GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of
screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.
When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not
terminate the examination or submit your paper.
3. Any useful data required for your paper can be viewed by clicking on the Useful
Common Data button that appears on the screen.
4. Use the scribble pad provided to you for any rough work. Submit the scribble pad at
the end of the examination.
5. You are allowed to use a non-programmable type calculator, however, sharing of
calculators is not allowed.
6. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of
each question using one of the following symbols:

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will
be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.
Navigating to a Question :
7. To answer a question, do the following:
a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question
directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question by clicking on the bubble
placed before the 4 choices, namely A, B, C and D. Use the virtual numeric
keypad to enter a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go
to the next question.
d. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question
and also mark it for review, and then go to the next question.

Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate
to another question directly by clicking on a question number without saving the answer to
the previous question.
You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.
Answering a Question :
8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:
a. Choose one answer from the 4 options (A,B,C,D) given below the question,
click on the bubble placed before the chosen option.
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or click on the Clear Response button.
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the bubble of another option.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.
9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:
a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad.
b. A fraction (e.g. -0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without '0'
before the decimal point. As many as four decimal points, e.g. 12.5435 or
0.003 or -932.6711 or 12.82 can be entered.
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button
10. To mark a question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button. If an
answer is selected (for MCQ) or entered (for numerical answer type) for a question
that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation unless
the status is modified by the candidate.
11. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select
that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of
question.
12. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after
answering will be considered for evaluation.
Choosing a Section :
13. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions
in a Section can be viewed by clicking on the name of that Section. The Section you
are currently viewing will be highlighted.
14. A checkbox is displayed for every optional Section, if any, in the Question Paper. To
select the optional Section for answering, click on the checkbox for that Section.
15. If the checkbox for an optional Section is not selected, the Save & Next button and
the Mark for Review & Next button will NOT be enabled for that Section. You will

only be able to see questions in this Section, but you will not be able to answer
questions in the Section.
16. After clicking the Save & Next button for the last question in a Section, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next Section in sequence.
17. You can move the mouse cursor over the name of a Section to view the answering
status for that Section.
Changing the Optional Section :
18. After answering the chosen optional Section, partially or completely, you can change
the optional Section by selecting the checkbox for a new Section that you want to
attempt. A warning message will appear along with a table showing the number of
questions answered in each of the previously chosen optional Sections and a
checkbox against each of these Sections. Click on a checkbox against a Section that
you want to reset and then click on the RESET button. Note that RESETTING a Section
will DELETE all the answers for questions in that Section. Hence, if you think that you
may want to select this Section again later, you will have to note down your answers
for questions in that Section. If you do not want to reset the Section and want to
continue answering the previously chosen optional Section, then click on the BACK
button.
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for questions in this Section. Do you want to deselect this Section? If you want to
deselect, click on the RESET button. If you do not want to deselect, click on the BACK
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20. You can shuffle between different Sections or change the optional Sections any
number of times.

GATE 2014 Examination

MA: Mathematics
Duration: 180 minutes

Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble () placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.
Declaration by the candidate:
I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition.

GATE 2014

SET- 1

General Aptitude -GA

Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1

A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the
social sciences.
The word closest in meaning to comprehension is
(A) understanding

Q.2

(B) meaning

(C) concentration

(D) stability

Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.

Q.3

(B) virtues

(C) choices

(D) strength

20
14

(A) vice

Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.
Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?
(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.
(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes.
(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajans request to work with him.
(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.

Q.4

If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3

(A) passes through x = 0, y = 0
(C) is parallel to the x-axis

A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q,
where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily
production of 100 tonnes?

G
AT

Q.5

(B) has a slope of +1

(D) has a slope of 1

Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6

Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK

(A) ALRVX

Q.7

(C) ITZDF

(D) OYEIK

Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building
(the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered
floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors
below Faisals floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor
immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the
following floor-person combinations is correct?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

GA

(B) EPVZB

Anuj
6
2
4
2

Bhola
2
6
2
4

Chandan
5
5
6
6

Dilip
1
1
3
1

Eswar
3
3
1
3

Faisal
4
4
5
5

1/2

GATE 2014

SET- 1

General Aptitude -GA

Q.8

The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The
ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its
smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the
largest angle of the quadrilateral?

Q.9

One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y
are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both
countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?
(A) 3.0

(C) 1.5

(D) 1.25

The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure.
Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below
that value)

20
14

Q.10

(B) 2.5

G
AT

(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December

(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January
(iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall
(iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall

(A) (i) and (ii)

(C) (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) (iii) and (iv)

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA

2/2

GATE 2014

MATHEMATICS MA

The set of all real numbers

The set of all rational numbers

The set of all integers

The set of all complex numbers

The set of all positive integers

The cyclic group of order

Real part of a complex number

20

Re()

14

Symbols and Notation Used

P(E)

Imaginary part of a complex number

[]

Var()

Expectation of a random variable

()

The set of all matrices with real entries

Im()

Probability of an event E

AT

Variance of a random variable

The set of all 2 2 matrices with determinant 1

(G

2 ()
[, ]

[, ]

[, ]

MA

The set of all real valued continuous functions on the

real interval [, ]
The set of all real valued -times continuously
differentiable functions on the real interval [, ]
The space of all -summable sequences

The space of all -integrable functions on the interval

[, ]
An inner product

Derivative of with respect to

1/12

GATE 2014

MATHEMATICS MA

Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.

The function f ( z ) = z + i z + 1 is differentiable at
2

(B)

(A) i

(C) i

Q.2
The radius of convergence of the power series

n =0

is _____________

Let E1 and E2 be two non empty subsets of a normed linear space X and let

E1 + E2 :=

Q.3

4( 1) n z 2n

(D) no point in

{ x + y X : x E1 and y E2 } . Then which of the following statements is FALSE:

(A) If E1 and E2 are convex, then E1 + E2 is convex

20

(B) If E1 or E2 is open, then E1 + E2 is open

14

Q.1

(C) E1 + E2 must be closed if E1 and E2 are closed

Let y ( x) be the solution to the initial value problem

AT

Q.4

(D) If E1 is closed and E2 is compact, then E1 + E2 is closed

dy
=
y + 2 x subject to y (1.2) =
2. Using
dx

the Euler method with the step size = 0.05, the approximate value of (1.3), correct to two
decimal places, is _____________________
Let . If is the polynomial which interpolates the function
=
f ( x) sin x on [ 1,1] at all

(G

Q.5

the zeroes of the polynomial 4 x 3 3 x , then

Q.6

If u ( x, t ) is the DAlemberts solution to the wave equation

u
( x, 0) = cos x , then
t

the condition u ( x, 0) = 0 and

Q.7

2
2

= 2 ,

, > 0, with

u 0, is _______________________
4

The solution to the integral equation ( x) =

x + sin( x ) ( )d is

x3
(A) x +
3
2

MA

is ___________

x3
(B) x
3!

x3
(C) x +
3!

x3
(D) x
3!
2

2/12

GATE 2014

Q.8

MATHEMATICS MA

The general solution to the ordinary differential equation x 2

d2y
dy
9
+x + 4 x 2 y =
0 in
2
dx
dx
25

terms of Bessels functions, (), is

(A)
=
y ( x) c1 J 3/5 (2 x) + c2 J 3/5 (2 x)
(B)
y ( x) c1 J 3/10 ( x) + c2 J 3/10 ( x)
=
(C)
=
y ( x) c1 J 3/5 ( x) + c2 J 3/5 ( x)

The inverse Laplace transform of

(C)

7 3t e t
4
e
e 2t
2
6
3
7 3t et 4 2t
e
e
2
6 3

(G

If X 1 , X 2 is a random sample of size 2 from an (0,1) population, then

2
(A) (2)

(A)

Q.12

MA

(B) F2,2

(C) F2,1

( X 1 + X 2 )2
follows
( X1 X 2 )2

(D) F1,1

Let Z ~ (0,1) be a random variable. Then the value of E [ max{Z , 0}] is

Q.11

20

et
+ te t + 2t
3

AT

(B)

(D)
Q.10

7 3t
e
2

(A) (1 + t )e t +

2s 2 4
is
( s 3)( s 2 s 2)

14

Q.9

(D) y ( x) c1 J 3/10 (2 x) + c2 J 3/10 (2 x)

=

(B)

(C)

1
2

(D)

The number of non-isomorphic groups of order 10 is ___________

3/12

GATE 2014

Q.13

MATHEMATICS MA

Let a, b, c, d be real numbers with a < c < d < b. Consider the ring C [ a, b ] with pointwise

addition and multiplication. If S =

f C [ a, b ] : f ( x) =
0 for all x [ c, d ] , then
(A) S is NOT an ideal of C [ a, b ]
(B) S is an ideal of C [ a, b ] but NOT a prime ideal of C [ a, b ]
(C) S is a prime ideal of C [ a, b ] but NOT a maximal ideal of C [ a, b ]

Let be a ring. If R [ x ] is a principal ideal domain, then R is necessarily a

14

Q.14

(A) Unique Factorization Domain

20

(B) Principal Ideal Domain

(C) Euclidean Domain

(D) Field

Q.15

(D) S is a maximal ideal of C [ a, b ]

Consider the group homomorphism : M2() given by ( A ) = trace( A) . The kernel of

2 ()

(C) 3
Q.16

{ 2 (): () = 0}

(B) 2

(D) GL2()

(G

(A)

AT

is isomorphic to which of the following groups?

Let X be a set with at least two elements. Let and be two topologies on X such that {, X}.
Which of the following conditions is necessary for the identity function id : ( X, ) ( X, ) to be
continuous?
(B)

(A)

(D) = { , X }

(C) no conditions on and

Q.17

Let A M3() be such that det( A I ) =

0 , where I denotes the 3 3 identity matrix. If the
trace( A) = 13 and det( A) = 32, then the sum of squares of the eigenvalues of A is ______

Q.18

d4 f
d2 f
Let V denote the vector space C [a,b] over and W = f V : 4 + 2 2 f = 0 . Then
dt
dt

(A) dim(V ) =
(B) dim(V ) =
and dim(W ) =

and dim(W ) =
4
(C) dim(V ) 6=
=
and dim(W ) 5

MA

(D) dim(V ) 5=
=
and dim(W ) 4

4/12

GATE 2014

Q.19

MATHEMATICS MA

Let V be a real inner product space of dimension 10 . Let x, y V be non-zero vectors such that

x, y =0 . Then the dimension of

Q.20

{x} { y}

is ___________________________

Consider the following linear programming problem:

Minimize x1 + x2
Subject to:

2x1 + x2 8
2x1 + 5x2 10
x1, x2 0

Q.22

14

Let

3 if - < x 0
f ( x) :=
3 if 0 < x <

20

Q.21

The optimal value to this problem is _________________________

be a periodic function of period 2. The coefficient of sin 3 in the Fourier series expansion of
() on the interval [, ] is ________________________
For the sequence of functions

1
1
sin , [1, ),
2

consider the following quantities expressed in terms of Lebesgue integrals

I: lim

AT

() =

( x)dx

II:

lim f
1

( x)dx .

Which of the following is TRUE?

(G

(A) The limit in I does not exist

(B) The integrand in II is not integrable on [1, )

(C) Quantities I and II are well-defined, but I II

(D) Quantities I and II are well-defined and I = II

Which of the following statements about the spaces p and [0, 1] is TRUE?

Q.23

(A) 3 7 and 6 [0, 1] 9 [0, 1]

(B) 3 7 and 9 [0, 1] 6 [0, 1]
(C) 7 3 and 6 [0, 1] 9 [0, 1]

Q.24

(D) 7 3 and 9 [0, 1] 6 [0, 1]

2

The maximum modulus of on the set = { 0 () 1, 0 () 1} is

(A) 2 / e

MA

(B) e

(C) + 1

(D) 2

5/12

GATE 2014

Q.25

MATHEMATICS MA

Let 1 , 2 and 3 be metrics on a set with at least two elements. Which of the following is NOT
a metric on ?

(A) min{1 , 2}

(B) max{2 , 2}

(C)

(D)

d3
1 + d3

d1 + d 2 + d3
3

Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each.

and final point 1 + 2. The value of

dz is

ln 2 + i
2
4

(B) 4 +

(C) 4 +

1
ln 2 i
2
4

(D) 4

ln 2 + i
2
4

20

(A) 4

If with a < 1 , then the value of

ln 2 + i
2
2

Q.27

1+ 2 z

1+ z

Let = { () > 0} and let be a smooth curve lying in with initial point 1 + 2

14

Q.26

(1 a )
2

Q.28

dz

z+a

AT

.
where is the simple closed curve || = 1 taken with the positive orientation, is _________
Consider C [ 1,1] equipped with the supremum norm given by
0

f (t )dt f (t )dt

T=
(f)

(G

=
f sup {| f (t ) | : t [1, 1]} for f C[1, 1]. Define a linear functional T on C [ 1,1] by

Q.29

for all f C [ 1,1] . Then the value of T is _______

Consider the vector space C[0,1] over . Consider the following statements:
If the set

P:

{t f , t
1

f 2 , t 3 f3 } is linearly independent, then the set

{ f1 , f 2 , f3} is

linearly

independent, where f1 , f 2 , f 3 C [ 0,1] and t n represents the polynomial function t tn, n

1

Q: If F: C[0,1] =
is given by F ( x)

x(t

) dt for each x C [ 0,1] , then F is a linear map.

Which of the above statements hold TRUE?

(A) Only P

MA

(B) Only Q

(C) Both P and Q

(D) Neither P nor Q

6/12

GATE 2014

MATHEMATICS MA

Q.30

Using the Newton-Raphson method with the initial guess (0) = 6, the approximate value of the
real root of x log10 x = 4.77 , after the second iteration, is ____________________

Q.31

Let the following discrete data be obtained from a curve = ():

x : 0 0.25
0.5
0.75
1.0
y : 1 0.9896 0.9589 0.9089 0.8415

Let be the solid of revolution obtained by rotating the above curve about the -axis between
x = 0 and = 1 and let denote its volume. The approximate value of , obtained using

The integral surface of the first order partial differential equation

z
z
+ (2 x z ) = y (2 x 3)
x
y
2
2
passing through the curve x + y = 2x, z = 0 is

14

Q.32

1
rule, is ______________
3

2 y ( z 3)

20

(A) x 2 + y 2 z 2 2 x + 4 z =
0
(B) x 2 + y 2 z 2 2 x + 8 z =
0

(C) x 2 + y 2 + z 2 2 x + 16 z =
0

AT

(D) x 2 + y 2 + z 2 2 x + 8 z =
0

Q.33

The boundary value problem,

Simpsons

d 2
d
+
= x; (0)
= 0 and
=
(1) 0, is converted into the
2
dx
dx
1

(G

integral equation =
( x) g ( x) + k ( x, ) ( )d , where the kernel (, ) =
0

2
3

Then g is ___________________

Q.34

If 1 () = is a solution to the differential equation (1 x 2 )

, 0 < <
, < < 1

d2y
dy
2 x +2 y =
0 , then its
2
dx
dx

general solution is

(A) y ( x) = c1 x + c2 x ln 1 + x 2 1

c1 x + c2 ln
(B) y ( x) =

1 x

+ 1
1+ x

ln 1 x 2 + 1
2

(C) y ( x) = c1 x + c2

x
2

c1 x + c2 ln
(D) y ( x) =
MA

1+ x

1
1 x

7/12

GATE 2014

MATHEMATICS MA

Q.35
The solution to the initial value problem

d2y
dy
dy
t
+ 2 + 5y =
3e =
sin t , y (0) 0=
and
(0) 3,
2
dt
dt
dt

is
(A)
=
y (t ) et (sin t + sin 2t )
(B)
=
y (t ) e t (sin t + sin 2t )
(C) y (t ) = 3et sin t

(D) y (t ) = 3e t sin t
The time to failure, in months, of light bulbs manufactured at two plants A and B obey the
exponential distribution with means 6 and 2 months respectively. Plant B produces four times as
many bulbs as plant A does. Bulbs from these plants are indistinguishable. They are mixed and sold
together. Given that a bulb purchased at random is working after 12 months, the probability that it
was manufactured at plant A is _____

Q.37

Let X , Y be continuous random variables with joint density function

20

14

Q.36

e y (1 e x ) if 0 < x < y <

f X ,Y ( x, y ) = x
y
e (1 e ) if 0 < y x <

Q.38

AT

The value of E [ X + Y ] is ____________________

Let X = [0,1) (1, 2) be the subspace of , where is equipped with the usual topology. Which
of the following is FALSE?

(A) There exists a non-constant continuous function f: X

(G

(B) X is homeomorphic to (, 3) [0, )

(C) There exists an onto continuous function f : [ 0,1] X , where X is the closure of X in

(D) There exists an onto continuous function f : [ 0,1] X

2 0 3

Let X = 3 1 3 . A matrix P such that P 1 XP is a diagonal matrix, is

0 0 1

Q.39

MA

1 1 1

(A) 0 1 1

1 1 0

1 1 1

(B) 0 1 1

1 1 0

1 1 1

(C) 0 1 1

1 1 0

1 1 1

(D) 0 1 1

1 1 0
8/12

GATE 2014

Q.40

MATHEMATICS MA

Using the Gauss-Seidel iteration method with the initial guess

=
=
x2(0) 2.25,
=
x3(0) 1.625} , the second approximation { x1(2) , x2(2) , x3(2) } for the solution
{ x1(0) 3.5,
to the system of equations

2 x1 x2 =
7
x1 + 2 x2 x3 =
1
x2 + 2 x3 =
1,

is
(A) x1(2) 5.3125,
=
=
x2(2) 4.4491,
=
x3(2) 2.1563

14

(B) x1(2) 5.3125,

=
=
x2(2) 4.3125,
=
x3(2) 2.6563
(C) x1(2) 5.3125,
=
=
x2(2) 4.4491,
=
x3(2) 2.6563

Q.41

The fourth order Runge-Kutta method given by

20

(D) x1(2) 5.4991,

=
=
x2(2) 4.4491,
=
x3(2) 2.1563

h
[ K1 + 2 K 2 + 2 K3 + K 4 ] , j =0,1, 2,...,
6
du
is used to solve the initial value problem
= u , u (0) = .
dt
If u (1) = 1 is obtained by taking the step size h = 1, then the value of K 4 is ______________
A particle P of mass m moves along the cycloid = ( sin ) and = (1 + cos ),
0 2. Let denote the acceleration due to gravity. Neglecting the frictional force, the
Lagrangian associated with the motion of the particle P is:

AT

Q.42

u j +1 =
uj +

(A) (1 cos ) 2 (1 + cos )

(G

(B) (1 + cos ) 2 + (1 + cos )

(C) (1 + cos ) 2 + (1 cos )

(D) ( sin ) 2 (1 + cos )

Suppose that is a population random variable with probability density function

Q.43

x 1 if 0 < x < 1
f (x ; ) =
otherwise,
0

where is a parameter. In order to test the null hypothesis 0 : = 2, against the alternative
1
hypothesis 1 : = 3, the following test is used: Reject the null hypothesis if 1
and accept
2

otherwise, where X 1 is a random sample of size 1 drawn from the above population. Then the
power of the test is _____

MA

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GATE 2014

Q.44

MATHEMATICS MA

Suppose that 1 , 2 , , is a random sample of size drawn from a population with probability
density function

x x
if x > 0
e
f ( x ; ) = 2
0
otherwise,

where is a parameter such that > 0. The maximum likelihood estimator of is

n

Xi

(B)

n 1

i =1

(D)

2n

2 X i

Xi

i =1

Let F be a vector field defined on 2 {(0,0)} by =

F ( x, y )

, : [0, 1] 2 be defined by

y
i x j . Let
2
x +y
x2 + y 2

20

Q.45

(C)

i =1

14

(A)

i =1

() = (8 cos 2, 17 sin 2) and () = (26 cos 2, 10 sin 2).

Q.46

AT

If 3 F d r 4 F d r = 2, then is _______________________

Let : 3 3 be defined by (, , ) = (3 + 4, 2 3, + 3) and let

= {(, , ) 3 0 1, 0 1, 0 1 }. If

z dx dy dz ,
( 2 x + y 2 z ) dx dy dz =
g (S )

(G

then is _____________________

Let 1 , 2 5 3 be linear transformations such that (1 ) = 3 and (2 ) = 3. Let

3 3 3 be a linear transformation such that 3 1 = 2 . Then (3 ) is __________

Q.47

Let 3 be the field of 3 elements and let 3 3 be the vector space over 3 . The number of
distinct linearly dependent sets of the form {u, v}, where , 3 3 {(0,0)} and
is _____________

Q.48

Q.49

Q.50

Let 125 be the field of 125 elements. The number of non-zero elements 125 such that
5 = is _______________________
The value of

xy dx dy, where is the region in the first quadrant bounded by the curves
R

= 2 , + = 2 and x = 0 is ______________

MA

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GATE 2014

Q.51

MATHEMATICS MA

Consider the heat equation

2
= 2 , 0 < < ,
> 0,

with the boundary conditions (0, ) = 0, (, ) = 0 for > 0, and the initial condition

(, 0) = sin . Then u , 1 is ___________

2

Q.52

Consider the partial order in 2 given by the relation (1 , 1 ) < (2 , 2 ) EITHER if 1 < 2 OR
if 1 = 2 and 1 < 2 . Then in the order topology on 2 defined by the above order

(A) [0,1] x {1} is compact but [0,1] x [0,1] is NOT compact

(D) both [0, 1] [0, 1] and [0,1] x {1} are NOT compact.

Minimize:
Subject to

20

Consider the following linear programming problem:

x1 + x2 + 2 x3

x1 + 2 x2 4
x2 + 7 x3 5
x1 3 x2 + 5 x3 =
6

Q.53

14

(C) both [0, 1] [0, 1] and [0,1] x {1} are compact

(B) [0,1] x [0,1] is compact but [0,1] x {1} is NOT compact

AT

x1 , x2 0, x3 is unrestricted
The dual to this problem is:

(G

Maximize: 4 y1 + 5 y2 + 6 y3
Subject to

y1 + y3 1

2 y1 + y2 3 y3 1

7 y2 + 5 y3 =
2

and further subject to:

(A) y1 0, y2 0 and y3 is unrestricted

(B) y1 0, y2 0 and y3 is unrestricted
(C) y1 0, y3 0 and y2 is unrestricted
(D) y3 0, y2 0 and y1 is unrestricted

MA

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GATE 2014

Q.54

MATHEMATICS MA

Let X = C 1[0,1]. For each f X , define

=
p1 ( f ) : sup
=
p2 ( f ) : sup

{ f (t ) : t [0,1]}
{ f (t ) : t [0,1]}

p3=
( f ) : p1 ( f ) + p2 ( f ) .
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) ( X , p1 ) is a Banach space
(B) ( X , p2 ) is a Banach space

14

(C) ( X , p3 ) is NOT a Banach space

(D) ( X , p3 ) does NOT have denumerable basis

If the power series

=0 ( + 3 ) converges at 5 and diverges at 3, then the power series

(A) converges at 2 + 5 and diverges at 2 3

(B) converges at 2 3 and diverges at 2 + 5

(C) converges at both 2 3 and 2 + 5

20

Q.55

AT

(D) diverges at both 2 3 and 2 + 5

(G

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

MA

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