01-08-2026

6064CMD313226002 MD

PHYSICS

1) If the distance covered by a particle is given by the relation x = at2. The particle is moving with :
(where a is constant)

(1) constant acceleration

(2) zero acceleration
(3) variable acceleration
(4) none of these

2) Two vectors and are perpendicular to each other. The value of 'P'
is :-

(1) 3
(2) –3
(3) –2
(4) 2

3)

y = sin30°. Find

(1)

(2) 30°
(3) cos 30°
(4) 0

4) If = 2, = 5 and = 6 then find

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 0
(4) 10

5) If x = 2 – 5t + 6t2 initial acceleration will be :-

(1) –3m/s2
(2) 12 m/s2
(3) 2m/s2
(4) –5m/s2

6) Magnitude of slope i.e. steepness of graph shown in figure :-

(1) First increases and then decreases

(2) First decreases and then increases
(3) Decreases continuously
(4) Increases continuously

7)

A car moves along a straight line whose equation of motion is given by

s = 12t + 3t2 – 2t3
where s is in metres and t is in seconds. The velocity of the car at start will be :–

(1) 7 m/s
(2) 9 m/s
(3) 12 m/s
(4) 16 m/s

8) Position of a particle is given by x=(6t2+3t+4)m where t is in seconds then velocity of particle at t

= 2 second is :-

(1) 15 m/sec
(2) 27 m/sec
(3) 24 m/sec
(4) 12 m/sec

9) The displacement of a particle is given by

where a0, a1 and a2 are constants. What is its acceleration ?

(1) a1 – a2
(2) –a2
(3) +a2
(4) a2 – a1

10) At what angle should the two forces 2P and act so that the resultant force is

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

11) As shown in figure the component of in the direction of Y axis is:

(1) B sinθ
(2) B cosθ
(3) B tanθ
(4) B cotθ

12) The magnitude of scalar product of two vectors is 4 and that of vector product is 3. The angle
between them is :

(1) 30º
(2) 37º
(3) 53º
(4) 150º

13) Three coplanar vectors and have same magnitude, the is

(1) A
(2) A + B + C
(3) 2A
(4) Zero

14) The direction consines of are

(1) 1, 1, 1
(2) 2, 2, 2

(3)

(4)
15) Find out the unit vector perpendicular to both vectors and .

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A car is moving on a straight road due north with a uniform speed of 50 km h when it turns left
–1

through 90º. If the speed remains unchanged after turning, the change in the velocity of the car in
the turning process is

(1) zero
(2) 50 km h–1 S-W direction
(3) 50 km h–1 N-W direction
(4) 50 km h–1 due west

17) Vector and .

(1)
the angle between the vectors is

(2)
the angle between the vectors is
(3) magnitude of

(4) magnitude of

18)

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R),
Assertion (A): Average speed is always equal to or grater than the magnitude of average velocity
for a rectilinear motion.
Reason (R): Magnitude of the change in the position vector can never be greater than total
distance travelled during rectilinear motion.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

19) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R),
Assertion (A): When two non-parallel forces and act on a body, the magnitude of the resultant
force acting on the body is less than sum of F1 and F2.
Reason (R): In a triangle, any side is less than the sum of the other two sides.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

20) The resultant of two forces of 10N and 5N can never be :-

(1) 12 N
(2) 5N
(3) 10 N
(4) 4N

21) A car covers the first half of the distance between the two places at 40 km/h and another half at
60 km/h. The average speed of the car is _______.

(1) 40 km/h
(2) 48 km/h
(3) 50 km/h
(4) 60 km/h

22)

A particle is moving eastward with a velocity of 5 m/second. In 10 seconds, the velocity changes to
5m/second northward. The average acceleration in this time is-

(1) zero

(2)
m/sec2 towards north-west

(3)
m/sec2 towards north-east

(4)
m/sec2 towards north-west

23)

A body is thrown with speed 20 m/s vertically upward, it will return to thrower's hand after a time (g
= 10 m/s2) :

(1) 2 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 20 s
(4) never

24)

If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last t seconds of
its ascent is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) ut

25) Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap which is 9 m above the ground. The third drop is
leaving the tap at the instant the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the
second drop at that instant ?

(1) 5.50 m
(2) 6.75 m
(3) 6.00 m
(4) 2.25 m

26)

A stone dropped from the top of the tower touches the ground in 4 sec. The height of the tower is
about

(1) 80 m
(2) 40 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 160 m

27) If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with 40 m/s. its velocity after two seconds will be:

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 40 m/s

28) If a car at rest accelerates uniformly and attains a speed of 72 km/h in 10s, then it covers a
distance of

(1) 50 m
(2) 100 m
(3) 200 m
(4) 400 m

29) A car moves for half of its time at 80 km/hr and for rest half of time at 40 km/hr. Total distance
covered is 60 km. What is the average speed of the car :

(1) 60 m/s
(2) 60 km/hr
(3) 120 km/hr
(4) 180 km/hr

30) A ball is thrown with velocity 600 m/s vertically upward. Calculate distance travelled in last 2 sec
of its upward motion :-

(1) 20 m
(2) 30 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 25 m

31) A particle moves with constant acceleration for 6 seconds after starting from rest. The distance
travelled during first three consecutive, 2 seconds intervals are in the ratio

(1) 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 3 : 5
(4) 1 : 5 : 9

32) A body starting from rest and has uniform acceleration 8 m/sec2. The distance travelled by it in
5th second will be :

(1) 36m
(2) 40m
(3) 100m
(4) 200m

33) Velocity of a particle changes when :

(1) Direction of velocity changes

(2) Magnitude of velocity changes
(3) Both of above
(4) None of the above

34) If the velocity of a particle is (10 + 4t) m/s, then the average acceleration of the particle
between 1s and 4s is :-

(1) 20 m/s2
(2) 4m/s2
(3) 12 m/s2
(4) 14 m/s2

35) equal to :-

(1) 1
(2) – 1
(3) 0
(4) 1/2

36)

Find

(1) 10
(2) 9
(3) 8
(4) 7

37) Evaluate

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Given then find

(1) 2t + 5
(2) 4t + 5t
(3) 4t + 5
(4) 5t - 6

39) The vector representation of force in terms of unit vector and is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40)

The numerical ratio of displacement to the distance covered is always :-

(1) Less than one

(2) Equals to one
(3) Equal to or less than one
(4) Equal to or greater than one

41) If a train travelling at 72 km/h is to be brought to rest in a distance of 200 m, then its retardation
should be :

(1) 20 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2

42) A body starting from rest covers a distance of 9 m in the fifth second. The acceleration of the
body is –

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 0.2 m/s2
(3) 1.8 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2

43) A jet plane starts from rest with an acceleration of 3 ms–2 and makes a run for 35 s before taking
off. The velocity of the jet at take off is:

(1) 95 m/s
(2) 105 m/s
(3) 115 m/s
(4) 125 m/s

44) A car moving with a velocity of 10 m/s can be stopped by the application of a constant force F in
a distance of 20m. If the velocity of the car is 30 m/s. It can be stopped by this force in:

(1)

(2) 20 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 180 m

45) A car travelling at 72 km/h decelerates uniformly at 2 m/s2. Then the time it takes to stops

(1) 20 s
(2) 10 s
(3) 5 s
(4) 4 s

CHEMISTRY

1) The ratio of neutrons in C and Si with respective atomic masses 12 and 28 is:

(1) 2 : 3
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 3 : 7
(4) 7 : 3

2) Match the correct terms:-

(1) i-a, ii-d, iii-d, iv-c, v-a

(2) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c, v-a
(3) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b, v-a
(4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-b, v-d

3) Fluoride ion F- is isoelectronic with:-

(1) Ne
(2) O2-
(3) N3-
(4) All of these

4) Ionisation energy of He+ ion will be :-

(1) 54.4 eV
(2) 40.8 eV
(3) 13.6 eV
(4) –54.4 eV

5) Distance between 2nd and 3rd shell of H-atom :-

(1) 1.2 Å
(2) 2.65 Å
(3) 4.30 Å
(4) 1.65 Å

6) If the wavelength of certain radiation is 1000 Å what is its frequency ?

(1) 3.3 × 10–15 s–1

(2) 3 × 10–13 s–1
(3) 1 × 105 s–1
(4) 3 × 1015 s–1

7) No. of photon of light having a wavelength 4000Å are necessary to provide 1.00 J of energy.

(1) 2.0 × 1018

(2) 4.0 × 1018
(3) 4.9 × 10–19
(4) 8.34 × 10–17

8) The radius of which of the following orbit is same as that of the first Bohr's orbit of hydrogen atom

(1) He+ (n = 2)
(2) Li2+ (n = 2)
(3) Li2+ (n = 3)
(4) Be3+ (n = 2)

9) When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to an excited state,

(1) both kinetic energy (KE) and potential energy (PE) increase
(2) both KE and PE decrease
(3) PE increases, KE decreases
(4) PE decreases, KE increases

10) Energy of third excited state for Be+3 is :-

(1) –13.6 eV
(2) –1.51 eV
(3) –0.85 eV
(4) –0.54 eV

11) If the velocity of an electron in Ist orbit of H atom is V, then what will be the velocity in 4th orbit
of Be+3:-

(1) V

(2)

(3) 16 V
(4) 4 V

12) The relationship between energy E1 of the radiation with a wavelength 8000 Å and the energy,
(E2) of the radiation with a wavelength 16000 Å is

(1) E1 = 2E2
(2) E1 = 4E2
(3) E1 = 6E2
(4) 2E1 = E2

13) is isodiapher with . The value of Z is.

(1) 90
(2) 88
(3) 92
(4) 86

14) Isotopes of an element have ?

(1) Same atomic number but different mass number.

(2) Same mass number but different atomic number.
(3) Same number of neutrons but different number of protons.
(4) Same number of neutrons.

15) The atomic number and mass number of an isotope are 17 and 37. Number of neutrons is:

(1) 20
(2) 18
(3) 19
(4) 17
16) In which of the following radius of first orbit is maximum?

(1) H
(2) He+
(3) Li+2
(4) Be+3

17) If the radius of 3rd Bohr's orbit of H is x, then radius of 4th orbit of Li2+ ion would be :-

(1)
x

(2)
x

(3)

(4) None of these

18)

In if mass attributed to electrons were doubled & the mass attributed to protons were halved,
the atomic mass would become approximately :-

(1) Halved
(2) Doubled
(3) Reduced by 25%
(4) Remain same

19) Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20)

Electromagnetic radiation with maximum wavelength is

(1) ultraviolet
(2) radiowaves
(3) X-rays
(4) infrared

21) An electron of hydrogen transits from fifth excited state to first excited state in multisteps, so
formed no. of total lines are
(1) 20
(2) 15
(3) 10
(4) 5

22) Which of the following contains same number of neutrons as are in :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23)

The minimum energy required to eject an electron from an atom is called :-

(1) Kinetic energy

(2) Electrical energy
(3) Chemical energy
(4) Work function

24) The wavelength of visible light is:

(1) 2000 Å – 3700 Å

(2) 7800 Å – 8900 Å
(3) 3800 Å - 7600 Å
(4) none of these

25) The kinetic and potential energy of e– in second Bohr's orbit of hydrogen atom are respectively:-

(1) +6.8 eV and –3.4 eV

(2) –1.5 eV and +3.02 eV
(3) –6.8 eV and +3.4 eV
(4) +3.4 eV and – 6.8 eV

26) In Photoelectric effect, the photo current :

(1) Increases with increase of frequency of incident photon

(2) Decreases with increase of frequency of incident photon
(3) Does not depends on the frequency of photon but depends only on the intensity of incident light
(4) Depends both on intensity and frequency of the incident photon

27) Match the following

(A) Lyman (i) IR
(B) Balmer (ii) IR
(C) Paschen (iii) Visible
(D) Pfund (iv) UV

(1) A → (iv), B → (iii), C → (i), D → (ii)

(2) A → (i), B → (iii), C → (ii), D → (iv)
(3) A → (iv), B → (ii), C → (iii), D → (iv)
(4) A → (i), B → (ii), C → (iii), D → (iv)

28)

An isotone of 32Ge76 is :-
(i) 32Ge77 (ii) 33As77
(iii) 34Se77 (iv) 34Se78

(1) (ii) & (iii)

(2) (i) & (ii)
(3) (ii) & (iv)
(4) (ii) & (iii) & (iv)

29)

What is the corresponding wave number of ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None

30)

If number of protons in X2– is 16 then number of e– in X2+ will be

(1) 14
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) None

31) Which of the following pair is Isodiaphers.

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4) None of the above

32) Ionization energy of H-atom is:

(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 27.2 eV
(3) 0 eV
(4) None of these

33)

If change in energy (ΔE) = 3 × 10–8 J, h = 6.64 × 10–34 J-s and c = 3 × 108 m/s, then wavelength of
the light is:-

(1) 6.66 × 103 Å

(2) 6.66 × 105 Å
(3) 6.64 × 10–8 Å
(4) 6.66 × 1018 Å

34) When electrons of hydrogen atom return to L-shell from the shells of higher energy, we get a
series of line in the spectrum. This series is called

(1) Lyman series

(2) Balmer series
(3) Brackett series
(4) Paschen series

35) Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible
region ?

(1) Lyman series

(2) Balmer series
(3) Paschen series
(4) Brackett series

36) The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in , respectively, are :

(1) 175, 104 and 71

(2) 71, 104 and 71
(3) 104, 71 and 71
(4) 71, 71 and 104

37) Which one of the following is not the characteristic of Planck's quantum theory of radiation ?

(1) The energy is not absorbed or emitted in whole number or multiple of quantum.
(2) Radiation is associated with energy.
Radiant energy is not emitted or absorbed continuously but in the form of small packets called
(3)
quanta.
(4) This magnitude of energy associated with a quantum is proportional to its frequency.

38)
The ratio of the radii of two Bohr orbit's of H-atoms is 4 : 1 what would be their nomenclature:-

(1) K & L
(2) L & K
(3) N & L
(4) 2 & 3 both

39) Number of photons having wavelength 5000Å are emitted from 100 watt bulb in one second.

(1) 1.5 × 1022

(2) 2.5 × 1016
(3) 2.5 × 1020
(4) 1.6 × 10–19

40) Radius of 2nd excited state of Li+2 is :-

(1) 0.529 Å
(2) 1.58 Å
(3) 2.67 Å
(4) 1.2 Å

41)

If an electron makes a transition from 6th orbit to ground state then calculate total number of lines
obtained

(1) 15
(2) 30
(3) 10
(4) 20

42)

In which of the following transitions will the wavelength be minimum ?

(1) n = 6 to n = 4
(2) n = 4 to n = 2
(3) n = 3 to n = 1
(4) n = 2 to n = 1

43) Among the following groups which represents the collection of isoelectronic species ?

+ 2– –
(1) NO , C2 , O2 , CO
2–
(2) N2, C2 , CO, NO
+ – 2–
(3) CO, NO , CN , C2
– –
(4) NO, CN , N2, O2
44) If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of
Li2+ ion?

(1) 15.87 pm
(2) 1.587 pm
(3) 158.7 Å
(4) 158.7 pm

45) A radio station is broadcasting at a wavelength of 300 m. If the radiating power of transmitter is
10 kW, then the number of photons radiated per second is :

(1) 1.5 × 1023

(2) 1.5 × 1031
(3) 1.5 × 1033
(4) 1.5 × 1035

BOTANY

1) Membrane bound minute vesicles that contain various enzymes are present in both plant and
animal cells called:-

(1) Chloroplasts
(2) Centrosome
(3) Microbodies
(4) Mesosomes

2) The part of chromosome beyond the secondary constriction is known as :-

(1) Chromomere
(2) Satellite
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Centromere

3)

An elaborate network of filamentous _____ structure present in the cytoplasm is collectively referred
to as the ...................

(1) Cytoskeleton, Proteinaceous

(2) Proteinaceous, Cytoskeleton
(3) Plasma membrane, Proteinaceous
(4) Endoskeleton, Proteinaceous

4)

Recognise the figure and find out the correct statement :-

(1) Given figure shows a chromosome with two centromere on surface of it
(2) Given figure shows a chromosome with two kinetochore on surface of it
(3) Given figure shows a chromosome with two chromatids attached at primary constriction
(4) Both (2) and (3)

5) A Chromosome has centromere in almost centre, B chromosome has centromere slightly

away from centre, C chromosome has centromere very near to one end of chromosome while D
chromosome has centromere on one end.
What is A, B, C & D ?

A B C D

(1) Metacentric Submetacentric Acrocentric Telocentric

(2) Metacentric Submetacentric Telocentric Acrocentric

(3) Metacentric Acrocentric Submetacentric Telocentric

(4) Metacentric Acrocentric Telocentric Submetacentric

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6)

Every chromosome essentially has the .......... on the sides of which disc shaped structures called
......... are present.
Choose the correct words for the blanks respectively

(1) Centrosome, centrioles

(2) Kinetochore, centrosome
(3) Centromere, Kinetochores
(4) DNA, RNA

7) Chromatin contain :-

(1) RNA and Histones

(2) DNA and Histones
(3) Histones and Non Histones
(4) All of the above

8) Which of the following option is correct regarding the given figure ?

Number of Number of Number

centromere kinetochore of arms

(1) 2 1 4

(2) 1 2 4

(3) 2 2 4

(4) 1 2 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) The function of nucleolus is the synthesis of :-

(1) DNA
(2) m-RNA
(3) r-RNA
(4) t-RNA

10) Nucleus is absent in :-

(1) Mature RBC

(2) Mature sieve tube
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) All mature cells

11) The spherical structures present in the nucleoplasm

(1) Has contents continuous with rest of the nucleoplasm.

(2) Is a membrane bound structure.
(3) Is a site of active messenger RNA synthesis
(4) Are smaller and less numerous in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis
12) In the given figure what is A, B, C & D :-

A-Nucleolus, B-Nucleoplasm,
(1)
C-Nuclear pore, D-Nuclear membrane
A-Nucleoplasm, B-Nucleolus,
(2)
C-Nuclear pore, D-Nuclear membrane
A-Nuclear membrane, B-Nucleoplasm,
(3)
C-Nucleolus, D-Nuclear pore
A-Nuclear pore, B-Nucleoplasm,
(4)
C-Nucleolus, D-Nuclear membrane

13) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and and choose the correct option -
Assertion (A) :- Larger and more numerous nudeoli are present in cells actively carrying out
protein synthesis.
Reason (R) :- Nucleolus is a site for active Ribosomal RNA Synthesis.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

14) Read the following statement carefully and identify the correct statements :-
(A) Nuclear pore facilitates movement of substances between nucleus and cytoplasm
(B) Sieve tube elements do not posses nucleus so they are anucleate
(C) Outer and inner nuclear membrane is fused at nuclear pore
(D) Smaller and less numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively involved in protein synthesis

(1) All four

(2) A, C & D
(3) A & C
(4) Only A

15) In a cell, functions of cytoskeleton is /are :-

(1) Mechanical support

(2) Motility
(3) Maintenance of the shape of cell
(4) All of the above

16) Elaioplasts help in storage of :-

(1) Fats and oils
(2) Proteins
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) Nucleic acids

17) Select the option with correct labelling of given structure of chloroplast :-

A B C D

1 Thylakoid Granum Stroma lamellae Stroma

2 Granum Thylakoid Stroma lamellae Stroma

3 Stroma lamellae Thylakoid Stroma Granum

4 Stroma lamellae Stroma Thylakoid Granum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Based on the type of pigments plastids can be classified into :-

(1) Amyloplasts, elaioplasts and aleuroplasts

(2) Chlorophyll, carotenoid and xanthophyll
(3) Chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplasts
(4) All of the above

19) In terms of shape and size of mitochondria considerable degree of variability is observed. The
number of mitochondria per cell is variable depending of the :-

(1) Morphology of the cells

(2) Biochemical activity of the cells
(3) Physiological activity of the cells
(4) All of the above

20) Chlorophyll pigments are present in :-

(1) Thylakoid lumen

(2) Outer membrane
(3) Stroma
(4) Thylakoid membrane
21) Which of the following statement is correct regarding chloroplast ?

(1) A number of organised flattened membranous sacs called cristae, present in stroma.
(2) Its outer membrane is less permeable
(3) The stroma contains enzymes required for the carbohydrates and protein synthesis
(4) Its ribosomes are larger than the cytoplasmic ribosomes

22) Chromoplasts mainly contain which of the following pigments?

(1) Chlorophylls and Xanthophylls

(2) Chlorophylls and Carotenes
(3) Carotenes and Xanthophylls
(4) Only Xanthophylls

23)

The ribosomes of the chloroplasts are :-

(1) Smaller than the prokaryotic ribosomes.

(2) Larger than the mitochondrial ribosomes.
(3) Similar to the cytoplasmic ribosomes of Eukaryotic cell.
(4) Smaller than the ribosomes attached on ER.

24) What is dimension of chloroplast :-

(1) Length 2 - 4 & width 5 - 10

(2) Length 1 - 2 & width 2-4
(3) Length 5 - 10 & width 2 - 4
(4) Length 2 - 4 & width 1 - 2

25) Assertion A: Chlorophyll pigments are located in the thylakoids of chloroplasts.

Reason R: The stroma of the chloroplast contains enzymes necessary for the synthesis of
carbohydrates and proteins.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

26) Plastids are found in :-

(1) All plant cells and in Euglenoids.

(2) All animal cells and in euglenoids
(3) All bacteria and animal cells
(4) All plants and bacteria

27) Carotenoid pigments are found in :-

(1) Chromoplast
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Leucoplast
(4) Both (1) & (2)

28) Number of chloroplast present in a mesophyll cell

(1) 5 - 10
(2) 10 - 15
(3) 20 - 40
(4) > 100

29) Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle ?

(1) Mesosome
(2) Mitochondria
(3) ER
(4) Ribosome

30) The 'Power house' of cell :-

(1) Is bound by a single membrane

(2) Posses cristae which are extension of its outer membrane
(3) Are sites of formation of 'energy currency' of the cell
(4) Is found in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells

31) Cilium and flagellum emerge from centriole like structure called

(1) Centrosome
(2) Kinetochore
(3) Basal body
(4) Centromere

32) The inner membrane of mitochondria forms a number of infoldings called:-

(1) Lamellae
(2) Thylakoid
(3) Grana
(4) Cristae

33) The diameter of mitochondria is :-

(1) 1.0 – 4.1 µm

(2) 0.2 – 1.0 µm
(3) 5 – 10 µm
(4) 2 – 4 µm
34) Semiautonomous cell organelle is :

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Golgibody
(3) Ribosome
(4) Nucleus

35) The sedimentation coefficient of ribosome is a measure of

(1) density
(2) number
(3) structure
(4) none of these

36) Eukaryotes contain -

(1) 80 s ribosomes
(2) 70 s ribosomes
(3) 40 s
(4) Both (1) and (2)

37) Ribosome are found in and or attached to-

(1) Cytoplasm and rough endoplasmic reticulum.

(2) Cytoplasm, mitochondria, rough endoplasmic reticulum.
(3) Cytoplasm, mitocohndira, smooth endoplasmic reticulum and rough E.R.
(4) Cytoplasm, nucleus, mitochndria, Smooth ER and rough ER

38) Fill in the blanks :

Ribosomes are composed of ______ and proteins.

(1) DNA
(2) r-RNA
(3) m-RNA
(4) t-RNA

39) Identify the A, B, C & D in given figure and choose right option regarding them :-
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) Flagella is responsible for :-

(1) Cell movement

(2) Movement of surrounding fluid
(3) Maintenance of shape of cell
(4) Formation of the basal body

41) Centrioles have :-

(1) 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules

(2) 9 Peripheral doublet microtubules
(3) 2 centrally located microtubules
(4) An organisation like the cart wheel

42) Centriole is associated with –

(1) DNA synthesis

(2) Reproduction
(3) Spindle formation
(4) Respiration

43) The spherical structured organelle that contains the genetic material is

(1) Cell walls

(2) Ribosomes
(3) Nucleus
(4) Mitochondria

44) Which cell organelle has structures like piles of coin?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Ribosome
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Cilia

45) Centrioles form ____ that give rise to ____ during cell division in animal cells.

(1) Spindle fibres; kinetochore

(2) Kinetochore; spindle fibres
(3) Spindle apparatus; spindle fibres
(4) Spindle fibres; spindle apparatus

ZOOLOGY

1) First triploblastic animals is :-

(1) Coelenterates
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Annelida

2) When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two
identical halves, it is called

(1) Bilateral symmetry

(2) Radial symmetry
(3) Asymmetry
(4) Biradial symmetry

3)

In which phylum A, B and C are found -

(1) Sponges, Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes respectively.

(2) Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes, Annelids respectively.
(3) Platyhelminthes, Annelids, Aschelminthes, respectively.
(4) Annelids, Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes respectively.

4) Nematocysts are found in

(1) Porifera
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Nematodes
(4) Annelida

5) Assertion : Coelenterata, Ctenophora and Echinoderms have radial symmetry.

Reason : Their body can divided into two identical left and right halves by only one plane.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true

6)

Given below are the three figure of sponges. Which of the following sponges are found in fresh
water?

(1) only a
(2) only b
(3) a and b
(4) only c

7) Digestion of Euspongia is :

(1) Extra cellular only

(2) Extra & intracellular both
(3) Intracellular only
(4) No digestion

8) The path of water, in water canal system is :-

(1) Osculum → Spongocoel → Ostia

(2) Madreporite → Ring canal → Radial canal
(3) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum
(4) Ampulla → Madreporite → Radial canal

9) Body is supported by a skeleton made up of spicules or spongin fibres in which phylum?

(1) Ctenophora
(2) Coelententerata
(3) Porifera
(4) Platyhalminthes

10) Which is not the function of water canal system in sponges?

(1) Food gathering.

(2) Respiratory exhange.
(3) Defense
(4) Removal of waste.

11) Which of the two basic body forms of cnidarians are given below ?

(1) A = Medusa = Asexual stage

(2) B = Medusa = Asexual stage
(3) B = Polyp = Asexual stage
(4) B = Polyp = Sexual stage

12) Select the incorrect statement from followings ?

(1) In Obelia, polyp and medusa, both forms are formed in life cycle.
(2) In Obelia, polyp sexually reproduce and form medusa.
(3) In Obelia, medusa sexually reproduce form polyp.
(4) In Obelia, polyp asexually reproduce and form medusa.

13) Digestion in Hydra is :-

(1) Only Extracellular

(2) Only Intracellular
(3) Extracellular and Intracellular
(4) Complete in alimentary canal

14) Gastrovascular cavity is found in :-

(1) Sponges
(2) Coelenterates
(3) Echinodermates
(4) Arthropods
15) Which is not a function of cnidoblast in coelenterates?

(1) Anchorage
(2) Defence
(3) Capturing of prey
(4) Helps in digestion

16) Hydra/obelia is :-

(1) Diploblastic, radially symmetrical, acoelomate

(2) Diploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, acoelomate
(3) Triploblastic, radially symmetrical, coelomate
(4) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, coelomate

17) Bioluminescence is characteristic feature of phylum ?

(1) Coelenterata
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Porifera
(4) Protozoa

18) Ciliated comb plates of pleurobrachia are helpful in :

(1) Respiration
(2) Locomotion
(3) Bioluminescence
(4) Capturing of food

19) Which animal has been placed in wrong habitat?

(1) Hydra - Fresh water

(2) Spongilla - Fresh water
(3) Pennatula - Sea water
(4) Ctenoplana - Fresh water

20) Identify the Animal and find out the incorrect option for given animal :

(1) Presence of bioluminescence.

(2) Presence of ten comb plate
(3) Reproduction only sexual
(4) Tissue level organisation

21) The space between body wall and alimentary canal lined by mesoderm is called :-

(1) Acoelom
(2) Pseudocoelom
(3) Coelom
(4) None of these

22) An open type of circulatory system is found in:

(1) Earthworm
(2) Man
(3) Cockroach
(4) Birds

23) Incomplete digestive system is found in:-

(1) Arthropoda
(2) Annelida
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Aschelminthes

24) Digestive system is complete first in which phylum ?

(1) Arthropoda
(2) Annelida
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Aschelminthes

25) Which of the following is the part of closed circulatory system –

(1) Arteries
(2) Veins
(3) Capillaries
(4) All of these

26) Body is externally and internally divided into segments with serial repetition of some organs is
known as :-

(1) Metagensis
(2) Metamorphosis
(3) Metamerism
(4) Metastasis
27) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of the sectional view of an animal. Identify the parts
labelled as A, B, C and D and select the right option about them :-

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

1 Ectoderm Mesoderm Ectoderm Coelom

2 Mesoderm Ectoderm Coelom Ectoderm

3 Ectoderm Mesoderm Coelom Endoderm

4 Ectoderm Coelom Mesoderm Ectoderm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4.

28) Mark the group of phyla that include only the animals with blind sac body plan ?

(1) Porifera, Coelenterata

(2) Porifera, Platyhelminthes
(3) Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes
(4) Coelenterata, Platyhelminthes

29) Animals are classified on the basis of :-

(1) Arrangement of cells

(2) Body symmetry
(3) Nature of coelom
(4) All of these

30) Following diagram represents which type of connective tissue ?

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

31) Following diagram represent which type of tissue ?

(1) Dense connective tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Areolar connective tissue
(4) Specialised connective tissue

32) Which is not example of specialised connective tissue ?

(1) Blood
(2) Cartilage
(3) Tendon
(4) Bone

33) Ear pinna & tip of nose consists :-

(1) Hyaline cartilage

(2) White fibrous cartilage
(3) Elastic cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage

34) In all connective tissues, except _____, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin :-

(1) Blood
(2) Bone
(3) Cartilage
(4) Areolar tissue

35) Lacunae are found in :-

(1) Bone
(2) Cartilage
(3) Adipose tissue
(4) Both 1 & 2

36) Most abundant and widely distributed tissue in our body is ?

(1) Epithelial
(2) Connective
(3) Muscular
(4) Nervous

37) Below the skin, the fat is present in the form of :-

(1) Muscles
(2) Lymphoid tissue
(3) Adipose tissue
(4) Areolar tissue

38) Choose the most accurate regarding the cartilage :-

(1) Matrix is only solid

(2) Matrix is solid and pliable
(3) Matrix is solid, pliable and resists compression
(4) Matrix is soft.

39) The cells of connective tissue concerned with the secretion of histamine, serotonin & heparin is
:-

(1) Fibroblast cells

(2) Macrophages
(3) Adipose cells
(4) Mast cells

40) Fibres and fibroblast are compactly packed in which type of tissue

(1) Dense connective tissue

(2) Loose connective tissue
(3) Specialised connective tissue
(4) All of above

41) Amoeboid cell with kidney shaped nucleus is-

(1) Fibroblast
(2) Macrophage
(3) Mast cell
(4) Adipocycte

42) Find the incorrect match :-

(1) Platyhelminthes - Bilateral symmetry and acoelomate

(2) Aschelminthes - Bilateral symmetry and pseudocoelomate
(3) Cnidaria - Radial symmetry and cellular level of organization.
(4) Annelida - Bilateral symmetry and coelomate

43) Tendon and ligament belongs to –

(1) Muscular tissue

(2) Epithelium tissue
(3) Fibrous connective tissue
(4) Areolar connective tissue

44) Assertion : Tendons are used to attach bone to bone.

Reason : Ligaments are used to attach muscle to bone.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

45) Which is not a sponges?

(1) Sycon
(2) Spongilla
(3) Scypha
(4) Sea anemone
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 4 2 2 2 3 2 2 1 1 2 4 4 2 2 2 1 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 1 3 1 3 2 1 2 3 3 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 2 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 4 1 2 4 1 4 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 3 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 4 3 4 3 1 3 3 1 1 1 3 2 2 2 1 4 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 3 4 2

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 2 4 1 3 4 2 3 3 1 2 1 3 4 1 2 3 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 4 3 2 1 4 3 4 3 3 4 2 1 1 4 2 2 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 3 3 3 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 2 4 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 2 4 1 2 2 4 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 4 3 3 3 3 1 4 2 3 3 4 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 3 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) a =

2) ⇒

= 15 – 18 + P = 0 ⇒ P=3

3) Explain the Question :

We are asked to find the derivative of y = sin 30° with respect to x, a constant value.
Concept : This question is based on derivative of constant with respect to any variable is
zero.
Solution :

Here, y = sin 30° = is a constant because it does not depend on x.

The derivative of a constant with respect to any variable is always zero.

Therefore,
Final Answer : 4

4)
ABsinθ = 6

sinθ = =

so cos θ = ⇒ AB cos θ = (2)(5)(4/5)

=8

5)

x = 2 – 5t + 6t2

v= = – 5 + 12t

6)
θ angle changes from acute to zero and then from zero to obtuse magnitude of slope first
decreases then increases.

7) v =
v = 12 + 6t – 6t2
At t = 0 ⇒ V = 12m/s

8) x = (6t2 + 3t + 4)m

v= = 12t + 3 ⇒ at t = 2 sec.
v = 12(2) + 3 = 27 m/sec.

9) a = –a2

10)
P2(10) = 4P2 + 2P2 + 4 P2 cos θ

cos θ = ⇒ θ = 45°

11) Question Explanation : The question asks for the component of vector in the direction
of the Y-axis, given at an angle θ with the x-axis.
Concept : Resolution of a vector into its components.
Solution :
• The component of vector along the Y-axis is :
By = B sinθ
where :
• B is the magnitude of vector ,
• θ is the angle between vector and the X-axis.

Final Answer: Option (1)

12)

Answer is 37º

13) Question Explanation:

Finds the resultant of three vectors with equal magnitude
Concept:
Resultant of concurrent vectors in equilibrium
Solution:
Since the three vectors have equal magnitude and are separated by equal angles of 120° they
form a symmetry. When vectors of equal magnitude are placed at equal angles covering 360° t
heir horizontal and vertical components cancel each other out completely.
Calculation:
Resultant R = for any two vectors.
For |A| = |B| = |C| =F:

Resultant of and RAC =

This resultant F acts exactly oppositive to vector B. Net Resultant = F –F = 0
Final answer:
Option (4)

14)

15)

16) Initial velocity = 50

Final velocity = –50
Change in velocity = along south west
17)

18)

As displacement can never be greater than distance. Average velocity can never be greater
than average speed.

19)

20) Rmin ≤ R ≤ Rmax

21)

22)

23) Question Explanation : To find the time after which ball will return to thrower's hand if
it is thrown at speed of 20 m/s vertically upward.
Concept : This question is based on motion under gravity.
Solution :
We know,
v = u + at ..(1)
If a body is thrown upwards, then equation (1) becomes
v = u – gt
Here, a = – g
Substituting v (at highest point) = 0
u = 20 ms–1, g = 10
0 = 20 – 10t
∴ t = 2s
Hence, total time taken in returning
t' = 2t = 2 × 2 = 4 s.
Final answer : option (2)

24)

25)
4x = 9

x=
height of second drop from ground = 9 – x

26)
27)

28)

29) Vave. = Vave. = 60km/hr

30)

Question Explanation: In this question, we need to find the distance travelled by the
particle in the last 2 sec of its motion.
Concept: Motion under gravity free fall
Solution:
By the equation, v = u + at
Velocity at the start of Last 2 Seconds of its motion
0=u–g×2 [v = 0 since after 2 sec the particle will reach its
maximum height, a = –g]
u = g × 2 = 10 × 2 = 20m/s
∴ Distance Traveled in the Last 2 Seconds

By the equation, s = ut + at2

[a = –g]
s = 40 – 20 = 20m

Final Answer : option (1)

31)

S1 = 0 + a (2)2 = 2a
 S2 = 0 + a (4)2 = 8a
S2 = S2 – S1 = 8a – 2a = 6a

S3 = 0 + a (6)2 = 18 a
S3 = S3 – S2 = 18a – 8a = 10 a
S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 3 : 5

32)

S=u+ a (2n – 1)

S=0+ × 8 (2 × 5 – 1) S = 4 (9) = 36 m

33) Question Explain:

The question asks under which conditions the velocity of a particle changes. Specifically, we
need to determine whether a change in the direction of velocity, the magnitude of velocity, or
both results in a change in the velocity of the particle.
Concept:
Velocity is a vector quantity, which means it has both magnitude (speed) and direction. Any
change in either the magnitude or direction of the velocity results in a change in the velocity.

A. If the direction of velocity changes (even if speed is constant), the velocity changes because
the vector's direction is altered.
B. If the magnitude (speed) of velocity changes (even if direction is constant), the velocity
changes because the speed is different.
C. A change in both magnitude and direction obviously results in a change in velocity.

Formula Used:
Velocity is a vector:
= speed in a given direction
Any change in the vector (magnitude or direction} means a change in velocity.
Answer:
Option 3: Both of the above
The velocity of a particle changes if either its magnitude or direction changes.

34)

V = 10 + 4t

aavg =

35)
36) = Area between y vs x curve and x-axis

37) Write and use power rule: .

38)

39) Resolution of vector

40)

∴ Distance ≥ |Displacement|

or

41)

u= = 20 m/s
2 2
v = u – 2aS
0 = (20)2 – 2 × a × (200)

a= = 1 m/s2

42)

Answer : 2 m/s2

43) ∵ v = u + at = 0 + 3 × 35 = 105 m/s

44)
 45) V = 0, s = ?
From the equation of motion,
V = u + at

CHEMISTRY

46) 3 : 7

47) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c, v-a

48) All of these

49) Question Explanation : The question asks for the ionization energy of a He ion.
+

Given Data:

A. System: He+ ion

Concept :

Solution :
For He+, the atomic number (Z) is 2.
lonization energy is the energy required to move the electron from its ground state (n = 1) to n = ∞.
The energy of the ground state (n = 1) is:

The energy of the electron at n = ∞ is zero.

Ionization Energy = E∞ – E1 = 0 – (–54.4 eV) = +54.4 eV.

Final Answer : option (1)

50) Question Explanation : We need to find distance between 2nd and 3rd shell of H-atom.
Concept : Radius based atomic number.
Solution :

rn = 0.529 ×

r2 = 0.529 × = 0.529 × 4Å

r3 = 0.529 × = 0.529 × 9Å
r3–r2 = 0.529 (9–4) = 0.529 × 5 Å
r3–r2 = 2.65 Å
Final Answer : Option (2)
Final Answer : Option (2)

51)

3 × 1015 s–1

52) Explanation : find value of No. of photon (n).

Given data : λ = 4000 Å, E = 1J

Concept : E =
h = 6.626 × 10-34 JS
C = 3 × 108 ms-1 (1Å = 10-10 m)

Calculation : 1 =

n=
= 201.22 × 1016
= 2.01 × 1018
Final Answer : 2.0 x 1018
Correct Option : 1

53)

54)
For same potential difference

55) Question Explanation : The question asks for the energy of an electron in the third
excited state of a Be+3 ion.

Concept :
The energy of an electron in the nth orbit of a hydrogen-like species is given by the formula:

Solution :
For Be+3, the atomic number (Z) is 4.
The third excited state corresponds to the principal quantum number n = 4.

Using the energy formula:

E4 = – 13.6 ×
E4 = – 13.6 ×

E4 = – 13.6 ×
E4 = – 13.6 eV

Final Answer : option (1)

56) V ∝

57) Explain the question : Find the relation between energies of radiations with wavelengths
8000 Å and 16000 Å.
Concept : This question is based on energy of radiation –E = hc/λ
Solution:
Energy of radiation is given by :
E = hc/λ
For the two radiations :
E1 = hc/λ1, E2 = hc/λ2
So,
E1/E2 = (hc/λ1) ÷ (hc/λ2) = λ2/λ1
Substitute values :
E1/E2 = 16000/8000 = 2
Thus, E1 = 2E2
Final answer : 1

58)

Explain the Question : Find atomic number of isodiapher nuclide with uranium-238
Concept : This question is based on isodiapher.
Solution :
is isodiapher with .

neutron (n) = A – P = 238 – 92 = 146

n – p = 146 – 92 = 54
Isodiapher means (n – p) remain same.
For
n – p = 54
n + p = 234
+ ___________
2n = 288
n = 144
n – p = 54
144 – p = 54
p = 144 – 54 = 90
Final answer : Option (1)
 59) Theory based.

60) Neutrons = 37 – 17 = 20

61) rn = 0.529 × Å

means, rn ∝

62) Question Explanation :

Find the radius of the 4th Bohr orbit of Li2+ given the radius of the 3rd Bohr orbit of H is x.
Given :
• Radius of 3rd Bohr orbit of H (Z = 1, n = 3) = x

Concept : For a hydrogen like species:

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (2)

63)

Question Explanation: Calculate new atomic mass of Nitrogen-14 after changing proton and
electron masses.
Concept : Atomic mass ≈ sum of proton, neutron, and electron masses; electron mass
negligible.
Solution:

% change = Reduces.
Final Answer : option (3)

64) are isoelectronic and isostructural.

65) Explanation
Radio waves have the longest wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum, which can range
from about 1 mm1 mm to more than 100 km100km. In comparison:

A. Ultraviolet, X-rays, and infrared have significantly shorter wavelengths than radio waves.
 B. X-rays and ultraviolet radiation are on the higher-energy end of the spectrum (short
wavelengths, high frequency), while infrared is closer to the middle but still shorter in
wavelength than radio waves.

Concept

A. Longer wavelengths correspond to lower frequencies and lower energies.

B. Shorter wavelengths correspond to higher frequencies and higher energies.

Answer
2 Radio waves

66) Question Explanation:

Calculate the total number of spectral lines when an electron fails from the fifth excited state
to the first excited state in multisteps.

Concept:
Number of spectral form level n to m is given by:

Number of lines =
Solution:
• Fifth excited state corresponds to n = 6 (since ground state is n = 1).
• First excited state is n = 2
Number of lines:

= 10
Final Answer
Option (3)

67)

Question Explanation: Find the nuclide having the same number of neutrons as ₁₅P ³¹.

Concept: Number of neutrons = Mass number − Atomic number

Solution:
For₁₅P ³¹:
Neutrons = 31 − 15 = 16

Check options:

A. ₁₄Si ²⁸ → 28 − 14 = 14

B. ₁₆S ³² → 32 − 16 = 16

C. ₁₅P ³² → 32 − 15 = 17
 D. ₁₆S ³³ → 33 − 16 = 17

only ₁₆S ³² have same number of neutrons as ₁₅P ³¹.

Final Answer: Option (2)

68) Question Explanation:

The question asks for the term that describe the minimum energy required to eject an electron
form an atom.

Concept:
The minimum energy needed to remove an electron from the surface of a material or atom is
called the work function.

Solution:
• Kinetic energy: Energy possessed by a moving object not related to the minimum energy
needed to eject an electron.
• Electrical energy: General form of energy: not specific to electron ejection.
• Chemical energy: Energy stored in chemical bonds: unrelated here.
• Work function: The minimum energy required to remove an electron from the surface of a
material (or atom).
Hence, the correct term is work function:
Final Answer
Option: (4)

69)

Explain Question : Find the range of wavelengths that correspond to visible light.

Concept : This question is based on EM waves.

Solution :

Visible light wavelengths range approximately from 3800Å to 7600Å.

A. Option 1:2000 Å-3700Å - This is in the ultraviolet range, not visible.

B. Option 2: 7800Å-8900Å - This is in the infrared range, not visible.
C. Option 3: 3800Å-7600Å - This correctly matches the visible spectrum.
D. Option 4: None of these- Incorrect because option 3 is correct.

Final Answer : option (3)

70)

Question Explanation : To find the kinetic and potential energy of an electron in the second
Bohr orbit (n=2) of hydrogen (Z=1).
 Concept : This question is based on energy of electron in nth orbit.

Solution :

Total energy
Kinetic energy .
Potential energy .

Final Answer : option (4)

71) Hint : Intensity ∝ number of photoelectron.

Photoelectric current does not increase with the increase in frequency of incident light.

72)

73)

Isotone has same number of neutrons.

74)

Question Explanation : Find the wave number (reciprocal of wavelength) for radiation with
wavelength 5 nm.
Concept : Wave number : ; convert λ into meters or centimeters first.
Solution :

= 2 × 108m–1
Final Answer : Option (3)

75) Explain Question: We need to find Number of electrons present in X+2 if protons present
in X–2 is 16.

Concept:
No. of electrons = Z – (charge with sign.)

Solution:
X–2 ⇒ No. of protons = Z = 16
X+2 ⇒ No. of electrons = 16 – 2 = 14
Final Answer: Option (1)

76) Question Explanation: Question asks which pair is isodiaphers.

Concept: Isodiaphers.

Solution:
Isodiaphers ⇒ Same Number of (n–p)
⇒ Neutrons (n) = 11–5 = 6
⇒ Protons (p) = 5
n–p=6–5=1
⇒ Neutrons (n) = 13 – 6 = 7
⇒ Protons (p) = 6
n –p = 7 – 6 = 1
and has same number of (n – p)
So, both are isodiaphers.

Final Answer: Option (1)

77) I.E = 13.6 × z2 = 13.6 eV

78) Explain Question: Calculate wavelength of light corresponding to given energy change.

Concept: Planck relation

Solution:
Given:
ΔE = 3 × 10⁻⁸ J
h = 6.64 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s
c = 3 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹
Use Planck’s relation:
ΔE = hc / λ
λ = hc / ΔE
λ = (6.64 × 10⁻³⁴ × 3 × 10⁸) / (3 × 10⁻⁸)
λ = 6.64 × 10⁻¹⁸ m
Convert m to Å (1 m = 10¹⁰ Å):
λ = 6.64 × 10⁻⁸ Å

Final Answer: Option (3)

79) We know that when electrons of hydrogen atom return from higher energy levels such as
3, 4, 5, 6, 7 etc., to the lower energy level such as 2 or L-shell, a series of lines appear, which
is called Balmer series.
 80) A Question: Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of a hydrogen
atom falls in the visible region?
B Given data:

A. Lyman series
B. Balmer series
C. Paschen series
D. Brackett series

C Concept:

A. Different spectral series correspond to electron transitions to different energy levels.

D Final Answer: 2. Balmer series

81)

Explaining Question:
Determine the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in the isotope of Lutetium with
atomic number 71 and mass number 175.
Concept:
Number of protons = atomic number, electrons = atomic number for neutral atom, neutrons =
mass number minus atomic number.
Solution:

A. Atomic number =71

B. Mass number =175
C. Number of protons =71
D. Number of electrons =71 (neutral atom)
E. Number of neutrons =175-71=104

82) Question Explanation: Identify the statement that is not a characteristic of Planck's
quantum theory.

Concept: Planck's Quantum Theory Postulates

Solution:
Planck's theory states that energy is absorbed or emitted only in discrete multiples of a
quantum (E=nhν, where n is an integer).
Statement (A) contradicts this key postulate.
Note: The theory states energy is quantized, meaning it's absorbed/emitted in whole number
multiples of quanta.

Final Answer: Option (1)

83)

α ∝ n2
 84)

Question Explanation:
We are asked to calculate the number of photons of wavelength 5000 A emitted per second
from a 100 W bulb.

Concept:
Photon energy and power relation

Solution:
• Power of bulb = 100 J/s
• Wavelength = 5000 A = 5000 × 10-10 m = 5 × 10-7m
• Energy of one photon:

• Number of photons per second:

Final Answer: Option (3)

85) Question Explanation :

The question asks for the radius of the 2 nd excited state of a Lithium ion (Li+2).

Concept :

The radius of an orbit in a single-electron species is given by the formula: rn = .

Solution :

A. For Li+2, the atomic number (Z) is 3.

B. The ground state is n =1. The 1st excited state is n = 2. The 2nd excited state corresponds to n
= 3.
C. Plugging these values into the formula:

The radius of the 2nd excited state of Li+2 is 1.587Å

Final Answer : option (2)

86)

n1 = 1, n2 = 6
 = 15

87)
Energy difference λ
Check option by

(n2 > n1)

So n2 = 3 and n1 = 1

88) Isoelectronic means no. of electrons are same, check number of electron in each and every
option.

89) rn ∝

r3(Li+2) = × 105.8 = 158.7 pm

90) Explain Question : A radio station broadcasts at wavelength λ = 300 m with transmitter
power P = 10 kW = 1 × 10⁴ J/s. We need the number of photons radiated per second.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution:

1 × 104 J/s = n × 6.626 × 10–28 J

n = 1.5 × 1031/s
Final Answer : option (2) 1.5 × 1031

BOTANY

91)

NCERT XI Pg # 140
 92)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 102

93) Explain the Question : The question asks for the correct terms describing the elaborate
network of filamentous structures in the cytoplasm.
Concept : This question based on cytoskeleton
Explanation :
An elaborate network of filaments...... Proteinaceous ......structure present in the cytoplasm is
collectively referred to as the ......cytoskeleton.............
Final Answer : Option 2 Proteinaceous, Cytoskeleton

94)

Explain Question: The question asks to identify the correct statement(s) about the figure
showing a chromosome,
Concept : This question based on chromosome,

Explanation : 2 Each chromatid has its own kinetochore, so a chromosome has two
kinetochores (one per chromatid) at the centromere.
3 A normal chromosome has one centromere (primary constriction).Each chromosome has two
sister chromatids attached at the centromere.
Final answer : 4 Both (2) and (3)

95) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 139 Para : II

96)

Question Explanation:
Every chromosome essentially has the .......... on the sides of which disc shaped structures
called ......... are present.
Choose the correct words for the blanks respectively

Solution:
Every chromosome has centromere, which is the constricted region where sister dhromatids are
joined.
On the sides of the centromere, kinttochores are present. The kinetochore is a protein structure that
forms on the centromere during cell division and is repsonsible for attaching the chromosome to the
spindle fibers for chromosome movement during mitosis and meiosis.

Hence,
Correct Option:3

97)

Question Explanation: The question is asking what components are present in chromatin.

Concept: The Nucleus

Solution: Chromatin is made up of DNA, histone proteins, and non-histone proteins. It may
also have RNA associated during transcription.

Final Answer: 4. All of the above

98)

Explain Question : The question is asking about the number of centromeres, kinetochores,
and arms in the chromosome shown in the diagram.
Concept : This question based on Cell Cycle and Cell Division – Structure of Chromosome
Explanation : The figure represents a metaphase chromosome where two sister chromatids
are joined by a single centromere.
Centromere: Only 1 in the entire chromosome.
Kinetochore: Each chromatid has 1 kinetochore, so total 2 kinetochores in a duplicated
chromosome.
Arms: Each chromatid has 2 arms (one p arm and one q arm), and since there are 2
chromatids, total arms = 4.
Final answer : (2) 1 centromere, 2 kinetochores, 4 arms

99)

Explain Question: Question asking about function of nucleolus

Concept: This question is based on Nucleolus.

Solution:

Nucleolus is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis

Final answer: 3

100)

Explain Question : Nucleus is absent in.

Concept : This question is based on nucleus.
Explanation : Nucleus is the control center of the cell, present in most eukaryotic cells.
Mature RBCs (mammalian) → lose nucleus to provide more space for hemoglobin and enhance
oxygen transport.
Mature sieve tube elements (phloem) → also lose nucleus to allow easy flow of food
(translocation). Their functions are supported by companion cells (which are nucleated).
Not all mature cells lose their nucleus.
Final answer : 3

101) NCERT XI, Pg.# 102, 1.2.3

102) NCERT Pg. # 138

 103) Explain Question: The question is asking about the correctness of the assertion that
nucleoli are larger in cells active in protein synthesis and the reason related to rRNA
synthesis.

Concept: Nucleus

Solution: R- Nucleolus is the site of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis. =True and
explain to A
A-Cells that actively synthesize proteins need more ribosomes → nucleoli become larger and
more = True

Final answer: Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

104)

This question asked to identify the correct statements about the nucleus
Question Explanation :
and sieve tube elements.
Concept : Nucleus
•
(A) Nuclear pores allow regulated movement of RNA and proteins
between the nucleus and cytoplasm → Correct.
Solutions: •
(B) Sieve tube elements are anucleate at maturity → Correct.
•
(C) Outer and inner nuclear membranes fuse at nuclear pores → Correct
Final answer : 3–A&C

105)

Explain Question : The question is asking about the functions of the cytoskeleton (network of
microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments) in the cell.
Concept : This question is based on cytoskeleton.
Explanation : Cytoskeleton provides mechanical support to the cell.
It helps in motility (movement of organelles inside cell and sometimes whole cell).
It maintains the shape of the cell.
Final answer : 4

106)

Explain Question: Question asking about type and function of plastid?

Concept: This question is based on plastid.

Solution: Elaioplasts store oils and fats

Final answer: 1

107) NCERT XI Fig. 8.8 Pg.# 136

108) NCERT Pg#135

109) NCERT Pg#134

110)

Explain Question : Chlorophyll pigments are present in.

Concept : This question is based on chloroplast structure & photosynthetic pigments.
Explanation : Thylakoid membrane → contains photosystems I & II, chlorophyll pigments,
electron carriers, ATP synthase.
Final answer : 4

111) NCERT Pg. # 136

112) NCERT XI, Eng. Pg.# 135 [last para]

113)

The ribosomes of the chloroplasts are smaller than the ribosomes attached on ER.

114) NCERT Page No. 136

115) The assertion is true as chlorophyll pigments are indeed located in the thylakoids of
chloroplasts, which is where the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis take place. The
reason is also true; the stroma of the chloroplast contains enzymes necessary for the synthesis
of carbohydrates and proteins, which are involved in the light-independent reactions (Calvin
cycle). However, the presence of enzymes in the stroma is not the explanation for the location
of chlorophyll pigments in the thylakoids. Therefore, both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.

116) NCERT Page no. 97

117) NCERT Page no. 97

118) Ncert Page 98.

119)

The correct answer is 4) Ribosome.

Explanation: A ribosome is often considered an "organelle within an organelle" because

Ribosomes are organelles that are found within other organelles, such as mitochondria and
chloroplasts.
120) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration. They produce cellular energy in
the form of ATP, hence they are called ‘power houses’ of the cell.
Final Answer : (3)

121) Ncert Page 99.

122) Module 01, Pg. # 180

123) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 134; para-8.5.4

124) NCERT(XIth) # [Link].135

125)

NCERT Pg # 136

126)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 136, Para-8.5.6

127) Explain the Question : The question asks where ribosomes are found in a cell, either
free or attached.
Concept : This question based on Ribosomes
Explanation : Ribosomes are non-membranous organelles responsible for protein synthesi
They can be:
Free in cytoplasm – for proteins used within the cell.
Attached to rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) – for proteins destined for secretion or
membranes.
Inside mitochondria – semiautonomous organelles have their own ribosomes.
Final Answer : 2 – Cytoplasm, mitochondria, rough endoplasmic reticulum

128) Explanation:The question asks to fill in the blank about the composition of ribosomes.
Concept : Ribosomes
Solution : Ribosomes are non-membranous organelles.
They are composed of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins.
Final answer : r-RNA

129) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 137, fig. 8.9(b)

130)

Explain Question: The question asks what main function flagella serve in cells.
 Concept: This question is based on Cilia and Flagella.
Solution:
Flagella are slender, hair-like structures that extend from the cell body in many organisms
(e.g., bacteria, sperm cells). Their primary function is:
To enable cell movement by rotating or undulating, allowing the cell to swim through liquid
environments.
So, the correct answer is: 1. Cell Movement.
Final answer: 1.

131) Centrioles have an organisation like the Cart Wheel.

132) Centrioles initiate cell division by arranging spindle fibres between two poles of cell.

133) Nucleus

134) Chloroplast

135) Spindle fibres; spindle apparatus

ZOOLOGY

136) NCERT(2023-24) Page. No 42

137) NCERT(2023-24) Page. No 38

138)

NCERT(2023-24) Page. No 39

139) NCERT(2023-24) Page. No 41

140) Module Pg. # 5

141) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 49

142)

Correct Answer:✔ 3. Intracellular only

Explanation:

A. Euspongia (a genus of sponges, also called bath sponges) belongs to Porifera.

B. Sponges lack a digestive system and instead rely on intracellular digestion.
 C. Food particles are captured by specialized cells called choanocytes (collar cells), which engulf
and digest food through phagocytosis inside the cell.

Thus, the correct answer is "Intracellular only"

(Option 3). ✔

143) Question Explanation: The question asks the correct pathway of water in the canal
system of sponges.
Concept: This question is based on Porifera
Solution: The correct answer is option 3.
In the water canal system of a sponge, water enters through the numerous small pores called
Ostia, moves into the central cavity called the Spongocoel, and then exits through a single
large opening called the Osculum.
Final answer : 3

144) Question Explanation: Skeleton is made up of spicules or spongin fibres in which

phylum?
Concept: Porifera
Solution: The body of Porifera (sponges) is supported by a skeleton made up of spicules or
spongin fibres.
Final Answer: 3

145)

NCERT #49

146) [RATIONALISED NCERT BOOK 2024-2025]

NCERT Pg. # 41

147)

Question Explanation : Identify the incorrect statement regarding the reproductive cycle of
the cnidarian Obelia.
Concept : This question is based on Cnidaria – Metagenesis (alternation of polyp and medusa
forms)
Solution :The incorrect statement is option 2.
• In Obelia's life cycle, the polyp stage reproduces asexually by budding to form medusae.
Sexual reproduction occurs in the medusa stage to form new polyps.
Final Answer : Option (2)

148)

Question Explanation: This question asks about the type of digestion in Hydra.

Concept: Coelenterata.

Solution: The correct answer is Option 3) Extracellular and Intracellular

 A. Hydra has a gastrovascular cavity, where digestion occurs extracellularly (in the cavity),
but the food particles are also engulfed by cells, leading to intracellular digestion as
well.

Final Answer: Option (3)

149)

Explain Question : The question asks which group has a gastrovascular cavity for digestion
and circulation.
Concept : This question is based on Cnidaria (Coelenterata).
Explanation : The correct answer is option 2.
A gastrovascular cavity is a single body cavity that functions for both digestion and
circulation. This is a defining feature of
the phylum Coelenterata (also known as Cnidaria).
Final Answer: 2

150) NCERT XIth Pg.#49

151)

Question Explanation: : The question asks about the body organization of Hydra/Obelia.
Concept : This question is based on Cnidaria
Explanation : The correct answer is option 1.
Hydra and Obelia belong to phylum Cnidaria.
Cnidarians are diploblastic (ectoderm + endoderm),
They show radial symmetry,
They are acoelomates (no coelom).
Final answer : (1)

152) Explain Question: It asks which phylum shows bioluminescence (light production by
living organisms).

Concept: This question is based on Ctenophora.

Explaination: Ctenophora are also called sea walnuts or comb jellies and show natural light
emission, i.e., bioluminescence.

Final Answer: Option (2)

153) Explain Question: Identify the primary function of the ciliated comb plates, a unique
feature of the comb jelly, Pleurobrachia.
Concept: This question is based on Ctenophora
Solution: The correct answer is option 2.
The eight rows of ciliated comb plates in Pleurobrachia are the main organs for locomotion,
beating in a coordinated fashion to propel the animal through water.
 Final answer : 2

154)

Question Explanation : Which animal has been incorrectly matched with its habitat?

Concept: The question is based on ctenophora,coelentrata,porifera

Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

A. Ctenoplana belongs to phylum Ctenophora, and all ctenophores are marine animals. So,
placing Ctenoplana in freshwater habitat is incorrect.
B. Hydra and Spongilla are freshwater animals, while Pennatula (sea pen) is marine.

Final Answer: Option 4

155) Question Explanation: Incorrect feature for Pleurobrachia

Concept: Comb plate count
Solution: The comb jelly Pleurobrachia has eight comb plates, not ten. The other options are
correct: it shows bioluminescence, reproduces only sexually, and has tissue-level organization.
Final Answer: Presence of ten comb plate

156)

The space between the body wall and the alimentary canal lined by mesoderm is called the
Coelom.

So, the correct answer is: 3. Coelom.

157) Explain the Question : This question is asking about identifying the organism that has
an open type of circulatory system.
Concept : This question is based on structural organisation in animals – circulatory system:
open vs closed.
Solution : In insects like cockroaches, blood (haemolymph) flows in body cavities (haemocoel)
and not entirely within blood vessels, indicating an open circulatory system.
Final answer : 3

158)

Question Explanation: Identify the phylum in which the digestive system is incomplete
(single opening, no anus).

Concept: The question is based on basis of classification - digestive system

Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. In Platyhelminthes, the digestive system is incomplete, having only one opening that functions
as both mouth and anus.
 Arthropoda, Annelida and Aschelminthes possess a complete digestive system with separate
mouth and anus.

Final answer: Option 3

159)

Question explanation: A complete digestive system has two openings: mouth and anus.
Concept: Basis of classification - Digestive system

Solution: The correct answer is option 4 → Aschelminthes

A. Aschelminthes (roundworms) are the first phylum to show a complete digestive

tract with mouth and anus.

B. Platyhelminthes have an incomplete gut (only mouth).

C. Annelida and Arthropoda have complete systems, but they appear later evolutionarily.

Final Answer: 4

160) Explain Question:

The question asks which structures are included in a closed circulatory system.
​
Concept:
Closed circulatory system

Solution:
In a closed circulatory system, blood flows within blood vessels throughout the body.
This system includes arteries that carry blood away from the heart, veins that bring blood back
to the heart, and capillaries that connect arteries and veins and allow exchange of materials
with tissues.

Final Answer: Option (4)

161) NCERT XI, Pg # 48, IInd para

162) Question Explanation: Identify the correct labeling of germ layers and coelom in a
sectional view of a triploblastic coelomate animal.

Concept: The question is based on coelom.

Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. Part-A: Ectoderm (outermost layer)

 B. Part-B: Mesoderm (middle layer)
C. Part-C: Coelom (body cavity between mesodermal layers)
D. Part-D: Endoderm (inner lining of body wall).

This structure is typical of triploblastic coelomates, such as annelids, molluscs, and chordates.

Final answer: Option 3

163) Question Explanation:

The question asks you to identify the phyla (major groups of animals) that exclusively have a
"blind sac" body plan. A blind sac body plan means the animal has a single opening that serves
as both mouth and anus, enclosing a digestive cavity.
Correct Answer and Explanation:
4. Coelenterata, Platyhelminthes

A. Coelenterata (Cnidaria, like jellyfish, corals, and hydra): These animals have a blind sac
body plan. They possess a gastrovascular cavity with a single opening for ingestion and
egestion.
B. Platyhelminthes (flatworms, like tapeworms and planarians): Most flatworms also have
a blind sac body plan, lacking an anus.

Why other options are incorrect:

A. Porifera (sponges): Sponges have a unique body plan without true tissues or organs. They
don't have a typical digestive system, let alone a blind sac. They filter feed through pores.
B. Aschelminthes (nematodes or roundworms): Aschelminthes have a complete digestive
tract with two openings - a mouth and an anus - which means they do not have a blind sac
body plan.

164)

Question Explanation: animals are classified on the basis of

Concept: intra basis of classification

Solution: animals are classified on the basis of arrangement of cells , nature of coelom and
symmetry

Final answer: 4

165)

Question Explanation: : Identify the connective tissue type shown in the diagram

Concept : This question is based on connective tissue.

Solution : The correct answer is option 3 (Dense regular connective tissue) because the
diagram shown parallel collagen fibers and aligned fibroblasts, typical of tissues like tendons
and ligaments that resist stress in one direction

Final Answer : option (3)

166) Explain Question : Following diagram represents which type of tissue
Concept : This question is based on areolar connective tissue
Explanation : The diagram shows fibroblasts, collagen fibres, elastic fibres, macrophages,
mast cells — all characteristic of areolar connective tissue (a loose connective tissue).
Final answer : 3 – Areolar connective tissue

167)

Question explanation: Identify the tissue which is not classified under specialised
connective tissue.
Concept: Classification of connective tissue

Solution:

A. Blood → Specialised connective tissue (fluid connective tissue).

B. Cartilage → Specialised connective tissue (supporting tissue).

C. Bone → Specialised connective tissue (supporting tissue).

D. Tendon → Dense regular connective tissue, not specialised.

Final answer: Option 3

168) NCERT Pg. # 104, Para # 2

169)

Explain Question : In all connective tissues, except _____, the cells secrete fibres of structural
proteins called collagen or elastin?

Concept : This question is based on connective tissues

Solution : Cells of Blood does not secrete fibres of Blood. more over proteins of Blood are
formed in Liver.

Final Answer : option (1)

170)

Question Explanation: Lacunae are found in

Concept: BONE AND CARTILAGE

Solution: Lacunae are small spaces or cavities within the matrix of bone and cartilage. These
spaces house individual cells:
 A. In bone: Lacunae contain osteocytes (bone cells).

B. In cartilage: Lacunae contain chondrocytes (cartilage cells).

Final answer: Option 4

171)

Question Explanation: Identify the most common tissue type.

Concept: Types of animal tissue.

Solution: Connective tissue is the most widely distributed and abundant tissue type in the
body. It provides a framework for support and protection, connecting different tissues and
organs. Examples include bone, cartilage, and blood.

Final Answer: Connective

172)

Explain Question : Below the skin, the fat is present in the form of ?

Concept : This question is based on Adipose tissue.

Solution : The fat is present in the form of Adipose tissue.

Final Answer : option (3)

173)

Question Explanation: Identify the most accurate statement regarding the cartilage matrix.

Concept: properties of cartilage

Solution:

A. Matrix is only solid → Incorrect , Cartilage is not completely rigid.

B. Matrix is solid and pliable → Incorrect , It is pliable, but also resists compression.

C. Matrix is solid, pliable and resists compression → Correct , True for all types of cartilage
(hyaline, fibrocartilage, elastic).

D. Matrix is soft → Incorrect , Too vague; cartilage is firmer than soft tissue but not as hard
as bone.
Final Answer: Option 3

174)

Question Explanation: Identify the connective tissue cells that secrete histamine, serotonin,
and heparin.

Concept: Histology – Cells of connective tissue

Solution:

A. Mast cells → Specialized connective tissue cells that release histamine, serotonin, and
heparin, playing a key role in inflammation and allergic responses.

Final Answer: Option 4

175)

Explain Question : Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed in which type of connective
tissue?

Concept : This question is based on Types of Connective Tissue.

Solution : Dense connective tissue - Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed (e.g.,
tendons, ligaments).

Final Answer : option (1)

176)

Concept :
Connective Tissue Proper

Solution/Explanation :
Cells of Connective Tissue Proper - Macrophages (Histiocyte) - Amoeboid in shape with bean
(Reniform) or kidney shaped nucleus. Cytoplasm quantity is more and cytoplasm is agranular
but due to presence of more number of lysosome it appears granular.

177)

Question Explanation: Identify the incorrect phylum-character match.

Concept : symmetry, body organization, and coelom.
Solution : The incorrect match is given in option 3.

A. Cnidaria → Radial symmetry but tissue level of organization (not cellular)

Final answer : option (3)

178) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 103

179) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103

180)

Question Explanation: Identify the organism that is not a sponge.

Concept: Porifera, Cnidaria
Solution: Sea anemone (Adamsia) is a Coelenterate , not a sponge.
Final Answer: 4