is

a. Synnamata b. Acervulus
c. Sporodochium d. Rhizoid

18. With regard to nutrition, Erysiphe is

a. Ectoparasite b. Endoparasite
c. Both a and b d. None of these

19. BLITECAST – a predictive model was developed for epidemics of

a. Early blight of potato b. Early blight of tomato
c. Late blight of potato d. Paddy blast

20. Gram positive bacteria belong to the group

a. Firmicutes b. Gracilicutes
c. Tenericutes d. None of these

21. Tomato spotted wilt virus is transmitted by

a. Thrips tabaci b. Aphis gossypii
c. Bemisia tabaci d. Mite

22. Outbreak of a disease over a large area of population is known as

a. Sporadic b. Endemic
c. Epidemic d. Pandemic

23. Leaf puckering as a result of different growth rates in adjoining tissue is

a. Savoying b. Intumescence
c. Sarcody d. Phyllody

24. The genome of maize streak virus is

a. dsDNA b. ssDNA
c. dsRNA d. ssRNA

25. Acid fast staining is used to identify

a. Xanthomonas b. Cynobacterium
c. Bacteriophage d. Mycobacterium
Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 3 of 22
26. The activity of antagonistic fungi is more in
a. Sick soil b. Suppressive soil
c. Non-suppressive soil d. Normal field soil

27. The microscopy in which the differences in the refractive index between bacterial cell
and surrounding medium is exploited is
a. Phase contrast b. Dark field
c. Interference d. Polarization

28. Sedimentation coefficient of a virus is the rate of sedimentation per unit centrifugal
field measured in
a. Sedimentation units b. Sucrose gradient units
c. Swedberg units d. Wycoff units

29. ‘Spermatisation’ mode of sexual reproduction is seen in

a. Puccinia b. Rhizopus
c. Pythium d. Synchytrium

30. In 1918 the book, Fungi and diseases in plants was written by
a. E. J. Butler b. Mundkur
c. Beijerinck d. Prasad

31. Dienes stain is used for detection of which of the following plant pathogen?
a. Nematodes b. Phytoplasmas
c. Virus d. Protozoa

32. A mycotoxin produced by Aspergillus flavus in groundnut and cereals is known as

a. Flavotoxin b. Biocide
c. Teflatoxin d. Aflatoxin

33. The name of the bacteria generally used in genetic engineering for transfer of character
from one organism to another is
a. Fusarium udum b. Plasmopara viticola
c. Agrobacterium tumefaciens d. None of these

34. Mixed cropping of cotton and moth bean reduces the incidence of dry root rot of cotton
due to
a. Low temperature b. Low temperature & high moisture
c. High moisture d. High temperature

35. The gene for gene concept of disease resistance and susceptibility in 1946 is given by
a. Kuhn b. Burill
c. Flor d. Stanley

36. The rust fungi completing their life cycle on one host are called?
a. Autoecious fungi b. Heteroceous fungi
c. Avirulent fungi d. Cleistothesian fungi

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 4 of 22

37. A chemical or physical agent that prevents multiplication of bacteria without killing
them is known as?
a. Bacteriophage b. Bacterium
c. Bacteriostatic d. None of these

38. Cf-9 is a resistance gene found in

a. Potato b. Tomato
c. Rice d. Brinjal

39. The spores normally seen on the promycelium of rust fungi is?
a. Basidiospores b. Aeciospores
c. Uredospores d. Teleutospores

40. The adjacent cell of the same fungal hypha brought in to communication with each
other by means of loops is known as
a. Clamp connection b. Appressorium
c. Capsid d. Cleistothecia

41. Pathogens that exploit the living cells for nutrients i.e., rusts, powdery mildews, viruses
etc., are called as
a. Biotrophs b. Chemosterilants
c. Biotype d. None of the these

42. ‘Propiconazole’ belongs to group

a. Triazole b. Organophosphate
c. Benzimidazole d. Carbamate

43. The causal organism for the ‘tikka’ disease in groundnut is

a. Cercospora personata b. Cercospora musae
c. Alternaria padwickii d. Albugo candida

44. A bacterium which lacks flagella is categorized as

a. Atrichous b. Lophotrichous
c. Peritrichous d. Amphitrichous

45. Bactericidal substances produced by certain strains of bacteria and active against other
strains of the same and closely related species is
a. Bacteriostatic b. Antibody
c. Bacteriocins d. Siderophore
46. International Plant Protection Convention (IPPC) was established in the year ……..
a. 1989 b. 1952
c. 1992 d. 1995
47. Bunchy top of banana is transmitted by
a. Aphid b. Beetle
c. Leaf hopper d. Mealy bugs

48. The father of soil solarisation is

a. Robinson b. Katan
c. Miller d. Patel
Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 5 of 22
49. Recognition of the elicitor protein by the host plant leads to
a. Disease development b. Defense response
c. Susceptibility d. Non of the above

50. The best crop management practice to eradicate soil borne diseases is
a. Crop rotation b. Crop protection
c. Mixed cropping d. Trap cropping

51. Loranthus, a plant phanerogamic parasite is disseminated by

a. Birds b. Soil
c. Water d. None of these

52. Ring spot of sugarcane is caused by

a. Fungus b. Virus
c. Phytoplasma d. Protozoa

53. The process of killing pathogens or other organism on the surface of plants is termed as
a. Disinfection b. Disinfestant
c. Disinfectant d. None of the above
54. Dispersal of plant pathogens brought about by animals is
a. Anemochory b. Zoochory
c. Anthropochory d. Hydrochory
55. The first organic mercurial fungicide developed in 1915 was
a. Ceresan b. Germisan
c. Uspulum d. Tillantin
56. Which one of the following substances plays an important role in biochemical defense
of host plants ?
a. Mycotoxin b. Phytoalexin
c. Pathotoxin d. Vivotoxin

57. Proteinaceous infectious particles without nucleic acids are known as

a. Viroids b. Virusoids
c. Prions d. Virions

58. Population of a host in which all individuals have a particular character of resistance in
common is known as
a. Immunity b. Pathodeme
c. Durable resistance d. General resistance

59. Pathogen losses its virulence completely or partially due to repeated sub-culturing or
during storage is called
a. Curing b. Mutation
c. Attenuation d. Alteration

60. Colletotrichum infecting sugarcane crop produces which of the following asexual
fruiting body?
a. Pycnidium b. Acervulus
c. Sporodochium d. Synnemata

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 6 of 22

61. Eliminating the pathogen from infected areas is termed as
a. Eradication b. Frenching
c. Fagging d. None of the above

62. Heavy accumulation of which of the following substance in the appressorium increases
the turgor pressure of an appressorium
a. Glycerol b. Lactic acid
c. Saponins d. All of the above

63. When a plant showed the partial resistance against all the races of pathogen then it is
called as
a. Vertical resistance b. Vanderplank effect
c. Horizontal resistance d. Immune resistance
64. Fungicide group containing salts of various metals such as zinc and manganese is
a. Benzimidazole b. Dithiocarbamate
c. Organophosphate d. Guanidines

65. Metalaxyl is known to effective towards lower fungi (Oomycetes) by interfering with
a. Activity of RNA
b. Protein synthesis
polymerase
c. DNA denaturase d. None of these

66. Identification of fungi can be made based on

a. Spores b. Mycelium characteristics
c. Fruiting bodies d. All the above

67. The black rot of cabbage (Xanthomonas campestris) pathogen generally enter host
through
a. Lenticell b. Hydathode
c. Wound d. Stomata

68. The antibiotic, which was first demonstrated by Flemming in 1929 is

a. Penicillin b. Streptomycin
c. Tetracyclin d. Gliotoxin
69. The Bordeaux mixture was discovered by Millardet at Bordeaux in France in the year
a. 1882 b. 1863
c. 1901 d. 1936
70. Which of the following fungicides is commonly known as Kittleson’s Killer?
a. Bavistin b. Propiconazole
c. Captan d. Mancozeb

71. The study of relationship between soil properties and plant production is known as
a. Soil science b. Agronomy
c. Edaphology d. Pedology

72. The depth of the seedling in wheat depends on the length of

a. Mesocotyl b. Radicle
c. Coleoptile d. Plumule

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 7 of 22

73. Indian Seed Act was enacted in the year
a. 1961 b. 1971
c. 1966 d. 1976

74. Blast of rice is a …….... disease

a. Viral b. Bacteria
c. Fungal d. Deficiency of zinc

75. Which of the following does not apply to SRI method of paddy cultivation?
a. Reduced water application b. Reduced plant density
c. Increased application of d. Reduced age of seedlings
chemical fertilizers

76. The Indian state, which is the largest producer of saffron is

a. Maharashtra b. Rajasthan
c. Jammu & Kashmir d. Tamilnadu

77. Segregation of gene occurs in:

a. F1 generation b. F2 generation
c. Gamete formation of F1 d. F3 generation

78. Which of the following is not a characteristic of dryland crop?

a. Potential for high yield b. Potential for high yield
c. High water requirement d. High water requirement

79. A year in which rainfall of a particular place is short by more than ------- is known as
drought year
a. Twice the mean deviation b. Twice the mean deviation
c. Twice the median d. Twice the median

80. The broad beds and furrows method is suitable for

a. Sandy soil b. Sandy soil
c. Black soil d. Black soil

81. When all the pores are filled with water and the soil is said to be saturated this
condition is termed as:
a. Maximum water holding b. Field capacity
capacity
c. Water holding capacity d. None

82. Which oil contains maximum linoleic acid:

a. Safflower b. Groundnut
c. Cotton d. Mustard

83. The scientist who is considered as the father of Taxonomy is?

a. Mendel b. Darwin
c. Linnaeus d. Lamark

84. The process through which energy is released by plants?

a. Transpiration b. Respiration
c. Photosynthesis d. None of these
Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 8 of 22
85. The crop also sown for green manuring is?
a. Safflower b. Sorghum
c. Green gram d. Mustard

86. First KVK of India was established at?

a. Hyderabad b. Nagpur
c. Chennai d. Pondicherry

87. The organization related to export of Agricultural processed produce is

a. FCI b. APEDA
c. NABARD d. CACP

88. Which of the following insecticide has fumigant action?

a. DDVP b. Malathion
c. Cypermethrin d. Dimethoate

89. If one gram of pesticide formulation containing 50 % active ingredient is mixed with 1
litre of water, then what will be concentration of the active ingredient in the spray
fluid?
a. 5 ppm b. 50 ppm
c. 500 ppm d. 5000 ppm

90. Following fungus is effective on root grubs

a. Fusarium sp. b. Beauveria sp.
c. Nomuraea rileyi d. Mettarrhizium anisopliae

91. If fertility variation in the field is in two directions at right angles, which of the
experimental design is suitable.
a. CRBD b. RBD
c. Latin Square d. Split Plot

92. Correlation coefficient is,

a. More than + 1 b. Less than – 1
c. Lies between – 1 and + 1 d. None of the above

93. Coefficient of variation is useful for comparing,

a. Comparison between b. Same population
different populations
c. Both of the above d. None of these

94. In an experimental plot 7 rows were sown with 50 cm row spacing and 5 m length,
while harvesting one row on either side of the plots were discarded. The net plot size
will be;
a. 2.0 x 5.0 m b. 2.5 x 5.0 m
c. 4.0 x 5.0 m d. 3.5 x 5.0 m

95. In a field experiment the net plot size was 2.5 x 4.0 m and the yield were recorded in
kg. What is the conversion factor for q /ha.?
a. 10 b. 100
c. 1000 d. 50
Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 9 of 22
96. In a fertilizer trial 40 kg N / ha. has to be applied to the plot of 10.00 sq. m. area. What
quantity of Urea is needed?
a. 95 g b. 87 g
c. 98 g d. 115 g

97. Standard deviation is

a. Expressed in the same unit b. Free from unit of measurements
of measurements
c. It is in percentage d. None of these

98. The randomization of treatments in the field experiment is essential

a. As statistical procedures b. To average out the effects of
hold good when environment differences
randomization is done
c. For comparison of d. None of the above
treatment effects

99. Local control helps in

a. Reducing the experimental b. Homogeneity of experimental units
error
c. Both of the above d. None of the above

100. Basic principles of filed experiments are s

a. Randomization b. Replication
c. Local control d. All of these

Directions for the questions 101 to 104: Read each sentence to find out whether there is
any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of
that part is the answer.
101. My daughter never (a) would write to me (b) so I never know (c) what she is doing (d)
102. Nowadays, the cost of living (a) is so high that (b) people find it difficult(c) to make
both ends meeting (d)
103. Nothing ever becomes real (a) till it is experienced (b) Even a proverb is no proverb to
you (c) till your life has illustrated with it. (d)
104. The house where the dead man was found (a) is being guarded by police (b) to prevent
it from being entered (c) and the evidence interfered with. (d)

Directions for the questions 105 to 107: In each sentence below four words that the
printed in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly
spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is
wrongly spelt or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer
105. The government has ready (a) adopted (b) many recommendations (c) of the
Narasimhan Committee on banking sector reforms (d)
106. The guidelines (a) of the new scheme (b) are expected (c) to be finally (d) soon
107. In case of any land dispute (a) Panchayat officials (b) will determine (c) how the
property is to be dividend (d)

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 10 of 22

Directions for the questions 108 to 111: In each of the following sentences there are two
blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers
(a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the
sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

108. We are proud to say that today _____________ 26 per cent of our total accounts are
_________ by women and senior citizens.
a. approximate, held b. nearly, authorized
c. over, maintain d. around, operated

109. Although religion does not ______________ the acquisition of wealth, the tenor of its
teaching is to _____________ an attitude of indifference to worldly things.
a. proclaim, prohibit b. inhibit, induce
c. manifest, proud d. delink, develop

110. If we study the lives of great men we are _________ that we too can achieve
greatness and when we die, we leave behind our _____________
a. convinced, children b. reminded, footmarks
c. conveyed, followers d. commended, belongings

111. India’s _____________ over the past half century since independence has been unique
and ______________ in many ways.
a. thinking, feeling b. development, commendable
c. victory, celebrating d. crash, overbearing

Directions for the questions 112 to 116: In each of the following questions, out of the
given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word
112. CANDID
a. Rude b. Impertinent
c. Blunt d. Frank

113. PROGNOSIS
a. Identification b. Preface
c. Forecast d. Scheme

114. EFFACE
a. Wipe out b. Weaken
c. Insult d. Repair

115. STAID
a. Depressive b. Sedate
c. Backward d. Dull

116. PLACID
a. Clear b. Calm
c. Enjoyable d. Dull
Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 11 of 22
Directions for the questions 117 to 121: In each of the following questions, choose the
word opposite in meaning to the given word.
117. CULPABLE
a. Irresponsible b. Careless
c. Blameless d. Defendable

118. DENOUNCE
a. Defend b. Gather
c. Fight d. Rally

119. VILIFY
a. Commend b. Pray
c. Admonish d. Worship

120. MORBID
a. Healthy b. Clever
c. Upright d. Sickly

121. DEFIANCE
a. Dismay b. Suspicion
c. Obedience d. Anxiety

Directions for the questions 122 - 125: In each of the following questions, out of the
four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given
words/sentence.
122. A person living permanently in a certain place
a. Native b. Resident
c. Domicile d. Subject

123. Relationship by blood or birth

a. Parentage b. Affiliation
c. Consanguinity d. Nepotism

124. A person who makes love without serious intentions

a. Consort b. Philanderer
c. Romeo d. Goon

125. One who cannot die

a. Stable b. Immortal
c. Perpetual d. Perennial

Directions for the questions 126 - 129: In each of the following questions, an idiomatic
expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one
which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb
126. To be at loggerheads
a. To have tough encounter b. To be at enmity or strife
c. To face stiff opposition d. To tax one’s mind & body
Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 12 of 22
127. To give up the ghost
a. To die b. To make false appearance
c. To terrify others by acting d. To leave useless pursuits
in suspicious manner

128. To lose one’s head

a. To go mad b. To become nervous
c. To become confused and d. To lose the balance
over excited

129. To be at daggers drawn

a. To be frightened b. To be ready to face danger
c. To threaten one d. To be bitter enemy

Directions for the questions 130 to 133: In each of the following questions, a sentence
has been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested
select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice

130. They are building a house next door to our school.

a. Next door to our school a b. Next door to our school is being built a
house is being built by house by them.
them.
c. A house next door to our d. A house is being built by them next
school is being built by door to our school.
them.

131. Who is creating this mess?

a. Who has created this b. By whom has this mess been created?
mess?
c. By whom this mess is d. By whom is this mess being created?
being created?

132. A lion may be helped even by a little mouse.

a. A little mouse may even b. Even a little mouse may help a lion.
help a lion.
c. A little mouse can even d. Even a little mouse ought to help a lion.
help a lion.

133. The noise of the traffic kept me awake

a. I remained awake by the b. I was kept awake by the noise of the
noise of the traffic traffic
c. I was kept awakened by d. The traffic kept me awake by the noise
the noise of the traffic

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 13 of 22

Directions for the questions 134 - 137: In each of the following questions, a sentence has
been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the
one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech
[Link] said to Gaurav, “Will you help me in my work just now?”
a. Pinky asked Gaurav if he b. Pinky questioned to Gaurav that will
would help her in her work you help me in my work just now.
just then.
c. Pinky told Gaurav whether d. Pinky asked to Gaurav that will he help
he will help her in her her in her work just now.
work just now.

135. Sarita said to me, “I will do it now or never.”

a. Sarita told me that I would b. Sarita told me that she would do it now
do it then or never. or never.
c. Sarita told me that she will d. Sarita told me that she would do it then
do that now or never. or never.

136. She said to him, “why don’t you go today?

a. She said to him that why b. She asked him if he was going that day.
he don’t go today.
c. She asked him why he did d. She asked him why he did not go that
not go today. day.

137. He said to me, “Where is the post office?

a. He wanted to know where b. He asked me that where the post office
the post office was. was.
c. He asked me where the d. He asked me where was the post office.
post office was.

Directions for the questions 138 - 139: In each of the following questions, a word has
been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the
correctly spelt word.
138. a. Sacrilegeous b. Sacrilegious
c. Sacriligious d. Sacreligious

139. a. Delinquescent b. Deliquecent

c. Deliquescent d. Delinquesent

Directions for the questions 140 to 141: Out of the given group of words choose the mis-
spelt word

140. a. Lonesome b. Lovely

c. Ludicruous d. Logical

141. a. Handicraft b. Hand bar

c. Handkerchef d. Handicap

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 14 of 22

Directions for the questions 142 to 145: In this type of questions, you are provided with
the first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts
labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a
complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination.
142. (1) After a laborious life
(P) and moved to the quiet village where he was born
(Q) most of which he had spent in the metropolis
(R) and where he intended to spend
(S) he retired in his old age
(6) his remaining years
a. QRPS b. QSPR
c. SPQR d. SQPR

143. (1) Though the exact dimensions

(P) involved in the rocket
(Q) and the precise amounts
(R) it is clear that such a large scale operation
(S) are yet to be ascertained
(6) could not have been possible without the connivance of officials at various levels
a. PSRQ b. QPSR
c. RQPS d. SPRQ

144. (1) Inspite of repeated attempts,

(P) in the dictionary
(Q) and finally had to ask his teacher
(R) he could not locate
(S) the strange – looking word
(6) what it meant
a. PQRS b. SPQR
c. QRSP d. RSPQ
145. (1) If the sovereignty
(P) of the people and their elected representatives,
(Q) and the unity
(R) in the hands
(S) of a country is not safe
(6) it cannot be safe in any other hands
a. PQRS b. QSRP
c. RPQS d. SRPQ

Directions for the questions 146 to 150: Comprehension : Read the passage and answer
the following questions

Agriculture dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and
product markets. It employs 60 per cent of the labour force and contributes 26 per cent of
the gross domestic product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is
close to 40 per cent. Low productivity in agriculture has led to the concentration of poor in
this sector. Due to the sheer size of the agricultural economy and the importance of its
major products (cereals) in the diets of poor, gains in agriculture productivity have
Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 15 of 22
significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as
well as expand the domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in
agriculture and spreading its gains among the low-income groups. Modelling of the
linkages between agricultural & industrial growth has shown that the 10 per cent increase in
agricultural output would increase industrial output by 5% & urban workers would benefit
by both increased industrial employment & price deflation. However, there is an
asymmetry of adjustments in the demand and supply of agricultural goods. An increase in
non-agricultural production would lead to an immediate increase in demand for
intermediate and final agricultural goods, whereas supply-side adjustments involving
reallocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take a much
longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand
stimulus for industrialization would come mainly from agriculture with less social and
economic costs.

Inter-dependencies in food and labour market are important for the development
process. An upward shift in the food supply curve would simultaneously result in an
upward shift in the labour demand curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends
on the technique of production causing the shifts in the food supply curve. Similarly, an
upward shift in the labour supply curve shifts up the food demand curve. The extent of
interdependence between the forces of labour supply and food demand depends on the
employment-output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for food. The recent
estimate of the employment output elasticity in agriculture is around 0.5, income elasticity
of food is in the range of 0.55 to o.50 and that for cereals is 0.25 to 0.30. The other
important interdependency which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is
that between food and other sectors through demand linkages. Since food accounts for a
major share in the budget of the poor and any reduction in the food price leaves a
significant proportion of income for other items, a lower food price stimulates employment
in industrial and service sectors. On the other hand, an increase in the food price would
increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of industrial products. In
the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency. Clearly,
the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand out-paces its supply
and food supply outpaces its demand.

Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of
subsistence living and the labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate.
Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would
be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is
compensated by the energy provided by food. Food-grain price usually determines the
subsistence wage rate in agricultural as well as in the urban informal sector since food-
grains accounts for about four-fifths of the calorie intake of the poor.

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 16 of 22

[Link] of the following, according to the passage, benefits do the urban workers get
from increased agricultural production?
i) Urban worker get agricultural products at a cheaper rate.
ii) Urban workers get more job offers in the agricultural sector
iii) Urban workers get more job offers in the industrial sector
a. i & ii only b. ii & iii only
c. i & iii only d. All i, ii & iii

[Link] of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘deflation’ as used in the
passage?
a. Reduction b. Index
c. Inflation d. Improvement

[Link] of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?
a. Increase in labour b. Agriculture sector can provide the
productivity in agriculture impetus for greater industrialization at
can reduce poverty. lower cost
c. Increase in food supply d. Concentration of low-income group
will increase the demand people is relatively higher in the non-
for labour forces. agricultural sector.

[Link] of the following, according to the passage, can lead to demand deficiency in
India?
a. Widespread import of b. Oversupply of agricultural products
food-grains
c. Increase in prices of d. Foresight in gauging the demand-
industrial products supply of labour

[Link] of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘interdependence’ as

used in the passage?
a. Correlated b. Dependence
c. Independence d. Interrelated

Directions for questions 151-200: Choose the correct answer from the given options
[Link] standard time is related to longitude of
a. 82.58oE b. 80.00oE
c. 82.00oE d. 90.00oE

[Link] East Monsoon gets rainfall mainly to which states

a. Assam b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Tamil Nadu d. Himachal Pradesh

[Link] Tea producing county in the world

a. China b. Kenya
c. India d. Sri Lanka

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 17 of 22

[Link] the visit of Prime Minister of India to China, agreements were signed on
establishment of sister cities between India and China. Which one of the following
WAS NOT one of them
a. Aurangabad and b. Chennai and Chongqing
Dunhuang
c. Guwahati and Kunming d. Hyderabad and Qingdao

[Link] UNESCO has designated ……….. as members of creative city network

a. Varanasi and Jaipur b. Hyderabad and Secendrabad
c. Hubli and Dharwad d. None

[Link] among the water bodies separate the Andaman and Nicobar Island
a. Eight Degree Channel b. Ten Degree Channel
c. Palk Strait d. Strait of Malacca

[Link] one of the following is NOT true of the post-World War global trading system?
a. GATT was signed in 1947 b. GATT was a forum for trade
negotiations among contracting parties
c. WTO replaced GATT as d. The Headquarters of WTO is located in
an interim forum Geneva

[Link] has been appointed as new CEO of National Institution for Transforming India
(NITI) Aayog?
a. Nandan Nilekani b. Bibek Debroy
c. Sindhushree Khullar d. Amitabh Kant

[Link] among the following was the author of the book ‘Advantage India-From
Challenge to Opportunity’?
a. Amratya Sen b. Vinod Rai
c. APJ Abdul Kalam d. T S Papola

[Link] of Western Rajasthan have a high content of:

a. Aluminum b. Calcium
c. Nitrogen d. Phosphorus

[Link] one of the following is not the means of enforcing responsibility upon the
cabinet?
a. Questioning Ministers b. Vote of censure
c. Call attention motion d. No confidence motion

[Link] economy means:

a. Co-existence of small and b. Promoting both agriculture and
large industries industries in the economy
c. Co-existence of public and d. Co-existence of rich and poor
private sectors

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 18 of 22

[Link] is a ball in cricket bounded by
a. Fast bowler bowling b. Leg spinner bowling with off spin
outside off stump action
c. Fast bowler bowling d. None of these
outside leg stump

[Link] of Space is located at

a. Hyderabad b. Allahabad
c. Bengaluru d. Delhi

[Link] designed National Flag of India

a. Bankimchandra Chatterji b. Rajendra Prasad
c. Pingali Venkayya d. None of these

[Link] year 2016 has been declared by the UN as the

a. International year of youth b. International year of pulses
c. International year of Bio d. International year of soil
diversity

[Link] 2015, India ranks out of 188 countries with a Human Index Value
a. 133 b. 130
c. 136 d. 140

[Link] which powers vested into it under article 142 of the constitution, Supreme Court
of India has recently appointed the Lokayukta in which of the following state?
a. Uttar Pradesh b. Bihar
c. Delhi d. Gujarat

[Link] June 2015, India’s Mars Orbiter Mission ‘Mangalyaan’ had a communication
break with the ISR Scientists for about a fortnight. Which of the following statements
with regard to that is/are correct?
1. The communication break occurred due to the positioning of Earth, the Sun &
Mars aligning themselves in one line
2. The Sun disrupts the radio transmissions between the two planets during the
alignment
3. During this period the Mangalyaan could not take any decision as there was no
signal from ISRO
a. 1 and 3 b. 1 only
c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 2 only

[Link] of the following committees has been recently submitted it’s report on ‘Possible
Tax rates under GST’?
a. Y V Reddy Committee b. C Rangarajan Committee
c. A P Shah Committee d. Arvind Subramanian Committee

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 19 of 22

[Link] became the first male member to be appointed in National Commission for
Women (NCW)?
a. Sunil Kanoria b. Ashok Chawla
c. Pahlaj Nihalani d. Alok Rawat

[Link] project is associated with the river:

a. Beas b. Ravi
c. Jhelum d. Sutlej

[Link] one of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental

Duties in the Constitution?
a. Barua Committee b. Ramaswamy Committee
c. Sikri Committee d. Swarn Singh Committee

[Link] sector got high rate of growth in its co-operative units?

a. Sugar b. Cotton Textile
c. Jute d. Cement

[Link] Gandhi’s famous Dandi March took place in the year

a. 1940 b. 1935
c. 1925 d. 1930

[Link] central path of an atom is called

a. Proton b. Nucleus
c. Neutron d. Electron

[Link] number of languages recognized by Indian constitution

a. 15 b. 22
c. 30 d. 10

[Link] to IMF, the Indian economy is expected to grow at how many percentage in
2016-17 fiscal
a. 7.0% b. 6.5%
c. 8.0% d. 7.5%

[Link] Chandela has qualified for Rio Olympic in which of the following sports?
a. Badminton b. Shooting
c. Boxing d. Weight Lifting

[Link] founded Aligarh Muslim University?

a. Mohammad Ali Jinnah b. Abdul Kalam
c. Syed Ahmed Khan d. Liaquat Ali Khan

[Link] is the general secretary of UN presently?

a. Barrack Obama b. Ban Ki-moon
c. B B Ghali d. Kofi Annan

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 20 of 22

[Link] initiative Transformative Carbon Asset Facility (TCAF) was launched by which of
the following organizations?
a. Uniited Nations b. World Bank
c. UNFCC d. G20

[Link] did COP (UNFCC) summit 2015 took place?

a. New Delhi b. London
c. Paris d. Bejing

[Link] one of the following sets of states stands to benefit the most from the Konkan
Railway?
a. Goa, Karnataka, b. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil
Maharashtra, Kerala Nadu, Kerala
c. Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, d. Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu

[Link] one of the following schedules in not directly related to the functioning of the
Indian Federal system?
a. First Schedule b. Second Schedule
c. Fourth Schedule d. Seventh Schedule

[Link] city is known as Electronic City:

a. Gurgaon b. Bangalore
c. Jaipur d. Salem (Tamil Nadu)

[Link] of the following countries has recently launched Dark Matter Particle Explorer
(DAMPE) satellite to shed light on mysterious dark matter?
a. Japan b. China
c. USA d. India

[Link] of Bel , which for nearly 2,000 years has been the centre of religious life in
Palmyra, was recently destroyed by the ISIS. Palmyra is a city of which of the
following country?
a. Turkey b. Iraq
c. Syria d. Lebanon

[Link] is the percentage of Swachh Bharat cess on services (as of 15 November 2015)?
a. 0.25% b. 0.50%
c. 0.75% d. 1.00%

[Link] of the following writs is issued by an appropriate judicial body in order to free a
person who has been illegally detained?
a. Quo Warranto b. Mandamus
c. Certiorari d. Habeas Corpus

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 21 of 22

191. CAPART is related with:
a. Assisting and evaluating b. Computer hardware
rural welfare programmes
c. Consultant service of export d. Controlling pollution in big industries
promotion
192.A rainy day as defined by the Indian Meteorological Department is a day when the
rainfall at a point received is:
a. 0.5 mm to 1.00 mm in 24 b. 1.1 mm to 1.50 mm in 24 hours
hours
c. 1.60 mm to 2.00 mm in 24 d. Above 2.50 mm in 24 hours
hours
[Link] Ray : Film : : Picasso : ?
a. Painting b. Drama
c. Poetry d. Literature
[Link] is the current Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh?
a. Nabam Tuki b. Dorjee Khandu
c. Gegong Apong d. Pema Khandu
[Link] of the following state in India has the largest area under forest?
a. Himachal Pradesh b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Assam d. Kerala
[Link] one of the following Indian state is the largest producer of natural rubber?
a. Tamil Nadu b. Assam
c. Kerala d. Karnataka
[Link] the early atmosphere of earth, before the origin of life, which one of the following
was not present?
a. Ammonia b. Free hydrogen
c. Free oxygen d. Methane
[Link] India which form of coal is mainly used in thermal power plants?
a. Anthracite b. Lignite
c. Bituminous d. Peat
[Link] one of the following is not an African country?
a. Cameroon b. Gabon
c. Yemen d. Mauritania
[Link] of the following determines that the Indian constitution is federal?
a. Written and rigid b. Distribution of powers between the
constitution centre and states
c. An independent judiciary d. Vesting of residuary powers with the
centre

Question Booklet – Plant Pathology Page 22 of 22

 QUESTION BOOKLET

Subject: PLANT TISSUE CULTURE & BIOTECHNOLOGY

Booklet No.
Post Applied for: ASSISTANT SPECIALIST

Name of the Candidate: ………………………………….
Date of Examination:
0 7 2 0 1 6

Signature of the Invigilator

Roll Number:

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
1. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet
before filling the Answer sheet
2. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for the test.
3. Write your name (in Capital letters), roll number, date and booklet number on the question
booklet and Answer sheet and sign at the appropriate place.
4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions for 200
marks (@ 1 mark per question) and the total time allotted is 2 hours. The correct answer will be
given one mark and for every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
5. Each objective question is followed by four options. Your task is to choose the correct answer
and write your answer on the answer sheet provided. DO NOT write your answer on the
Question Booklet.
6. Write your option/answer for each question legibly in the box provided next to the question in
the answer sheet. Writing the multiple answers within the same box or overwriting or corrections
made if any, will be treated as wrong answer.
7. Do not make any stray marks anywhere on the answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the answer
sheet. Rough work SHOULD NOT be done on the answer sheet.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones,
scanning devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in
possession of such unauthorized material, including copying or impersonation or adopting unfair
means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action.
9. After completing the examination, the candidate should write the total number of questions
answered and affix the signature in the space provided on the answer sheet. Then, hand over the
admit card, question booklet and the original copy of Answer sheet to the invigilator. The carbon
copy of the answer sheet may be obtained after due verification/signature by the Invigilator.
10. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination hall. If any
candidate is found carrying the booklet such candidates are liable to be disqualified.
11. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he/she has completed his/her paper. After
completion of the examination, all the candidates should remain seated until all booklets and
answer sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination
hall.
*****
Directions for the questions 1 to 100 : Choose the right answer from the given options
1. The model plant for biotechnological research is
a. Tomato b. Rice
c. Arabidopsis d. Corn

2. The Ti and Ri plasmids are found in the following bacteria

a. Bacillus b. Rhizobium
c. Agrobacterium d. Azospirullum

3. The concept of totipotency was proposed by

a. Nobecourt b. Gottlieb Haberlandt
c. White d. Miller

4. Generation of haploid plants from microspores was first demonstrated by

a. Cocking b. Guha and Maheswari
c. White and Went d. Skoog

5. The enzymes used in cutting DNA into smaller fragments are

a. Methylase b. Ligase
c. Restriction enzymes d. Polymerase

6. Reverse transcriptase enzymes is used in

a. cDNA synthesis b. RNA synthesis
c. Vector synthesis d. Virus synthesis

7. Electroporation is a technique of
a. Gene isolation b. Gene alteration
c. Gene transfer d. Gene identification

8. Blue/white selection method of identifying transformed colonies is based on the presence

of a gene called
a. Lac A b. Lac D
c. Lac X d. Lac Z

9. The bond that joins amino acids is

a. Disulphide bond b. Carboxyl bond
c. Peptide bond d. Glyceride bond

10. The enzyme used to join two heterologous DNA molecules from two different sources is
a. Protease b. Polymerase
c. Helicase d. Ligase

11. The term ‘Biotechnology’ was coined by

a. Charles Dickson b. Darwin
c. Karl Ereky d. Southern

12. The morphogenesis under in-vitro depends on the balance between

a. Auxin-Gibberllines b. Auxin-Cytokinins
c. Auxin- ABA d. Auxin-Vitamins

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 2 of 20

13. Human insulin formed by recombinant DNA technology is known as
a. H insulin b. Humulin
c. R insulin d. Hu insulin

14. The variations occurring in tissue culture raised plants are called
a. Mutations b. Somaclonal variations
c. Epigenetic variations d. Genetic variations

15. Virus free plants can be obtained by

a. Callus culture b. Meristem culture
c. Cell culture d. Sterilization

16. The following are known as ‘molecular scissors’ in molecular biology

a. Proteases b. Polymerases
c. Helicases d. Endonucleases

17. Production of shoot/ root in micro propagation is known as

a. Asepsis b. Organogenesis
c. Embryogenesis d. None

18. The first molecular marker system outlined was

a. RAPD b. SSR
c. RFLP d. AFLP

19. Commercially grown transgenic crop resistant to bollworms is

a. Bt Rice b. Bt Brinjal
c. Bt Cotton d. Bt Tomato

20. When the cell wall of a plant cell is removed it is called ________.
a. Protoplast b. Plant cell
c. Transgenic cell d. Changed cell

21. pBR322 is
a. Phage vector b. Phasmid vector
c. Cosmid vector d. Plasmid vector

22. Particle gun is also called as

a. Laser gun b. Neutron gun
c. Biolistic gun d. None

23. The cry 1A gene has been isolated from

a. Bacillus subtilis b. B. anthracis
c. B. spherus d. B. thuriengenesis

24. Golden rice is rich in

a. Iron b. Zinc
c. Pro vitamin A d. Vitamin C

25. The first patented genetically modified organism (GMO) was a

a. Virus b. Plant
c. Animal d. Bacteria

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 3 of 20

26. A nucleotide consists of the following groups
a. Sugar, base and phosphate b. Sugar and phosphate
c. Sugar and base d. Base and phosphate

27. Southern blot refers to the blotting of

a. DNA b. RNA
c. Protein d. Polysaccharides

28. The lac operon is functional in the presence of

a. Glucose b. Sucrose
c. Lactose d. Maltose

29. The initial product of photosynthetic CO2 fixation in C3 plants is

a. Phosphophenol pyruvate b. 3- phosphor glycerate
c. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate d. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate

30. BAC vectors can carry foreign DNA up to

a. 30 kb b. 200 kb
c. 10kb d. 100kb

31. The temperature for annealing during PCR is

a. 94-95Oc b. 72o C
c. 37-60oC d. 45 o C

32. The most commonly used gene transformation strategies in dicot plants is
a. Agrobacterium mediated b. Microinjection
c. Electroporation d. Gene Gun method

33. In cryo preservation plant material is frozen in Liquid nitrogen at a temperature of

a. - 4 OC b. -180 OC
O
c. -196 C d. - 296OC

34. The enzyme which removes negative supercoiling during DNA replication
a. Primase b. Helicase
c. Gyrase d. DNA polymerase

35. Vector designed to replicate in cells of two different species is

a. BAC b. Shuttle Vector
c. Plasmid Vector d. Phagemid

36. Chemical method of DNA sequencing is called

a. Sanger-Coulson method b. Maxam and Gilbert method
c. Craig method d. Bentley method
i.
37. The vector consists of a pair of plasmids of which one plasmid contains disarmed T-DNA
sequences, while the other contains vir region is known as
a. Binary vector b. Shuttle vector
c. Binding vector d. Silencing vector

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 4 of 20

38. The chemical used to prevent RNAase contamination during RNA isolation is
a. EDPC b. CPED
c. DEPC d. PCDE

39. High ratio of cytokinins to auxin in the growth medium favours

a. Root formation b. Callus proliferation
c. Shoot formation d. None of the above

40. A series of clones that contain overlapping pieces of DNA covering a specific region of a
chromosome or even the entire chromosome is referred to as
a. Chromosome b. Genome
c. Overlapping sequence d. Contig

41. The culture of whole organs is termed as

a. Organ culture b. Cell culture
c. Anther culture d. Protoplast culture

42. Factors contributing to somaclonal variation

a. No. of cycles of in vitro cultures b. Duration of in vitro culture
c. Explant source d. All of the above

43. Adenine pairs with Thymine with

a. 3 hydrogen bonds b. Glycosydic bonds
c. 2 hydrogen bonds d. Phosphodiester bonds

44. The number and sequence of bases in mRNA specifying an amino acid is known as
a. Exon b. Anti-codon
c. Recon d. Codon

45. Which of the following are the components of DNA?

a. Deoxyribose b. Phosphoric acid
c. Nitrogenous base d. All of the above

46. The occurrence of a chromosome segment more than once in the same chromosome or in a
genome is called
a. Deletion b. Inversion
c. Duplication d. Translocation

47. The DNA in which the base pair sequence can be read same in both the directions is called
a. Palindrome DNA b. Ct DNA
c. Satellite DNA d. Selfish DNA

48. Which of the following is a mode of replication?

a. Conservative b. Dispersive
c. Semi-conservative d. All of the above

49. The process that identifies genes, their regulatory sequences and their functions is called
a. Antitermination b. Annotation
c. Termination d. Bioconversion

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 5 of 20

50. A chemical that is added to rooting media to prevent/eradicate the root inhibiting agents is
a. Phytohormones b. Gibberellins
c. Activated charcoal d. Ethylene

51. Tonoplast is a membrane around

a. Cytoplasm b. Vacuole
c. Nucleus d. Mitochondia

52. The scientist, who had introduced the term ‘nucleic acid’ is
a. Flemming b. Muller
c. Altmann d. Benzer

53. The protein, which plays an important role in the process of protein folding is called
a. DNA helicase b. Chaperones
c. DNA ligase d. DNA polymerase

54. The initiation of DNA replication within a replicon always occurs at a fixed point called as
a. Replication fork b. Template
c. Initiation d. Origin

55. Among the following, the example for highly repetitive DNA is
a. Histone gene cluster b. DNA minisatelites
c. Alu element d. Dispersed repetitive DNA

56. Illegitimate recombination is another name for

a. Transposition b. Homologous recombination
c. Site-specific recombination d. Translation DNA synthesis

57. The enzyme that is responsible for transcription is

a. DNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase
c. Taq polymerase d. Endonucleases

58. The sequence that consists of self-complementary regions which form a stem loop/ hairpin
structure in RNA product is
a. Promoter b. TATA box
c. Terminator d. All of the above

59. A set of genes derived by duplication and variation from some ancestral gene constitutes a
a. Gene construct b. Gene fusion
c. Gene cloning d. Gene family

60. The scientist, who had worked out fine structure of gene through cis-trans
complementation test is
a. Takabe b. Jones
c. Benzer d. Shull

61. How many types of RNA polymerase were found in prokaryotes ?

a. 1 b. 3
c. 2 d. 4

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 6 of 20

62. The increase in the number of copies of a gene per genome of the organism in comparison
to that naturally present is called
a. Genetic imprinting b. Gene index
c. Gene amplification d. Gene pairing

63. The DNA strand that is used as template during transcription is called as
a. Antisense DNA b. CAP site
c. Antisense RNA d. CAT box

64. A series of DNA sequences fixed as distinct spots on a suitable solid support, such as a
glass chip is called as
a. Direct gene transfer b. DNA foot printing
c. DNA array d. DNA sequencing

65. An RNA copy of a gene is described as

a. RNA editing b. RNA splicing
c. RNA replicase d. RNA transcript

66. The science that deals with the molecular basis of inheritance and origin of variation, i.e.,
various genetic phenomena is known as
a. Molecular breeding b. Molecular genetics
c. Molecular farming d. Molecular marker

67. The Labelling of a gene by a marker gene or specific DNA sequence closely linked with
the gene in question is called
a. Gene therapy b. Gene translocation
c. Gene tagging d. Genetic code

68. A group of genes that are related by sequence homologies usually are also related by their
functions are called as
a. Multicistronic genes b. Multi-locus probes
c. Multi-gene family d. Multiple-cloning sites

69. The study of differences and similarities in genome structure and organization of different
organisms is called
a. Comparative genomics b. Positive eugenics
c. Functional genomics d. Positive euphenics

70. The chemical, which is used for breaking the plasma membrane during DNA isolation is
known as
a. DNAase b. RNAase
c. CTAB / SDS d. Helicase

71. Criteria for the essentiality of nutrient for plants was given by
a. Arnon b. Perkins
c. Arnold d. Mendel

72. Crossing over during meiosis results in

a. Help mutation b. Breaking linkage
c. Promoting linkage d. None of these

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 7 of 20

73. The vitamin that is called as “anti-sterility vitamin”
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin B

74. Clove is taken from which part of the plant

a. Fruit b. Root
c. Bud d. Stem

75. Who is the present Chairman of Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Right Authority
(PPV & FRA):
a. Dr R R Hanchinal b. Dr P L Gautam
c. Dr S Nagarajan d. Dr Swapan K Datta

76. Intensive Agricultural Development Programme was initiated in the year

a. 1960 b. 1964
c. 1971 d. 1952

77. Seed born disease of wheat is:

a. Covered smut b. Loose smut
c. Kernal bunt d. Black rust

78. Indian agriculture is characterized by:

a. Low productivity b. Subsistence farming
c. Labour dominance d. All the above

79. Short duration crop grown between two main crops is known as
a. Companion crop b. Catch crop
c. Inter crop d. Associated crop

80. Central Institute for Cotton Research is located at

a. Jodhpur, Rajasthan b. Nagpur, Maharashtra
c. Lucknow, U.P d. Simla, H.P

81. The practice of growing four crops in a year from same piece of land in such a way that
one crop is sown immediately after or just before the harvest of the previous crop called:
a. Double cropping b. Relay cropping
c. Intensive cropping d. Multiple cropping

82. ‘Farmers first' concept was proposed by

a. Paul Leagans b. Neils Rolling
c. Robert Chamber d. Vallabha Bhai Patel

83. ‘Vertisol’ is related to:

a. Red soil b. Laterite soil
c. Black soil d. Alluvial soil

84. Age of plants is determined by?

a. Annual growth rings b. CO2 emission method
c. O2 emission method d. None of these

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 8 of 20

85. Genes are composed of?
a. Proteins b. Lipids
c. RNA d. DNA

86. Which one of the following can check flower drop in crops?
a. Gibberelic acid b. Ethylene
c. Kinetin d. Auxin

87. High yielding dwarf varieties of wheat were developed by

a. Dr. B. P. Pal b. Dr. Norman E. Borlaug
c. Dr. E. W. Burton d. Dr. R. D. Asana

88. Bt cotton was released for commercial cultivation in India in the year
a. 2000 b. 2002
c. 2001 d. 2003

89. Chewing mouthparts are not found in

a. Thrips b. Crayfish
c. Millipedes d. Bees

90. Extensive artificial hybridization was first started by

a. Mendel b. Knight
c. Vilmorin d. Le Courteur

91. The simplest experimental design

a. CRD b. RBD
c. LSD d. Split plot

92. Which of the following was the first Indian experimental satellite
a. APPLE b. ARYABHATA
c. IRS – 1A d. RESOURCESAT

93. To study two factors with different level of precision , which design is used
a. Factorial RBD b. CRD
c. Split plot design d. RBD

94. The experimental design which provides maximum degree of freedom for error
a. RBD b. CRD
c. LSD d. SPD

95. The basic function of a good research design is to

a. Decrease experimental variance b. Maximize extraneous variance
c. Minimize error variance d. Explain metaphysical observations

96. Experimenter has the highest control in manipulation of variable in

a. Laboratory method b. Library method
c. Simulation method d. Field expeiriment

97. To study the average height of plants, we use

a. Mode b. Hormonic mean
c. Aritmetic mean d. Geometric mean

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 9 of 20

98. The measure of dispersion which ignores sign of deviation from the central value:
a. Range b. Quartile deviation
c. Standard deviation d. Mean deviation

99. Correlation coefficient is independent of :

a. Scale b. Origin
c. Both a and b d. Neither a and b

100. If ten treatments are there, how many blocks are needed to have a minimum error degree
of freedom of 12 in RBD
a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 4

Directions for the questions 101 to 104: Read each sentence to find out whether there is
any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that
part is the answer.
101. The ongoing merger among (a) the two companies will (b) have an adverse (c) impact
on consumers(d).
102. The government has introduced (a) a new law who forces (b) farmers to sell their
produce (c) only to licensed dealers(d).
103. There is a shortage (a) for qualified staff (b) in many software (c) companies in
India(d).
104. Our equipment gets damage (a) very often in summer (b) because there are (c)
frequent power cuts(d).
Directions for the questions 105 to 107: In each sentence below four words that the
printed in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly spelt
or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly
spelt or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer.
105. The next time your gym (a) instructor tells you to do some (b) stretching (c)
exersises before starting the (d) workout say no
106. The ministry’s (a) proposal for an (b) autonomous overarching (c) authority for
higher education and research was finally (d) approval.
107. In just one year Beena has (a) gained around eight (b) kilograms and doctors fear she
might be (c) prune to heart – related (d) ailments.

Directions for the questions 108 to 111: In each of the following sentences there are two
blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers (a),
(b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the
sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete

108. The prime minister, who is _____in his holiday home at the moment, said that he was
very ______by the news of India winning the World Cup.
a. visiting, happy b. residing, obliged
c. intruding, dejected d. staying, pleased

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 10 of 20

109. There can be no denying the fact that in sports, star coaches have the ______to get
something extra out of their ______
a. apprehension, work b. ability, teams
c. fear, member d. capability, house

110. The meeting had to be _________for _____of quorum.

a. conducted, completion b. cancelled, desire
c. held, lack d. postponed, want

111. Two _______of the committee were rejected because they were based on _____aspects.
a. members, superfluous b. recommendations, trivial
c. points, important d. reports, existing

Directions for questions 112-116: In each of the following questions, out of the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word
112. ZANY
a. magician b. pet
c. thief d. clown

113. VINDICATE
a. judge b. justify
c. argue d. explain

114. LAPIDARY
a. high – sounding b. abusive
c. dignified d. harmful

115. CAVALCADE
a. remission b. apprehension
c. procession d. division

116. BERSERK
a. frenzied b. urgy
c. irritating d. troublesome

Directions for questions 117 to 121: In each of the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word
117. BIZARRE
a. Soft b. usual
c. gentle d. same

118. CAPACIOUS
a. changeable b. foolish
c. caring d. limited

119. LEAP
a. plunge b. sink
c. immerse d. fall

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 11 of 20

120. LIABILITY
a. treasure b. debt
c. assets d. property

121. AGONY
a. pleasure b. bliss
c. ecstasy d. fear

Directions for questions 122- 125: Directions: In each of the following questions, out of
the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given
words/sentence.
122. Walking in sleep
a. Somniloquism b. Somnambulism
c. Obsession d. Hallucination

123. Line at which the earth or sea and sky seem to meet
a. Horizon b. Zenith
c. Fringe d. Plinth

124. Regard for others as a principle of action

a. Cynicism b. Nepotism
c. Philanthropy d. Altruism

125. Person who believes that God is everything and everything is God
a. Agnostic b. Theist
c. Pantheist d. Pantecnnicon

Directions for questions 126-129: In each of the following questions, an idiomatic

expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one
which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb
126. Something up one’s sleeve
a. A grand idea b. A secret plan
c. A profitable plan d. Something important

127. To keep the ball rolling

a. To earn more and more b. To work constantly
c. To keep the conversation going d. To make the best use of

128. French leave

a. Long absence b. Leave on the pretext of illness
c. Casual leave d. Absence without permission

129. To be up and doing

a. To recover from illness b. To be actively engaged
c. To progress satisfactorily d. To be expressive and explicit

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 12 of 20

Directions for questions 130-133: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been
given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one
which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice.
130. The clown was being laughed at by them.
a. They were laughing at the clown b. They were laughing on the clown
c. They laughed at the clown d. The clown was laughed at by them

131. I saw him leaving the house

a. He had been seen leaving the b. He was seen to be leaving the
house house
c. Leaving the house he was seen by d. He was seen leaving the house by
me me

132. We hope that we shall win the match

a. The match is hoped to be won b. Match winning is hoped to be won
c. It is hoped that the match will be d. Winning the match is hoped by us
won by us

133. It is time to ring the bell

a. It is time the bell rings b. It is being time to ring the bell
c. It is time for the bell to ring d. It is time for the bell to be rung

Directions for questions 134-137: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been
given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one
which best expresses the same sentence in indirect/direct speech.
134. He said to me, “What time do the offices close?”
a. He wanted to know what time the b. He asked me what time did the
offices close? offices close?
c. He asked me what time the offices d. He asked me what time the offices
closed? did close?

135. Gavaskar said, “Bravo! Azhar, you have done well.”

a. Gavaskar exclaimed with joy that b. Gavaskar called Azhar and
Azhar had done well exclaimed that he had done well
c. Gavaskar congratulated Azhar d. Gavaskar praised Azhar for his
saying that he had done well having done well

136. He said, “The mice will play, when the cat is away.”
a. He said that the mice will play b. He said that the mice would play
when the cat is away when the cat was away
c. He said that the mice would play d. He said that the mice shall play,
when the cat would be away when the cat is away

137. The manager said, “Well, what can I do for you?”

a. The manager asked what he could b. The manager wondered what he
do for him could do for him
c. The manager wanted to know what d. The manager said that he couldn’t
he could do for him do anything for him

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 13 of 20

Directions for questions 138-141: In each of the following questions, a word has been
written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word.
138. a. Brethoren b. Brethron
c. Brethren d. Brothren

139. a. Beligrent b. Beligerent

c. Belligrent d. Belligerent

140. a. Commettee b. Comitee

c. Comittee d. Committee

141. a. Corupt b. Curropt

c. Corrupt d. Currupt

Directions for questions 142-145: In this type of questions, you are provided with the first
and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts labelled
(P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a complete
meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination.
142. (1) I have not come
(P) even if it means some humiliation
(Q) but the boy must learn
(R) to complain, he said
(S) to be honest
(6) and admit he broke our window.
a. PRQS b. QSPR
c. RQSP d. SPRQ

143. (1) The little girl

(P) for the mother to leave
(Q) said to her friend
(R) little children on their own
(S) it was not quite right
(6) and go to work.
a. PRQS b. QSPR
c. RPSQ d. SQRP

144. (1) Western civilization is

(P) in its character that
(Q) national culture by affecting
(R) it is bound to influence every
(S) so powerful and so uniform
(6) its external way of life.
a. PRSQ b. QSRP
c. RQSP d. SPRQ

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 14 of 20

145. (1) He dared
(P) the forty thieves
(Q) to fight
(R) who
(S) challenged him
(6) to a duel.
a. PQRS b. QPRS
c. RSQP d. SPQR

Directions to questions 146-150: Comprehension: Read the following passage and answer
the questions
August 6, day Hiroshima was atom-bombed in 1945, symbolises at once man’s
nightmare and his greatest dream, the nightmare of a nuclear war, and the dream of genuine
and lasting peace. Beginning with the survivors of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, the awareness of
the danger and sentiment for disarmament and peace has become universal, transcending
national and ideological barriers. And yet more deadly nuclear weapons are being piled on top
of the heap that is enough to wipe out all traces of life from this planet. Forty years after
Hiroshima, there is no light at the end of the tunnel-only occasional flickers. The arms
limitation talks between the superpowers, who hold the key to disarmament and peace, have
yielded nothing so far.
The main responsibility for suppressing the nuclear threat is that of the superpowers.
However, other powers also have nuclear weapons and they must share the responsibility. And
not only they, but those nations which have or are developing nuclear capability must see the
issues in a longer term and larger perspective.
Nuclear war like peace is not divisible. Agreement on disarmament at the superpower
level is essential. But, it must be followed by similar agreements on the bilateral and regional
level, for all of us are in a sense the citizens of Hiroshima.

146. August 6, 1945 is an significant date in history because it was on this day that:
a. A peace treaty was signed b. The Second World War came to an
end.
c. A nuclear weapon was used for d. Japan surrendered to the allies.
the first time.

147. The atom bomb has produced a nightmarish effect on nations because of:
a. The possibility of destruction of b. It’s potential for unabashed arms
a whole civilization. race.
c. The threat to peace from the d. Their awareness of man’s
powers that could produce such defencelessness against such
weapons. weapons.

148. The super powers are trying to counter the dangers of a nuclear way by:
a. Discontinuing nuclear tests. b. Withholding financial aid to nations
trying to go nuclear.
c. Holding talks on peace and d. Trying to stop making nuclear
disarmament. weapons.

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 15 of 20

149. The author thinks that negotiations for the control of nuclear arms have made
a. Little progress b. Tremendous progress
c. Constructive suggestions d. Contingency plans to stop the
disaster

150. According to the author:

a. Superpowers alone should b. Developing nations should hold talks
shoulder the responsibility of for disarmament.
controlling nuclear arms.
c. Other powers that have nuclear d. A nuclear disarmament agreement at
capability should join hands the superpower level should be
with superpower to restrain followed by similar agreements at
potential nuclear powers. the bilateral and regional levels.

Directions for questions 151-200 : Choose the right answers from the given options
151. The Davis Cup 2015 has been won by which country?
a. Belarus b. Russia
c. Great Britain d. Belgium

152. India recently successfully launched Barak–8 missile, it is jointly developed by India and
which country?
a. Israel b. USA
c. Russia d. Germany

153. Who was the Chief Guest at 67th Republic Day parade of January 26, 2016?
a. Xi Jinping b. Francois Hollande
c. Angela Merkel d. Vladimir Putin

154. Which one of the following city hosted the second World Congress for Disaster
Management?
a. Vishakhapatnam b. Bhuj
c. Hyderabad d. New Delhi

155. Recently, Seventh Central Pay Commission has submitted its report to Government. Who
was its Chairman?
a. Bimal Jalan b. A. P. Shah
c. A. K. Mathur d. Kaushik Basu

156. What was the India’s rank in 2015 Global Hunger Index (GHI)
a. 55 b. 65
c. 70 d. 80

157. India’s first AMRIT pharmacy outlet was opened in which city?
a. Jaipur b. Raipur
c. New Delhi d. Nagpur

158. Basaveshwara – whose statue was unveiled by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in London
– was a famous philosopher in which of the following languages?
a. Tamil b. Kannada
c. Sanskrit d. Malayalam

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 16 of 20

159. Which of the following Indian state has hosted the first International Conference on
Gender Equality (ICGE) recently?
a. Kerala b. Telangana
c. Maharashtra d. Gujarat

160. What is the minimum and maximum investment allowed per person per fiscal year
(April-March) under Sovereign Gold Bond Schemes (SGBS) 2016?
a. 1 grams and 500 grams of b. 5 grams and 250 grams of physical
physical gold gold
c. 2 grams and 250 grams of d. 5 grams and 500 grams of physical
physical gold gold

161. Which among the following countries has introduced biometric visas to Indians?
a. USA b. Germany
c. France d. UK

162. Indian railways has launched an Alternative Train Accommodation Scheme, named as?
a. Vikalp b. Suvidha
c. Atithi d. Madad

163. The first visually challenged-friendly railways station in India is located in?
a. Kanpur b. Nagpur
c. Mangalore d. Mysuru

164. What is the India’s rank in World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business Report 2016?
a. 128 b. 130
c. 132 d. 134

165. Which bank introduces Maharaja Sayyajirao Bhasha Samman to a person who made
significant contribution to Hindi Language?
a. UCO Bank b. Punjab National Bank
c. ICICI Bank d. Bank of Baroda

166. The most common animal figure found at all the Harappan sites is
a. Cow b. Dog
c. Unihorn bull d. Tiger

167. The Svetambaras and Digambaras refer to two sects of

a. Jainism b. Saivism
c. Buddhism d. Vaishnavism

168. __________ was the mother of Vardhamana Mahavira.

a. Trishala b. Yasodhara
c. Kundhavi d. Mayadevi

169. Who was the first foreigner to invade India?

a. Agrammes b. Cyrus
c. Darius I d. Cambyses

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 17 of 20

170. Gujarat was traditionally known as
a. Saurashtra b. Konkan
c. Rann of Kutch d. Telangana

171. The Bhakti Movement was first organised by

a. Ramanuja b. Ramananda
c. Kabir d. Nanak

172. Who was the British PM at the time of Revolt of 1857?

a. Churchill b. Palmerston
c. Attle d. Gladstone

173. The Quit India Movement started at:

a. Delhi on Aug.15, 1942 b. Bombay on Aug. 8, 1942
c. Lahore on July 7, 1942 d. Wardha on Aug. 7, 1942
174. Who among the following was associated with the ‘Battle of Waterloo’ held in June
1815?
a. Hitler b. Napoleon
c. Bismarck d. Giuseppe Mazzini

175. The largest southern most single island in India is

a. Rameswaram island b. Minicoy island
c. Car Nicobar island d. Great Nicobar island

176. Kodaikanal, the famous hill station of South India is situated on :

a. Pulney hills b. Anamalai mountain
c. Nilgiri mountain d. Shevroy hills

177. Which among the following is major source of irrigation in India?

a. Canals b. Tanks
c. Tube wells and other wells d. Rivers

178. The state having the largest area under black soil is
a. Gujarat b. Maharashtra
c. Karnataka d. Andhra Pradesh

179. Election Commission in India is a :

a. Single member body b. Two member body
c. Three member body d. None of the above

180. Graduates constitute a separate constituency for the election of specified number of
members to the :
a. Nyaya Panchayath b. State Legislative Council
c. Rajya Sabha d. State Legislative Assembly

181. The powers of the Election Commission are given in which of the following Articles of
the constitution?
a. 286 b. 356
c. 324 d. 382

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 18 of 20

182. Which is at the apex of the three tier system of Panchayath Raj?
a. Gram Sabha b. Gram Panchayath
c. Zilla Panchayath d. Panchyath Samiti

183. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India makes specific mention
of village Panchayaths
a. Article 19 b. Article 21
c. Article 40 d. Article 246

184. Which of the following bodies finalises the five year plan proposals?
a. National Developmental b. Planning Commission
Council
c. Union Cabinet d. Minister of Planning
185. Which one of the following Five-Year Plans recognised human development as the core
of all developmental efforts
a. The Third Five-Year Plan b. The Fifth Five-Year Plan
c. The Sixth Five-Year Plan d. The Eighth Five-Year Plan

186. During whose prime ministership ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’ was launched?
a. P. V. Narasimha Rao b. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
c. H. D. Deve Gowda d. Dr. Manmohan Singh

187. Which state has smallest land area?

a. Goa b. Nagaland
c. Sikkim d. Tripura

188. In how many languages the denomination is printed on the language panel of a currency
note?
a. 15 b. 16
c. 17 d. 18

189. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research journal?
a. Impact factor b. h-index
c. g-index d. i10-index

190. Biomagnifications means increase in the

a. Concentration of pollutants in b. Number of species
living organisms
c. Size of living organisms d. Biomass

191. In which language the newspaper have highest circulation in India?

a. English b. Hindi
c. Bengali d. Tamil

192. Who is the current chairperson of IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change)?
a. R.K. Pachauri b. P.K. Agarwal
c. Hoesung Lee d. Rachel Carson

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 19 of 20

193. Recently which place in India has been announced as a World Heritage Site by
UNESCO
a. Taj Mahal b. Nalanda University
c. Qutub Minar d. Ajanta Caves

194. CD-ROM is a
a. Semiconductor memory b. Memory register
c. Magnetic memory d. None of the above

195. Recently, ISRO made India proud by launching ………satellites in a single flight.
a. 15 b. 10
c. 30 d. 20

196. On which riverbank is city Panaji located?

a. Ganga b. Mandovi
c. Gomati d. Sabarmati

197. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in?

a. United Kingdom b. United States
c. Australia d. Canada

198. Periodic table got how many new elements named recently?
a. 6 b. 2
c. 1 d. 4

199. Among the following cities, which one is at the highest altitude above mean sea level
a. New Delhi b. Mumbai
c. Jodhpur d. Bengaluru

200. “IUCN” stands for

a. International Unity on b. International Union for the
Community and Nationality Conservation of Nature and Natural
Resources
c. Inter-state Unity of Culture d. International Unit on Common
Nature Naturals

Question Booklet – Plant Tissue Culture and Biotechnology Page 20 of 20



QUESTION BOOKLET

Subject: AGRICULTURAL CHEMISTRY

Post Applied for: ASSISTANT SPECIALIST Booklet No.

Name of the Candidate: ………………………………….
Date of Examination:
0 7 2 0 1 6

Roll Number: Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Strictly follow the instructions given by the Invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet
before filling the Answer sheet
2. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for the test.
3. Write your name (in Capital letters), roll number, date and booklet number on the question booklet
and Answer sheet and sign at the appropriate place.
4. The test is of objective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 200 questions for 200 marks
(@ 1 mark per question) and the total time allotted is 2 hours. The correct answer will be given one
mark and for every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
5. Each objective question is followed by four options. Your task is to choose the correct answer and
write your answer on the answer sheet provided. DO NOT write your answer on the Question
Booklet.
6. Write your option/answer for each question legibly in the box provided next to the question in the
answer sheet. Writing the multiple answers within the same box or overwriting or corrections made
if any, will be treated as wrong answer.
7. Do not make any stray marks anywhere on the answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the answer
sheet. Rough work SHOULD NOT be done on the answer sheet.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones, scanning
devices, papers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in possession of such
unauthorized material, including copying or impersonation or adopting unfair means, is liable to be
summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action.
9. After completing the examination, the candidate should write the total number of questions answered
and affix the signature in the space provided on the answer sheet. Then, hand over the admit card,
question booklet and the original copy of Answer sheet to the invigilator. The carbon copy of the
answer sheet may be obtained after due verification/signature by the Invigilator.
10. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination hall. If any candidate
is found carrying the booklet such candidates are liable to be disqualified.
11. No candidate shall leave the examination hall even if he/she has completed his/her paper. After
completion of the examination, all the candidates should remain seated until all booklets and answer
sheets are collected by the invigilator and instructed thereafter to leave the examination hall.
*****

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 1 of 22

 Directions for questions 1 to 100: Choose the right answer from the given options
1. Acid igneous rock is
a. Quartz b. Shale
c. Sand stone d. Basalt

2. Which is not a pedogenic process?

a. Humification b. Calcification
c. Laterization d. Ferruginization

3. The mechanical analysis of determining soil texture is based on the principle given by
a. Stokes law b. Ficks law
c. Darcy law d. Beaufils law

4. Examples of artificial chelates are

a. Citric acid and oxalic b. EDTA and DTPA
c. Citric acid, oxalic and d. EDTA, DTPA and HEDTA
HEDTA

5. Argillic horizon refers to higher percentage of

a. Clay b. Sodium
c. Calcium d. Iron

6. The unit layers of kaolinite are held by……………………

a. H-bonding b. Oxygen-bonding
c. Mg-bonding d. K-bonding

7. ---------- amendment is recommended for the reclamation of sodic soil

a. Gypsum b. Lime
c. Quick lime d. Apatite

8. Which of the following mineral has the highest CEC

a. Montmorillonite b. Vermiculite
c. Illite d. Kaolinite

9. Soils containing more than --------- Percent of organic matter are classified as peats
a. 50 b. 20
c. 30 d. 40

10. An ideal C:N ratio in compost is

a. 15:1 b. 50:1
c. 75:1 d. 100:1

11. An example of green manure is

a. Sun hemp b. Jowar
c. Paddy d. Maize

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 2 of 22

 12. On addition of organic matter to soil the bulk density of soil
a. Decreases b. Increases
c. Remains constant d. None of the above

13. The Bangalore method of composting was developed by

a. Howard b. Desai
c. Acharya d. Rege

14. Occurrence of heavy metals in soils is possible on addition of

a. Sludge b. Leaf manure
c. Vermicompost d. FYM

15. Single superphosphate is produced by the reaction of rock phosphate with

a. HNO3 b. H3PO4
c. H2SO4 d. HCl

16. Aggregate size of soils are affected by

a. Tillage b. Cropping
c. Cultural practices d. All of the above

17. DDT belongs to the group ---------------

a. Organophosphates b. Sulphur compounds
c. Organochlorines d. Hydro carbons

18. Pyrethrum is extracted from ---------------

a. Castor b. Datura
c. Safflower d. Chrysanthemum

19. Captan is a
a. Copper fungicide b. Sulphur fungicide
c. Quinone fungicide d. Heterocyclic Nitrogen compound

20. The nutrient element which is available to plants in both anionic and cationic forms is
a. Boron b. Phosphorus
c. Nitrogen d. Sulphur

21. The element which induces resistance to lodging in crops is

a. Nitrogen b. Potassium
c. Sulphur d. Magnesium

22. Rosetting in crops is caused due to deficiency of:

a. Iron b. Zinc
c. Manganese d. Boron

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 3 of 22

 23. The fungi are highly active at soil pH
a. Acidic b. Neutral
c. Alkaline d. All of the above

24. Which of the following grass is tolerant to alkali soils

a. Nandi b. Dinanath
c. Rhodes d. All the above

25. Purple colouration of older leaves due to P deficiency is mainly because of synthesis
and accumulation of
a. Hormones b. Putrecine and anthocyanin
c. IAA d. Starch

26. Calcium deficiency symptoms are seen in

a. Older leaves b. Younger leaves
c. Middle leaves d. Entire plant

27. What is the percentage of CO2 in atmospheric air

a. 0.3 b. 0.03
c. 0.003 d. 3.0

28. The element which takes part in biological nitrogen fixation in legumes is
a. Phosphorus b. Zinc
c. Molybdenum d. Manganese

29. DRIS concept of nutrient recommendation was developed by

a. Bray b. Beer
c. Bragg d. Beaufil

30. The most common indicator plant for boron deficiency is

a. Wheat b. Rice
c. Sunflower d. Maize

31. Honey-comb structure is found in

a. Phyllosilicates b. Orthrosilicates
c. Inosilicates d. Tactosilicates

32. More accurate analysis of soil texture can be done by

a. Hydrometer method b. International pipette method
c. Aggregate method d. All

33. In Universal soil loss equation, A = RKLSCP, K denotes……………….

a. Soil conservation practices b. Soil erodibility
c. Soil roughness d. Rainfall factor

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 4 of 22

 34. In land capability classification scheme, the classes V,VI and VII are suitable for
a. Field crops cultivation b. Wildlife and watershed
management
c. Pasture and grazing d. All of the above

35. The soil structural classification followed in India is/are

a. ISSS classification b. USDA classification
c. Attenberg classification d. All

36. CSWCRTI was established in which year

a. 1949 b. 1974
c. 1958 d. 1985

37. When soil water potential is at hydrostatic pressure greater than atmospheric pressure,
the pressure potential is
a. Unity b. Positive
c. Negative d. Zero

38. What is the soil water potential at saturation in soil?

a. -15 bars b. 0 bars
c. -31 bars d. -1 bars

39. Below the shrinkage limit of soil consistency, the soil is

a. Moist & friable b. Dry & hard
c. Wet & plastic d. Moist & plastic

40. The conversion factor to convert %P to P2O5

a. 2.29 b. 1.29
c. 2.90 d. 2.40

41. Rocks formed by cooling of the molten materials (magma) from the sun is called as
a. Metamorphic rocks b. Igneous rocks
c. Sedimentary rocks d. All

42. Most easily weatherable mineral is

a. Gypsum b. Biotite
c. Olivine d. Calcite

43. The percent content of Nitrogen and Phosphorus in DAP is

a. 18-46 b. 20-20
c. 46-18 d. 22-48

44. Laboratory method that is widely used for the calculation of gypsum requirement is
a. Schoonover’s method b. Schofield’s method
c. SMP method d. Puri’s method

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 5 of 22

 45. In lime requirement, liming materials are added to raise the soil pH to
a. 6.0-7.0 b. 6.0-8.0
c. 7.0-8.0 d. 7.0-9.0

46. Two elements occurring in greatest abundance in the earth’s crust are
a. Oxygen & Aluminium b. Silicon & Aluminium
c. Silicon & Iron d. Oxygen & Silicon

47. What is the common name of Fe2O3.3H2O?

a. Haematite b. Limonite
c. Goethite d. Magnetite

48. Which fertiliser is physiologically neutral

a. Calcium Ammonium Nitrate b. Ammonium sulphate nitrate
c. Ammonium nitrate d. Ammonium chloride

49. The science dealing with determination of composition of the constituents in terms of
element and compounds is called as
a. Organic chemistry b. Analytical chemistry
c. Thermochemistry d. Physical chemistry

50. Hydrolysis & oxidation are examples of

a. Chemical weathering b. Metamorphic processes
processes
c. Lithification processes d. Mechanical processes

51. ‘Khaira’ disease in rice occurs due to the deficiency of

a. N b. P
c. Ca d. Zn

52. What is the SI unit of Cation Exchange Capacity

a. meq/100g b. cmol (p+)/kg
c. mmho/100g d. All

53. Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a measure of

a. The total amount of oxygen, b. The amount of oxygen required by
which is required to micro-organism to decompose the
completely oxidise all of the organic matter in water sample
organic matter in a water under specific conditions
sample to CO2 and water
c. Both a and b d. None

54. Phosphate fixing capacity is high in

a. Black soils b. Red soils
c. Alluvial soils d. Laterite soils

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 6 of 22

 55. In soils affected by warmer climates or higher temperatures, the illite mineral tends to
be altered in to
a. Kaolinite b. Montmorillonite
c. Vermiculite d. Chlorite

56. Humic acids are having the similar properties of oxidized

a. Lignin b. Hemicellulose
c. Cellulose d. Both a & b

57. Hydrolysis of Al3+ ion occurs in the pH range of

a. Less than 4.7 b. 4.7-6.5
c. 6.5-8.0 d. 8.0-11.0

58. Buffering capacity of soils refers to

a. The clay minerals in soils b. Resistance to change in pH
used in medicine
c. The amount of water held by d. All
soils

59. Ca, Mg & S are called as

a. Macro-nutrients b. Micro-nutrients
c. Secondary nutrients d. Trace elements

60. Bray’s mobile nutrients follow the

a. Law of minimum or law of b. Baule&Mitcherlich concepts
limiting nutrients
c. Law of minimum d. Law of minimum &Baule concepts
&Mitcherlich concepts

61. Which soil type shows low infiltration

a. Sandy b. Loamy
c. Clayey d. All of the above

62. The physical condition of soil in relation to plant growth is called

a. Tillage b. Soil tilth
c. Coherence d. Adherence

63. Flame photometer is used for the estimation of

a. Available N b. Available Zn
c. Available P d. Available K

64. Which of the followings acts as storage organ for VAM fungi?
a. Hypha b. Arbuscule
c. Mycelium d. Vesicle

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 7 of 22

 65. The other protein fraction in nitrogenase besides the Fe-protein fraction is
a. S-protein fraction b. P-protein fraction
c. Mn-protein fraction d. Mo-protein fraction

66. Which of the following nutrients, when applied to legumes, enhances the activity of
rhizobia and increases the formation of root nodules?
a. Phosphorous b. Nitrogen
c. Potassium d. Molybdenum

67. The major portion of available Boron is absorbed by plants as

a. BO33- b. HB4O7-
-
c. H2B4O7 d. Both a and b

68. Which of the following is an important component of urease enzyme?

a. Co b. Ni
c. Mo d. Fe

69. Die-back symptom is due to the deficiency of?

a. Fe b. Mn
c. Zn d. Cu

70. Speckled yellow of sugar beet is due to the?

a. Deficiency of Cu b. Toxicity of Cu
c. Deficiency of Mn d. Toxicity of Mn

71. Criteria for the essentiality of nutrient for plants was given by
a. Arnon b. Perkins
c. Arnold d. Mendel

72. Crossing over during meiosis results in

a. Help mutation b. Breaking linkage
c. Promoting linkage d. None of these

73. The vitamin that is called as “anti-sterility vitamin”

a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin B

74. Clove is taken from which part of the plant

a. Fruit b. Root
c. Bud d. Stem

75. Who is the present Chairman of Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Right
Authority (PPV & FRA):
a. Dr. R R Hanchinal b. Dr. P L Gautam
c. Dr. S Nagarajan d. Dr. Swapan K Datta

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 8 of 22

 76. Intensive Agricultural Development Programme was initiated in the year
a. 1960 b. 1964
c. 1971 d. 1952

77. Seed born disease of wheat is:

a. Covered smut b. Loose smut
c. Kernal bunt d. Black rust

78. Indian agriculture is characterized by:

a. Low productivity b. Subsistence farming
c. Labour dominance d. All the above

79. Short duration crop grown between two main crops is known as
a. Companion crop b. Catch crop
c. Inter crop d. Associated crop

80. Central Institute for Cotton Research is located at

a. Jodhpur, Rajasthan b. Nagpur, Maharashtra
c. Lucknow, U.P d. Simla, H.P

81. The practice of growing four crops in a year from same piece of land in such a way that
one crop is sown immediately after or just before the harvest of the previous crop
called:
a. Double cropping b. Relay cropping
c. Intensive cropping d. Multiple cropping

82. Farmers first concept was proposed by

a. Paul Leagans b. Neils Rolling
c. Robert Chamber d. Vallabha Bhai Patel

83. ‘Vertisol’ is related to:

a. Red soil b. Laterite soil
c. Black soil d. Alluvial soil

84. Age of plants is determined by?

a. Annual growth rings b. CO2 emission method
c. O2 emission method d. None of these

85. Genes are composed of?

a. Proteins b. Lipids
c. RNA d. DNA

86. Which one of the following can check flower drop in crops?
a. Gibberelic acid b. Ethylene
c. Kinetin d. Auxin

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 9 of 22

 87. High yielding dwarf varieties of wheat were developed by
a. Dr. B. P. Pal b. Dr. Norman E. Borlaug
c. Dr. E. W. Burton d. Dr. R. D. Asana

88. Bt cotton was released for commercial cultivation in India in the year
a. 2000 b. 2002
c. 2001 d. 2003

89. Chewing mouthparts are not found in

a. Thrips b. Crayfish
c. Millipedes d. Bees

90. Extensive artificial hybridization was first started by

a. Mendel b. Knight
c. Vilmorin d. Le Courteur

91. The simplest experimental design

a. CRD b. RBD
c. LSD d. Split plot

92. Which of the following was the first Indian experimental satellite
a. APPLE b. ARYABHATA
c. IRS – 1A d. RESOURCESAT

93. To study two factors with different level of precision , which design is used
a. Factorial RBD b. CRD
c. Split plot design d. RBD

94. The experimental design which provides maximum degree of freedom for error
a. RBD b. CRD
c. LSD d. SPD

95. The basic function of a good research design is to

a. Decrease experimental variance b. Maximize extraneous variance
c. Minimize error variance d. Explain metaphysical observations

96. Experimenter has the highest control in manipulation of variable in

a. Laboratory method b. Library method
c. Simulation method d. Field expeiriment

97. To study the average height of plants, we use

a. Mode b. Hormonic mean
c. Aritmetic mean d. Geometric mean

98. The measure of dispersion which ignores sign of deviation from the central value:
a. Range b. Quartile deviation
c. Standard deviation d. Mean deviation

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 10 of 22

 99. Correlation coefficient is independent of
a. Scale b. Origin
c. Both a and b d. Neither a and b

100. If ten treatments are there, how many blocks are needed to have a minimum error
degree of freedom of 12 in RBD
a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 4

Directions for the questions 101 to 104: Read each sentence to find out whether there is
any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of
that part is the answer.
101. The ongoing merger among (a) the two companies will (b) have an adverse (c)
impact on consumers(d).
102. The government has introduced (a) a new law who forces (b) farmers to sell their
produce (c) only to licensed dealers(d).
103. There is a shortage (a) for qualified staff (b) in many software (c) companies in
India(d).
104. Our equipment gets damage (a) very often in summer (b) because there are (c)
frequent power cuts(d).
Directions for the questions 105 to 107: In each sentence below four words that the
printed in bold have been lettered (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of them may be wrongly
spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is
wrongly spelt or inappropriate if there is any. The letter of that word is the answer.
105. The next time your gym (a) instructor tells you to do some (b) stretching (c)
exersises before starting the (d) workout say no
106. The ministry’s (a) proposal for an (b) autonomous overarching (c) authority for
higher education and research was finally (d) approval.
107. In just one year Beena has (a) gained around eight (b) kilograms and doctors fear
she might be (c) prune to heart – related (d) ailments.

Directions for the questions 108 to 111: In each of the following sentences there are two
blank spaces. Below each sentence there are four pairs of words denoted by numbers
(a), (b), (c) and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the
sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
108. The prime minister, who is _____in his holiday home at the moment, said that he was
very ______by the news of India winning the World Cup.
a. visiting, happy b. residing, obliged
c. intruding, dejected d. staying, pleased

109. There can be no denying the fact that in sports, star coaches have the ______to get
something extra out of their ______
a. apprehension, work b. ability, teams
c. fear, member d. capability, house

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 11 of 22

 110. The meeting had to be _________for _____of quorum.
a. conducted, completion b. cancelled, desire
c. held, lack d. postponed, want

111. Two _______of the committee were rejected because they were based on
_____aspects.
a. members, superfluous b. recommendations, trivial
c. points, important d. reports, existing

Directions for questions 112-116: In each of the following questions, out of the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word
112. ZANY
a. magician b. pet
c. thief d. clown

113. VINDICATE
a. judge b. justify
c. argue d. explain

114. LAPIDARY
a. high – sounding b. abusive
c. dignified d. harmful

115. CAVALCADE
a. remission b. apprehension
c. procession d. division

116. BERSERK
a. frenzied b. urgy
c. irritating d. troublesome
Directions for questions 117 to 121: In each of the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word

117. BIZARRE
a. Soft b. usual
c. gentle d. same

118. CAPACIOUS
a. changeable b. foolish
c. caring d. limited

119. LEAP
a. plunge b. sink
c. immerse d. fall

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 12 of 22

 120. LIABILITY
a. treasure b. debt
c. assets d. property

121. AGONY
a. pleasure b. bliss
c. ecstasy d. fear

Directions for questions 122- 125: Directions: In each of the following questions, out of
the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given
words/sentence.
122. Walking in sleep
a. Somniloquism b. Somnambulism
c. Obsession d. Hallucination

123. Line at which the earth or sea and sky seem to meet
a. Horizon b. Zenith
c. Fringe d. Plinth

124. Regard for others as a principle of action

a. Cynicism b. Nepotism
c. Philanthropy d. Altruism

125. Person who believes that God is every thing and everything is God
a. Agnostic b. Theist
c. Pantheist d. Pantecnnicon

Directions for questions 126-129: In each of the following questions, an idiomatic

expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one
which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.
126. Something up one’s sleeve
a. A grand idea b. A secret plan
c. A profitable plan d. Something important

127. To keep the ball rolling

a. To earn more and more b. To work constantly
c. To keep the conversation going d. To make the best use of

128. French leave

a. Long absence b. Leave on the pretext of illness
c. Casual leave d. Absence without permission

129. To be up and doing

a. To recover from illness b. To be actively engaged
c. To progress satisfactorily d. To be expressive and explicit

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 13 of 22

 Directions for questions 130-133: In each of the following questions, a sentence has
been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select
the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active) voice

130. The clown was being laughed at by them.

a. They were laughing at the b. They were laughing on the clown
clown
c. They laughed at the clown d. The clown was laughed at by them

131. I saw him leaving the house

a. He had been seen leaving the b. He was seen to be leaving the
house house
c. Leaving the house he was seen d. He was seen leaving the house by
by me me

132. We hope that we shall win the match

a. The match is hoped to be won b. Match winning is hoped to be won
c. It is hoped that the match will d. Winning the match is hoped by us
be won by us

133. It is time to ring the bell

a. It is time the bell rings b. It is being time to ring the bell
c. It is time for the bell to ring d. It is time for the bell to be rung

Directions for questions 134-137: In each of the following questions, a sentence has
been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the
one which best expresses the same sentence in indirect/direct speech.
134. He said to me, “What time do the offices close?”
a. He wanted to know what time b. He asked me what time did the
the offices close? offices close?
c. He asked me what time the d. He asked me what time the offices
offices closed? did close?

135. Gavaskar said, “Bravo! Azhar, you have done well.”

a. Gavaskar exclaimed with joy b. Gavaskar called Azhar and
that Azhar had done well exclaimed that he had done well
c. Gavaskar congratulated Azhar d. Gavaskar praised Azhar for his
saying that he had done well having done well

136. He said, “The mice will play, when the cat is away.”
a. He said that the mice will play b. He said that the mice would play
when the cat is away when the cat was away
c. He said that the mice would d. He said that the mice shall play,
play when the cat would be when the cat is away
away

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 14 of 22

 137. The manager said, “Well, what can I do for you?”
a. The manager asked what he b. The manager wondered what he
could do for him could do for him
c. The manager wanted to know d. The manager said that he couldn’t
what he could do for him do anything for him

Directions for questions 138-141: In each of the following questions, a word has been
written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the
correctly spelt word.
138. a. Brethoren b. Brethron
c. Brethren d. Brothren

139. a. Beligrent b. Beligerent

c. Belligrent d. Belligerent

140. a. Commettee b. Comitee

c. Comittee d. Committee

141. a. Corupt b. Curropt

c. Corrupt d. Currupt

Directions for questions 142-145: In this type of questions, you are provided with the
first and last parts of a sentence. The remaining sentence is broken into four parts
labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S). You are required to arrange these parts so as to form a
complete meaningful sentence and then choose the correct combination.
142. (1) I have not come
(P) even if it means some humiliation
(Q) but the boy must learn
(R) to complain, he said
(S) to be honest
(6) and admit he broke our window.
a. PRQS b. QSPR
c. RQSP d. SPRQ

143. (1) The little girl

(P) for the mother to leave
(Q) said to her friend
(R) little children on their own
(S) it was not quite right
(6) and go to work.
a. PRQS b. QSPR
c. RPSQ d. SQRP

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 15 of 22

 144. (1) Western civilization is
(P) in its character that
(Q) national culture by affecting
(R) it is bound to influence every
(S) so powerful and so uniform
(6) its external way of life.
a. PRSQ b. QSRP
c. RQSP d. SPRQ

145. (1) He dared

(P) the forty thieves
(Q) to fight
(R) who
(S) challenged him
(6) to a duel.
a. PQRS b. QPRS
c. RSQP d. SPQR

Directions to questions 146-150: Comprehension: Read the following passage and

answer the questions
August 6, day Hiroshima was atom-bombed in 1945, symbolises at once man’s
nightmare and his greatest dream, the nightmare of a nuclear war, and the dream of genuine
and lasting peace. Beginning with the survivors of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, the awareness
of the danger and sentiment for disarmament and peace has become universal, transcending
national and ideological barriers. And yet more deadly nuclear weapons are being piled on
top of the heap that is enough to wipe out all traces of life from this planet. Forty years after
Hiroshima, there is no light at the end of the tunnel-only occasional flickers. The arms
limitation talks between the superpowers, who hold the key to disarmament and peace, have
yielded nothing so far.
The main responsibility for suppressing the nuclear threat is that of the superpowers.
However, other powers also have nuclear weapons and they must share the responsibility.
And not only they, but those nations which have or are developing nuclear capability must
see the issues in a longer term and larger perspective.
Nuclear war like peace is not divisible. Agreement on disarmament at the
superpower level is essential. But, it must be followed by similar agreements on the
bilateral and regional level, for all of us are in a sense the citizens of Hiroshima.

146. August 6, 1945 is an significant date in history because it was on this day that:
a. A peace treaty was signed b. The Second World War came to
an end.
c. A nuclear weapon was used for d. Japan surrendered to the allies.
the first time.

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 16 of 22

 147. The atom bomb has produced a nightmarish effect on nations because of:
a. The possibility of destruction of b. It’s potential for unabashed arms
a whole civilization. race.
c. The threat to peace from the d. Their awareness of man’s
powers that could produce such defencelessness against such
weapons. weapons.

148. The super powers are trying to counter the dangers of a nuclear way by:
a. Discontinuing nuclear tests. b. Withholding financial aid to
nations trying to go nuclear.
c. Holding talks on peace and d. Trying to stop making nuclear
disarmament. weapons.
149. The author thinks that negotiations for the control of nuclear arms have made
a. Little progress b. Tremendous progress
c. Constructive suggestions d. Contingency plans to stop the
disaster

150. According to the author:

a. Superpowers alone should b. Developing nations should hold
shoulder the responsibility of talks for disarmament.
controlling nuclear arms.
c. Other powers that have nuclear d. A nuclear disarmament agreement
capability should join hands at the superpower level should be
with superpower to restrain followed by similar agreements at
potential nuclear powers. the bilateral and regional levels.

Directions for questions 151 to 200 : Choose the right answer from the given options

151. The Davis Cup 2015 has been won by which country?
a. Belarus b. Russia
c. Great Britain d. Belgium

152. India recently successfully launched Barak–8 missile, it is jointly developed by India
and which country?
a. Israel b. USA
c. Russia d. Germany

153. Who was the Chief Guest at 67th Republic Day parade of January 26, 2016?
a. Xi Jinping b. Francois Hollande
c. Angela Merkel d. Vladimir Putin

154. Which one of the following city hosted the second World Congress for Disaster
Management?
a. Vishakhapatnam b. Bhuj
c. Hyderabad d. New Delhi

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 17 of 22

 155. Recently, Seventh Central Pay Commission has submitted its report to Government.
Who was its Chairman?
a. Bimal Jalan b. A. P. Shah
c. A. K. Mathur d. Kaushik Basu

156. What was the India’s rank in 2015 Global Hunger Index (GHI)
a. 55 b. 65
c. 70 d. 80

157. India’s first AMRIT pharmacy outlet was opened in which city?
a. Jaipur b. Raipur
c. New Delhi d. Nagpur

158. Basaveshwara – whose statue was unveiled by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in
London – was a famous philosopher in which of the following languages?
a. Tamil b. Kannada
c. Sanskrit d. Malayalam

159. Which of the following Indian state has hosted the first International Conference on
Gender Equality (ICGE) recently?
a. Kerala b. Telangana
c. Maharashtra d. Gujarat

160. What is the minimum and maximum investment allowed per person per fiscal year
(April-March) under Sovereign Gold Bond Schemes (SGBS) 2016?
a. 1 grams and 500 grams of b. 5 grams and 250 grams of physical
physical gold gold
c. 2 grams and 250 grams of d. 5 grams and 500 grams of physical
physical gold gold

161. Which among the following countries has introduced biometric visas to Indians?
a. USA b. Germany
c. France d. UK

162. Indian railways has launched an alternative train accommodation Scheme, named as?
a. Vikalp b. Suvidha
c. Atithi d. Madad

163. The first visually challenged-friendly railways station in India is located in?
a. Kanpur b. Nagpur
c. Mangalore d. Mysuru

164. What is the India’s rank in World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business Report 2016?
a. 128 b. 130
c. 132 d. 134

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 18 of 22

 165. Which bank introduces Maharaja Sayyajirao Bhasha Samman to a person who made
significant contribution to Hindi Language?
a. UCO Bank b. Punjab National Bank
c. ICICI Bank d. Bank of Baroda

166. The most common animal figure found at all the Harappan sites is
a. Cow b. Dog
c. Unihorn bull d. Tiger

167. The Svetambaras and Digambaras refer to two sects of

a. Jainism b. Saivism
c. Buddhism d. Vaishnavism

168. __________ was the mother of Vardhamana Mahavira.

a. Trishala b. Yasodhara
c. Kundhavi d. Mayadevi

169. Who was the first foreigner to invade India?

a. Agrammes b. Cyrus
c. Darius I d. Cambyses

170. Gujarat was traditionally known as

a. Saurashtra b. Konkan
c. Rann of Kutch d. Telangana

171. The Bhakti Movement was first organised by

a. Ramanuja b. Ramananda
c. Kabir d. Nanak

172. Who was the British PM at the time of Revolt of 1857?

a. Churchill b. Palmerston
c. Attle d. Gladstone

173. The Quit India Movement started at:

a. Delhi on Aug.15, 1942 b. Bombay on Aug. 8, 1942
c. Lahore on July 7, 1942 d. Wardha on Aug. 7, 1942

174. Who among the following was associated with the ‘Battle of Waterloo’ held in June
1815?
a. Hitler b. Napoleon
c. Bismarck d. Giuseppe Mazzini

175. The largest southern most single island in India is

a. Rameswaram island b. Minicoy island
c. Car Nicobar island d. Great Nicobar island

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 19 of 22

 176. Kodaikanal, the famous hill station of South India is situated on :
a. Pulney hills b. Anamalai mountain
c. Nilgiri mountain d. Shevroy hills

177. Which among the following is major source of irrigation in India?

a. Canals b. Tanks
c. Tube wells and other wells d. Rivers

178. The state having the largest area under black soil is
a. Gujarat b. Maharashtra
c. Karnataka d. Andhra Pradesh

179. Election Commission in India is a :

a. Single member body b. Two member body
c. Three member body d. None of the above

180. Graduates constitute a separate constituency for the election of specified number of
members to the :
a. Nyaya Panchayath b. State Legislative Council
c. Rajya Sabha d. State Legislative Assembly

181. The powers of the Election Commission are given in which of the following Articles
of the constitution?
a. 286 b. 356
c. 324 d. 382

182. Which is at the apex of the three tier system of Panchayath Raj?
a. Gram Sabha b. Gram Panchayath
c. Zilla Panchayath d. Panchyath Samiti

183. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India makes specific
mention of village Panchayaths
a. Article 19 b. Article 21
c. Article 40 d. Article 246

184. Which of the following bodies finalises the five year plan proposals?
a. National Developmental b. Planning Commission
Council
c. Union Cabinet d. Minister of Planning

185. Which one of the following Five-Year Plans recognised human development as the
core of all developmental efforts
a. The Third Five-Year Plan b. The Fifth Five-Year Plan
c. The Sixth Five-Year Plan d. The Eighth Five-Year Plan

Question Booklet – Agricultural Chemistry Page 20 of 22

 186. During whose prime ministership ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’ was launched?
a. P. V. Narasimha Rao b. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
c. H. D. Deve Gowda d. Dr. Manmohan Singh

187. Which state has smallest land area?

a. Goa b. Nagaland
c. Sikkim d. Tripura

188. In how many languages the denomination is printed on the language panel of a
currency note?
a. 15 b. 16
c. 17 d. 18

189. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research journal?
a. Impact factor b. h-index
c. g-index d. i10-index

190. Biomagnifications means increase in the

a. Concentration of pollutants in b. Number of species
living organisms
c. Size of living organisms d. Biomass

191. In which language the newspaper have highest circulation in India?

a. English b. Hindi
c. Bengali d. Tamil

192. Who is the current chairperson of IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate

Change)?
a. R.K. Pachauri b. P.K. Agarwal
c. Heosung Lee d. Rachel Carson

193. Recently which place in India has been announced as a World Heritage Site by
UNESCO
a. Taj Mahal b. Nalanda University
c. Qutub Minar d. Ajanta Caves

194. CD-ROM is a
a. Semiconductor memory b. Memory register
c. Magnetic memory d. None of the above

195. Recently, ISRO made India proud by launching ………satellites in a single flight.
a. 15 b. 10
c. 30 d. 20

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 196. On which riverbank is city Panaji located?
a. Ganga b. Mandovi
c. Gomati d. Sabarmati

197. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in?

a. United Kingdom b. United States
c. Australia d. Canada

198. Periodic table got how many new elements named recently?
a. 6 b. 2
c. 1 d. 4

199. Among the following cities, which one is at the highest altitude above mean sea level
a. New Delhi b. New Delhi
c. Jodhpur d. Jodhpur

200. “IUCN” stands for

a. International Unity on b. International Union for the
Community and Nationality Conservation of Nature and
Natural Resources
c. Inter-state Unity of Culture d. International Unit on Common
Nature Naturals

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