PREBOARD READING MATERIAL

CRIMINALISTICS
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the
box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no.
1 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. There are six (6) stages in fingerprint classification. Which of the following is the last stage of the classification?
a. Secondary c. Major
b. Key d. Final

2. The sub-secondary classification is exhibited by three (3) fingers of right and left hands. What are the following
fingers involved in this stage of classification?
a. index and middle fingers c. middle and ring fingers
b. index, middle and ring fingers d. ring and index fingers.

3. Which of the following fingers has the highest designated numerical value?
a. Right and Left thumb fingers c. Right thumb and right index fingers
b. Right and Left index fingers d. right and left index fingers

4. Which of the following fingerprint symbol with numerical value in primary classification?
a. / c. X
b. \ d. A

5. Which of the following is considered as the world’s first fingerprint bureau?

a. FBI c. Kolkata Anthropometric Bureau
b. Scotland Yard d. Central Finger Print Bureau

6. Credited as the first system of personal identification.

a. Anthropometry c. Chiroscopy
b. Dactylography d. Dactyloscopy

7. Who are the two Indian fingerprint experts credited with primary development of the Henry System of
fingerprint classification?
a. Haque and Bose c. Jack and Jill
b. Mutt and Jeff d. Lois and Clark

8. First nation to have used fingerprint known as Hua Chi.

a. USA c. England
b. Philippines d. China

9. Who is that fingerprint pioneer who studied the persistency of ridge characteristic?
a. Edward Henry c. [Link]
b. Francis Galton d. Marcelo Malphigi

10. Sweat ducts emitted greasy substance known as _____.

a. salt c. amino acid
b. natural oil d. water

11. It is that part of a loop and whorl in which appear the core deltas and ridges with which we are concerned in
classifying.
a. type line c. friction skin
b. pattern area d. divergence

12. When there is a definite break in type line, what is considered as its continuation?
a. the ridge immediately outside c. the ridge immediately follow
b. the ridge immediately inside d. the ridge immediately succeeded

13. Which of the following cannot be used as typeline?

a. Divergence
b. angular formation
c. 2 innermost ridges
d. 2 forks of bifurcation run parallel, then diverge

14. What is an ending ridge of any length rising at a sufficient degree from the horizontal plane at least 45 or more?
a. sufficient recurved c. shoulder of a loop
b. upthrust d. recurving ridge

15. Type of tented arch, possesing two of the three basic characteristic of the loop, but lacking the third.
a. angle type c. resembling loop
b. upthrust type d. Loop
16. For the left hand, the loops flowing toward the thumb is called _____.
a. radial loop c. reverse loop
b. ulnar loop d. opposite loop

17. Delta is also known as ______

a. lower ridge c. inner terminus
b. outer terminus d. upper terminus

18. Principle of constancy in fingerprint science means that fingerprint is ________

a. unchanging c. not conclusive
b. not possible of forgery d. fallible

19. Which means that no two fingerprint are exactly alike.

a. principles of individuality c. principles of infallibility
b. principles of permanency d. principles of unlikeness

20. This principle means that fingerprint is reliable.

a. principles of individuality c. principles of infallibility
b. principles of permanency d. principles of unlikeness

21. In fingerprints patterns, there are how many kinds of tented arches?
a. Two c. four
b. Three d. five

22. What do you call the number of ridges intervening between the delta and the core?
a. ridge count c. charting the ridge
b. ridge trace d. intersecting the ridge

23. The spreading apart of two line which have been running parallel or nearly parallel is called;
a. converging ridge c. recurving ridge
b. diverging ridge d. bifurcating ridge

24. Refers to a single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form a single ridge.
a. resembling a loop c. short ridge
b. enclosure ridge d. dot ridge

25. The ridge or ridges that slope toward the little fingers in the right hand is called _____.
a. ulnar loop c. dividing loop
b. radial loop d. resembling loop

26. In an ink impression, a ______must intervene between a delta and the first ridge count.
a. an imaginary line c. bifurcating ridge
b. core d. white space

27. In taking fingerprints _________are rolled towards the body of the subject.
a. all fingers except thumb c. little fingers
b. all fingers d. both thumbs

28. What finger is rolled away from the body of the subject?
a. all fingers c. both thumbs and ring fingers
b. all fingers except the thumb d. all eight fingers

29. Fingerprint ink can be spread evenly on the glass by means of ______.
a. fingerprint card holder c. spatula
b. fingerprint brush d. fingerprint roller

30. Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the fingerprint card isknown as ______.
a. plain impression c. rolled impression
b. fragmentary impression d. visible impression

31. One of the cardinal rules in taking fingerprints is that the finger must be completely _______.
a. Healty c. moist
b. healed from previous injury d. dry

32. Subject being fingerprinted must be advised by the operator to __________.

a. Cooperate c. keep still
b. Relax d. look at his hand

33. Correct sequence of rolled impression can be checked by means of the _________.
a. plain impression c. fingerprint operator
b. classification formula d. fingerprint classifier
34. Ridges which is too light and faint to be counted or traced is a result of;
a. insufficient ink c. heavy black printer ink
b. too much ink d. slipping

35. When the slab is dirty or the technician failed to clean the slab after using it, will produce;
a. accentuation of pattern c. impression of false marking
b. difficuly in photographing d. pattern reversal

36. Known for his rule which states that no two individuals in the world are exactly the same size and that human
skeleton does not change after 20 years
a. Darwin c. Galton
b. Mendel d. Bertillon

37. The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprint is to view the area.
a. obliquely c. directly
b. about half an inch distance d. about one inch distance

38. Fingerprint pattern in which two or more different type of pattern are represented
a. accidental loop c. central pocket loop
b. double loop d. whorl

39. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops with its respective shoulder and delta.
a. double loop c. central pocket loop
b. accidental loop d. whorl

40. If a subject has more than ten fingers, the extra finger is printed on the _____of the fingerprint card with
notation to the effect that the same is an extra finger.
a. face c. face upper corner
b. back d. face,lower corner

41. It refers to spiral grooves inside the barrel of the firearm that fired bullet passes through.
a. Lands c. Rifling
b. Groove d. muzzle

42. A part of the cartridge case consider as serrated grooves that sometimes found rolled into the neck and body of
the cases to prevent bullet can being push back or loosened.
a. Rim c. vents or flash hole
b. primier pocket d. cannelures

43. A type of instrument being used in measuring of rifling of firearms.

a. Caliper c. taper gauge
b. Onoscope d. helixometer

44. The mechanism in a firearm by which the cartridge case or shear is withdrawn from the chamber in a revolver
that pulls the empty shells simultaneously.
a. Ejector c. Cylinder
b. Extractor d. Breechblack

45. The microscopic viewing of identifying two fired specimen cartridge case or bullet putting into congruency is a
process of examination by;
a. juxta position c. collision
b. inter-marriage d. assessment

46. It is produced by a harder surface scraping, dragging, sliding or slipping across a softer one leaving a series of
abrasions, serrations and scrapes.
a. Striation mark c. breechface mark
b. stamp mark d. none of these

47. Fingerprint marks can be found in the ________ of the fire arm;
a. Butt c. trigger guard
b. trigger d. all of these

48. The colt .45 has ;

a. 6 grooves, right twist c. 6 grooves, left twist
b. 4 grooves, left twist d. 4 grooves, right twist

49. Smith and Wesson model .38has

a. 6 grooves, right twist c. 6 grooves, left twist
b. 4 grooves, left twist d. 5 grooves, right twist

50. Refers to the forcible application of a hard surface against a softer one leaving an impression on the softer
surface like striking the firing pin on the primer.
a. Striation mark c. breechface mark
b. stamp mark d. none of these
51. It is a mark found in shell due to impact of breechblock in the recoil impresses the ridges of the breechblock and
often gives identification marks characteristics of firearm.
a. Firing pin marks c. ejector mark
b. breechblock mark d. all of these

52. Which of the following are marks can be found on the shell?
a. Firing pin marks c. ejector mark
b. extractor mark d. all of these

53. It is the amount of force on the trigger necessary to fire a gun.

a. Hammer impact c. trigger impact
b. hammer pressure d. trigger pressure

54. A shotgun has an approximate trigger pressure of;

a. 4lbs c. 6-10 lbs
b. 4-6 lbs d. none no these

55. Refers to the import, export, acquisition, sale, delivery, movement or transfer of firearms, their parts and
components and ammunition, from or across the territory of one country to that of another country which has
not been authorized in accordance with domestic law in either or both country/countries.
a. Smuggling in migrants c. Human smuggling
b. Arms smuggling d. Human trafficking

56. It is also called an “igniter”, a device used for the purpose of setting fire to ignite the gun powder.
a. Gun powder c. Cartridge case
b. Bullet d. Primer

57. Self-loading pistols, rifles and carbines, submachine guns, assault rifles and light machine guns not exceeding
caliber 7.62MM which have fully automatic mode are light weapons classified as;
a. Hand gun c. Rifles
b. Class A d. Class B

58. Refers to any handheld or portable weapon, whether a small arm or light weapon, that expels or is designed to
expel a bullet, shot, slug, missile or any projectile, which is discharged by means of expansive force of gases
from burning gunpowder or other form of combustion or any similar instrument or implement.
a. Radio c. Firearm
b. Cellphone d. Knife

59. It is due to the passage of bullet at the spiral landing and grooving of the barrel.
a. Spinning c. forward movement
b. gravity d. all of these

60. Disintegration of the bullets turning into several parts or pieces;

a. Shock wave c. gravity
b. hydrostastic force d. fragmentation

61. This act is known as the “Comprehensive Firearms and Ammunition Regulation Act”.
a. P.D. 1866 c. R.A. 8294
b. R.A. 10591 d. All of the above

62. How old is the firearm to be considered as antique firearm?

a. 30 years old c. 50 years old
b. 65 years old d. 75 years old

63. Which of the following is not a firearm?

a. ArmaLite c. .38 S&W revolver
b. Colt 45 d. .40 Glock

64. It is the projectile propelled through the barrel of a firearm by means of the expansive force of gases coming
from burning gunpowder;
a. Gun powder c. Cartridge case
b. Bullet d. Primer

65. Refers to a complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet, gunpowder, cartridge case and primer or loaded shell for
use in any firearm.
a. Ammunition c. Cartridge case
b. Bullet d. Primer

66. A container, usually metal and cylindrical in shape, to be loaded with a primer, powder charged and bullet.
After loading, it becomes a complete cartridge, of which the case is but one element. It is commonly made of
brass, although some are made of steel, aluminum, or other materials.
a. Gun powder c. Cartridge case
b. Bullet d. Primer
67. A weapon designed, made and intended to fire a number of ball shots or a single projectile through a smooth
bore by the action or energy from burning gunpowder.
a. Handgun c. Pistol
b. Small arms d. Shotgun

68. Refer to firearms intended to be or primarily designed for individual use or that which is generally considered to
mean a weapon intended to be fired from the hand or shoulder, which are not capable of fully automatic bursts
of discharge.
a. Handgun c. Pistol
b. Small arms d. Shotgun

69. How many round of ammunition is required to possess by a licensed gun owner?
a. Minimum of 50 rounds c. Minimum of 100 rounds
b. Maximum of 50 rounds d. Maximum of 100 rounds

70. Which among of the following is considered a complete firearm?

a. Barrel c. Receiver
b. frame d. All of the above

71. What mark can be found at the head of the shell?

a. Firing pin marks c. ejector mark
b. breechblock mark d. breechblock

72. Most common individual characteristics that are visible on the base portion of the fired cartridge case is
a. Firing pin impression c. Extractor marks
b. Ejector marks d. Chamber marks

73. A bullet fire from a firearm with an oversized or oily barrel or its lands have been worn down will produce what
kind of markings?
a. Slippage marks c. Rifling marks
b. Skid marks d. Shearing marks

74. Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to be withdrawn from the chamber.
a. Breechblock c. Breech face
b. Ejector d. Extractor

75. In firearms, identification, it is essential to supplement the serial number with

a. Caliber c. Make and model number
b. Frame number d. All of the above

76. After repeated firing of a revolver, this is deposited frequently on the index finger of the hand which the shooter
used to fire the gun
a. Powder burn c. Precipitin
b. Residue d. Dirt

77. When booking a fired bullet, the marks used to identify it is placed on
a. Its base c. Its side and base
b. Its side d. Its nose

78. The cartridge powder charge can be burn in approximately

a. 0.00001 c. 0.00003
b. 0.00002 d. 0.00004

79. The sealing or prevention of gunpowder gas after explosion from escaping so as to maintain high pressure in the
firing thereby increasing the propulsive power on the bullet is called;
a. Sealing c. Obturation
b. Labeling d. Kenetic energy

80. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit found in the body of the victim is even, the presumption
is;
a. that no bullet lodged in the body
b. that one or more bullets might have been lodged in the body
c. the bullet becomes fragmented
d. there is no gunshot wounds in the body

81. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit found in the body of the victim is odd, the presumption is;
a. that no bullet lodged in the body
b. that one or more bullets might have been lodged in the body
c. the bullet becomes fragmented
d. there is no gunshot wounds in the body

82. A type of lens appearing the object for bigger size during actual photographing for self-enlargement of the
object being photographed.
a. Wide angle lens c. zoom lens
b. macro lens d. special purpose lens
83. It is a type of film in photography used to discover obliterated object.
a. Monochromatic film c. orthochromatic film
b. panchromatic film d. infrared film

84. It is considered as light duration of the film during photographing an object upon lens opening.
a. ASA c. ISO
b. DIN d. Exposure

85. Which of the following color not included under magenta color combination?
a. Red c. Blue
b. Green d. fuchsia color

86. It is the distance measured in the optical center from the lens to the film when the lens is set to focus in
photographing an object.
a. focal length c. focal opening
b. focal distance d. focal viewing

87. The cutting and deletion of undesired portion of images in digital photography is a process of
_______________ to remain the desired image for enlargement.
a. catching c. editing
b. retouching d. cropping

88. It is an electromagnetic radiation within a certain portion of the electromagnetic spectrum and responsible for
the sense of sight.
a. Camera c. Sunlight
b. Eyes d. Light

89. Refers to light that has a longer wavelength.

a. Visible light c. Ultra – violet light
b. Invisible light d. Infra-red light

90. Refers to light that has a shorter wavelength.

a. Visible light c. Ultra – violet light
b. Invisible light d. Infra-red light

91. In physics, which of the following refers to light?

a. Electromagnetic radiation c. Electromagnetic energy
b. Electromagnetic spectrum d. Electric light

92. In conducting film or digital photography under comparison microscope, the camera should be attached to;
a. SLR Eyepiece c. SLR Camera port
b. CCTV Camera Port d. SLR Camera Diopter

93. The mug shot shall be taken in how many positions or manners?
a. 4 c. 6
b. 5 d. 7

94. The mug shot shall be taken in the following manners; front view half body, left side view half body, right-side
view half body, and
a. Rear view whole body c. Left – side view whole body
b. front-view whole body d. right-side view whole body

95. If a digital camera is used in taking the mug-shot, the camera should have a resolution of
a. Five mega pixels c. Eight mega pixels
b. six mega pixels d. not less than 5 mega pixel

96. What is the photograph size of the mug shot?

a. 3R c. 5R
b. 4R d. 7R

97. Light rays with a wavelength of 400 to 700 nanometer is referred to as;
a. visible light c. infra-red light
b. X-Ray light d. invisible radiations

98. Lights with shorter or longer wavelengths are commonly referred to as;
a. visible light c. infra-red light
b. X-Ray light d. invisible radiations

99. This energy is capable of being recorded on sensitized materials;

a. X-rays c. infra-red rays
b. ultra violet rays d. all of these

100. It is the action of light upon the film in the camera producing a changes;
a. Exposure c. stop bath
b. developing d. fixing
101. The court recommended size of photograph submitted as evidence is;
a. 5x7 c. 8x9
b. 4R d. 8x10

102. Which among of the following is the primary source of light?

a. Sun c. moon
b. electric bulb d. flash

103. It is radiant energy, usually referring to electromagnetic radiation that is visible to the human eye, and is
responsible for the sense of sight.
a. Light c. Moon
b. Sun d. Flash

104. Photography is the drawing with;

a. Image c. Light
b. Lens d. Colors

105. In camera, what is meant by SLR?

a. Sensitive Lens Reflect c. Standard Lens Reuter
b. Single Lens Reflect d. Semi – Lens receiver

106. If you want the camera determines the sharpest focus, using sensors that are devoted to measuring the focus of
the scene and you don’t have to do but to allow the camera to adjust by itself, you should set the camera at
a. AF c. Stabilizer
b. MF d. Automatic setting

107. By using the DSLR camera, the captured image is saved in the
a. Film c. USB
b. Memory d. LCD

108. In taking a photograph using a DSLR, the object to be photograph can be viewed in the view finder or to its;
a. Film c. USB
b. Memory d. LCD

109. What is the wavelength of the visible light?

a. 100-400 nm c. 700-1000 nm
b. 400-700 nm d. 1000-2000 nm

110. A wavelength which is longer than the visible light is;

a. Infra – red c. UV
b. X – ray d. All of the above

111. Its primary function is to prevent the contamination of two chemical solutions in chemical processing in
photography.
a. Development c. Fixation
b. Stop-bath d. Bleaching

112. What are the primary colors of light?

a. Blue –Violet-Red c. Blue-Green-Red
b. Blue- Yellow-Green d. Yellow-Violet-Red

113. It is the process of dissolving out the excess silver salt which has been reduced to silver by the developer
solution?
a. Developing c. Fixing
b. Stop bath d. Washing

114. Lighting condition when objects in open space casts no shadow

a. Bright c. Hazy
b. Dull d. Cloudy

115. It is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a predetermined time interval.
a. View finder c. Light tight box
b. Shutter d. Holder of sensitized material

116. It is a three legged device which may be adjusted to any reasonable desired extension. It is used to hold the
camera when the shutter speed is low as 1/125 of a second to prevent vibration.
a. Stand c. Base
b. Tripod d. Bench

117. A lighting condition wherein subject in open space casts a transparent shadow.
a. Hazy c. Cloudy bright
b. Cloudy dull d. Bright
118. In crime scene photography, what is the sufficient lens type for interior photographs?
a. Wide angle lens c. Telephoto lens
b. Normal lens d. Narrow angle lens

119. In police photography, to obtain a general view of the scene we use a camera at what particular level?
a. Flying view c. Bird’s eye view
b. Eye level d. High elevation view

120. In digital photography, aside from the quality of the lens, the quality of the photograph is also dependent on the
_________________ of the digital camera.
a. Film c. Pixels
b. Memory d. LCD

121. It is the adding of exposure time on a specific area to bring out details.
a. Dodging c. Burning-in
b. Cropping d. Developing

122. The imbalance of typewriting impression of letters from one side to the other is a typewriter defect called
a. Higher elevation of print impression c. Product of fixed impression
b. lower emphasis of print impression d. Off – its - feet impression

123. It is an appearance of gap during handwriting execution as product of speed under normal writing condition.
a. Embellishment c. Hiatus
b. Diacritic d. Pen lift

124. An indication of heavy writing pressure during the execution of writing will constitute to
a. greater degree of writing speed c. lesser degree of writing speed
b. tremulous speed of writing d. continuous speed of writing

125. When a document is destroyed and partially damage but remain identifiable is considered as;
a. disputed document c. charred document
b. questioned document d. standard document

126. It is a standard document obtained from files executed in the course of a person’s day to day business, official,
social or personal activities. They often serve as the best or most appropriate standards in the determination of
the genuineness of a questioned signature or writing.
a. Requested standard c. Procured standard
b. Post-litem motam standard d. All of the above

127. When the image of Pres. Manuel Roxas on a one hundred peso bill is transformed into that of Manny Pacquiao,
is there any violation?
a. Yes. Presidential Decree No. 247 is violated
b. Yes. Article 164 of the Revised Penal Code is violated
c. Yes. Republic Act 265 is violated
d. All of the above

128. The line quality of the writing is derived from a combination of factors including writing skills, speed, rhythm,
shading, pen pressure, pen position, and;
a. freedom of movement c. arc
b. whirl d. all of the above

129. It is the balance quality of movements of the harmonious recurrence of stress or impulse. It is the flowing
succession of motion that is recorded in a written record.
a. Alignment c. Rhythm
b. Natural Variation d. Embellishment
130. A forgery of simulated or copied class is produced by a method similar to;
a. that employed by a person learning how to write
b. that employed by a person taking down notes
c. that employed by a person writing under the influence of liquor
d. all of the above

131. Can the writing on the wall be considered a document?

a. Yes
b. Partially yes
c. No
d. Partially no

132. The delicate way in which the various muscles used in writing work together to produce written forms is known
as;
a. Motor coordination
b. Calligraphy
c. Holographic writing
d. automatic expression
133. It is a grass used by Egyptian as a writing surface more than 4000 years ago.
a. Mulberry c. Papyrus
b. Reeds d. pulp

134. Who made the first paper out of mulberry tree more than 2000 years ago?
a. Egyptian c. French
b. Chinese d. Spanish

135. The consistent variation in width due to the variation in pressure of fine and delicate lines is more specifically
referred to as;
a. Pen pressure c. Pen emphasis
b. Shading d. unconscious emphasis

136. It is the visible records in the written stroke of the basic movement and manner of holding the writing
instrument. It is the overall character of the written strokes from initial to the terminal.
a. Line Quality c. Rhythm
b. Writing Skill d. Tremor

137. Secret ink is used by spy organizations in sending messages. It is use to write secret notes or codes. Early secret
inks or writing fluids used one of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Urine c. lemon juice
b. Milk d. indelible ink

138. Transmitted light photography is useful in the examination of, EXCEPT:

a. Watermarks
b. Determining the identity or the difference in papers by showing arrangement of the fibers and the
markings of the wire gauge and dandy roll
c. Showing continuity of strokes; determining retouching or patching of a writing by showing clearly
presence of added ink film and the uneven distribution of ink in interrupted strokes
d. Showing sequences of cross lines or showing writing across a fold preceded or followed the folding of
a paper.

139. Mr. D, manufactured several pieces of vintage coin. What was the crime committed?
a. Counterfeiting coins c. Mutilation of coins
b. Forgery d. Falsification

140. It is useful in showing condition of writing in three dimensional enlargements and is useful in showing
sequences of cross lines or showing writing across a fold preceded or followed the folding of a paper.
a. Transmitted light photography c. Overall photography
b. Stereographic photomicrograph d. Environmental Photography

141. Which of the following when committed constitute forgery?

a. By giving to a treasury or bank note or any instrument payable to bearer or to order mentioned therein,
the appearance of a true and genuine document.
b. By erasing, substituting, counterfeiting, or altering by any means the figures, letters, words, or sign
contained therein.
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

142. A, B, C, and D are playing cara y cruz, before they throw the coin in the air would rub the money to the
sidewalk thereby diminishing the intrinsic value of the coin. Is the crime of mutilation committed under the
Revised Penal Code?
a. Yes c. No
b. partially yes d. partially no

143. This is the crime of remaking or manufacturing of coins without any authority to do so.
a. Counterfeiting coins c. Mutilation of coins
b. Forgery d. Falsification

144. What is the lowest denomination in the present circulation coins series?
a. 10-sentimo c. 5 centavos
b. 1 peso d. 1 centavo

145. What is the highest denomination in the legal tender notes in circulation?
a. 1000 pesos c. 500 pesos
b. 100 pesos d. 200 pesos

146. What animal is placed at the back of the new 200 peso note?
a. Portrait of former President DiosdadoMacapagal
b. Independence house
c. Oath taking of President Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo
d. Tarsier
147. What is the lowest denomination of the new bank notes or paper bill?
a. 10 c. 20
b. 50 d. 100

148. A, B, C, and D are playing cara y cruz, before they throw the coin in the air would rub the money to the
sidewalk thereby diminishing the intrinsic value of the coin. What crime was committed if any?
a. Violation of the Revised Penal Code c. Violation of PD 247
b. Falsification d. Violation of the BSP law

149. Which of the following is considered a document?

a. Deed or agreement
b. Maps and plans
c. Stones which inscriptions are cut or engraved
d. All of the above

150. Refers to a document in existence for more than thirty years since its execution.
a. Vintage document c. Ancient document
b. Antique document d. Questioned document

151. Which denomination of current legal tenders bears a concealed value?

a. 1000 pesos c. 500 pesos
b. 200 pesos d. all of the above

152. Whose portrait is on the 100 peso note?

a. Benigno Aquino c. Manuel Roxas
b. Emilio Aguinaldo d. Manuel Quezon

153. Which denomination has a predominantly orange color?

a. 20 pesos c. 50 pesos
b. 100 pesos d. 500 pesos

154. What security feature found in all of the denominations of legal tender?
a. Optically variable ink c. Concealed value
b. optically variable device d. see – through mark

155. It is also referred to as the questioned document examinations.

a. Graphology c. Palmistogy
b. Bibliotic d. None of the above

156. When the image of Pres. Manuel Roxas on a one hundred peso bill is transformed into that of Manny Pacquiao,
is there any violation?
a. Yes. Presidential Decree No. 247 is violated
b. Yes. Article 164 of the Revised Penal Code is violated
c. Yes. Republic Act 265 is violated
d. All of the above

157. He is the founder of the American Society of Questioned Document Examiners (ASQDE) on September 2,
1942 and became the society's first president.
a. Albert S. Osborn c. Julius Fischoff
b. Ordway Hilton d. none of them

158. In legal language, it refers to the document examiner’s conclusion. In court, he may not only express it but
demonstrates the reasons for arriving at his conclusion.
a. Remarks c. Opinion
b. Testimony d. Reasoning

159. In the study handwriting, the movement of the pen toward the writer is called.
a. Down stroke c. Sidestrokes
b. Backstroke d. None of these

160. An identifying typewriter characteristic which can be eliminated by cleaning the machine or replacing the
ribbon
a. Transitory defect c. Permanent defect
b. Alignment defect d. Defect

161. Which of the following major component of the Polygraph Machine that provides the Polygraph Examiner a
means to determine pulse rater and questions spacing?
a. Pnuemograph c. Cardiosphymoraph
b. Galvanometer d. Kymograph

162. It is a technical production of the cardio tracing causing minor secondary pulse wave passing under and beyond
the blood pressure cuff.
a. Descending limb c. Diacrotic notch
b. Ascending limb d. Pen and linking system
163. Which of the following focusing adjustment of comparison microscope that elevate the two (2) stages
synchronously for viewing of specimens?
a. Clamping knob c. Focusing knob
b. Elevating knob d. stage tilting knob

164. A major component of Polygraph Machine occupying two upper pens of the instrument which records the
abdominal breathing pattern of respiration
a. Pnuemograph c. Cardiosphymoraph
b. Galvanometer d. Kymograph

165. The accuracy of instrumental detection of deception is dependent upon the examiner’s ability to diagnose truth
or deception by reading and interpretation of
a. Subject facial expression c. Subject chart
b. subject postural reaction d. subject chart on card test/number test

166. In conducting Diphenylamine test examination for purposes of determining gun powder residue in the hands of
the suspect. Which of the following parts of hands that Paraffin wax shall be applied?
a. Forearm c. Dorsal
b. Palm d. Dermal

167. The standard established by federal court in 1923 and adopted by most state courts which rejected the
admissibility of polygraph due to its lack of acceptance by the scientific community, but which became the
standard for admissibility of all scientific evidence is in the case of
a. James A. Fry vs. United States c. Piccionnonia vs. United States
b. Gipson vs. United States d. people of the Phil. Vs. Honasan

168. Polygraph examination result as a general rule is inadmissible as evidence in court. The defendant in this case
had confessed to a murder after having been given a polygraph exam. His counsel objected to the admissibility
of the confession because of the fact that the instrument had been used and also because the defendant had been
told by the investigating officer that you can lie to us but you cannot lie to this machine. The admission of the
subject had met the general conventional requirements for admissibility. Can this admission or confession be
used against him? Select the best answer;
a. No, because the general rule is that poly exam cannot be used as evidence
b. May be, because of the objection from the counsel
c. Yes, because at the time of confession, no force, threat, intimidation, coercion and other violation of
his rights were committed
d. Yes, because during the interpretation and evaluation, there is a specific response and he is lying

169. An examination wherein an informal interview of the subject is undertaken between 20 to 30 minutes
a. Post test interrogation c. Actual interrogation
b. Pre test interrogation d. Lie detector test

170. Which among the following is not a required qualification for a polygraph examiner?
a. Criminology graduate c. Technical know how
b. Honesty d. Integrity and morals

171. Which among the foregoing is not part in the conduct of a polygraph examination?
a. Pre-test interview c. Post-test interview
b. Instrumental test d. Psychological test

172. Which among the following is not included in recording the psycho-physiological response of the subject?
a. PSE / Psychological Stress Evaluator c. WAT / Word Association Test
b. Use of water therapy d. Polygraph machine

173. A person who is capable of detecting deception with the use of instrumentation or mechanical device
a. Interrogator c. Medico-legal officer
b. Detective d. Polygraph examiner

174. An invaluable aid in investigation, it refers to the instrumentation in the detection of crime or a scientific police
method
a. Photography c. Lie detector test
b. Chemistry d. Medicine

175. Questions in connecting to the matter under investigation

a. Relevant c. Control
b. Supplementary d. Irrelevant

176. Refers to query having no bearing or weight to the case under investigation
a. Relevant c. Control
b. Supplementary d. Irrelevant

177. A test usually administered as part of the standard test to draw a better conclusion
a. Relevant c. Control
b. Supplementary d. Irrelevant
178. This measures, detects and graphically displays voice modulation
a. Word association test c. Truth serum
b. Psychological stress evaluator d. Water therapy

179. In this example stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the subject who in turn is instructed to answer as
quickly as possible
a. Word association test c. Truth serum
b. Psychological stress evaluator d. Water therapy

180. A test conducted wherein the subject is instructed not to produce verbal response
a. Peak of tension c. Narrative
b. Silent answer d. Guilt complex

181. Using the psychological stress evaluator, a lying subject or when a person is under stress, the frequencies
a. Tends to disappear c. Increases
b. Rises d. Stops

182. A test undertaken when the subject is not aware of the details of the offense for which he is under scrutiny
a. Guilt complex c. Peak of tension
b. Silent answer d. Narrative

183. When response and control questions are consistently similar this is administered
a. Guilt complex c. Peak of tension
b. Silent answer d. Narrative

184. This test uses hyoscine hydro bromide drug administered hypodermically which produces a state of delirium
a. Hypnotism c. Narco-synthesis
b. Narco-analysis d. Administration of truth serum

185. It is based on the maxim “in vino veritas”, meaning in wine there is truth.
a. Hypnotism
b. Narco-analysis
c. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage
d. Administration of truth serum

186. A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep considered fit for polygraph examination
a. 5 c. 7
b. 6 d. 8

187. This component drives the chart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches per
minute
a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Galvanograph
b. Keymograph d. Pneumograph

188. Part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of the subject
a. Finger electrode plate c. Rubber convoluted tube
b. Diacritic notch d. Kymograph

189. This component record changes of the subject’s blood pressure and pulse rate
a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Galvanograph
b. Keymograph d. Pneumograph

190. It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small amount of electricity

a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Galvanograph
b. Sphygmomanometer d. Pneumograph

191. This component records the changes in the breathing of the subject
a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Galvanograph
b. Sphygmomanometer d. Pneumograph

192. Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question
a. Reaction c. Specific response
b. Normal response d. Positive response

193. Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant questions were answered

a. Reaction c. Specific response
b. Normal response d. Positive response

194. Normal time interval for pre-test interview

a. 20 to 30 minutes c. 60 to 90 minutes
b. 30 to 60 minutes d. 90 to 120 minutes

195. The primary objective for post test interview

a. To thank the subject c. To make the subject calm
b. To obtain the confession d. To explain polygraph test procedure
196. The purpose of pretest interview
a. To prepare subject for polygraph test c. To make the subject calm
b. To obtain confession d. To explain polygraph test formation

197. Test undertaken when both relevant and control question are similar in degree and consistency
a. Guilt complex test c. Peak of tension
b. Silent answer d. None of the above

198. Refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s normal pattern of response

a. Relevant questions c. Supplementary questions
b. Irrelevant questions d. Control questions

199. The number of basic tracings in a modern polygraph

a. 3 c. 5
b. 4 d. 6

200. The most important single factor in polygraph testing is:

a. Pre-test interview c. Chart interpretation
b. formulation of question d. post test interview

201. The death of the individual cells that occurs at about 3 to 6 hours of death is;
a. Somatic or Clinical Death c. Apparent Death
b. Molecular or Cellular Death d. State of Suspended Animation

202. It is the rise of temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early putrefactive changes or some internal
chemical changes.
a. Post-mortem Caloricity c. Cadaveric Spasm
b. Post-mortem Rigidity d. Post-mortem Lividity

203. It is the breaking down of the complex protein into simplier components associated with the evolution of foul
smelling gasses and accompanied by the change of color of the body.
a. Putrefaction c. Tete de negre
b. Marbolization d. Liquefaction

204. It is the effusion of blood into the tissues underneath the skin on account of the rupture of blood vessels as a
result of the application of blunt force or violence.
a. Close Wounds c. Contusion
b. Petechiae d. Hematoma

205. It appears immediately after death.

a. Post-mortem Caloricity c. Cadaveric Spasm
b. Post-mortem Rigidity d. Post-mortem Lividity

206. It is the dehydration of the whole body which results in the shriveling and preservation of the body.
a. Embalming c. Saponification
b. Mummification d. Euthanasia

207. Are wounds which are immediately after infliction or shortly afterwards followed by death.
a. Physical Injuries c. Defence Wounds
b. Wound d. Mortal Wounds

208. It is the intentional act of lopping or cutting off any part or parts of the living body.
a. Mutilation c. Penetrating Wound
b. Deformity d. Perforating Wound

209. Refers to physical ugliness, permanent and definite abnormality.

a. Mutilation c. Penetrating Wound
b. Deformity d. Perforating Wound

210. The wounding agent produces communication between the inner and outer portions of the hollow organs.
a. Mutilation c. Penetrating Wound
b. Deformity d. Perforating Wound

211. A wound where there is no breach of continuity of the skin or mucous membrane.
a. Close Wounds c. Contusion
b. Petechiae d. Hematoma

212. It is the extravasation of blood in the substance of the true skin and in the subcutaneous cellular tissue.
a. Close Wounds c. Contusion
b. Petechiae d. Hematoma

213. It is the sudden solution of continuity of a bone, resulting from violence.

a. Fracture c. Dislocation
b. Sprain d. Abrasion
214. It is produced by the penetration of a sharp pointed and sharp edged instrument.
a. Incised Wound c. Punctured Wound
b. Stab Wound d. Lacerated Wound

215. The displacement from each other of the particular surfaces of bones entering into the formation of a joint.
a. Fracture c. Dislocation
b. Sprain d. Abrasion

216. An injury characterized by the removal of the superficial epithelial layer of the skin brought about by friction
against a rough surface.
a. Fracture c. Dislocation
b. Sprain d. Abrasion

217. This is brought about by sharp-pointed instrument.

a. Incised Wound c. Punctured Wound
b. Stab Wound d. Lacerated Wound

218. The tear of the skin due to forcible contact with a blunt instrument.
a. Incised Wound c. Punctured Wound
b. Stab Wound d. Lacerated Wound

219. A medical witness in court is:

a. Not bound to answer all questions profounded to him.
b. Bound to answer all questions profounded to him.
c. May be bound to answer all questions profounded to him
d. None of the above

220. This is a form of asphyxial death whereby the constricting force applied in the neck is the hand.
a. Throttling c. Garroting
b. Smothering d. Mugging

221. A physical injury which is found at the site of the force and also opposite the site of application of force.
a. Coup Injury c. Coup Contre Coup Injury
b. Contre-coup Injury d. Locus Minoris Resistencia

222. It is a form of strangulation with the assailant standing at the back and the forearm is applied in front of the
back.
a. Throttling c. Garroting
b. Smothering d. Mugging

223. Rigor mortis develops:

a. 3 to 6 hours before death c. 7 to 6 hours after death
b. 1 to 2 hours after death d. 3 to 6 hours after death

224. With the absence of powder burns, powder tattooing, and smudging, the distance of gunfire is
a. Near contact to 6 inches c. 12 inches
b. More than 6 inches up to 24 inches d. More than 24 inches

225. Color of blood when exposed to the atmosphere

a. Red c. Gray
b. Reddish-brown d. Black

226. The following findings are conclusive that the person died of drowning, except:
a. Presence of foreign bodies in the hand c. Washerwoman’s hand
b. Edema aquosum d. Froth or foam in the air passage

227. A dead body decomposes:

a. less rapidly in running than in still water
b. about the same rate
c. more rapidly in running than in still water
d. depend upon the situation

228. How would you able to know that a person was bitten by a snake?
a. There are two punctured wounds at the center of the reddened affected area.
b. There is a tentacles penetrate into the skin and cause explosion of the nematocyst and liberation of the
venom
c. There is only one punctured wound on the center of a reddened area.
d. You cannot found the victim unless you will recover the snake.

229. How would you able to know that a victim was bitten by a scorpion?
a. There are two punctured wounds at the center of the reddened affected area.
b. There is a tentacles penetrate into the skin and cause explosion of the nematocyst and liberation of the
venom
c. There is only one punctured wound on the center of a reddened area.
d. You cannot found the victim unless you will recover the snake.
230. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate the death has occurred more than 24 hours hence our useful to
proximate the time of death
a. Flies c. Earthworms
b. Bees d. Butterflies

231. Conclusive evidence that a person is a female is;

a. Vagina c. Testis
b. Uterus d. Ovary

232. In temperate regions, hair and nails are detached from a dead body in how many days?
a. 3 c. 7
b. 14 d. 28

233. In tropical region, hair and nails are detached from a dead body in how many days?
a. 3 c. 7
b. 14 d. 28

234. In warm countries like the Philippines, rigor mortis sets in from;
a. 2 to 3 hours c. 3 to 4 hours
b. 4 to 5 hours d. 5 to 6 hours

235. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents after each meals
a. 2 to 3 hours c. 4 to 5 hours
b. 3 to 4 hours d. 5 to 6 hours

236. Average time of decomposition for tropical countries such as the Philippines
a. 12 to 24 hours c. 24 to 48 hours
b. 36 to 48 hours d. 48 to 72 hours

237. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within how many days from death?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

238. Without food and water, a person cannot survive more than;
a. 10 days c. 30 days
b. 20 days d. 50 days

239. In starvation, who may die first, men or women?

a. Women c. Men
b. child below 10 years old d. elderly above 70 years old

240. Our Lord Jesus Christ was died due to;

a. Hemorrhage c. Loss of blood
b. Asphyxia by chest compression d. cardiac arrest