1) Which lights go off when the gear is retracted

A. Nose and Turn Off (Correct Answer)

B. Turn Off and Wing
C. Nose and Land (Your Answer)
D. Logo and Land
Incorrect

2) Which colour code is correct for push button switches?

A. AMBER - immediate action : BLUE - temporary operation

B. GREEN - temporary operation : WHITE - abnormal position
C. WHITE - temporary operation : GREEN - normal operation (Your Answer)
D. RED - immediate action : 2 DOTS "not used" part of switch (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

3) "Below the passenger door window is a red CABIN PRESSURE light

which ...

A. ... flashes if there is residual cabin pressure." (Correct Answer)

B. ... is illuminated whenever the cabin pressure is greater than 2.5 mb." (Your
Answer)
C. ... flashes with residual pressure and slides armed."
D. ... cannot be seen from outside the aircraft."
Correct

4) "Set on LO, the actual pack flow may be ...

A. ... HI due to APU bleed supplying." (Your Answer)

B. ... NORM due to APU bleed supplying."
C. ... HI due to air conditioning temperature demands."
D. ... NORM or HI due to single ack operation."
Correct

5) "The MAN V/S CTL switch is ...

A. ...operative at all times, and it controls the outflow valve."

B. ... operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the
outflow valve."(Your Answer)
C. ... operative in the MAN pressurisation mofe: - hold up to OPEN the safety
valve."
D. ... inoperative if the DITCHING switch is ON."
Correct

6) What is displayed on the COND S.D. if the primary channel of the Zone
Controller has failed?
 A. "ALTN MODE" (Your Answer)
B. "PACK REG"
C. Double crosses ( XX )
D. "TRIM AIR VALVE FAULT"
Incorrect

7) What are the Fan Air Valve and pre-cooler used for?

A. Initial cooling of air after entering the pack. (Your Answer)

B. Cooling H.P. air only.
C. Cooling bleed air in accordance with pack demands.
D. Cooling bleed air to a maximum of 200℃. (Correct Answer)
Correct

8) The Trim Air Valves:

A. Are electrically controlled by the zone controller. (Your Answer)

B. Adjusts temperature by adding cold air.
C. Mix fresh air from the packs with recirculated cabin air.
D. Regulate pack flow depending on number of passengers.
Correct

9) With the PACK FLOW selector to NORM, what will the actual flow be?

A. LO or NORM or HI.
B. Always NORM.
C. NORM or HI. (Your Answer)
D. NORM or LO.
Incorrect

10) The Avionics Vent System has two "conditions" - GROUND and FLIGHT.
When does the transition from GROUND to FLIGHT occur?

A. After second engine start.

B. At lift-off.
C. At 100 kts. on the take-off roll. (Your Answer)
D. When the thrust is set for take-off. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

11) Regarding the A/THR indications on the FMA, which is true?

A. ATHR in blue - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ] (Correct Answer)

B. ATHR in white - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ] (Your Answer)
C. ATHR in blue - [ ACTIVE (actual thrust is limited by TLA) ]
D. ATHR in white - [ ACTIVE (actual thrust is always less than TLA) ]
Correct
12) When can both Autopilots be engaged at the same time?

A. After the APPROACH PHASE is activated on the MCDU.

B. After APPR is armed on the FCU. (Your Answer)
C. After LOC capture.
D. After G/S capture.
Correct

13) The APU has been switched off, but it has not stopped . Why is this?

A. The APU Fuel Pump continuing to run.

B. The Air Intake Flap failing to close.
C. A cooling period, which occurs on all APU shutdowns. (Your Answer)
D. A cooling period (following use of APU Bleed).
Incorrect

14) "The APU may be started ...

A. ... at or below 35,000 feet only."

B. ... at or below 25,000 feet only." (Your Answer)
C. ... at or below 300 knots only."
D. ...throughout the normal flight envelope." (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

15) What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to on?

A. The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages immediately
B. The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages when the flap is
fully open. (Your Answer)
C. The APU Fuel Pump will operate.
D. The APU Intake Flap opens. (Correct Answer)
Correct

16) What does the AVAIL light on the START switch indicate?

A. APU starter disengagement.

B. APU electrical power can be used. (Your Answer)
C. N speed greater than 75%
D. ECB power-up check is satisfactory.
Correct

17) When does the APU starter engage?

A. When the FLAP is fully open and the start switch is pressed on. (Your
Answer)
B. When the Oil Pressure reaches 7 p.s.i.
C. When the MASTER SW is pressed on.
D. When the START SW is pressed on.
 Correct

18) On the overhead, when should AUDIO SWITCHING be selected to CAPT 3?

A. The Captain is using RMP tuning of the NAVAIDS.

B. The Captain's ACP has failed. (Your Answer)
C. The Captain's loudspeaker has failed.
D. Both RMPs have failed.
Incorrect

19) For the ACP, which is true?

A. The PA TRANSMISSION key operates like other transmission keys.

B. The ON VOICE key enables audio to be heard on the loudspeakers. (Your
Answer)
C. The RESET key transfers associated ACP (1 or 2) operation to ACP3
D. The RESET key cancels all CALL lights. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

20) On the ACP, what does an amber light on a Transmission Key indicate?

A. Failure of the associated transmitter.

B. Failure of the associated transmitter and receiver.
C. SELCAL operation only. (Your Answer)
D. SELCAL operation or a call from maintenance or the cabin. (Correct Answer)
Correct

21) What are the correct actions if RMP 1 fails?

A. Switch it off : use ACP 2

B. Switch it off : use RMP 3 only.
C. Switch it off : use RMP 3 or RMP 2. (Your Answer)
D. Use the AUDIO SWITCHING switch (on the overhead panel)
Incorrect

22) Which is true of the AC ESS Bus in the event of an AC BUS 1 FAULT?

A. It cannot be powered.
B. It can be powered from AC BUS 2, if so selected. (Correct Answer)
C. It will be powered automatically from AC BUS 2. (Your Answer)
D. It will be powered by the emergency generator.
Incorrect

23) What is the effect of selecting the GEN1 LINE to OFF?

A. Fuel pump operation is transferred to AC ESS BUS.

B. GEN 1 is fed directly onto the AC ESS BUS. (Your Answer)
 C. GEN 1 is de-energised.
D. GEN 1 is line contactor opens. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

24) What happens if, in flight, with the hydraulic Blue System inoperative (fluid
loss), the MAN ON switch (on the EMER ELEC PWR panel) is pressed?

A. The Emergency Generator will be driven by the Blue Hydraulic System.

B. The Emergency Generator will be driven directly by the RAT. (Your Answer)
C. The RAT will not deploy.
D. The RAT will extend, but the Emergency Generator will not
operate. (Correct Answer)
Correct

25) The aircraft is on the chocks. All sources (Engine, APU and External Power)
are ON. Which of the following is true?

A. The External Power is supplying the network.

B. If the Engines are shut down, the APU will supply the network.
C. If the Engines are shut down, External Power will supply the network. (Your
Answer)
D. If the APU is shut down, the External Power will supply the network.
Incorrect

26) Which conditions will cause the Cabin Signs and Lighting to illuminate?

A. Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, regardless of the SEAT BELTS
and NO SMOKING switch positions. (Correct Answer)
B. Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY
EXIT light switch is at ARM or ON.
C. Above 10,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY
EXIT light switch is at ARM.
D. If the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet. (Your Answer)
Incorrect

27) What is the duration of the Passenger Oxygen supply?

A. Between 15 and 20 minutes, depending on cabin altitude.

B. 20 minutes. (Your Answer)
C. 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat. (Correct
Answer)
D. 15 minutes after oxygen compartment door activation.
Incorrect

28) If, on opening a door with the slide armed, the slide does not auto-inflate,
what are the correct actions?

A. Close the door and use another exit.

 B. Manually open the Air Valve. (Correct Answer)
C. Recycle the Door Control Handle. (Your Answer)
D. Recycle the Slide Arming lever.
Incorrect

29) What will trigger a fire warning?

A. Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (Engine).

B. Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (APU).
C. Fire detection by Loops A and B together (Engine). (Correct Answer)
D. Fire detection by Loops A or B (Engine). (Your Answer)
Incorrect

30) Following an engine fire, when will AGENT pushbutton lights illuminate?

A. SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when squib has fired. (Your
Answer)
B. SQUIB when squib has failed; DISCH when squib has fired.
C. SQUIB as soon as the fire is detected.
D. SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when extinguisher bottle is
depressurised. (Correct Answer)
Correct

31) What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law configuration?

A. Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67° (Your Answer)
B. Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 10°, Roll : 67°
C. Pitch + 25° (+ 20° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°
D. Pitch ± 30°. Roll 45°
Incorrect

32) What does the sidestick control between neutral and full aft in alpha prot?

A. Alpha. (Correct Answer)

B. Altitude.
C. Airspeed. (Your Answer)
D. G.
Correct

33) In Alternate Law, how do indications change on the speed scale?

A. Alpha protection is replaced by an extended Vʟꜱ.

B. There are no changes : it is possible to stall the aircraft.
C. V ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replacesVʟꜱ.
D. V ꜱᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replaces Alpha prot : it is possible to stall the
aircraft. (Your Answer)
Incorrect
34) What happens in the event of SFCC 1total failure?

A. SLATS will be inoperative.

B. FLAPS will be inoperative.
C. SLATS and FLAPS will be locked by the Wing Tip Brake. (Your Answer)
D. SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed. (Correct Answer)
Correct

35) When will MECH BACK-UP occur?

A. Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with stab & rudder. (Your Answer)
B. Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with elevator & rudder.
C. Loss of G and Y hydraulics : aircraft control with stab and rudder.
D. Loss of all hydraulics.
Incorrect

36) What does a SPEED BRK memo indicate On the EWD?

A. In green - normal operation. In amber, speedbrake auto-retraction. (Your

Answer)
B. In amber - speedbrakes extended with more than 50% N1. (Correct Answer)
C. In amber - partial or total speedbrake failure.
D. Extension of speedbrakes when in excess of Vᴍᴏ / Mᴍᴏ
Correct

37) "VFE NEXT is ...

A. ... the limiting speed for going from CONFIG1 to CONFIG2 in

flight." (Your Answer)
B. ... the minimum speed for the present configuration."
C. ... the minimum FLAP / SLAAT retraction speed."
D. ... the maximum speed for the present configuration."
Incorrect

38) If a spoiler has failed, how does the system compensate for undesirable yaw?

A. Automatic rudder trim. (Your Answer)

B. Inhibition of the symmetrical spoiler on the other wing. (Correct Answer)
C. FAC commands.
D. ELAC turn co-ordination commands.
Incorrect

39) A-LOCK (alpha lock) appears below the slat / Flap indicator on the E/WD.
What causes this and how do you recover?

A. Flaps are locked in Config 1; reduce angle of attack to retract the

flaps. (Your Answer)
 B. Slats and Flaps are locked in Config 1; recycle the flap lever to retract slats
and flaps.
C. Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; recycle the flap
lever to retract the slats.
D. Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; reduce the angle
of attack to retract the slats. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

40) In normal flight, what does sidestick deflection demand?

A. Load factor in pitch and rate of roll in roll. (Correct Answer)

B. Load factor in pitch, proportional aileron and spoiler deflection in roll. (Your
Answer)
C. Rate of pitch change, and 67° bank at full roll demand.
D. A pitch attitude, and a rate of roll up to 33° of bank.
Correct

41) A/C on GND - Flap Lever Position 1

A. SLATS are 2 FLAPS are 1

B. SLATS are 0 FLAPS are 1
C. SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 1 (Your Answer)
D. SLATS are 1 FLAPS are 0
Correct

42) In Alternate LAW, which of the following statements is true?

A. High Speed Protection will prevent an overspeed.

B. Alpha Floor will prevent the aircraft being stalled.
C. Low Speed Stability will prevent the aircraft being stalled.
D. It is possible to stall the aircraft. (Your Answer)
Correct

43) During acceleration on initial climb-out (Config. 1 + F) with no movement of

the flap handle, what will happen?

A. The FLAPS will auto-retract at 210 kts. (Your Answer)

B. The SLATS will auto-retract at 210 kts.
C. The FLAPS and SLATS will retract at 210 kts.
D. An overspeed warning will be activated at 220 kts.
Incorrect

44) If both pilots push and hold the take-over pushbuttons on the sidesticks,
which of the following statements is true?

A. The last pilot to press a button has priority. (Correct Answer)

B. They cancel each other out, and the aircraft flies normally. (Your Answer)
 C. Sidestick priority is locked out until the end of the flight.
D. After 40 seconds, the first person to press a button loses use of sidestick.
Incorrect

45) On the FLT CTL SD the ailerons have two neutral indications. Why is this?

A. To show the tolerances when LAF is operating.

B. To show the tolerances when only one Aileron Jack is operative.
C. One for clean, one for slats extended (Aileron droop). (Your Answer)
D. One for clean, one for flaps extended (Aileron droop). (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

46) If (autopilot / autothrust off) a bank angle of 45° is exceeded; what

happens?

A. The Flight Director (only) is no longer displayed.

B. The FMA lateral and vertical modes (only) are no longer displayed.
C. The Flight Director and its associated FMAs are no longer
displayed. (Correct Answer)
D. The aircraft goes into Alternate law. (Your Answer)
Incorrect

47) Regarding the Sidestick Priority Lights on the Glareshield, which is true?

A. A red arrow will always be accompanied by a green light. (Your Answer)

B. A red arrow may or may not be accompanied by a green light. (Correct
Answer)
C. A red arrow and a green light may be illuminated together on the Captain's
side of the glareshield.
D. A red arrow indicates an unwanted input on the associated sidestick.
Correct

48) What does "F" speed represent at take-off on the IAS strip?

A. Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP 3 to FLAP 1. (Your Answer)

B. Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP FULL to FLAP 3.
C. Minimum speed for present flap setting.
D. Minimum speed for selecting one more stage of flaps.
Incorrect

49) What information is given at top right of the NAV Display in ARC mode?

A. Raw Data from a tuned VOR.

B. Computed data concerning the TO Waypoint. (Correct Answer)
C. Flight plan TRACK to the TO Waypoint. (Your Answer)
D. Track and Groundspeed.
Incorrect
50) After T/O, when does SRS (FMA) change to CLB?

A. When the thrust levers are placed in the climb detent. (Your Answer)
B. After SLAT retraction.
C. When passing acceleration altitude. (Correct Answer)
D. When passing thrust reduction altitude.
Incorrect

51) "To join an ILS on an intercept heading, the FPV will be lined up with the ...

A. ... glideslope demand."

B. ... ILS inbound course." (Your Answer)
C. ... actual aircraft heading."
D. ... actual aircraft track." (Correct Answer)
Correct

52) Regarding the PFD, which of the following statements is true?

A. The bottom left corner of the PFD displays the MACH NO. at all times.
B. On the IAS, a split magenta triangle indicates a managed climb.
C. Selected heading can be displayed as a triangle or digits. (Your Answer)
D. An excess rate of descent will cause the IVSI to go RED.
Correct

53) What information is given by the speed trend arrow on the PFD?

A. The direction the speed should be adjusted to achieve the required speed.
B. The ECON speed range during descent.
C. The speed attained in 5 seconds with constant acceleration.
D. The speed attained in 10 seconds with constant acceleration. (Your Answer)
Incorrect

54) If the IAS is a "split" triangle, which of the following statements is correct?

A. It may be magenta or blue.

B. It indicates a speed constraint.
C. It will be magenta and signify a Managed Climb or Managed Descent. (Your
Answer)
D. It will be magenta and signify a Managed Descent only. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

55) The ECAM CTL PANEL "WHEEL" pushbutton switch has failed. What
must you do to display the WHEEL page?

A. Use the STS button.

B. Use the ALL button. (Correct Answer)
C. Transfer the SD to the F/O (or CAPT) using the SWTG PANEL. (Your
 Answer)
D. Use the RECAL button.
Correct

56) SRS means?

A. Speed Retard System.

B. Speed Reference System. (Your Answer)
C. Safety Reference System.
D. Stall Reference System.
Incorrect

57) When does the REFUELG memo appear?

A. When the END Light illuminates steady green.

B. When the refuel hose is connected to the coupling. (Your Answer)
C. When the MODE SELECT switch is placed to REFUEL.
D. When the re-fuelling control panel door is open. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

58) Which is true if both booster pumps in the centre tank fail?

A. You must descend to 15000' when gravity feeding becomes necessary. (Your
Answer)
B. The SD shows amber XX replacing the CTR tank quantity indications.
C. The SD shows amber = through the CTR tank quantity indications.
D. The FOB (EWD) will show a half-box (amber). (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

59) What happens when the first inner tank level reaches 750 kg?

A. Nothing happens until both inner tanks reach 750 kg.

B. Transfer valves on the associated wing will open. (Your Answer)
C. One transfer valve in each wing will open. (Correct Answer)
D. The centre tank pumps will stop.
Incorrect

60) With all tanks full and the MODE selector in AUTO, which is correct?

A. The centre tank pumps will stop when the slats are extended. (Correct Answer)
B. The centre tank pumps will stop when the flaps are extended.
C. All pumps will run continuously.
D. The wing pumps will stop when the slats are extended. (Your Answer)
Incorrect

61) On the S.D. what signifies an inaccurate quantity indication?

 A. An amber box round a fuel figure. (Your Answer)
B. An amber line through last two digits of a fuel figure.
(Correct Answer)
C. Double crosses in place of a fuel figure.
D. An amber half-box round a fuel figure.
Correct

62) What happens automatically when the aircraft is being refuelled?

A. The transfer valves close. (Your Answer)

B. The Fuel Used (engine S.D.) goes to zero.
C. The Cross-feed valve opens.
D. The booster pumps stop running.
Correct

63) With fuel in the centre tank, but both centre booster pumps failed, what will
be indicated on the EWD?

A. FOB quantity indicating amber.

B. FOB quantity indicating pulsing.
C. A full amber box round the FOB indication.
D. A half amber box round the FOB indication. (Your Answer)
Correct

64) With the BLUE switch at AUTO, when will the pump operate?

A. After the first engine has been started. (Your Answer)

B. After the both engines have been started.
C. For 5 minutes after electrical power-up.
D. After engine No. 1 has been started.
Incorrect

65) Which is true with regard to the PTU?

A. It is inhibited between engine starts. (Correct Answer)

B. It is inhibited from electrical power-up until second engine start.
C. It is used as a back-up following a leak in the Green or Yellow
systems. (Your Answer)
D. It operates if the Green or Yellow system pressure falls below 2600 psi.
Correct

66) On the HYD overhead panel, which is true of any pump FAULT light?

A. It will extinguish when the fluid has cooled to normal temperature. (Your
Answer)
B. It will remain illuminated until maintenance action has been taken.
C. It will extinguish when the switch is placed to OFF.
D. It is inhibited with engines running.
Correct

67) Which hydraulic system have fluid shutoff valves and why?

A. G and Y (operated by the engine fire switches) to isolate fluid from

fire. (Your Answer)
B. G and Y (operated by switches on the OHP) in case of PTU failures.
C. All systems; to isolate the systems in event of fluid loss.
D. All systems; for use by maintenance.
Incorrect

68) What happens automatically after first engine start?

A. The Blue pump operates. (Correct Answer)

B. The Blue pump stops until the second engine has been started.
C. The P.T.U. operates until the second engine has been started. (Your Answer)
D. The P.T.U. operates continuously.
Incorrect

69) Which of the following correctly completes this statement?

"With the Yellow Electric pump not switched ON, it will operate
automatically ...

A. ... if the Yellow Engine Driven Pump fails."

B. ... if the yellow system pressure falls below 2500 p.s.i.." (Your Answer)
C. ... when the Cargo Door is operated." (Correct Answer)
D. .. when a Cabin Door is opened with the slide armed."
Correct

70) When can the RAT be restored?

A. At any time.
B. Below 140 kts.
C. Below 100 kts.
D. On the ground only. (Your Answer)
Correct

71) Which of the following defines icing conditions?

A. Before T/O : OAT 8℃ or below, contaminated runway.

B. In flight : TAT 10℃ down to SAT minus 30℃.
C. In flight : SAT 10℃ or below.
D. Before T/O : OAT 10℃ or below, visible moisture, visibility < 1nm. (Your
Answer)

Correct

72) What is the failsafe situation if Wing and Engine Anti-ice are lost?
 A. Wing Anti-ice OFF, Engine anti-ice ON. (Your Answer)
B. Wing Anti-ice ON, Engine anti-ice OFF.
C. Both ON.
D. Both OFF.
Correct

73) Which parts of the aircraft are anti-iced?

A. Outboard wing L.E., stabiliser L.E., and engine nacelles.

B. Outboard wing L.E., and engine nacelles. (Your Answer)
C. Outboard wing L.E., stabiliser L.E., fin L.E. and engine nacelles.
D. All of the wing L.E. and engine nacelles.
Correct

74) From where does Engine 1 anti-ice obtain its heat?

A. Directly from its own fan air system.

B. Directly from its own bleed. (Your Answer)
C. Directly from its own bleed or engine 2 bleed.
D. Directly from its own bleed or the main bleed system.
Incorrect

75) What do green lines next to the REL indicators show?

A. Nothing in flight and brake applications after landing. (Your Answer)

B. Serviceable anti-skid in flight, release of brake pressure after
landing. (Correct Answer)
C. Unserviceable anti-skid in flight, release of brake pressure after landing.
D. Release of brake pressure after landing only if autobrake is selected.
Correct

76) Following Gravity Extension which statement is true?

A. Brakes and steering will be normal.

B. Alternate braking will be operational.
C. Braking will be normal and nosewheel steering will be lost. (Your Answer)
D. Nosewheel steering will be normal and anti-skid will not be available.
Correct

77) With the aircraft on the ground, which is true with regard to the gear lever?

A. It can be moved, retraction is inhibited by shock absorber compression.

B. It cannot be moved due to an interlock with shock absorber
compression. (Your Answer)
C. It can be selected up by operating the override trigger.
D. It cannot be moved if the Green hydraulic system is pressurised.
 Incorrect

78) What does a red UNLK light indicate on the Landing Gear indicator panel?

A. LGCIU 1 and 2 failure.

B. Associated door is not locked / closed.
C. Associated gear leg is in transit. (Your Answer)
D. Associated gear leg is not locked in selected position. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

79) What happens during pushback (inc engine start) with the steering selector in
the TOWING position?

A. A caution NW STEER FAULT will appear on the EWD

B. Green N WHEEL STEERING DISC until steering selector is
NORMAL. (Your Answer)
C. Amber N WHEEL STEERING DISC if at least one engine is
running. (Correct Answer)
D. STEERING is displayed (in amber) on the Wheels SD.
Correct

80) When does a DECEL light illuminate?

A. With autobrake in use, and green hydraulic pressure satisfactory.

B. With LO autobrake selected, two seconds after touchdown.
C. With at least 80% of selected deceleration rate. (Your Answer)
D. To show that the anti-skid is serviceable.
Incorrect

81) Regarding landing with Autobrake MED selected, which is true?

A. Braking starts 2 secs. after both main landing gears are compressed. (Your
Answer)
B. Braking starts 2 secs. after spoiler deployment. (Correct Answer)
C. Braking starts 4 secs. after mainwheel spin-up.
D. During braking a specific pressure will be applied to the wheelbrakes.
Correct

82) Pressing the DISC button on the Captain's steering handwheels does what?

A. Disconnects the steering system completely.

B. Disconnects the Captain's steering handwheels from the system.
C. Disconnects all rudder pedal movement from the steering system. (Your
Answer)
D. Disconnects the Captain's pedal movement from the steering system.
Incorrect
83) When may the MEMO "N.W. STRG DISC" appear on the EWD?

A. When the Captain and / or First Officer are depressing their DISC buttons
on the steering handle.
B. In green (only) during a pushback which includes engine start. (Your Answer)
C. When the ANTISKID and NWS switch B placed to OFF.
D. In amber, during a pushback with an engine running. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

84) Regarding Gravity Extension, which of the following is true?

A. Only the nosewheel doors remain open.

B. Only the mainwheel doors remain open. (Your Answer)
C. N'wheel steering is not available. (Correct Answer)
D. N'wheel steering is available if the Green hydraulic system is operating.
Incorrect

85) Why may the IRS ALIGN lights flash during a pre-flight check?

A. The IRS is using battery power.

B. Loss of all functions except ATT and HDG.
C. Failure to switch on the associated ADR. (Your Answer)
D. The IRS is awaiting a position entry. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

86) Which can be tuned by RMP No. 1?

A. Any radio communication equipment and outside radio aids. (Correct Answer)
B. Any radio communication equipment only.
C. Associated radio aids and onside communication equipment.
D. VHF 1 and HF 1 only. (Your Answer)
Incorrect

87) What does the Captain's ND show when selected to ROSE ILS?

A. ILS receiver No. 1 or No. 2 signals, as selected. (Your Answer)

B. ILS receiver No. 1 signals only.
C. ILS receiver No. 2 signals only. (Correct Answer)
D. ILS receiver No. 2 signals and the map.
Incorrect

88) When RMP tuning is in operation, which is true.

A. The MCDU's will display the tuned navaids. (Your Answer)

B. There will be an amber light on the ACP.
C. ILS SME is not available. (Correct Answer)
D. The ILS receivers are tuned by their respective RMP's.
Correct

89) When landing a serviceable aircraft with Flaps 3, what is the correct action on
the GPWS panel?

A. Switch OFF the SYS switch.

B. Switch ON the G/S MODE switch.
C. Switch ON the LDG FLAP 3 switch. (Your Answer)
D. Switch ON the FLAP MODE switch.
Incorrect

90) When and how is a rapid alignment carried out?

A. On all transit stops, if the accuracy is LOW, by recycling IR selectors. (Your

Answer)
B. If residual groundspeed > 5 kts, by setting the Rotary Selectors OFF and to
NAV within 5 seconds. (Correct Answer)
C. If residual groundspeed < 5 kts, by setting the Rotary Selectors OFF and to
NAV after more than 5 seconds.
D. On all transit stops, by recycling the NAV and ADR switches OFF / ON.
Correct

91) EGPWS uses which baro information?

A. Captain's. (Your Answer)

B. First Officer's.
C. The lower setting of the Captain's and First Officer's settings.
D. The pilot whose autopilot is engaged.
Incorrect

92) If both FMGC's fail, how is VOR 2 tuned?

A. Using ACP 2.
B. It cannot be tuned.
C. Using RMP2 only. (Correct Answer)
D. Using RMP1 or RMP2. (Your Answer)
Incorrect

93) Why is the PLAN mode (ND) used only to check flight plans?

A. Weather radar (only) cannot be displayed. (Your Answer)

B. Navaids (only) cannot be displayed.
C. Weather radar and navaids cannot be displayed. (Correct Answer)
D. It is orientated to MAG. NORTH.
Incorrect

94) Why is a NAV ACCURACY check carried out?

 A. By comparing VOR bearing and DME distance against "BG and DIST to"
on MCDU PROG page. (Correct Answer)
B. By comparing TO WPT information (top right of ND) against "BG and
DIST to" on MCDU PROG page.
C. By checking both MCDUs show HI accuracy.
D. By checking NAV ACCURACY UPGRADE is displayed in the
MCDU. (Your Answer)
Incorrect

95) If the radar on the ND sweeps from the centre outwards, what does it mean?

A. Weather radar picture is offset due to a fault.

B. Weather radar is being used to show EGPWS terrain. (Your Answer)
C. Nav. Database is being used to show EGPWS terrain. (Correct Answer)
D. It is giving a TEST pattern.
Correct

96) What would cause a managed climb to revert to an Open Climb.

A. Pushing the heading knob on the FCU.

B. Pulling the heading knob on the FCU. (Your Answer)
C. Pushing the altitude knob on the FCU.
D. Pushing the vertical speed knob on the FCU.
Incorrect

97) Which of the following correctly describes the cross-bleed valve operation?

A. In manual, it is electrically selected and pneumatically operated. (Your

Answer)
B. In auto, it is pneumatically operated.
C. In auto, it will open as necessary, to equalise the duct pressures.
D. In auto, it will be closed if the engine bleed valves are open. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

98) If GROUND H.P. AIR is connected, which of the following is true?

A. Do not use the PACKS. (Your Answer)

B. Do not mix with ENG. BLEED AIR.
C. Do not use the PACKS or mix it with ENG. BLEED AIR. (Correct Answer)
D. The GD. H.P. AIR can be used without restrictions.
Incorrect

99) Which is true of the FADEC system?

A. It is continuously powered from when the aircraft receives A.C. power.

B. It is a dual channel unit that is self-powered with the engine
running. (Correct Answer)
 C. It is not available until the engine MODE SEL is set to IGN/START. (Your
Answer)
D. It is self-powered above 5% N1.
Correct

100) What automatically activates the igniters for take-off?

A. Extending the SLATS whilst taxying.

B. Extending the FLAPS whilst taxying.
C. Selecting FLX or TOGA. (Your Answer)
D. Weight off wheels.
Correct

101) At the start of the flight, what will be the condition of ATHR?

A. ACTIVE at 1500 feet AAL.

B. ACTIVE on selection of TOGA or FLX power.
C. ARMED on selection of TOGA or FLX power. (Your Answer)
D. ARMED at 80 kts.
Incorrect

102) When is the FUEL USED indication (on the SD) reset to zero?

A. When the associated MASTER SW is selected OFF (on ground only).

B. When the associated MASTER SW is selected OFF (at any time).
C. During associated engine start. (Correct Answer)
D. Five minutes after engine shutdown on the ground. (Your Answer)
Incorrect

103) Regarding an Auto Start, which of the following is a correct statement?

A. Loss of the N2 grey background signifies start valve closure.

B. Engine No.2 normally uses igniter B. (Your Answer)
C. Loss of the N2 grey background signifies end of the start sequence. (Correct
Answer)
D. Putting the MODE SEL to START closes the bleed valve.
Correct

104) Which of the following indications may be ignored?

A. Amber EGT during take-off. (Your Answer)

B. Red EGT during take-off.
C. Amber N1 during take-off.
D. Amber N2 during take-off.
Correct

105) Regarding FADEC, which of the following statements is true?

 A. It can be energised on ground by putting ENG MODE SEL to START. (Your
Answer)
B. Each FADEC has three channels.
C. The FADEC is able to abort a MANUAL START.
D. FADEC runs for 10 minutes after the aircraft is electrically powered-up.
Incorrect

106) In flight, how is the crew advised that the engines are spooled-down?

A. "ADVISORY" displayed on the ENG. S.D.

B. Aural alert " SPEED, SPEED, SPEED". (Your Answer)
C. Master Caution and Single chime.
D. "IDLE" displayed between the EPR gauges. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

107) After Take-Off, when does the ATHR become ACTIVE?

A. 1500 feet above airfield elevation.

B. 1500 feet R.A.
C. Thrust Reduction altitude. (Correct Answer)
D. Acceleration Altitude. (Your Answer)
Incorrect

108) During a manual start, what does the MAN START pushbutton do?

A. It controls the FUEL VALVE.

B. It controls the START VALVE and the FUEL VALVES.
C. It opens the start valve and must be selected OFF to close the start
valve. (Your Answer)
D. It opens the start valve: the start valve will close automatically. (Correct
Answer)
Incorrect

109) On the approach to land, what automatically activates the igniters?

A. Selecting Config.1. (Correct Answer)

B. Selecting Gear Down.
C. Passing 2500' R.A.
D. Selecting Config.2 from Config. 1. (Your Answer)
Correct

110) How is an imminent change of trust highlighted?

A. A pulsing EPR gauge.

B. TLA movements on the N1 gauge.
C. A blue arc on the EPR gauge. (Your Answer)
D. A magenta arc on the N1 gauge.
Incorrect

111) Regarding an AUTO START, which of the following is correct statement?

A. Putting the Master Switch ON starts IGN immediately. (Your Answer)

B. The start sequence ends at 40% N2.
C. If the start is aborted, the pilot must select CRANK on the mode selector.
D. Igniter operation alternates A/B at each start. (Correct Answer)
Correct

112) What does FADEC do if there is no ignition during an automatic start cycle?

A. Show an ECAM message : the crew must perform a dry crank.

B. If no EGT after 30 seconds, it will activate the other igniter.
C. Abort the start, then attempt another start using the other igniter.
D. Abort the start and perform a dry crank. (Your Answer)
Incorrect

113) What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for take-off.

A. 29 (gusting 38) knots. (Correct Answer)

B. 33 (gusting 38) knots. (Your Answer)
C. 29 (gusting 33) knots.
D. 34 knots.
Incorrect

114) What is the maximum wind speed for door operation?

A. 70 knots. (Your Answer)

B. 65 knots. (Correct Answer)
C. 55 knots(gusting 60 knots).
D. 52 knots.
Correct

115) What is the limiting speed for selecting the gear down?

A. 220 kt.
B. 250 kt. (Your Answer)
C. 260 kt.
D. Green Dot.
Correct

116) What is the maximum runway slope?

A. +/-1%
B. +1% / -2%
C. +/-2% (Your Answer)
 D. +2% / -1%
Incorrect

117) What are the maximum acceleration (G) limits?

A. Slats extended and flaps retracted, 0g to +2g. (Correct Answer)

B. Slats and flaps extended, 0g to 2.5g.
C. Clean -1g to +2.5g and flaps extended -1g to +2g.
D. Clean, and slats extended, -1g to +2.5g. (Your Answer)
Incorrect

118) What are the Power Plant Starter limitations?

A. The maximum speed for starter engagement is 20% N1.

B. The maximum speed for starter engagement is 30% N2.
C. After 3 failed start attempts, maintenance action is necessary. (Your Answer)
D. After 3 failed start attempts, allow 30 minutes cooling. (Correct Answer)
Correct

119) What is the minimum speed for use of full reverse thrust?

A. 50 kt.
B. 60 kt.
C. 70 kt. (Your Answer)
D. 75 kt.
Correct

120) What is the maximum speed for FLAP 3?

A. 177 kts.
B. 185 kts. (Your Answer)
C. 200 kts.
D. 205 kts.
Incorrect

121) What is the maximum cabin pressure differential?

A. Positive 8.4 psi., Negative 1.0 psi.

B. Positive 8.6 psi., Negative 1.2 psi.
C. Positive 8.5 psi., Negative 0.4 psi. (Your Answer)
D. Positive 8.6 psi., Negative 1.0 psi. (Correct Answer)
Correct

122) What is the limiting factor for opening the Ram Air Valve?

A. Aircraft altitude at or below 10,000 ft.

B. Cabin differential pressure at or below 1 psi. (Your Answer)
 C. Aircraft must be on ground.
D. Aircraft must be fully depressurised.
Incorrect

123) What is the maximum EPR with the park brake ON?

A. 1.05
B. 1.15 (Your Answer)
C. 1.18 (Correct Answer)
D. 1.25
Incorrect

124) What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing?

A. 33 (Gusting 38) knots. (Correct Answer)

B. 33 (Gusting 37) knots.
C. 29 (Gusting 33) knots. (Your Answer)
D. 34 (Gusting 33) knots.
Incorrect

125) What is the maximum speed for flight with the side window open?

A. 200 kts. (Correct Answer)

B. 230 kts.
C. Green Dot. (Your Answer)
D. 250 kts.
Incorrect

126) What is the limiting speed with the gear down locked?

A. 250 kts. (Your Answer)

B. 280 kts. (Correct Answer)
C. 300 kts.
D. Green Dot
Incorrect

127) What is the limiting altitude for use of APU bleed?

A. 15,000 feet.
B. 20,000 feet. (Correct Answer)
C. 25,000 feet. (Your Answer)
D. 39,100 feet.
Incorrect

128) What is the maximum altitude for APU start on batteries only?

A. 15,000 feet. (Your Answer)

 B. 20,000 feet.
C. 25,000 feet. (Correct Answer)
D. 39,000 feet.
Incorrect

129) What is the maximum EGT at TOGA THR?

A. 710℃
B. 950℃ (Correct Answer)
C. 765℃
D. 690℃ (Your Answer)
Incorrect

130) Which of the following is a correct starter limitation?

A. The max speed for starter engagement is 20% N2, (recommended

10%) (Correct Answer)
B. After 3 failed start attempts, allow one hour cooling.
C. After 4 failed start attempts, allow one hour cooling.
D. Maximum continuous cranking is 3 minutes. (Your Answer)
Correct

131) What is the max. speed for FLAP FULL?

A. 177 kts. (Your Answer)

B. 185 kts.
C. 200 kts.
D. 205 kts.
Correct

132) What is the maximum speed for the use of windscreen wipers?

A. Green Dot.
B. 230 kts. (Your Answer)
C. 240 kts.
D. 250 kts.
Incorrect

133) What is the limiting groundspeed for the tyres?

A. 185 kts.
B. 190 kts. (Your Answer)
C. 195 kts. (Correct Answer)
D. 198 kts.
Incorrect

134) What is the minimum fuel for take-off?

 A. 2000 kg.
B. 1800 kg. (Your Answer)
C. 1500 kg.
D. 1500 kg and WG TANK LO LVL not displayed. (Correct Answer)
Correct

135) In the MEL "remarks or Exceptions" column, what is signified by (0)?

A. Aircraft may be flown back to base for rectification.

B. A procedure to be carried out by the flight crew. (Your Answer)
C. A procedure to be carried out by maintenance.
D. Dispatch is not allowed.
Correct

136) In the MEL "remarks or Exceptions" column, what is signified by an (*)?

A. A crew operational procedure.

B. Maintenance action is required.
C. Inoperative equipment must have a placard. (Your Answer)
D. Aircraft may operate back to base.
Correct

137) What do we do if the brakes fail during an RTO?

A. Brake pedals PUSH, reverse max, brakes RELEASE, A/SKID & N/W
STRG SW off, brakes use max 1000 psi.
B. Reverse max, recycle A/SKID & N/W STRG, brakes use as normal.
C. Brake pedals PUSH and hold, A/SKID & N/W STR SW off, brakes use as
normal.
D. Reverse max, brake pedals release, A/SKID & N/W STRG off, brakes use
max 1000 psi. (Your Answer)
Correct

138) After donning oxygen, what are the initial actions required in order to start an
emergency descent following rapid decompression (structural failure)?

A. FCU:ALT - Select lower and PULL : HDG - turn left or right and PULL :
SPD - PULL : MACH / SPD adjust target. (Your Answer)
B. FCU:ALT - Select lower and PULL : HDG - turn left or right and PULL :
MACH / SPD change over switch PUSH.
C. FCU:ALT - Select lower and PUSH : HDG - turn left or right and PULL
when IAS increasing, select FULL speedbrake.
D. FCU:ALT - Select lower and EXPEDITE : HDG - turn left or right and
PULL : THR levers to IDLE : select half speedbrake.
Correct
139) Following a TCAS "CLIMB" message, what are the initial actions?

A. A/P OFF : TOGA power : VERT SPD to Green Band

B. ATHR OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band.
C. A/P OFF : FD's OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band. (Your Answer)
D. V/S SELECT +1500 : CLM power.
Correct

140) Immediate actions with unreliable IAS on take-of before SLAT retraction?

A. AP/FD OFF : FLAPS - do not move. (Your Answer)

B. AP/FD ON : FLAPS - do not move.
C. FD OFF : FLAPS - retract on schedule.
D. AP OFF : FLAPS - retract on schedule.
Incorrect

141) Initial actions in the event of a GPWS alert including "PULL UP"?

A. AP ON : TOGA power : Select V/S 3000 ft/min.

B. AP OFF : TOGA power : Select 17° pitch-up. (Your Answer)
C. AP OFF : sidestick hard back : TOGA power. (Correct Answer)
D. AP OFF : TOGA power : follow pitch demands on FD.
Incorrect

142) " In order to leave the cockpit in an emergency, you should ...

A. ... leave via a sliding window, using its associated escape rope only." (Your
Answer)
B. ... leave via a sliding window only, using either escape rope."
C. ... kick out the panel in the cockpit door."
D. ... leave via a sliding window, or force the cockpit door in either
direction."(Correct Answer)
Incorrect

143) Initial actions in event of a rejected Take-Off at more than 72 kts.?

A. Call "STOP" : REVERSE THR MAX : Maximum foot brakes. (Your Answer)
B. Call "STOP" : REVERSE THR MAX : Reverse idle by 80 kts.
C. Call "STOP" : REVERSE THR MAX :SPD BRAKES FULL.
D. Call "STOP" : REVERSE THR MAX . (Correct Answer)
Correct

144) Initial actions when airborne after a "WINDSHEAR" warning?

A. TOGA PWR : follow FD pitch demand. (Your Answer)

B. TOGA PWR : ignore FD - pitch to 17.5°
C. TOGA PWR : follow FD pitch demand : raise landing gear.
 D. TOGA PWR : sidestick fully back : maintain gear / flap config.
Correct

145) What are the initial actions, after selecting MAX REVERSE, in event of loss
of braking when Autobrake is selected OFF?

A. Recycle A/SKID & NW STEERING switch : use brakes normal.

B. Apply Parking Brake intermittently max 1000 psi.
C. Switch to ALTN BRAKING, brakes use max 1000 psi.
D. Brakes release, A/SKID & NW STEERING off, brakes max 1000 psi. (Your
Answer)

Correct

146) What is the sequence of actions, on the FCU, in order to start an emergency
descent (structural failure)?

A. Select lower ALT and PULL : HDG knob - turn left or right and PULL :
SPEED knob : PULL : MACH / SPEED target adjust. (Your Answer)
B. PULL and select lower ALT : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right :
MACH / SPEED changeover button - PRESS.
C. Select lower ALT and PULL : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right :
SPEED knob : PULL and descend at Mᴍᴏ/Vᴍᴏ minus 10 kts.
D. Select lower ALT and PUSH : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right :
SPEED knob : PULL : MACH / SPEED changeover button - PRESS.
Correct

147) Following a TCAS "Descend, descend now", what are the initial actions?

A. Follow Flight Director commands.

B. A/P OFF : ATHR OFF : increase rate of descent from present value.
C. A/P OFF : Both FD's OFF : set vertical speed to Green area. (Your Answer)
D. A/P OFF : THR LVRS idle : set vertical speed to Green area.
Incorrect

148) Immediate actions with speed indications unreliable above THR RED ALT?

A. AP off, F/D off, A/T off, Flaps maintain config, speedbrakes retract. (Your
Answer)
B. Set CLB THR : above FL 100, set pitch +5° : below FL 100 set pitch +
10°.(Correct Answer)
C. Maintain present pitch attitude and set CLB THR.
D. Set TOGA THR : set pitch +5°.
Correct

149) Initial actions in the event of a GPWS alert which includes "PULL UP"?

A. Set TOGA THR : set pitch + 17 ½°.

B. Set TOGA THR : climb aircraft at alpha prot.
 C. Sidestick fully aft : TOGA thrust : A/P OFF. (Your Answer)
D. Sidestick fully aft : TOGA thrust : then follow FD commands.
Incorrect

150) "In order to leave the cockpit in an emergency, you should ...

A. ... force the cockpit door open by pulling it."

B. ... lock the sliding window fully open using the locking pin."
C. ... leave via a sliding window using associated escape rope only." (Your
Answer)
D. ... leave via a sliding window using either escape rope." (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

151) After calling "STOP", what are the next actions in event of an RTO?

A. THR IDLE : Select G.D. SPOILERS FULL : REV MAX.

B. REV MAX : foot braking max. pedal deflection.
C. REV MAX : if all DECEL lights not illuminated, foot braking max. (Your
Answer)
D. REVERSE THR. MAX : if brake response not appropriate for runway
conditions, FULL MAN braking applied an maintained. (Correct Answer)
Correct

152) When airborne, what are the initial actions after selecting TOGA following a
"WINDSHEAR" warning?

A. Follow FD pitch demand. (Your Answer)

B. Sidestick fully aft : raise gear, (if down).
C. Follow FD and raise Slats / Flaps if above S speed / F speed respectfully.
D. Sidestick fully aft : maintain config. until clear of windshear.
Incorrect

153) What are the lowest minima for a CAT II Auto-land?

A. DH 100 ft & RVR 500 m. (Your Answer)

B. DH 121 ft & RVR 400 m.
C. DH 141 ft & RVR 450 m.
D. DH 100 ft & RVR 300 m. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

154) What are the minimum visual refs required at DH for CAT IIIa approach?

A. Five consecutive centre line lights or TDZ lights.

B. Three consecutive centre line lights or TDZ lights. (Correct Answer)
C. Any combination of two centre line / runway edge / TDZ lights. (Your
Answer)
D. One centre line or touch down zone light.
Incorrect
155) After clearing the runway, you are clear of the "sensitive" area when :

A. The green / yellow alternating centreline lights become green only. (Correct
Answer)
B. The green / yellow alternating centreline lights become blue.
C. You pass a red stop bar. (Your Answer)
D. You pass the normal holding point.
Incorrect

156) What is the optimum flap setting to use for landing?

A. Maximum - in order to reduce the approach speed. (Your Answer)

B. Maximum - in order to increase the visual segment. (Correct Answer)
C. Minimum - in order to increase the visual segment.
D. Minimum - in order to improve forward vision.
Incorrect

157) During taxi you observe flashing yellow lights each side of the taxiway.

A. You are about to enter an active runway. (Correct Answer)

B. You must stop and ask ATC for instructions.
C. You are approaching a taxiway intersection. (Your Answer)
D. You have reached the CAT III Holding Point.
Incorrect

158) You commence an approach with RVR above minima and inside the FAF/OM
ATC report an RVR below minima. What is the correct action?

A. Make an immediate Go-around. (Your Answer)

B. Continue to descend to Alert Height.
C. Continue to CAT I DH and then decide whether to go-around.
D. Continue to DH and go-around if visual reference is not established. (Correct
Answer)
Correct

159) Runway centre lighting is ...

A. White until 900m remaining, red and white until 300m and then red. (Your
Answer)
B. White for the first 900m, red and white until 600m remains, then red.
C. White until 300m remains, then red.
D. White until 900m remains, then red and white until the runway ends.
Incorrect

160) In a fail-operational flight control system, following a failure of any

component on final approach, which is true?
 A. An immediate go-around must be executed.
B. The crew should reset the DH to 100feet above the normal DH.
C. Below alert altitude a manual lading can be executed (if visual). (Your
Answer)
D. Below alert height, the aircraft will execute an auto-land. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

161) What are the authorised lowest minima for a CAT IIIa Approach?

A. DH 100 ft & RVR 200m.

B. DH 100 ft & RVR 100m. (Your Answer)
C. DH 50 ft & RVR 200m. (Correct Answer)
D. DH 50 ft & RVR 100m.
Correct

162) For CAT III operations with no DH what are the minimum visual references?

A. At least one centre line and one edge light each side should be visible.
B. There is no requirement for visual contact with the runway. (Your Answer)
C. Either three centre line lights (assuming 15m spacing).
D. Two centre line lights (assuming 30m spacing).
Incorrect

163) TDZ RVR non available, but crew assessment is. When is take-off allowed?

A. Take-off is not allowed. (Your Answer)

B. Take-off is allowed only if the Mid Point RVR is in limits.
C. Take-off is allowed if the Mid Point RVR or Stop End RVR is in limits.
D. When Mid Point and the Stop End RVR's are in limits. (Correct Answer)
Correct

164) How is the optimum touchdown point marked on the runway?

A. Red barrettes.
B. Large white painted rectangles on the runway surface. (Your Answer)
C. Yellow edge lights.
D. Green centreline lights.
Incorrect

165) What are the restrictions on ATC reports to an aircraft on finals?

A. Inside the O.M. - radio silence.

B. Inside the O.M. - RVR reports only. (Your Answer)
C. Less than 3nm to touchdown - ILS failures only.
D. Less than 1nm to touchdown - radio silence. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect
166) Clearing the runway, you are clear of the "obstacle-free" zone when ...

A. You pass the normal holding point. (Correct Answer)

B. You pass a double yellow bar on the taxiway.
C. You pass a special notice identifying the edge of the obstacle-free zone.
D. You pass yellow flashing lights (each side of the taxiway). (Your Answer)
Correct

167) The weather is above CAT I limits, but ATC report LVP's are in force.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. You may carry out a CAT I approach unrestricted.

B. You must follow Low Visibility Procedures. (Your Answer)
C. You may carry out a CAT I approach if you advise ATC.
D. You may carry out a CAT I approach only if authorised by ATC.
Incorrect

168) In a fail-passive flight control system, following a failure of any component,

which of the following statements is true?

A. The pilot need not take any action.

B. The aircraft may be out of trim nose-up but the pilot can control it. (Your
Answer)
C. There is no significant out of trim condition or flight path deviation and the
pilot can monitor the approach provided no other failures occur.
D. There is no significant out of trim condition or deviation of flight path, but
the pilot must fly the aircraft manually after the failure. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

169) If the ECAM Upper DU fails, how can an SD/Status page be displayed?

A. On the Captain's left EFIS using the EIS DMC SWITCHING panel an the
ECAM Control Panel.
B. On the lower ECAM DU by a momentary press on the associated ECAM
Control Panel push-button switch. (Your Answer)
C. On the lower ECAM DU by pressing and holding down the associated
ECAM Control Panel push-button switch. (Correct Answer)
D. By use of the RECALL push-button switch on the ECAM Control Panel.
Correct

170) On the E/WD, when does magenta LDG INHIBIT appear automatically?

A. Below 800 feet radio altitude. (Your Answer)

B. Below 2000 feet radio altitude.
C. With selection of FLAP2 on the approach.
D. With selection of GEAR DOWN.
Correct
171) "Pressing the ECAM control panel RCL push-button switch ...

A. ... displays the STATUS page on the lower ECAM."

B. ... continuously scrolls through all the System Displays."
C. ... for more than 3 seconds, will recall any CANCELLED
CAUTIONS." (Your Answer)
D. ... displays the LANDING MEMO on the E.W.D."
Correct

172) On the SYSTEM DISPLAY, what has occurred if the ELECTRICS page
appears automatically with no other caution or warning indications?

A. An ADVISORY has occurred; the drifting parameter will be pulsing. (Your

Answer)
B. An ADVISORY has occurred; the drifting parameter will be amber.
C. An INDEPENDENT failure has occurred.
D. A PRIMARY failure has occurred.
Incorrect

173) What happens if EMER CANC button on the ECAM control panel is
pressed?

A. EWD Red Warnings are transferred to the STS S.D. (Your Answer)
B. EWD Amber Warnings are transferred to the STS S.D. (Correct Answer)
C. Aural Warnings are inhibited for the remainder of the flight.
D. If pressed for more than 3 seconds, cautions will be suppressed.
Incorrect

174) Regarding ECAM, which of the following statements is true?

A. Amber messages on EWD are always accompanied by Master

Cautions. (Your Answer)
B. Master Cautions are always accompanied by amber messages on
EWD. (Correct Answer)
C. Primary failures are identified by a star (*) against them.
D. Independent failures are identified by a star (*) against them.
Incorrect

175) What happens when the gear is selected down on the approach?

A. The WHEEL S.D. appears on the LOWER ECAM display. (Correct Answer)
B. The STS page appears on the LOWER ECAM display.
C. The STS page appears on the LOWER ECAM display if there is a
malfunction showing on the STS page. (Your Answer)
D. The WHEEL button on the ECAM control panel illuminates.
Incorrect
176) Where can you see metric altitude?

A. EWD
B. SD (Correct Answer)
C. PFD (Your Answer)
D. ND
Incorrect

177) The Captain's left EFIS has failed, so what must be done to display the PFD?

A. Push the button on the Captain's panel (outboard of the EFIS screens).
B. Nothing. The PFD will automatically go to the right EFIS screen. (Correct
Answer)
C. Using the ECAM/ND SWITCHING PANEL switch. (Your Answer)
D. Nothing. It cannot be displayed on the Captain's right EFIS.
Incorrect

178) On the ECAM E/WD, when does the "TO INHIBIT" memo disappear
automatically after take-off?

A. 800 ft. (Your Answer)

B. 2000 ft. Radio Altitude.
C. On flap retraction.
D. 1500 ft. or 2 minutes after lift off. (Correct Answer)
Incorrect

179) How are the secondary failures identified?

A. They are in amber on the STS page. (Your Answer)

B. They are displayed on the bottom left of the EWD.
C. They are in white at the bottom left of the STS page.
D. They have a star (*) against them. (Correct Answer)
Correct

180) What does the green arrow on the EWD at bottom centre signify?

A. Refer to the S.D. for more information.

B. There is more information. To access it, press the CLR button. (Your Answer)
C. There is more information. To access it, press the STS button.
D. You should press the emergency cancel button.
Incorrect

181) How can cancelled cautions be returned to the system?

A. Press the RCL button (on the ECAM control panel). (Your Answer)
B. Press the RCL button (on the ECAM control panel) for more that 3
secs. (Correct Answer)
 C. Press the ALL button for more that 3 secs.
D. Press the CLR button 3 times.
Incorrect

182) To review the procedure at the end of ECAM, what should you do?

A. Press the RCL button for less than three seconds. (Correct Answer)
B. Press the RCL button for more than three seconds. (Your Answer)
C. Press the CLR button.
D. Press the STS button.
Correct

183) If the upper ECAM screen fails, now can you view the WHEEL S.D.?

A. Select the DMC switch to CAPT 3, then press the WHEEL button.
B. Scroll through the systems using the ALL button.
C. Push and hold the WHEEL button. (Your Answer)
D. Push the WHEEL button momentarily to display the SD for 30 secs.
Incorrect

184) What SD is displayed during the T/O roll?

A. Cruise.
B. Wheel.
C. Engine. (Correct Answer)
D. Flight Controls. (Your Answer)
Correct

185) During an approach, in managed speed, the speed bug automatically goes to a
speed higher than Vᴀᴘᴘ indicated on the MCDU PERF page. Why?

A. The "local" (IRS) wind is giving a smaller headwind component than that
entered in the PERF page.
B. The "local" (IRS) wind is giving a larger headwind component than that
entered in the PERF page. (Your Answer)
C. The flaps are not in the configuration sown on the MCDU PERF page.
D. A sudden tailwind component has been encountered.
Incorrect

186) What will the FMA (lateral) immediately show in the event of a Go-Around?

A. G/A TRK (The actual track at the time of selecting TOGA power). (Correct
Answer)
B. G/A TRK (The initial track of the G/A procedure). (Your Answer)
C. NAV (Managed navigation for the go-around).
D. RWY HDG (The runway heading).