29-07-2026

4504CMD303034260001 MD

PHYSICS

1) cos2(15°) – sin2(15°) is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) What is the minimum value of

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 1/3
(4) 1/2

3) Curve of equation Y = X + 5 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

4) Value of is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) If y = – 4x2 + 15x – 2, then choose the correct option :-

(1) Maximum value of y is at x = 3

(2) Minimum value of y is at x = 5
(3) y is increasing between x = 0 to x = 3
(4) All of above

6)

(1)

(2) 2x + 1
(3) 2x + 8
(4) 8

7) Magnitude of slope of the shown graph.

(1) First increases then decreases

(2) First decreases then increases
(3) Increases
(4) Decreases

8) Figure shows the graph of the curve y = x3.

Which of the following shows the variation of slope of the curve with x coordinate ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) What will be distance between points A (1, 2, 3) and B (4, 5, 2)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) Which of the following relation is/are correct ?

(A) sin(90 + θ) = cos(–θ)
(B) sin(180 – θ) = cos(90 – θ)
(C) sin(360 – θ) = cos(360 – θ)
(D) sin(180 + θ) = cos(90 – θ)

(1) A, B and C
(2) A and B
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only B

11)

Which of following curve represent y = 2x – x2 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) If log81 – log3 = loga, then

(1) 4
(2) 16
(3) 2
(4) 8

13) If the unit of length and force be increased four times, then the unit of energy is :-

(1) Increased 4 times

(2) Increased 8 times
(3) Increased 16 times
(4) Decreased 16 times

14) The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is given by where ℓ is about 100 cm
and is known to have 1mm accuracy. The period is about 2s. The time of 100 oscillations is measured
by a stop watch of least count 0.1 s. The percentage error in g is

(1) 0.1%
(2) 1%
(3) 0.2%
(4) 0.8%

15) If energy(E), velocity(V) and time(T) are considered as fundamental quantities then dimension of
mass will be :-

0
(1) [E V–2 T ]
0
(2) [E2 V–2 T ]
(3) [E V2 T]
(4) [E–1 V2 T1]

16) The speed of light (c), gravitational constant (G) and planck's constant (h) are taken as the
fundamental units in a system. The dimension of time in this new system should be :-

(1) G1/2h1/2c–5/2
(2) G–1/2h1/2c1/2
(3) G1/2h1/2c–3/2
(4) G1/2h1/2c1/2

17) Write down the number of significant figure in 0.04320 N/m2.

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

18) The mass and volume of a body are found to be (5 ± 0.05) kg and (1 ± 0.05) m3 respectively,
then the maximum possible percentage error in density:

(1) 3%
(2) 10%
(3) 6%
(4) 5%

19) Heat generated in a circuit depends upon the resistance, current and time. If error in measuring
the above are 2%, 1% and 3% then maximum percentage error in heat will be :

(1) 7 %
(2) 6 %
(3) 5 %
(4) 3 %
20) If x and a stand for distance, then for what value of n is the given equation dimensionally
correct? The equation is

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) –2
(4) 1

21)

In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage errors 1%, 2%, 3% and

4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows P = , percentage error in P is :-

(1) 4%
(2) 14%
(3) 10%
(4) 7%

22) In a vernier calliper N division of main scale coincided with (N + 2) division of vernier scale. If
one main scale division is 2mm, the least count of vernier calliper will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The period T of a soap bubble under SHM is given by T = PaDbSc, where P is pressure, D is
density and S is surface tension. Then the value of a, b and c are :-

(1)

(2) –1, –2, 3

(3)

(4)

24) The dimensional formula of angular acceleration

0 0
(1) [M L T–1]
0 0
(2) [M L T–2]
 0
(3) [M L1T–2]
0
(4) [M L1T–1]

25) The length of a strip measured with a meter rod is 10.0 cm. Its width measured with a vernier
callipers is 1.00 cm. The least count of the meter rod is 0.1 cm and that of vernier callipers is 0.01
cm. What will be the error in its area ?

(1) ±0.01 cm2

(2) ±0.1 cm2
(3) ±0.11 cm2
(4) ±0.2 cm2

26) If E, m, L and G denote energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational constant

respectively, the quantity has the dimensions of :-

(1) Mass
(2) Length
(3) Time
(4) Angle

27) The van der Waals’ equation for a real gas is:

Here, P is pressure, V is volume, T is absolute temperature and a, b, R are constants. The

dimensions of a are:

(1) [ML–1T–2]
(2) [ML5T–2]
0 0
(3) [M L3T ]
0 0
(4) [M L6T ]

28) A rectangle has length 2.583 cm & width 1.27 cm then area of rectangle with proper significant
figures :

(1) 3.28041 cm2

(2) 3.280 cm2
(3) 3.28 cm2
(4) 3.3 cm2

29) The smallest division on the main scale of a vernier caliper is 0.1 cm, 10 division of the vernier
scale correspond to 9 division of main scale. The figure blow on the left shows the reading of this
caliper with no gap between its two jaws. The figure on the right shows the reading with a solid
sphere held between the jaws the correct diameter of the sphere is :-
(1) 3.07 cm
(2) 3.15 cm
(3) 3.11 cm
(4) 3.17 cm

30) The mass of a box is 2.3 kg. Two marbles of masses 2.15 g and 12.39 g are added to it. The total
mass of the box to the correct number of significant figures is :

(1) 2.340 kg
(2) 2.3145 kg
(3) 2.3 kg
(4) 2.31 kg

31) What is the reading of micrometer screwgauge shown in figure. Circular scale has 100 division:-

(1) 2.36 mm
(2) 2.29 mm
(3) 2.31 mm
(4) 2.41 mm

32)

Use the approximation , to find approximate value for (999)1/3.

10 –
(1)

10 –
(2)

(3)
10 –

(4)
10 –

33) The value of sin (–1485°) :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Find sum of 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + ..... upto 50

(1) 5050
(2) 2525
(3) 1275
(4) 4525

35)

(1) –cos2x + c

(2)

(3) –2cos2x + c
(4) cosx + c

36)

A circular arc of length π cm has radius 6 cm. Find angle subtended by it at the centre in radian -

(1) π/3
(2) π/6
(3) π/4
(4) π/2

37) Slope of straight line is :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) –2
(4) –4

38) Select incorrect alternative :-

(1) sin 37° = 3/5
cos 30° =
(2)

(3) tan 37° = 4/3

(4) sin 210° = – 1/2

39) The slope of straight line AB is :-

+
(1)

(2)
–

(3)

(4)
–

40) For the given curve y = 4x2.

The slope of curve at (2,16) is :-

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 16
(4) 20

41)

Which of the following is smallest unit :-

(1) Light year

(2) Angstrom
(3) Fermi
(4) Metre

42) Which one of the following is not a fundamental quantity ?

(1) Temperature
(2) Electric current
(3) Pressure
(4) Length

43) [ML2T–3] represents the dimensions of :-

(1) Pressure
(2) Energy
(3) Power
(4) Force

44) The position of a particle moving along a straight line is given by x(t) = (1–e–At) where A and B

are constants. The dimensions of is same as

(1) linear momentum

(2) moment of inertia
(3) relative velocity
(4) acceleration

45) The function f is given by f = Asinαx + Bcosβt, where x is displacement and t is time. The

dimension of is :-

0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
0
(2) [M1L T–1]
0
(3) [M L–1T]
0
(4) [M L1T–1]

CHEMISTRY

1) The mole fraction of water in a solution containing 117 g sodium chloride and 900 g of water is?

(1) 0.0632
(2) 0.038
(3) 0.9615
(4) 1.000

2) If 30 ml of H2 and 20 mL of O2 react to form water, what is left at the end of the reaction ?

(1) 10 ml of H2
(2) 5 ml of H2
(3) 10 ml of O2
(4) 5 ml of O2

3) Assertion (A) : Law of multiple proportions is applicable only if two elements combine to form
two or more compounds.
Reason (R) : If mass of one of the elements is fixed, the masses of the other element are in a simple
ratio of one another.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is wrong.
(4) A is wrong but R is correct.

4) If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in blood is 0.9 g L–1, what will be the molarity of glucose
in blood?

(1) 5 M
(2) 50 M
(3) 0.005 M
(4) 0.5 M

5) An organic compound on analysis was found to contain 0.032% of sulphur. If its molecule contain
two sulphur atoms, then the molecular mass of the compound will be :-

(1) 200
(2) 2000
(3) 100000
(4) 200000

6) Assuming that petrol is octane (C8H18) and has density 0.8 g mL–1. 1.425 L of petrol on complete
combustion will consume.

(1) 50 mole of O2
(2) 100 mole of O2
(3) 125 mole of O2
(4) 200 mole ofO2

7) At S.T.P., 5.6 litre of a gas weight 60 g. The vapour density of gas is :

(1) 60
(2) 120
(3) 30
(4) 240

8) The maximum number of molecules is present in :

(1) 15 L of H2 gas at STP

(2) 5 L of N2 gas at STP
(3) 0.5 g of H2 gas
(4) 10 g of O2 gas

9) The weight of 350 mL of a diatomic gas at 0°C and 2 atm pressure is 1 g. The weight of one atom
is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 16 NA
(4) 32 NA

10) 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess
and how much (At. Wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)

(1) Mg, 0.16 g

(2) O2, 0.16g
(3) Mg, 0.44 g
(4) O2, 0.28 g

11) Percentage of C, H and N are given as follows C = 40%, H = 13.33 % N = 46.67% The empirical
formula will be

(1) CH2N
(2) C2H4N
(3) CH4N
(4) CH3N

12) From 392 mg of H2SO4, 1.204 × 1021 molecules of H2SO4 are removed. How many moles of H2SO4
are left?

(1) 2 × 10–3
(2) 1.2 × 10–3
(3) 4 × 10–3
(4) 1.5 × 10–3

13) 3 g of hydrocarbon on combustion with 11.2 g of oxygen produce 8.8 g of CO2 and 5.4 g of H2O.
The data illustrate the law of :

(1) Conservation of mass

(2) Multiple proportions
(3) Constant proportions
(4) Reciprocal proportions
14) The amount of water (g) produced by the combustion of 32 g of methane is

(1) 18 g
(2) 36 g
(3) 54 g
(4) 72 g

15) The crystalline salt Na2SO4. xH2O on heating loses 55.9% of its mass and becomes anhydrous the
formula of crystalline salt is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) What is weight of CaO forms by 200g CaCO3 (95% pure) on heating

(1) 105.4g
(2) 212.6g
(3) 104.4g
(4) 106.4g

17) Molarity of 6% (w/v) glucose solution will be

(1) 1 M

(2)

(3)

(4)

18)

Equal mass of hydrogen and oxygen are taken in a container in identical conditions. What is the ratio
of their moles :-

(1) 16 : 1
(2) 1 : 8
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 1 : 16

19) 10–15 is ______

(1) Yotta
(2) Femto
(3) Zetta
(4) Yocto

20) A mixture containing 64.0 g H2 and 64.0 g O2 is reacted so that water is formed as follows :-
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

(1) H2 is the limiting reagent

(2) O2 is the limiting reagent
(3) The reaction mixture contains 72.0 g of H2O and 56.0 g of unreacted H2.
(4) Both (2) and (3)

21) Carbon & oxygen react in ratio of 3:8 by mass to form [Link] weight of carbon should be used
to react completely with 32 gm of oxygen?

(1) 10g
(2) 15g
(3) 12g
(4) 7g

22) When 10 gm of ethylene polymerizes to polyethylene according to the equation,

. The weight of polyethylene produced will be:

(1)

(2) 100 g

(3)

(4) 10 gm

23) Which statement is false for the balanced equation given below ?

(1) One mole of CS2 will produce one mole of CO2

(2) The reaction of 16 g of dioxygen produces 7.33 g of CO2

(3)
The reaction of one mole of O2 will produce mole of SO2
(4) Six moles of oxygen require three moles CS2

24) If law of conservation of mass was to hold true, then 20.8 g of BaCl2 on reaction with 9.8 g of
H2SO4 will produce 7.3 g HCl and BaSO4 equal to :

(1) 11.65 g
(2) 23.3 g
(3) 25.5 g
(4) 30.6 g

25) Assertion [A]: Relative atomic mass and gram-atomic mass of Phosphorous (P) are 31g and 31
amu respectively.

Reason [R]: 1 a.m.u = .

(1) Both [A] and [R] are correct, [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(2) Both [A] and [R] are correct, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(3) [A] is true ; [R] is false
(4) Both [A] and [R] are false

26) Which of the following has maximum number of molecules :

(1) 2 mole C2H4

(2) 4 gram H2
(3) 44.8 L O2 gas at NTP
(4) All have some number of molecule

27) Total number of electrons in 36 gram H2O is equal to : (NA = avogadro's Number)

(1) NA
(2) 2NA
(3) 10NA
(4) 20NA

28) 16 g of SOx occupies 5.6 litre at STP Assuming ideal gas nature, the value of x is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None of these

29) In a compound, A (Atomic weight = 12.5) is 25% and B (Atomic weight = 37.5) is 75% by mass.
Find its molecular formula if VD of the compound is 100 :

(1) AB
(2) A2B2
(3) A3B3
(4) A4B4

30) 45.4 L of dinitrogen reacted with 22.7 L of dioxygen and 45.4 L of nitrous oxide was formed. The
reaction is given below.

Which law is being obeyed in this experiment?

(1) Law of conservation of mass

(2) Law of definite proportion
(3) Law of multiple proportion
(4) Gay Lussac's law of gaseous volumes

31) Four one litre flasks are seperately filled with the gases hydrogen, helium, oxygen and ozone at
same room temperature and pressure. The ratio of total number of atoms of these gases present in
the different flasks would be-

(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 3
(3) 2 : 1 : 2 : 3
(4) 2 : 1 : 3 : 2

32) Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is

(1) 1.7700
(2) 0.1770
(3) 0.0177
(4) 0.0344

33) The number of atoms present in one mole H2SO4 would be :-

(1) 3 × 6.02 × 1023

(2) 6.022 × 1023
(3) 7 × 6.02 × 1023
(4) 6 × 6.022 × 1023

34) Different proportions of oxygen in the various oxides of nitrogen prove the law of :-

(1) Equivalent proportion

(2) Multiple proportion
(3) Constant proportion
(4) Conservation of matter

35) Suppose that A and B form the compounds B2A3 and B2A. If 0.05 mol of B2A3 weighs 9 g and
0.1 mole of B2A weighs 10 g, the atomic weight of A and B respectively are

(1) 30, 40
(2) 40, 30
(3) 20, 5
(4) 15, 20

36) The percentage by mole of NO2 in a mixture of NO2(g) and NO(g) having average molecular mass
34 is

(1) 25%
(2) 20%
(3) 40%
(4) 75%

37) Which of the following units is useful in relating concentration of solution with its vapour pressur
?

(1) Mole fraction

(2) Parts per million
(3) Mass percentage
(4) Molality

38) Density of 3 M NaCl solution is 1.25 g/mL. The molality of the solution is :

(1) 1.79 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 3 m
(4) 2.79 m

39) Molarity of pure water (density = 1 g/mL, molar mass = 18 g/mol) is:

(1) 18 M
(2) 1 M
(3) 55.5 M
(4) 100 M

40) How many grams of NaOH are required to prepare 500 mL of 0.4 M solution? (Molar mass
NaOH = 40 g/mol)

(1) 4 g
(2) 8 g
(3) 16 g
(4) 20 g

41) Which of the following compound has same emperical formula as that of glucose ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42)

In the reaction: 4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H2O, if 8 mol NH3 reacts with 8 mol O2, the limiting reagent
is:

(1) NH3
(2) O2
(3) NO
(4) Both are limiting

43) A metal carbonate MCO3​ contains 52% metal by mass. Find atomic mass of M

(1) 24
(2) 40
(3) 56
(4) 65

44) If 1/2 moles of oxygen combine with aluminium to form Al2O3 then weight of Aluminium metal
used in the reaction is (Al= 27)–

(1) 27 g
(2) 18 g
(3) 54 g
(4) 40.5 g

45) A gaseous mixture contains CO2(g) and N2O(g) in 2 : 5 ratio by mass. The ratio of the number of
molecules of CO2 gas and N2O gas is:

(1) 5 : 2
(2) 2 : 5
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 5 : 4

BIOLOGY

1) Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Assertion : Ribosomes are membraneless granular structures and also called as protein factory of
cell.
Reason : Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

2) Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Assertion : The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and animal cells.
Reason : Various chemical reactions occur in cytoplasm to keep the cell in the living state.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
3) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Assertion : Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms.
Reason : Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

4) Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Assertion : Core of cilium or flagellum is called axoneme.
Reason : Cilium or flagellum is covered with plasma membrane.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Assertion : Mitochondria shows similarity with prokaryotic cell.
Reason : Mitochondria contains 80S ribosomes and divides by binary fission.

(1) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(3) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

6) Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Assertion : Both Golgi apparatus and Lysosome are the part of endomembrane system.
Reason : Functions of Golgi apparatus and Lysosome are coordinated.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

7) Which among the statements is incorrect?

a. Basic unit of life is the cell in some living organisms
b. Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence
c. Unicellular organisms are capable of performing the essential function of life

(1) Only a and b

(2) Only b and c
(3) Only a
(4) Only c

8) Which among the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Majority of the chloroplasts of the green plants are found in the mesophyll cells of the leaves
The chloroplast is double membrane bound organelle and the inner chloroplast membrane is
(2)
relatively more permeable
(3) Chlorophyll pigments are present in the thylakoids
(4) Thylakoids are arranged in stacks like the piles of coins called granum

9) Arrange the following cells in an ascending order according to their sizes :

I. Mycoplasma II. Ostrich egg
III. Human RBC IV. Bacteria

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, IV, III, II
(3) II, IV, I, III
(4) IV, III, II, I

10) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement-I : Chloroplast and Mitochondrion both have 70S ribosomes.
Statement-II : Chloroplast and mitochondrion are formed by division of pre-existing organelles and
they contain DNA but lack protein synthesising machinery.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I & II are correct
(4) Both statements I & II are incorrect

11) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement-I : In plant cells the vacuoles can occupy upto 90% of the volume of the cell.
Statement-II : In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the transport of a number of ion and other
materials against concentration gradient into the vacuole.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true.

(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true.
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false.

12) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement-I : Ribosomes are composed of RNA and protein
Statement-II : Svedbergs unit is a direct measure of size and density.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

13) Given below are two statements : -

Statement-I : The interphase nucleus has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibres called
chromatin.
Statement-II : Material of nucleus stained by the acidic dye and given the name chromatin by
Flemming.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

14) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement-1: Endomembrane system is present in eukaryotic cells.
Statement-2 : It comprises of peroxisome, golgicomplex, vacuoles.

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct

(2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
(3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect

15) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement-I : RER is extensive and continuous with the outer membrane of the nucleus.
Statement-II : RER is the major site for synthesis of steroidal hormones.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.

16) Consider the following statements.

Statement-I : All living organisms are composed of cells and product of cells.
Statement-II : Omnis cellula-e-cellula term was given by Rudolf Virchow.

(1) Both I and II are correct

(2) Both I and II are incorrect
(3) I is correct and II is incorrect
(4) I is incorrect while II is correct

17) Which of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) Every chromosome essentially has a primary constriction or centromere

(2) The submetacentric chromosome has middle centromere forming two equal arms
In case of acrocentric chromosome the centromere is situated close to its end forming one very
(3)
short and one very long arm
(4) Telocentric chromosome has terminal centromere

18) Identify the incorrect statement

(1) Arrangement of microtubules in centriole = (9 + 0)

(2) At centromere protein discs are present which is called kinetochore.
(3) Structure and morphology of chromosome can be best studied at anaphase.
(4) Heterochromatin is genetically less active or inactive chromatin.

19)

Which of the following is true regarding nucleus?

(1) More than one can be found in RBC's

(2) It is covered by single membrane
(3) It is the site of mRNA synthesis
(4) Distinct chromosomes are observed in Interphasic nucleus

20)

Read the following statements carefully and select statements which are not correct.

(A) Mitochondria and Chloroplast contains its own DNA. (B) Endoplasmic reticulum occupy 90% of
space of cell.
(C) Centriole show cartwheel structure.
(D) 50S subunit is a part of 80S ribosome.
(1) A & B
(2) C & D
(3) A & C
(4) B & D

21) Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) Cell wall, plastids and a large central vacuole absent in animal cells
(2) Eukaryotes include all protists, plants, animals and monera
(3) Polysomes are involved in protein biosynthesis
(4) Inclusion bodies are not bound by any membrane system and lie freely in the cytoplasm

22) Consider the following statements and select the option which includes all the correct ones only.
(A) All types of plastids contain chlorophyll and carotenoids pigments which are responsible for
trapping light energy essential for photo-synthesis.
(B) Enzymes of lysosomes are capable of digesting carbohydrates, cell organelles, proteins and lipids
(C) Basal body of cilium and flagellum is centriole like structure.
(D) In eukaryotic cells only 80S ribosomes are found.

(1) A, B and D
(2) B, C and D
(3) B and C
(4) A, C and D

23) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Middle lamella consist of Ca & Mg pectates

(2) Cell wall provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules
(3) Plasma membrane is made of lipids and proteins
(4) 70 S ribosomes are found attached to outer surface of endoplasmic reticulum.

24) Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) Golgi apparatus is an important site for glycosylation or glycosidation
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum divides intracellular space into luminal and extra-luminal compartments.
(C) Nuclear envelope forms barrier between materials present in nucleus & cytoplasm.
(D) Centrioles exhibit “cart wheel structure”.

(1) A and B only

(2) A, B and D only
(3) A and D only
(4) A, B, C and D

25) Read the following four statements (A-D):-

(A) Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis.
(B) Cis and trans face of the golgi apparatus are entirely different, but interconnected.
(C) In animals cells the vacuoles can occupy upto 90% of the volume of the cell
(D) Chloroplasts are found in all plant cells
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) A and B
(2) A, C and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) C and D

26) Identify structure A,B,C and D given below in diagram :-

A B C D

Stroma Outer
(1) Granum Stroma
lamella membrane

Outer Stroma
(2) Granum Stroma
membrane lamella

Outer Stroma
(3) Granum Stroma
membrane lamella

Stroma Outer
(4) Stroma Thylakoid
lamella membrane
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) How many statements of the following are true regarding the figure given below ?

A. It forms network of membranous tiny tubular structure localized near to

nucleus only
B. Ribosomes are attached on SER surface.
C. It divides intercellular compartment in two region
D. It is extensive and continuous with outer membrane of nucleus.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two

28) In the given diagram of cilia which letter represents radial spoke, interdoublet bridge and

central sheath respectively?

(1) C, B, E
(2) A, B, F
(3) B, A, F
(4) A, C, F

29) Arm ratio (q/p) is maximum in:-

(1) Metacentric chromosomes

(2) Sub-metacentric chromosomes
(3) Telocentric chromosomes
(4) Acrocentric chromosomes

30) In which year Matthias Schleiden examined a large number of plants and observed that all
plants are composed of different kinds of cells which form the tissues of the plant?

(1) 1638
(2) 1738
(3) 1838
(4) 1938

31) Which one is not a prokaryotic cell?

(1) Bacteria
(2) Blue-green algae
(3) PPLO
(4) Virus

32) Inward extensions of plasma membrane in the prokaryotic cells which are called mesosomes, are
not helpful in :-

(1) Respiration
(2) Photosynthesis
(3) DNA replication
(4) Increase the surface area of plasma membrane

33) (A) Well defined nucleus is present

(B) Genetic material is absent
(C) Nuclear membrane absent
(D) Mesosome present
(E) Circular DNA is present
Which of the above mentioned are correct for Prokaryotic cell ?

(1) C,D,E
(2) A,C,E
(3) A,B,D
(4) B,C,E

34) Find the incorrect statement :

(1) Pili and fimbriae do not play a role in motility

(2) Bacterial cells are always motile in nature
(3) Bacterial cells attach with rocks in streams through fimbriae
(4) Flagella helps in motility

35) Which of the following is not a function of cell envelope in bacteria?

(1) It provides shape and structural support.

(2) It prevents the cell from collapsing or bursting
(3) It controls the metabolism of cell
(4) Cellular respiration, secretions

36) Which of the following statements about plasmid is incorrect?

(1) It is also known as extra chromosomal genetic material.

(2) These have ability to replicate independently.
(3) These occur in all form of bacteria without exception
(4) These confer unique phenotypic characters to bacteria.

37) Chromatophores in cyanobacteria take part in :

(1) Respiration
(2) Photosynthesis
(3) Growth
(4) Movement

38) Reserve food material in prokaryotic cell are stored in cytoplasm in the form of :

(1) Phosphate granules

(2) Inclusion body
(3) Glycogen granules
(4) All of the above

39) Which of the following statement/feature is incorrect about the microbodies ?

(1) They are present in bacteria.

(2) Minute, membranous vesicles.
(3) They are present in plants and animals.
(4) They have various enzymes.

40) Which of the following is concerned with the packaging of materials?

(1) Nucleus
(2) Golgi complex
(3) Ribosome
(4) Lysosome

41) How many microtubules are present in the axoneme of cilia?

(1) 9
(2) 18
(3) 20
(4) 11

42) The detailed structure of the cell membrane was studied only after the advent of electron
microscope in the year :-

(1) 1931s
(2) 1913s
(3) 1950s
(4) 1973s
43) Read the following statements (a-d) and find how many of them are incorrect ?
(a) A specialised differentiated form of cell membrane called mesosome is the characteristic of
eukaryotes
(b) Schwann concluded that presence of cell wall is unique character of plant cell
(c) Eukaryotic cell has extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm through the presence of
membrane bounded organelles
(d) Prokaryotic cells have naked chromosome due to presence of histone proteins

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

44) Besides the nucleus other membranous structures of living eukaryotic cells are called :-

(1) Plasmone
(2) Organelles
(3) Chromomere
(4) Microsome

45)

Centrosome, lysosome and microvilli are characteristic of :

(1) Plant cells

(2) Animal cells
(3) Prokaryotic cells
(4) All Eukaryotic cells

46)

Which of the following groups consists of organs having innermost lining of Columnar epithelium?

(1) Stomach, Fallopian tube, lung, alveoli

(2) Gall bladder, stomach, artery
(3) Intestine, stomach, gall bladder
(4) Gastric gland, Pancreatic duct, veins

47) Read the following statements. (i) Goblet cells are multicellular glands.
(ii) Compound squamous epithelium occurs in stomach, intestine and trachea.
(iii) Simple epithelium is made of single layer of cells.
(iv) Ciliated epithelium occurs in fallopian tubes and bronchioles.
(v) Tight junction helps to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) Five

48) Tendon is the example of which tissue ?

(1) Loose connective tissue

(2) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) Dense irregular connective tissue
(4) Fluid connective tissue

49) What is correct about bone ?

(1) Bones have non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts & collagen fibres
(2) Bones support and protect softer tissues & organs
(3) The bone cells are present in the space called lacunae
(4) All of these

50) Read the following statement and find out the correct statement :-

(1) The squamous epithelium is involved in function like forming a diffusion boundary.
(2) The cuboidal and columnar epithelium help to provide linking and supporting.
(3) The functions of ciliated epithelium is absorption & secretion.
(4) The function of microvilli is to move particles or mucus.

51) Which of the following connective tissue often serve as a support framework for epithelium ?

(1) Areolar Tissue

(2) Adipose Tissue
(3) Dense regular connective Tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective Tissue

52) In all connective tissue except ___A___ the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin.

(1) Bone
(2) Blood
(3) Areolar Tissue
(4) Cartilage

53) How many of the following statements are correct related to bone ?
(A) It is specialised connective tissue having hard and pliable ground substance rich in Ca+2 salts
(B) It is the main tissue that provide structural frame to the body.
(C) Long bones of legs serve weight bearing function.
(D) Outer covering of bone is known as periosteum.
(E) They also interact with smooth muscles attached to them to bring about movements.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

54) The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is

(1) Squamous
(2) Cuboidal
(3) Glandular
(4) Ciliated

55) Which of the following muscles act involuntarily?

(a) Voluntary muscles
(b) Smooth muscles
(c) Cardiac muscles
(d) Skeletal muscles

(1) (a) & (b)

(2) (b) & (c)
(3) (c) & (d)
(4) (a) & (d)

56) Match the columns I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

(1) A-c-K, B-b-L, C-a-M

(2) A-b-L, B-c-K, C-a-M
(3) A-c-M, B-a-K, C-b-L
(4) A-b-K, B-c-M, C-a-K

57) Our heart consists of :-

(i) Connective tissue
(ii) Epithelial tissue
(iii) Muscular tissue
(iv) Neural tissue

(1) Only (i)

(2) (ii) & (iii) only
(3) (i), (iii) & (iv) only
(4) All of these

58) Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location ?

Tissue Location

(1) Squamous epithelium PCT

(2) Columnar epithelium Fallopian tubes

(3) Cuboidal epithelium Air sacs of lungs

(4) Glandular epithelium Walls of blood vessels

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

59) Select the correct statement only :

(1) All the complex animals consist of only three basic types of tissues
In multicellular organisms, all functions like digestion, respiration and reproduction are
(2)
performed by a single cell
When two or more tissues perform a common function by their physical and chemical
(3)
interaction, they together form organ system
(4) Cells, tissues, organs and organ system split up the work in away that exhibit division of labour

60) Match the columns:

a. Tight junction i. Perform cementing to neighboring cell

b. Gap junctions ii. Stop substances leaking across tissue

c. Inter digitations iii. Finger like processes

d. Adhering junctions iv. Rapid transfer of ions and molecules

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

61) In neurons Nissl's granules are present in

(1) Cell body

(2) Axon
(3) Synaptic cleft
(4) Nodes of Ranvier

62) Non Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is absent in the lining of -

(1) Buccal cavity

(2) Pharynx
(3) Vagina
(4) Large ducts of salivary gland

63) All among the following are functions of connective tissue except -

(1) Body defence and Transport

(2) Propelling mucus towards the pharynx
(3) Binding Support
(4) Fat Storage

64) Assertion(A): Adipose tissues are specialised to store fats.

Reason (R): Extra nutrients, which are not used immediately by the body get converted into fats.

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

65) Find out the odd one on basis of number of cells :

(1) Salivary gland

(2) Goblet cell
(3) Pituitary gland
(4) Thyroid gland

66) Match column I with column II and select the correct option about them :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Compound epithelium (i) Forming a diffusion boundary

(B) Squamous epithelium (ii) Tendons and ligaments

Protection against chemical and

(C) Adipose tissue (iii)
mechanical stresses

Dense regular connective Located mainly beneath the skin

(D) (iv)
tissues and store fats
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

67) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) The squamous epithelium can form a diffusion boundary.

(2) The epithelium of PCT of nephron lacks microvilli.
(3) The cells of columnar epithelium have their nuclei located at the base.
Ciliated epithelium functions to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the
(4)
epithelium.

68) The supportive skeletal structure in the human tip of nose, outer ear are example of :-

(1) Tendon
(2) Bone
(3) Ligaments
(4) Cartilage

69) Choose the correct option w.r.t common feature of the given tissues A and B.

(1) Location of tissues

(2) Branching
(3) Striated (striations)
(4) Number of nuclei per cell

70) Match the columns w.r.t. epithelium and their location.

Column I Column II

Ducts of
(i) a.
glands
 (ii) b. Bronchioles

Walls of
(iii) c.
blood vessels

(iv) d. Stomach

(1) (i)a, (ii)b, (iii)c, (iv)d

(2) (i)c, (ii)a, (iii)d, (iv)b
(3) (i)b, (ii)c, (iii)a, (iv)d
(4) (i)d, (ii)c, (iii)b, (iv)a

71) Which type of epithelium found in inner side of dry surface of skin, moist surface of buccal
cavity, pharynx, salivary glands and ducts of pancreas ?

(1) Simple squamous

(2) Simple cuboidal
(3) Simple coloumnar
(4) Compound epithelium

72) Presence of tissues in a multicellular organism ensures

(1) Faster development

(2) Division of labour
(3) Higher reproductive potential
(4) Body strength

73) Given below are two statement :- One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In nearly all animal tissue, specialised junctions provide both structural and
functional links between individual cells.
Reason (R) : Gap junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below:-
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

74) Fill up the blanks by choosing correct combination of A, B, C and D :- 1. The ___A____is made
up of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
2. ___B____ gland secrete digestive enzyme
3. ___C____ provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
4. Cell junctions are found in ___D____ and other tissues.

(A)-Cuboidal epithelium, (B)-Endocrine,

(1)
(C)-Columnar epithelium, (D)-Connective tissue
(A)-Squamous epithelium, (B)-Exocrine,
(2)
(C)-Compound epithelium , (D)-Epithelial tissue
(A)-Columnar epithelium, (B)-Liver,
(3)
(C)-Epithelial tissue, (D)-Muscular tissue
(A)-Ciliated epithelium, (B)-Exocrine,
(4)
(C)-Connective tissue, (D)-Nervous tissue

75) Match the column-I and Column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(I) Mast cell (A) Histamine

(II) Fibroblast (B) Antibody

(III) Lymphocyte (C) Phagocytosis

(IV) Macrophage (D) Fibres

(1) I - A, II - B, III - D, IV - C
(2) I - A, II - D, III - B, IV - C
(3) I - A, II - D, III - C, IV - B
(4) I - A, II - B, III - C, IV - D

76) Identify the connective tissue shown below as well as property of it's intercellular material and

select the right option for the two together.

Connective tissue Property of intercellular material

(1) Bone Solid and nonpliable
(2) Cartilage Solid and pliable
(3) Bone Solid and pliable
(4) Cartilage Solid and non-pliable
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) Stratified cuboidal epithelium is found in :-

(1) Epidermis of skin

(2) Ducts of glands
(3) Bronchioles
(4) Renal pelvis

78) Regeneration after injury is very little in :-

(1) Nervous tissue

(2) Epidermis of skin
(3) Vaginal epithelium
(4) Epithelium of buccal cavity

79) Read the following statements:

i. Goblet cells are multicellular glands.
ii. Compound epithelium occurs in stomach only
iii. Simple epithelium functions as a lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes
iv. Neuroglial cells protect and support neurons.
v. Cells communicates with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of Adjoining Cells in Gap
Junctions
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) Five

80) Identify A, B, C and choose correct option ?

A B C

(1) Macro phage Fibroblast Collagen fibres

 (2) Macro phage Collagen fibres Fibroblast

(3) Mast cell Macro phage Fibroblast

(4) Mast cell Fibroblast Macro phage

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Match the columns I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given
below.

Column I Column II Column III

Tall and Cuboidal

a. 1. K. Bronchioles
slender cells epithelium

Flattened cells
Columnar Tubular parts
b. with irregular 2. L.
epithelium of nephrons
boundaries

Cilia on
Lining
c. their free 3. Squamous epithelium M.
of intestine
surface

Cube like Walls of

d. 4. Ciliated epithelium N.
cells blood vessels
(1) a—2—M, b—3—N, c—4—K, d—1—L
(2) a—2—K, b—1—L, c—4—M, d—3—N
(3) a—4—M, b—3—L, c—1—K, d—1—N
(4) a—2—M, b—3—N, c—4—L, d—1—K

82) Read the following statements and mark the correct answer.
Assertion(A) : The intercellular material of cartilage is solid and pliable and resists compression.
Reason(R) : Dense irregular connective tissue has fibroblasts and many fibres.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Reason is true but Assertion is false.

83) In human kidney, the proximal convoluted tubule is lined by

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple cuboidal brush border epithelium
(4) Simple columnar brush border epithelium
84) Select the correct option for the diagram of gland

Gland Location Function

(1) Unicellular GIT Secrete mucus

(2) Multicellular Buccal cavity Secret saliva

(3) Unicellular Buccal cavity Secret saliva

(4) Muticelluar GIT Secret mucus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) Given below are four statements (i) to (iv) each has two blanks. Select the option which fills up
the blanks in any two of these statements.
(i) The columnar epithelium is composed of ....(A).... and slender cells. Their ....(B).... are located at
the base
(ii) Collagen fibres provide....(C)....and elastin fibres provide....(D)....and elasticity to the tissue
(iii) Adipose tissue is a....(E)....type of connective tissue located mainly beneath....(F)....
(iv) Tendon attach....(G)....to bones and ligament attach....(H)....to bones.

(1) (A) tall, (B) nuclei, (G) bones, (H) muscles

(2) (A) short, (B) organelles, (C) strength, (D) flexibility
(3) (C) strength, (D) flexibility, (E) loose, (F) skin
(4) (E) dense, (F) muscles, (G) bones, (H) muscles

86) Select the correct statement about the given diagrams

(1) In B-collagen fibres are present in rows between many parallel bundles of fibres
(2) In A-fibroblast and many fibres are oriented differently
(3) Example of A is Tendon
(4) B is an example of specialised C.T.

87) Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option

(A) The ___A___ of the cells varies according to their ___B___.
(B) The squamous epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with ___C___
boundaries. They are found in the walls of ___D___ and ___E___.

A B C D E
1. Structure Function Regular Blood vessels Air sac of lungs
2. Function Structure Regular Blood vessels Duct of glands
3. Structure Function Irregular Blood vessels Air sac of lungs
4. Function Structure Irregular Blood vessels Air sac of lungs
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88) Which epithelium is germinal epithelium ?

(1) Keratinized simple squamous epithelium

(2) Transitional epithelium
(3) Stratified columnar epithelium
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium

89) Bones have a hard and non-Pliable ground substance rich in.....(a)....salts and....(b).....fibres:-

(1) (a) Magnesium (b) Elastin

(2) (a) Calcium (b) Collagen
(3) (a) Phosphorus (b) reticulin
(4) (a) Calcium (b) Elastin

90) Which one is not a specialised connective tissue ?

(1) Cartilage
(2) Blood
(3) Bone
(4) Areolar tissue
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 3 1 4 2 2 3 4 2 2 4 3 3 1 1 4 3 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 1 2 4 4 2 3 2 3 3 1 4 3 2 2 1 3 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 3 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 1 3 4 3 2 1 1 1 3 1 1 4 4 4 2 1 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 4 2 4 4 4 2 4 4 3 3 3 2 2 1 1 4 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 4 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 1 2 1 1 3 2 2 1 1 2 2 3 4 1 2 3 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 4 4 1 3 3 4 4 3 4 2 1 2 3 3 2 4 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 3 2 2 3 3 2 4 1 1 2 2 4 2 2 4 2 4 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 2 4 2 2 2 4 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 2 2 1 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 3 2 3 3 3 4 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

cos2(15°) – sin2(15°) = cos(2 × 15°)

= cos30° =

2)

Explain Question : We are asked to find the minimum value of ⇒

Concept : This question is based on maximum & minimum values of a trigonometric function.
Formula :
Solution :

So, [f(θ)]min = –2
& [f(θ)]max = +2

Now,

Final answer : 3

3)

Explain Question : An equation is given below -

Y= x+5
We need to draw the plot of this equation.
Concept : This question & plot of a straight line.
Formula : y = mx + C
Solution :
Equation given in the question
Y= x + 5 .....(i)
The slope intercept form of a straight line
Y = mx + C .....(ii)
On comparing the equations (i) & (ii), we get slope ⇒ in = +
tan(θ) = + = +ve
θ = 60° = acute angle
y - intercept ⇒ C = +5
So, the graph will be a straight line as follows :

Final answer : 3

4)

Explain Question : Evaluate ⇒ =?

Concept :
(1) Indefinite integration of the algebraic
(2) Functions and the constant values.
Formula :

(1)

(2)
Solution :

Final answer : 1

5)

for maxima or minima =0

⇒ x = 3 or x = 5
 > 0 for x = 5 (minima)

< 0 for x = 3 (maxima)

value of y increases before maxima.

6) = 2x + 1 + 0

7)
From A to B : θ is acute and decreases, so slope (tan θ) will decreases.
From B to C : θ is obtuse and increases
but magnitude will be positive.
So, B to C magnitude will increases.

8)

9) Explain Question:
Calculate the straight-line distance between two points in three-dimensional space.

Concept:
Distance formula in 3D Cartesian coordinates.

Solution:
(Step-by-step)
Point A (x1, y1, z1) = (1, 2, 3)
Point B (x2, y2, z2) = (4, 5, 2)

Distance d =

d=

Final answer: Option (4)

10)

Explain the Question : In this question we have to choose the correct relation for the given
trigonometric function.
Concept : This question is based on Trigonometric functions.
Solution :
(A) sin(90° + θ) = cosθ
cos(–θ) = cosθ
∴ Relation given in 'A' is correct
(B) sin(180° – θ) = sinθ
cos(90° – θ) = sinθ
∴ Relation given in 'B' is also correct
(C) sin (360° – θ) = – sin(θ)
cos (360° – θ) = cos(θ)
therefor it is not correct
(D) sin(180° + θ) = –sin(θ)
cos(90° – θ) = sinθ
Therefor it is not correct
Final answer : 2

11)

y = 2x – x2

at x = 0 y = 0 and

as x↑
Curve will pass origin with positive slope but slope will decrease with increase in x.

12) log81 – log3 = log a

log 27 = loga
on comparing a = 27
Now = = =8

13) Energy = M1 L2 T–2

Force = M1 L1 T–2
Energy = Force × Length

14) ⇒ T2 = 4π2 ℓ/g = g =

Here % error in ℓ=

and % error in T =
∴ % error in g = % error in ℓ + 2(% error in T)
= 0.1 + 2 × 0.05 = 0.2 %

15) Question Explanation : Find dimensional formula of Mass in terms of E, V, and T.

Concept: This question is based on dimensional analysis
Solution:
m ∝ E x Vy Tz
0
M1L T0 ∝ [ML2T–2]x [LT–1]y [T]z
0 0
M1L T ∝ Mx L2x + y T–2x–y + z
Compare power of M ⇒ x = 1

Compare power of L

2x + y = 0
2(1) + y = 0 ⇒ y = –2
Compare power of T

–2x – y + z = 0
– 2(1) – (–2) + z =0
z=0
0
[M]=[E]1[V]−2[T]

Final Answer: Option (1)

16)

t ∝ Gahbcc
T ∝ [M–1L3T–2]a[ML2T–1]b[LT–1]c
0 0
M L T1 ∝ M–a+bL3a+2b+cT–2a–b–c
–a + b = 0, 3a + 2b + c = 0, –2a – b – c = 1

a=
t ∝ G1/2 h1/2c–5/2

17)

Explain Question : Given value is 0.04320 N/m². We have to find the number of significant
figures in this value.
Concept :This question is based on significant figures.
Solution :
Rule : All non-zero digits, zeros between non-zero digits, and trailing zeros after decimal are
significant.
In 0.04320, leading zeros before 4 are not significant. The digits 4, 3, 2, and the final 0 after
decimal are significant.
Hence, number of significant figures = 4.

Final answer : Option (4)

18) Δm = 0.05 kg ΔV = 0.05 m3

m = 5 kg V = 1 m3

density (ρ) =

=
 = 6%
Hence option (3) is correct.

19)

Explain Question : Heat generated in a circuit ⇒ H = I2Rt

Percentage errors :

Concept : This question is based on percentage error in mathematical operations.

Solution : Here H ∝ I2R1t1

So,
= +2 (1%) + 1(2%) + 1(3%)
= +2% + 2% + 3%
= 7%
Final answer : 1

20)

21)

Explain Question : A physical Quantity

Concept : This question is based on percentage error in mathematical operations

Solution :
Here, P ∝ a3b2c–1d–1
So

= +3 (1%) + 2(2%) + 1(3%) + 1(4%)

= +3% + 4% + 3% + 4%
= 14%
Final answer : 2

22)

Question Explanation : In this question, we have to find least count of vernier calliper.

Concept : This question is based on vernier calliper [least count].

Solution : Given here

1 MSD = 2 mm
⇒ (N + 2) VSD = (N) MSD

1VSD =
Least count = 1 MSD – 1 VSD

= (∵ 1MSD = 2 mm)

Final answer : Option (3)

23) T = Pa Db Sc
–1 –2 a –3 b –2 c
T = [ML T ] [ML ] [MT ]
0 0
M L T1 = Ma+b+c L–a–3b T–2a–2c
a+b+c=0
–a – 3b = 0

–2a – 2c = 1 ⇒ a + c =

b= ,a= ,c=1

a= ,b= ,c=1

24)

Question Explanation : We need to find the dimensional formula of angular acceleration.

Concept : This question is based on dimensions of physical quantities.
Solution :

Angular acceleration (α) =

Final answer : Option (2)
25) Explain the question : Measured length of a rectangular strip ⇒ ℓ = 10.0 cm
Absolute error in measurement of length ⇒ Δℓ = 0.1 cm
Measured width of the rectangular strip ⇒ b = 1.00 cm
Absolute error in measurement of width ⇒ Δb = 0.01 cm
Absolute error in calculation of area of the rectangular strip ⇒ ΔA = ?
Concept : This question is based on error in multiplication
Solution :
True value of area ⇒ A = ℓ × b = (10.0 cm) × (1.00 cm)
= 10.0 cm2

Percentage error in area ⇒

=
= (1%) + (1%)
= 2%
= ± 2%
Absolute error in area ⇒ ΔA = 2% of A

= cm2
= 0.2 cm2 = ± 0.2 cm2
Final answer : 4

26) [E] = [ML2T–2], [m] = [M]

[L] = [ML2T–1], [G] = [M–1L3T–2]

∴
0 0 0
= [M L T ]

As angle has no dimensions, therefore has the same dimensions as that of angle.

27)

28) A = ℓb
A = 2.583 × 1.27 = 3.28041 cm2
Area of rectangle with proper signifiant figure is 3.28 cm2

29) L.C. =
L.C. = 0.01 cm
Reading = M.S. + V.S. × L.C. – Error
Error = –[10 – 6] × 0.01 cm
= –0.04 cm
Read. = 3.1 cm + 1 × 0.01 cm – (–0.04 cm)
Read. = 3.15 cm
30)

Explain the Question : Find total mass of the box up to correct number of significant
figures.
Concept : This question is based on rules of significant figures (addition).
Solution : Total mass = 2.3 + 0.00215 + 0.01239 = 2.31454 kg in addition least number of
decimal places are taken (1 here in 2.3 kg) so total mass = 2.3 kg
Final answer : 3

31)

Reading = main scale reading + (varnier scale reading) (L.C.)

Where L.C. = 1/100 mm
So reading = 2mm + (31) (1/100 mm) = 2.31 mm

32) Explain Question: Use the given approximation to find the approximate
value of (999)1/3.

Concept : Binomial Approximation

Formula : .
Calculation :

Final Answer: (1)

33)

sin (–1485°) = – sin(1485°) = – sin (360 × 4 + 45°)

= – sin 45° =

34)

Sn =
n = 50
Sn =
Sn = 1275

35)

36)

Explain Question :

For the shown circular arc-

The length of arc ⇒ ℓ = π cm
The radius of arc ⇒ r = 6 cm
The angle subtended by arc on centre ⇒ θ = ? (in radians)
Concept : The relation amongst the plane angle, length of arc & the radius for a circular arc.

Formula :

Solution :

Final answer : 2

37)

= 1 ⇒ 2x – y = 4
∴ y = 2x – 4
Slope of straight line = 2

38) Explain the Question :

In this question we have to choose the incorrect alternative for the given trigonometric
values.
Concept : This question is based on values of trigonometric function.
Solution :

sin 37° is correct.

cos 30° is correct.

tan 37° is incorrect because tan 37°=

sin 210° = is correct.

Thus, the incorrect alternative is Option 3
Final answer : 2

39)

Explain Question :
Point C ⇒ (xc, yc) ⇒ (1, 0)
Point D ⇒ (xD, yD) ⇒ (3, 3)

we need to determine the slope of the shown straight line AB passing through these two
points.
Concept : This question is based on slope of a straight line passing through two points.

Formula :

Solution : slope ⇒
Final answer : 1

40) Slope =

41)

Explain Question:Four different units of length are provided in [Link] of the given
units is the smallest.

Concept:Comparison of different units of the length.

Solution :

1 Light Year= 9.46 x 1015 metre

1 Angstrom = 10-10 metre

1 Fermi = 10-15 metre

Final answer: Option (3)

42) Reading = 3.30 mm

43)

Explain the Question : We need to select the correct physical quantity for given dimension.
Concept : This question is based on dimensions of physical quantities.
Solution :

= [ML2T–3]
Final answer : 3

44)

Question Explanation:

The question asks for the physical quantity whose dimensions are the same as given the

position function .
Concept:
Dimensional Analysis
The argument of an exponential function must be dimensionless, which helps determine the
dimensions of constants.
Solution:
Given:

Since x represents position, its dimension is length [L].

The exponent –A t must be dimensionless:

Now,

So,

Now find dimensions of

This is the dimension of acceleration.

Final Answer:
Option (4)

45)
 Explain Question : To find dimension of
Given expression
f = A sinαx + B cosβt
where
x = Displacement
t = time.

Concept : Dimension of unknown using law of homogeneity.

Solution :

sin(αx) :
0 0 0
[αx] = M L T

Similarly cos(βt) :
0 0 0
[βt] = M L T

⇒ [T–1]

Final Answer : option (3)

CHEMISTRY

46) No. of moles of NaCl = 117/58.5 = 2

No. of moles of water = 900/18 = 50
Mole fraction = 50/50+2 = 50/52
= 0.9615

47)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O
2 ml 1 ml
2 ml of H2 react with 1 ml of O2. Hence, 30 ml H2 will react with 15 ml of O2.
∴ O2 left = 20 – 15 = 5 ml
Final Answer : (4)

48)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on concept of law of multiple proportions.
Solution : Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Final Answer : (1)

49)

Molar mass of glucose (C6H12O6) = 72+12+96 = 180 g mol–1

Molarity =

50) Explaining : An organic compound on analysis was found to contain 0.032% of sulphur. If
its molecule contain two sulphur atoms, then the molecular mass of the compound will be :-
Concept : This question is based on percentage composition.
Solution :
% of element =

∴ Mw = = 200000
Final Answer : (4)

51)

Explaining : Assuming that petrol is octane (C8H18) and has density 0.8 g mL–1. 1.425 L of
petrol on complete combustion will consume.
Concept : This question is based on mass-mass relationship based.
Solution :

C8H18 + O2 → 8CO2 + 9 H2O

d = 0.8 g/mL
Vol. of petrol (C8H18) = 1.425 L = 1425 mL
wt. of C8H18 = 0.8 × 1425 = 1140 g
mol. wt of C8H18 = 114,

Moles of C8H18 = = 10

1 mol C8H18 requires = mol of O2

∴ 10 mol C8H18 will require = ×10 mol of O2

Final Answer : (3)

52)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on concept of vapour density
Solution :

Molar mass of gas = × 22.4 = 240 g mol–1

Vapour density = × molar mass

= × 240 = 120
Final Answer : (2)

53)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on calculation of molecules
Solution :

Number of molecuels in 15 L H2 = × NA = 0.669 NA

Number of molecuels in 5 L H2 = × NA = 0.223 NA

Number of molecuels in 0.5 gL H2 = × NA = 0.25 NA

Number of molecuels in 10 g O2 = × NA = 0.312 NA

Final Answer : (1)

54)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on Ideal gas equation
Solution :
PV = nRT

Mw = 32

wt of 1 molecule of diatomic molecule A2 =

wt of 1 atom of diatomic molecule A2 =

Final Answer : (1)

55) Mg, 0.16 g

56) CH4N

57)

58)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on conservation of mass.
Solution :
Σ Masses of reactants = Σ Masses of products
(3 + 11.2) g (8.8 + 5.4) g
Hence, law of conservation of mass is verified.
Final Answer : (1)

59) 72 g

60)

61) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

62) Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on relation between % w/v and molarity
Solution :

M=
Final Answer : (2)

63) Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to find the ratio of the number of moles of hydrogen
gas (Hâ‚‚) to oxygen gas (Oâ‚‚) when equal masses of both gases are placed in identical
conditions.

Underlying Concept: The key concept here is the relationship between mass, molar mass,
and number of moles. The number of moles (n) is given by dividing the mass of a substance by
its molar mass (Mâ‚™). Since equal masses of hydrogen and oxygen are taken, their mole ratio
depends on their molar masses.

Relevant Formulas: Number of moles, where is number of moles, is the

mass of the substance, and is the molar mass.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Let the mass of each gas be . Then, (since the molar
mass of hydrogen gas (Hâ‚‚) is 2 g/mol)

(since the molar mass of oxygen gas (Oâ‚‚) is 32 g/mol)

Therefore, the ratio of moles is:

Tips and Tricks: Memorize or remember common molar masses (Hâ‚‚ = 2 g/mol and Oâ‚‚ =
32 g/mol) to quickly compute mole ratios when masses are equal.
Common Mistakes: Students may confuse atomic mass with molar mass, or forget to use
molar mass of molecular hydrogen and oxygen gases instead of atomic values.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options like '1:8' or '1:16' do not correctly reflect the
mole ratio based on molar masses. For example, '1:8' may result from mixing atomic masses or
incorrect division.

64) 10–15 = Femto [from NCERT]

65)

1 mol of O2 requires = 2 mol of H2

2 mol of O2 requires = 4 mol of H2
Since H2 is present in excess, therefore, O2 is the limiting reagent
(1) Wrong
(2) So, O2 is the limiting reagent
(3) 2mol of O2 = 4 moles of H2O = 4 × 18
= 72 g H2O
Moles of H2 left = 32 – 4 = 28 mol
= 28 × 2 = 56 g H2
Mixture contains = (72 g H2O + 56 g H2)

66)

67) Mass is always conserved.

68) Question Explanation: Identify which statement about the reaction CS₂ + 3O₂ → 2SO₂ +
CO₂ is inconsistent with stoichiometry.
Concept: Stoichiometry, mass-mass relationship
Solution:
Use mole ratios from the balanced chemical equation: CS₂ + 3O₂ → 2SO₂ + CO₂1 mole CS₂
reacts with 3 moles O₂ to produce 2 moles SO₂ and 1 mole CO₂.
Option 1: 1 mole CS₂ produces 1 mole CO₂ (True)
Option 2: 16 g O₂ = 0.5 mole; 0.5/3 = 1/6 mole CO₂; mass = 1/6 × 44 = 7.33 g (True)
Option 3: 3 moles O₂ → 2 moles SO₂; 1 mole O₂ → 2/3 mole SO₂ (True)
Option 4: 6 moles O₂ require 6/3 = 2 moles CS₂ (False)
Final Answer: Option 4

69) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl

20.8 + 9.8 = x + 7.3
23.3 = x

70) Relative atomic mass = 31 amu

[Link] (molar) = 31g
1 amu = 1.66056 x 10-24 g

71) Correct option (4)

72) Correct option (4)

73)

64 g = 32 g + 16 × x
∴x=2

74) Mw = 200

E.F. = AB

M.F = (AB)4 = A4B4

75) Question Explanation: Identify the chemical law based on the gaseous volumes in the
reaction.
Concept: Gay-Lussac's Law of Gaseous Volumes.
Solution:
The given reaction is:
The volumes provided are:
• Volume of N2 = 45.4L
• Volume of O2 = 22.7L
• Volume of N2O = 45.4L

Taking the ratio of these volumes: 45.4 : 22.7 : 45.4 = 2 : 1 :2.

Since the reactants and products are gases and their volumes are in a simple whole-number
ratio, it obeys Gay-Lussac's law.
Final answer: option (4)

76) As per Avogadro's hypothesis, all of them have same no of molecules (Lets assume as N)
Ratio of no. of atoms = 2N : N : 2N : 3N
=2:1:2:3

77) 0.0177
78)

7 × 6.02 × 1023

79) Question explanation:

We are asked which law is proved by the fact that different oxides of nitrogen contain oxygen
in different proportion.
Concept:
Law of multiple proportion
Solution:
• Nitrogen forms several oxides: NO, NO2,N2O,N2O3,N2O4.
• In each oxide, the ratio of oxygen atoms to a fixed mass of nitrogen is different but always in
simple whole numbers.
• This illustrates the Law of multiple proportion.
Final answer: Option (2).

80) Molar mass of B2A3 =

2B + 3A = 180 ....(i)

Molar mass of B2A =

2B + A = 100 ....(ii)
Solving equation (i) and (ii)
A = 40 and B = 30.

81) Ans. : 25%

82) Explanation : It is mole faction (x) which is useful in relating concentration of solution with
its vapour pressure. For example according toRault’slaw in a binary solutionoftwo
volatileliquids, p1 = x1 p1º where p,is vapour pressure ofcomponent 1, and x1 is its mole faction
in solution, p1º denotes the vapour pressure ofpure solvent.

83) 3M NaCl, dsol = 1.25 gm/mol

Molality =

= = 2.79

84)

1 L of pure water = 1000 g

Moles = 1000/18 = 55.55 mol
Molarity = 55.55/1 ≈ 55.5 M

85)
 Moles of NaOH = Molarity × Volume = 0.4 × 0.5 = 0.2 mol
Mass = 0.2 × 40 = 8 g

86) % composition

87)

4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H2O

8 mol NH3 requires (8×5/4) = 10 mol O2, but only 8 mol O2 available.
O2 is the limiting reagent.

88) Concept:
• Mass fraction
• Formula mass calculation

Solution:

x ​= 0.52x + 31.2
48x = 31.2x
x = 65

Final Answer: Option (4)

89)

mole 2 mole Al

1 mole → ×2= mole Al

mole O2 → mole Al

× 27 = 18 g

90) Ratio of no. molecules = ratio of moles

Molar mass of both gases is same
Mass ratio = mole ration

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg#136

 92) NCERT Page No. 126, 8.3

93)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 125-126

94) NCERT Pg#137

95) NCERT Pg#134

96) NCERT Pg#133,134

97) Question Explanation: Identifying incorrect cell theory statement.

Concept: Cell Theory
Solution: Let's analyze each statement based on cell theory:

A. a. Incorrect: According to Cell Theory, the cell is the basic unit of life for all living organisms,
not just some.
B. b. Correct: Unicellular organisms like bacteria and amoeba are capable of independent
existence.
C. c. Correct: Unicellular organisms are capable of performing all essential life functions.
Therefore, only statement 'a' is incorrect.

Final Answer: Only a

98)

Question This question asks us to identify the incorrect statement about chloroplast
Explanation : structure and function.
Concept : Chloroplasts
•
The chloroplasts are double membrane bound organelle and the inner
chloroplast membrane is relatively more permeable. incorrect statement
Solutions: •
Chloroplasts are double membrane-bound organelles, with an outer
membrane that is more permeable, while the inner membrane is selectively
permeable
2 – The chloroplasts is double membrane bound organelle and the inner
Final answer :
chloroplast membrane is relatively more permeable

99) NCERT Pg # 126

100) Question Explanation :

to evaluate two statements regarding chloroplasts and mitochondria.

Concept :
This question is based on Chloroplast and mitochondria.
Solution :
Statement-I: “Chloroplast and mitochondrion both have 70S ribosomes.” → Correct Statement-
II: “Chloroplast and mitochondrion are formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they
contain DNA but lack protein synthesising machinery.” → Incorrect (they have ribosomes)

Final Answer :
Option (1)

101)

NCERT XI, Page # 96

102) NCERT Page No. 136

103) Explain Question: The question is asking about the correctness of two statements
describing the interphase nucleus and origin of the term “chromatin.”
Concept: Chromosome/chromatin
Solution:
Chromatin in interphase nucleus is made of extended nucleoprotein fibres → correct.
Flemming used basic dyes to stain nuclear material and named it chromatin → correct.
Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is wrong for chromatin.

Final answer: 2

104)

Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect

105) Explanation Question:

The question gives two statements about Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) and asks which
are correct/incorrect
Concept:
This question is based on Endoplasmic Reticulum
Solution:
Statement-I : RER: Covered with ribosomes, continuous with the nuclear envelope. Correct
Statement-II : RER is the major site for synthesis of steroidal hormones. Incorrect. RER is the
site of protein synthesis (not steroids).
Final Answer: (4)

106) Question Explanation :

to check the correctness of two statements about the cell theory and its contributors.

Concept :
This question is based on cell theory

Solution :
 Statement-I: “All living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells.

A. Cell theory (Schleiden & Schwann) → All living organisms are composed of cells and products
of cells.

Statement-II: “Omnis cellula-e-cellula term was given by Rudolf Virchow.” Rudolf Virchow
(1855) → Modified cell theory with the idea “Omnis cellula e cellula” = every cell arises from a
pre-existing cell

Final Answer :
Option (1)

107) NCERT XIth Pg.#139 Para-8.5.10

108)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the incorrect statement about cellular
structures.
Concept : This question is based on Chromosome
Explanation : Chromosome structure – Best studied at metaphase, not anaphase, because
chromosomes are fully condensed and aligned.
Final answer : 3

109)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 138

110)

NCERT, Pg. # 135

111) NCERT Page No. 129

th
112) XI NCERT Pg No. 138

113) Module - 6 Pg. # 187

114) Module - 6 Pg. # 190, 187, 203, 200

115) NCERT Pg. No. 100, 96

116)

Explain Question : The image shows a diagram of a chloroplast, the organelle responsible for
photosynthesis in plant cells. The question asks to identify the structures labeled A, B, C, and
D.
Concept : This question is based on Plastid
Explanation :
A: Granum
A granum (plural: grana) is a stack of thylakoids, which are the sites of the light-dependent
reactions of photosynthesis.
B: Outer membrane
The outer membrane is the outermost boundary of the chloroplast, enclosing the entire
organelle.
C: Stroma
The stroma is the fluid-filled space within the inner membrane of the chloroplast, where the
light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle) occur.
D: Stroma lamella
Stroma lamellae (also known as intergranal thylakoids) are unstacked thylakoids that connect
adjacent grana.
Final answer : 3

117)

Question Explanation : The question asks how many given statements are true regarding the
structure shown in the figure, which is the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).

Concept : Endoplasmic Reticulum

Solution: ER divides the intracellular space into luminal (cisternal) and extraluminal (cytosolic)
compartments.

Final Answer: 3. One

118) NCERT Pg # 137, Para-8.9

119)

Correct option is 4.
Acrocentric chromosomes

120) NCERT Pg.# 125

121) NCERT-XI Pg. # 127 IInd para, Ist line

122)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 128,129

123) NCERT XI- Pg. No. # 127,128,129

124) NCERT Pg.#129

125) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 128

126) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 128

127)

NCERT XI Pg. # 129

128) NCERT Pg.#129 (8.4.2)

129) Module No-6, P. No # 195

130) SPARK Module Eng. Pg.# 134 (Microbodies)

िहदी पे ज # 11 (माइोबाॅ डीज)

131) NCERT page no. 138

132)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 131

133) NCERT Page # 126,128,129

134) NCERT-XI, Pg#126

135)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 8.5

136) [NCERT Pg : 101]

137) [NCERT Pg :101-102]

138) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 103, Para-3rd

139) NCERT XI Pg.# 104, 3rd para

140) NCERT Page No # 101, 102

 141) NCERT Page No. # 103(E/H)

142) NCERT Page No. # 103 (E/H)

143)

Question explanation: Identify how many given statements correctly describe bone.

Concept : This question is based on specialized connective tissue

Solution :

A. (A) It is specialised connective tissue having hard and pliable ground substance rich in Ca+2
salts → Incorrect, The ground substance of bone is hard and non-pliable, not pliable. This
statement is incorrect due to the term "pliable"

B. (B) It is the main tissue that provides structural frame to the body → Correct, bones
form the skeletal framework.

C. (C) It supports and protects softer tissues and organs → Correct, bones protect organs
(e.g., skull protects brain, ribs protect heart/lungs).

D. (D) The bone cells, osteocytes, are present in the spaces called lacunae → Correct,
osteocytes reside in lacunae.

E. (E) They also interact with smooth muscles attached to them to bring about movements
→ Incorrect, bones interact with skeletal muscles, not smooth muscles.

Final answer : Option 2

144) Ciliated columnar epithelia occurs in inner surface of hollow organs like fallopian tubes
(oviduct) and most of respiratory tract.

145) Skeletal muscle (striated or striped muscle) – Voluntary muscle, e.g. movement of arms,
legs etc. Smooth muscle (unstriped or non-striated muscle) – Involuntary muscle e.g. posterior
part of oesophagus, stomach, intestine, blood vessels
Cardiac muscle – Involuntary muscle e.g. cardiac muscle in wall of heart.

146) Question Explanation:

This question is asking to correctly match the images of connective tissues with their names
and functions.
Concept :
Structural Organisation in Animals (Connective tissues: types and functions).
Explanation:

A. Image A: Bone(b) → site of blood cell production (L)

 B. Image B: Cartilage(c) → resists compression (K)
C. Image C: Blood(a) → transport of substances (M)

Final Answer: Option 2

147) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 106

148) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 101

149) NCERT-XI, Pg # 100

150)

NCERT - XI. Pg # 102

151) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 105-106

152) NCERT XIth Page No. - 102

153)

NCERT XIth Page No. 103

154) NCERT Page no.112

155) NCERT, Pg # 102

156) NCERT-XI, Pg # 101-103, Para.-7.1.1, 7.1.2

157) NCERT- Pg. # 101

158) NCERT-Pg # 104

159)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 105

160)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 101

161)
162) Tissue is a group of similar cells along with intercellular substances, which are
specialized to perform a specific function. Each tissue performs one or more function of body.
Thus, body of multicellular organism exhibits division of labour and contribute to survival of
body as whole.

163) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 102

164) Explain Question : Fill up the blanks by choosing correct combination of A, B, C and D
Concept : This question is based on Animal tissues – epithelial tissues and glands
Solution :
1. Single thin layer of flattened cells → Squamous epithelium (A)
2. Digestive enzymes secreted by → Exocrine glands (B)
3. Protection against chemical & mechanical stress → Compound epithelium (C)
4. Cell junctions are found in → Epithelial tissue (D)
Final answer :Option 2.

165)

The question asks you to correctly match the cell types listed in Column I with their
corresponding secretions or primary functions listed in Column II.

Understanding the basics of cell biology, particularly the roles of these specific cells in the
body (especially in immune responses and connective tissue) is crucial.

Explanation for each option:

(I) Mast cell:(A) Histamine: This is a correct match. Mast cells are immune cells found in
tissues throughout the body. They release histamine and other inflammatory mediators during
allergic reactions or in response to tissue damage.

(II) Fibroblast:(D) Fibres: This is a correct match. Fibroblasts are the primary cells of
connective tissue. They are responsible for producing various types of fibers, including
collagen, elastic fibers, and reticular fibers.

(III) Lymphocyte:(B) Antibody: This is a correct match. Lymphocytes are a type of white
blood cell central to the adaptive immune system. B lymphocytes (B cells) produce antibodies.

(IV) Macrophage:(C) Phagocytosis: This is a correct match. Macrophages are phagocytic

cells, meaning they engulf and digest cellular debris, pathogens, and foreign substances.

Therefore, the correct matching is:

(I) Mast cell - (A) Histamine

(II) Fibroblast - (D) Fibres

(III) Lymphocyte - (B) Antibody

(IV) Macrophage - (C) Phagocytosis

So the correct answer is 2) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C

 166)

The correct answer is: Option 2 (Cartilage - Solid and pliable).

Explanation:

A. Cartilage is a type of connective tissue that is solid yet flexible (pliable) due to the presence of
chondroitin sulfate in its matrix.
B. Unlike bone, cartilage lacks calcium salts, making it more flexible.

167) NCERT Page No.# 102

168) NCERT Pg : 101

169) Three

170)

NCERT, Pg. # 100

171)

Explanation:

A. Tall and slender cells → Columnar epithelium (2) → Lining of intestine (M)
B. Flattened cells with irregular boundaries → Squamous epithelium (3) → Walls of blood vessels
(N)
C. Cilia on their free surface → Ciliated epithelium (4) → Bronchioles (K)
D. Cube-like cells → Cuboidal epithelium (1) → Tubular parts of nephrons (L)

Correct answer: Option (1) a—2—M, b—3—N, c—4—K, d—1—L

172) OLD NCERT XI Page No. 104 Para 2, 3

173) Simple cuboidal brush border epithelium

174)

(2) Multicellular Buccal cavity Secret saliva

175) Explain question:

This question is asking about filling the blanks in the given statements related to epithelial and
connective tissues and choosing the option in which any two statements are correctly
complete.

Concept:
Structural Organisation in Animals, topic: Epithelial tissue and Connective tissue (fibers
and adipose tissue).
Solution:
Collagen fibers give strength while elastin fibers give flexibility and elasticity; adipose tissue is
a loose connective tissue located mainly beneath the skin. These correctly complete
statements (ii) and (iii).

Final answer: option (3)

176)

Explain Question : This question is asking about identifying the type of connective tissue
shown in diagram (A) and choosing the correct related statement.
Concept : Structural Organisation in Animals – Connective Tissues (Dense Regular & Dense
Irregular C.T.)
Explanation : Diagram (A) shows dense regular connective tissue in which collagen fibres are
arranged parallel, typical of tendons. Hence, the correct statement is that A is an example of a
tendon.
Final answer :
Option 3

177) NCERT PAGE (ENGLISH): 100,101

178)

179) NCERT XI Pg. # 104

180)

Question Explanation: identify which listed tissue in not classified as specialized connective
tissue.

Concept : This question is based on specialised connective tissue

Solution :
* Cartilage- specialized connective tissue (firm, flexible support)
* Blood - Specialized connective tissue (fluid matrix, transport function)
* Bone - Specialized connective tissue (rigid support, mineralized marix)
* Areolar tissue- It is a losse connective tissue, not specialized

Final Answer : option (4)