08-07-2026

4504CMD303032260002 MD

PHYSICS

1) A body is moving with constant speed of 5m/s on a circular path of radius 5m. The magnitude of
average velocity of the body after 7π secs is :-

(1) 5 m/s

(2)

(3)

(4) 0 m/s

2) The velocity versus time graph of particle moving on a straight line is shown. The average velocity
in the Ist one second is v1 m/s and the average velocity in the 2nd one second is v2 m/s. What is the

average velocity in the last one second.

(1) 2v1
(2) v1 + v2/2
(3) 2v2
(4) v2 – v1

3) A boy begins to walk eastward along a street infront of his house and the graph of his
displacement from house is shown in the following figure. His average speed for the whole time
interval is equal to :-
(1) 8 m/min
(2) 6 m/min
(3) 8/3 m/min
(4) 2 m/min

4) Mark the INCORRECT statement for a particle moving on a straight line :-

(1) If velocity and position have opposite sign then object is moving towards origin.
(2) If velocity and acceleration have opposite sign then object is slowing down.
If velocity is zero for a time interval, the acceleration is zero at any instant within the time
(3)
interval.
(4) If velocity is zero at particular instant, acceleration must be zero at that instant.

5) A particle is moving along a circular path of radius 10m with uniform speed 10m/s. Find
Magnitude of Average acceleration when particle completes half revolution :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

6)

Some informations are given for a body moving in a straight line. The body starts its motion at t=0.
Information I : The velocity of a body at the end of 4s is 16 m/s.
Information II : The velocity of a body at the end of 12s is 48 m/s.
Information III : The velocity of a body at the end of 22s is 88 m/s

The body is certainly moving with

(1) Uniform velocity
(2) Uniform speed
(3) Uniform acceleration
(4) Data insufficient for generalization

7) A body moving with uniform acceleration crosses a distance 65 m in 5th sec and 105 m in 9th
second. How far it will go in 20 sec :-

(1) 2040 m
(2) 2004 m
(3) 2400 m
(4) 240 m

8) The driver of an express train moving with a velocity V1 finds that a goods train is moving with a
velocity V2 in the same direction on the same track. He applies the brakes and produces a
retardation "a" the minimum time required to avoid collision is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A bullet moving with a velocity of 200 cm/s penetrates a wooden block and comes to rest after
traversing 4 cm inside it. What initialvelocity is needed for travelling distance of 9 cm in same
block:-

(1) 100 cm/s

(2) 150 cm/s
(3) 300 cm/s
(4) 250 cm/s

10) If a particle moves with constant acceleration such that initial velocity makes obtuse angle with
velocity then which of the following is incorrect:-

(1) Path of the particle is parabolic

(2) Both magnitude and direction of velocity changes
(3) Only magnitude of velocity changes
(4) None

11) By which velocity a ball be projected vertically upward so that the distance it covers in its first 6
seconds is twice the distance it covers in its 6th second – (g = 10 m/sec2)

(1) 58.8 m/s

(2) 65 m/s
(3) 49 m/s
(4) 17.5 m/s

12) A car travelling at a speed of 30 km/hr is brought to a halt is 8 m by applying brakes. If the same
car is travelling at 60 km/hr it can be brought to a halt with the same braking force in :

(1) 8 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 24 m
(4) 32 m

13) A police car is travelling in a straight line with a constant speed u. A truck travelling in the same
direction with constant velocity 3u/2 passes the police car at t = 0. The police car starts accelerating
10 s after passing the truck, at a constant rate of 3 m/s2, while the truck continues to move at
constant speed. If the police car takes 10 s further to catch the truck, find the value of u :-

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 15 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

14) A particle starts from rest travels with an acceleration 2 m/sec2 for 5 sec then acceleration
becomes –10 m/sec2. Find the total distance travelled before it comes for instant rest.

(1) 25 m
(2) 50 m
(3) 30 m
(4) 10 m

15) A very large number of balls are thrown vertically upwards in quick succession in such a way
that the next ball is thrown when the previous one is at the maximum height. If the maximum height
is 5 m, the number of ball thrown per minute is (take g = 10 ms–2) :

(1) 120
(2) 80
(3) 60
(4) 40

16) A particle released from a height covers th part of total displacement in the last second of its
journey. then its time of journey is :-

(1) 3 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 5 s
(4) 7 s

17) A juggler tosses a ball up in the air with initial speed u. At the instant it reaches its maximum
height he tossed up a second ball with the same initial speed. The two balls will cross each other at a
height :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The average acceleration in first 20 seconds for the graph shown in figure is
(1) 20 m/s2
(2) 15 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 25 m/s2

19) The acceleration-displacement graph of a particle moving in a straight line as shown. initial
velocity of particle is zero. Find velocity (m/s) of particle when displacement s = 16 m.

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 12

20)

Adjacent graph shows the variation of velocity of a rocket with time. Find the time of burning of fuel
form the graph(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 10 sec
(2) 110 sec
(3) 120 sec
(4) cannot be estimated from the graph

21) A particle moves along x-axis in such a way that its x-coordinate varies with time t according to
the equation x = (8 – 4t + 6t2) metre. The velocity of the particle will vary with time according to the
graph :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The acceleration versus time graph of a particle is shown in figure. The respective v-t graph of

the particle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23) A bus is moving with a velocity 10 ms–1 on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the
bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist, with what velocity should the
scooterist chase the bus ?

(1) 50 m s–1
(2) 40 m s–1
(3) 30 m s–1
(4) 20 m s–1

24) A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by
s = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4
The velocity, when its acceleration is zero, is:-

(1) 3 ms–1
(2) –12 ms–1
(3) 42 ms–1
(4) –9 ms–1

25) A ball is projected from the foot of a tower. The ball crosses the top of tower twice after an
interval of 6s and the ball reaches the ground after 12s. The height of tower is (g = 10 m/s2):-

(1) 120 m
(2) 135 m
(3) 175 m
(4) 80 m

26) Which of the following represents uniformly accelerated motion?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The displacement of the particle varies with time according to the relation x = . Then
the velocity of the particle is :
(1) k(e–bt)

(2)

(3) kbe–bt
(4) None of these

28) The distance travelled by a particle is directly proportional to t1/2, where t = time elapsed. What
is the nature of motion ?

(1) Increasing acceleration

(2) Decreasing acceleration
(3) Increasing retardation
(4) Decreasing retardation

29) The velocity of a particle moving on the x-axis is given by V = x2 + x where V is in m/s and x is in
m. Find its acceleration in m/s2 when passing through the point x = 2 m ?

(1) 0
(2) 5
(3) 11
(4) 30

30) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 then average
speed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A packet is released from a balloon which is moving upward when the balloon is at a height 200
m above ground. The packet reaches the ground in 8 s. Speed of the balloon when the packet is
released, is (Take g = 10 ms–2) :-

(1) 18 ms–1
(2) 15 ms–1
(3) 12 ms–1
(4) 9 ms–1

32) Consider a hypothetical planet, the value of whose acceleration due to gravity on its surface is 8
m/s2. A small ball is thrown vertically upwards from its surface with some initial velocity. The
distance travelled by the ball in the last two seconds of its ascent is :-
(1) 5 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 4 m

33) Two balls are dropped from the same point after an interval of 1 s. If acceleration due to gravity
is 10 m/s2, what will be their separation 3 seconds after the release of first ball ?

(1) 5m
(2) 10m
(3) 25m
(4) 30m

34) Figure shows the position of a particle moving on the x-axis as a function of time. Choose the

correct statement :- (a) The particle has come to rest 4 times

(b) The maximum speed is at t = 4s
(c) The average velocity is zero for t = 2s to t=6s
(d) Motion of particle is non-uniformly accelerated

(1) a & b
(2) b & c
(3) only a & c
(4) a, c and d

35) Time-displacement (t–x) graph of two objects A and B is shown in Fig. The ratio of their speeds

(vA/vB) is (tan 37° = 3/4):-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
36) Two particles are moving with velocities v1 and v2. Their relative velocity has
maximum magnitude, when the angle between their velocities is

(1) 0°
(2) 45°
(3) 90°
(4) 180º

37) A stone dropped from a building of height h and it reaches after t seconds on earth. From the
same building if two stones are thrown (one upwards and other downwards) with the same speed u
and they reach the earth surface after t1 and t2 seconds respectively, then

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

38) A body travels for 15 sec starting from rest with constant acceleration. If it travels distances S1,
S2 and S3 in the first five seconds, second five seconds and next five seconds respectively the relation
between S1, S2 and S3 is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A body moves over one fourth of a circular arc in a circle of radius r. The magnitude of distance
travelled and displacement will be respectively

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The initial velocity of a body moving along a straight line is 7m/s. It has a uniform acceleration of
4 m/s2. The distance covered by the body in the 5th second of its motion is

(1) 25 m
(2) 35 m
(3) 50 m
(4) 85 m
41) A particle starts from rest find the distance travelled by it in 5th half of the second if its
acceleration is 2 m/s2

(1) 4 m
(2) 6.25 m
(3) 2.25 m
(4) Zero

42) A particle starting from rest has a velocity that increases with displacement as i.e. .
Then the velocity is :

(1) proportional to t
(2) proportional to t2
(3) proportional to
(4) constant

43) A bullet losses of its velocity in passing through a plank. What is the least number of planks
required to stop the bullet ? (Assuming constant retardation)

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

44) A particle starts from rest and has an acceleration of 2ms–2 for 10s. After that, the particle
travels for 30s with constant speed and then undergoes a retardation of 4ms–2 and comes back to
rest. The total distance covered by the particle is :

(1) 650m
(2) 700m
(3) 750 m
(4) 800m

45)

If velocity v of a particle moving on a straight line as a function of time t is given as v = 4 – t (m/s)

then the distance covered by the particle in first 5 seconds is

(1) 7.5 m
(2) 8.5 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 17 m

CHEMISTRY
1) Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

(1) Li is strongest reducing agent among all elements in aqueous medium.

th
(2) Among 15 group the ΔHeg of N is slightly exothermic process
(3) The electron affinity of Cl is highest among all element.
(4) Radius of Mg+2 is less than Li+

2) In the compound M–O–H, the M–O bond will ionise in aq. medium readily if:

(1) Δ(E.N.) of M and O < Δ (E.N.) of O and H

(2) Δ(E.N.) of M and O = Δ (E.N.) of O and H
(3) Δ(E.N.) of M and O > Δ (E.N.) of O and H
(4) Cannot be predicated

3) Total number of elements which have more ionization energy as compare to their next higher
atomic number elements. Li, Be, C, N, O, F, Ne

(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) 2
(4) 3

4) Incorrect order of atomic/ionic radius is :-

(1) F– > Ne > Na+

(2) P–3 > S–2 > K+
(3) Br– > S–2 > Cl– > F–
(4) Ni > Cu > Zn

5) What is the primary reason for the lanthanoid contraction?

(1) Addition of electrons in the 4f-orbitals without significant increase in shielding

(2) Increase in nuclear charge with no change in electron distribution
(3) Absence of f-orbitals in the lanthanoids
(4) Significant electron-electron repulsion in the 4f-orbitals

6) Successive ionisation energies of an element ‘x’ are given below (in [Link]) :-
IP1 IP2 IP3 IP4
165 195 556 595
Electronic configuration of the element ‘x’ is :-

(1) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p5

(2) 1s2, 2s1
(3) 1s2, 2s22p3
(4) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2
7) Which of the following element has highest value of Ionisation potential ?

(1) Ti
(2) Zr
(3) Hf
(4) None

8) Which of the following ionisation energy order is not correct?

(1) Mn+2 < Mn+3

(2) N–3 < N
(3) Cu+ < Cu+2
(4) Ne+ < Ne

9) Which is correct order of ionisation energy

(1) O– > O > S– > S

(2) O > S > S– > O–
(3) O > S > O– > S–
(4) O– > S– > O > S

10) Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Li shows similarity in properties with Mg

(2) Li, Na and K forms Doberenier’s Triads
(3) In the Lother Meyer’s curve alkaline earth metals occupy the ascending positions of the curve
(4) IUPAC name of the element having atomic number 112 is Uub.

11) Match column I (atomic number) with column II (position in the Periodic Table) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:

Column I Column II

I. 52 P. s-block

II. 56 Q. p-block

III. 57 R. d-block

IV. 60 S. f-block
(1) I–P, II–Q, III–S, IV–R
(2) I–Q, II–P, III–S, IV–R
(3) I–P, II–Q, III–R, IV–S
(4) I–Q, II-P, III-R, IV-S

12) The outer electronic configuration of an element in ground state is 5s24d105p3. The properties of
element is likely to be similar to that of
(1) Chlorine
(2) Sulphur
(3) Phosphorus
(4) Aluminium

13) Choose the compound in which ‘Cr’ atom has minimum atomic radii :

(1) Cr2O3
(2) CrO
(3) K2Cr2O7
(4) All molecule has same atomic radii of Cr

14) The 2nd ionisation potential of Mg is less than that of Na because

(1) Atomic size of Mg is less than that of Na.

(2) Atomic size of Mg is greater than that of Na.
2nd electron removal from Na occur from inert gas configuration, while the same for Mg results
(3)
inert gas configuration.
(4) Both are having same Zeff value for 3s electron.

15) Neutral oxide is :

(1) CO2
(2) N2O3
(3) N2O
(4) SO2

16) Which of the following has the same no. of electron in its outermost shell and penultimate shell?

(1) Al+3
(2) Ca+2
(3) F–
(4) N3–

17) General electronic configuration of Lanthanoids is -

(1) (n – 1)d1–10 (n + 1)s2, (n – 2)f1 – 14 n=5

(2) (n – 1)d1–10 (n + 1)f1–14, (n + 1)s2 n=5
1–14 0,1 2
(3) nf , (n + 1)d , (n + 2)s n=6
1–14 0,1 2
(4) nf , (n + 1)d , (n + 2)s n=4

18) Match group I and Group II and select the correct answer?

Group I Group II
 Correct order for 1st Ne < Be < B < Li <
A I
ionization enthalpy C

Correct order for

B negative value of electron II Be < B < C < N < O
gain enthalpy

Correct order for

C III B < Be < C < O < N
electronegativity
(1) A–I, B– II, C–III
(2) A–I, B–III, C–II
(3) A–III, B–II, C–I
(4) A–III, B–I, C–II

19) If an orbital can have three electrons then number of groups in d-block

(1) 3
(2) 15
(3) 9
(4) Can't be predicted

20) Correct statement is ?

(1) IP of F– > Cl–

(2) S(g) + e– —→ – Endothermic
(3) EN order : Cl > F > Br > I
(4) EA order : S > Se > Te > Po > O

21) Incorrect order of acidic strength is :-

(1) CrO < Cr2O3 < CrO3

(2) N2O < NO2 < N2O5
(3) H2SO3 < H2SO4
(4) HNO3 < HNO2

22) Which of the following process requires maximum amount of energy ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Which of the following order of ionic radius is correctly represented.

(1) Cl– > Cl+ > Cl

(2) P–3 > S–2 > Cl–
(3) N–3 > Na+ > O–2
(4) Al+3 > Mg+2 > Na+

24) Which of the following statement is not correct :-

(1) The electron affinity of 'Si' is greater than that of C

(2) BeO is amphoteric while B2O3 is acidic
(3) The ionisation energy of 'Tl' is less than that of Al
The ionisation energy of elements of 'Cu' group is less than that of the respective elements of
(4)
Zn-group

25) A scientist made a code using chemical symbols of periodic table "HeY BePoSiTiV". Number of
elements in which last electron enters into p-subshell is:

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 4

26) Which of the following order is correct for the property mentioned in brackets ?

(1) S2- > Cl- > K+ > Ca2+ (Ionisation energy)

(2) C < N < F < O (2nd Ionisation energy)
(3) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl (electronegativity)
(4) Na+ > Mg2+ >Be2+ >Al3+ (Ionic radius)

27) Which of following sequence of size is incorrect ?

(1) Ti < Zr Hf
(2) Be < Li < Mg < Na
(3) Li+ ≥ Mg+2
(4) K < Sr < Ba < Rb

28) Statement-1: The size of a cation is always smaller than its parent atom.
Statement-2: Removal of electron reduces the screening effect.

(1) Both statements are correct and statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1
Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct but statement-2 is not the correct explanation of
(2)
statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is correct
(4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect

29) Match the following electronic configurations with their properties :

(a) 2s22p6 (i) Smallest atomic radius

(b) 3s23p5 (ii) Highest IP
(c) 3s1 (iii) Highest EA
(d) 2s22p5 (iv) Most metallic
(1) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(3) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(4) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)

30) Find out True and False statement :-

(i) Zeff of Li+ > Zeff of B3+
(ii) σ of B < σ of C
(iii) Value of Zeff of mono electronic species is equal to number of protons.
(iv) Zeff is fundamental factor of period to explain properties of an element.

(1) F T F T
(2) F T T T
(3) F F T T
(4) T F F F

31)

Which of the following change is endothermic in nature ?

(1) O → O–
(2) N → N–
(3) P → P–
(4) Both (2) and (3)

32) If value of I.E. for 3 anions A–, B– & C– are 100, 50 & 150 KJ/mole respectively then find correct
order of E.A. of A,B,C. ?

(1) A > B > C

(2) A < B < C
(3) B > A > C
(4) B < A < C

33) The diagram below is a part of the skelton of the periodic tables in which elements are indicated
by letter which are not their usual symbols.

The correct option is :-

(1) 'D' has maximum electron affinity

(2) 'B' exist in nature in liquid state
(3) 'A' is a 5th pariod element in a periodic table
(4) 'E' exist as diatomic gas
34) Which Among the following factor is most important in making flourine as strong oxidising agent
:-

(1) Bond dissociation energy

(2) Ionisation energy
(3) Hydration enthalpy
(4) Electron Affinity

35) Which statement is false ?

(1) Distance between nucleus and outer most shell, increases down the group
(2) Zeff increases down the group
(3) Zeff increases in a period
(4) All of these

36) Select equation having exothermic step :-

(i) S–(g) —→ S–2(g)
(ii) Na+(g) —→ Na(s)
(iii) N(g) —→ N–(g)
(iv) Al+2(g) —→ Al+3(g)
Choose the correct code :-

(1) (ii)
(2) (i), (ii)
(3) (iii) & (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

37) The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be :

(1) –2.55 eV
(2) –5.1 eV
(3) –10.2 eV
(4) 5.1 eV

38) In which of the following process, Maximum amount of energy required ?

(1) F —→ F–
(2) O– —→ O2–
(3) Cl —→ Cl–
(4) Cl+ —→ Cl

39)

Among the following which is correct statements

(1) Successive de-electronation from an isolated atom leads to decrease z/e ratio
(2) Successive electronation to an isolated atom makes removal of electron difficult
(3) Successive de-electronation to an isolated atom makes removal of electron easier
(4) Successive electronation to an isolated atom makes further addition of electron difficult

40) Successive ionisation energies of an element A are 100, 150, 181, 2000, 2200 KJ/mol.
Then correct statement regarding A is :-

(1) Element 'A' may be metal

(2) Formula of oxide of A may be A2O3
(3) Oxide of element A may be amphoteric
(4) All are correct

41) Identify the correct match :-

(1) Eka Germanium = Silicon

(2) Eka Manganese = Technetium
(3) Eka Boron = Germanium
(4) Eka Gallium = Aluminium

42) The law of triads is applicable to :-

(1) Fe, Co, Ni

(2) Na, K, Rb
(3) Cl, Br, I
(4) Be, Ca, Sr

43) Number of d-electrons present in Ag47 is?

(1) 19
(2) 10
(3) 9
(4) 20

44) An element with atomic number 106 has been discovered recently. Which of the following
electronic configurations will it possess?

(1) [Rn] 5f14 6d4 7s2

(2) [Rn] 5f14 6d5 7s1
0
(3) [Rn] 5f14 6d6 7s
(4) [Rn] 5f14 6d1 7s2 7p3

45)

Statement-1: Among second period elements fluorine(F) has highest negative electron gain
enthalpy.
Statement-2: According to Mendeleev isotopes of an element have same position and chemical
properties in periodic table.
(1) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is incorrect
(2) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is correct
(4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect

BIOLOGY

1) If a cell has 14 chromosomes and 2C amount of DNA in G1 phase, then what will be the number of
chromatids and DNA amount respectively, after S phase?

(1) 14, 2C
(2) 28, 4C
(3) 14, 4C
(4) 7, 2C

2) During which phase of meiosis homologous chromosomes segregate?

(1) Prophase I
(2) Prophase II
(3) Anaphase I
(4) Anaphase II

3) Interphase :-

(1) includes karyokinesis and cytokinesis

also called as resting phase and also the preparatory phase for division in which cell undergoes
(2)
growth and DNA replication in an orderly manner
(3) is the shortest phase in which biomolecules are synthesized
(4) Lasts for 5% duration of the cell cycle

4) Identify the given diagram :-

Which statement is true for just the next stage of above diagram ?

(1) Homologous chromosomes separate.

(2) Sister chromatids separate.
(3) Nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear.
(4) The bivalent chromosomes align on the equator.

5)
Terminalization of chiasmata takes place in

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Pachytene

6) Identify the following diagram and select the correct option

(1) Early prophase

(2) Late prophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Telophase

7) Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis-I

(2) Centromere splits and chromatids separate in Anaphase-I
(3) Cell-growth results in disturbing the ratio between the nucleus and cytoplasm.
The homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their
(4)
centromeres in Anaphase-II

8) Centriole duplicates during

(1) Interphase
(2) Early prophase
(3) Late prophase
(4) Telophase

9) Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence :-

(I) Terminalization of chiasmata
(II) Crossing over
(III) Synapsis
(IV) Disjunction

(1) IV, III, II, I

(2) III, II, I, IV
(3) II, I, IV, III
(4) I, IV, III, II

10) The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of meiosis?

(1) Pachytene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

11) The beginning of diplotene is recognised by :-

Synapsis that is accompanied by the formation of complex structure called synaptonemal

(1)
complex
(2) Appearance of recombination nodules
(3) Crossing over
(4) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

12) The number of bivalents are 8 in prophase-I. What is the number of daughter chromosomes
during anaphase-II?

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 16
(4) 32

13) Cells of quiescent stage (G0) :-

a are metabolically inactive

b normally do not divide

c may divide depending on the requirement of the organism

(1) a only
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and c

14) Given below is the diagrammatic view of cell cycle indicating formation of two cells from one

cell, with its part labelled from A to E. Find out the

wrong statement

(1) In animal cell during "C", DNA replication and the centriole duplication occur in the nucleus.
(2) During "A", centrioles move towards opposite poles of the cell.
(3) During "D", nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters.
(4) In animal cells "B", is achieved by the appearance of the furrow in the plasma membrane.

15) Formation of liquid endosperm in coconut is due to :-

(1) Karyokinesis followed by cytokinesis

(2) Failure of karyokinesis, then followed by cytokinesis
(3) Karyokinesis occurs twice followed by single cycle of cytokinesis
(4) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis

16) Poleward movement of chromatids occurs in the phase of cell division, also characterised by:-

(1) Study of the shape of chromosome.

(2) Attachment of spindle fibres to centromere.
(3) Assemblage of nuclear envelope around the chromosome cluster.
(4) Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disintegrates.

17) In animal and plant cells, the division of cytoplasm is respectively:

(1) Centripetal and Centripetal

(2) Centrifugal and Centripetal
(3) Centripetal and Centrifugal
(4) Centrifugal and Centrifugal

18) All of the following are significance of mitosis except :

(1) Replacement of dead and damaged cells

(2) Growth and development of multicellular organisms
(3) Wound healing and regeneration
(4) Variation in sexually reproducing organisms

19) A cell divides every minute. At this rate of division it can fill a 100 ml of beaker in one hour. How
much time does it take to fill a 25 ml beaker?

(1) 15 minutes
(2) 58 seconds
(3) 58 minutes
(4) 59 minutes

20)

Select the correct option :-

 I II

(a) Synapsis pairs homologous chromosomes (i) Anaphase-II

(b) Synthesis of RNA and proteins (ii) Zygotene

(c) Action of enzyme recombinase (iii) G2-phase

(d) Centromeres do not split but chromosome move towards opposite poles (iv) Anaphase-I

(v) Pachytene

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) ii iii v iv
(2) i ii v iv
(3) ii iii iv v
(4) ii i iii iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) The three events (A, B and C) of cell cycle are given below in systematic way, select the correct
option which is suitable for event B :-

Options :-

(1) Division of centromere

(2) Movement of chromosomes towards cell equator
(3) Crossing over between non homologous chromosomes
(4) Activity of recombinase enzyme

22) Prophase–I of meiotic division is typically longer and more complex, it is subdivided into five
phases, on the basis of :-

(1) Staining
(2) Behaviour of chromosomes
(3) Duration
(4) Protein synthesis

23) In oocytes of some vertebrates which stage can last for months or years?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis
24) The stage between two meiotic divisions is called interkinesis and :-

(1) is long lived

(2) involves DNA replication and centriole duplication
(3) is short lived and followed by prophase II
(4) followed by prophase I

25) Which event is not common between interphase and interkinesis ?

(1) Growth in cell

(2) Enzyme synthesis
(3) DNA synthesis
(4) Protein synthesis

26) If in a cell 10 tetrads are present in prophase-I, then what will be the number of chromatids in
each cell during metaphase-II and anaphase-II respectively ?

(1) 20 and 20
(2) 10 and 10
(3) 10 and 20
(4) 40 and 40

27) Meiosis-II is equational division due to-

(1) pairing of homologous chromosomes

(2) number of chromosomes in parent and progeny cell is same
(3) number of chromosomes in progeny cell is reduced to half
(4) replication of DNA in interkinesis

28) Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of both DNA replication and nuclear division
(2) Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them
(3) A bivalent has two centromeres and four chromatids
Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing
(4)
organisms

29) Which one event restores the diploid phase in life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms?

(1) Meiosis
(2) Fertilisation
(3) Reductional division
(4) Amitosis

30) How many meiotic divisions are required to form 2000 seeds ?

(1) 2000
(2) 2500
(3) 4000
(4) 3000

31)

Read the following statements and select the appropriate option.

Assertion : Meiosis II is similar to mitosis.
Reason : Meiosis I can’t occur in haploid cells.

(1) Assertion is correct Reason is false

(2) Assertion & Reason both are false
(3) Assertion & Reason both are correct but reason does not explain assertion
(4) Assertion & Reason both are correct & reason also explains assertion

32) Which of the following is not related to significance of meiosis?

(1) Increase in genetic variability

(2) Constant chromosome number of species is achieved across generations
(3) Involved in evolution
(4) Restores nucleo - cytoplasmic ratio

33) The following graphs (A and B) depict changes in DNA content during cell cycle. Identify the

phases of cell division from A and B :-

(1) A → Meiosis–II, B → Meiosis–I

(2) A → Mitosis, B → Meiosis–I
(3) A → Meiosis–I, B → Mitosis
(4) A → Mitosis, B → Meiosis

34) Movement of homologous chromosomes towards opposite poles occur by shortening of spindle
fibre during

(1) Prophase
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-II
(4) Metaphase

35) Certain stages of cell division are represented by given figures. Identify them correctly
(1) A-Metaphase, B-Prophase-I, C-Anaphase
(2) A-Metaphase, B-Prophase-I, C-Anaphase-I
(3) A-Metaphase-I, B-Prophase-I, C-Anaphase-I
(4) A-Metaphase-I, B-Prophase, C-Anaphase

36) Read the statements carefully.

(a) Sister chromatids separate at Anaphase-I.
(b) Nuclear membrane & nucleolus disappear at the very beginning of prophase-II.
(c) At the ultimate end of meiosis, dyad of cells are formed.
(d) Meiosis occur in haploid cell
Among the above statements, how many are correct ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 0

37) With respect to metaphase, which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope marks its beginning

(2) Chromosomes are highly condensed
(3) A metaphase chromosome is made up of four sister chromatids held together by centromere
(4) Chromosomes lie at the equator of the cell

38) During Meiosis 1, in which stage synaptonemal complex formed?

(1) Pachytene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Leptotene

39) Cells in G0 phase:

(1) remain metabolically inactive

(2) enter the cell cycle
(3) suspend the cell cycle
(4) terminate the cell cycle

40) The stage during which four chromatids of each bivalent becomes distinct and clearly appear as
tetrad

(1) Diplotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Zygotene

41) Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/stages of cell cycle :-

Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle ?

(1) A – Cytokinesis
(2) B – Metaphase
(3) C – Karyokinesis
(4) D – Synthetic phase

42) Read the following statements and select the appropriate option.
Assertion :- Yeast can progress through the cell cycle in only about 90 minutes.
Reason :- Duration of cell cycle is constant in all organisms.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

43) Identify the following diagram-

(1) Transition to Metaphase (mitosis)

(2) Transition to Anaphase-II (meiosis)
(3) Transition to Metaphase-I (meiosis)
(4) Transition to Anaphase (mitosis)

44) During prophase which of the following occurs?

(1) Chromosomal material becomes tangled

(2) Centrosome duplication
(3) Condensation of chromosomal material
(4) Movement of both centriole at one pole of cell

45) Histon protein synthesis occurs in:-

(1) G1-phase
(2) S-phase
(3) M-phase
(4) Anaphase

46) Assertion (A): Zwitterionic form is one in which the monomeric unit of proteins exists as
electrically neutral moiety.
Reason (R): This is true for all amino acids that exist Zwitterion at same pH and temperature.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

47) In the primary structure of protein

(1) Left end represents → 1st amino acid (C-terminal amino acid)
(2) Right end represents → Last amino acid (N terminal amino acid)
(3) Left end represents → 1st amino acid (N-terminal amino acid)
(4) Right end represents → 1st amino acid (C-terminal amino acid)

48) The sequence of amino acids i.e. the positional information in a protein is represented by its :-

(1) Primary structure

(2) Secondary structure
(3) Tertiary structure
(4) Quaternary structure

49) Chemical structure of few molecules are given below. Identify these structure and select the
correct option given below.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

(1) A-is triglyceride and it is not a polymer

(2) B-is glycine and it is an optically active complex amino acid
(3) C-is 5 methyl uracil and is present in RNA
(4) D-is uracil and is found in DNA.

50) Which of the following is incorrect about glycogen?

(1) It is a stored form of glucose in animals

(2) In glycogen, the right end is reducing and the left end is non-reducing
(3) It is a branched polymer of glucose
(4) It is a stored form of glucose in plants

51) Assertion:- Biomolecules which are found in the acid insoluble fraction are considered as
macromolecules.
Reason:- Biomolecules found in acid insoluble fraction have molecular weight in range of ten
thousand dalton and above.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true statements but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

52) Following are statements with reference to 'lipid'. :

(a) Lipids have only saturated fatty acid
(b) Lipids do not form polymer
(c) Oils have lower melting point
(d) Chlolesterol is simple lipid
(e) Palmitic acid is polyunsaturated fatty acid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (b) and (e) only

53) What is correct about deoxy thymidine ?

(1) It is Nucleotide
(2) Ribose + Thymine
(3) Deoxyribose + Thymine + Phosphate
(4) It is nucleoside

54) Match the column I with column II and choose the correct answer :-

Column I (Organic compound) Column II (Example)

(A) Fatty acid (i) Tryptophan

(B) Complex polysaccharide (ii) Arachidonic acid

(C) Amino acid (iii) RuBisCO

(D) Protein (iv) Chitin

(1) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv

(2) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii
(3) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
(4) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv

55)

Read the following and find out the correct statement

(1) Tertiary structure is not necessary for the many biological activities
(2) Monomeric protein show only quaternary structure
(3) In proteins, only right handed helices are observed
(4) In solution of different pHs, the structure of amino acid does not change.

56)

Match the protein given in Column I with its function given in Column II and choose the right option.

Column - I (Proteins) Column - II (Functions)

A. Collagen I. Glucose transport
B. Trypsin II. Hormone
C. Insulin III. Intercellular ground substance
D. GLUT - 4 IV. Enzyme
(1) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(2) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(3) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
(4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

57) The long protein chain is also folded upon itself like a hollow wollen ball given rise to:

(1) Tertiary structure

(2) Secondary structure
(3) Quarternary structure
(4) Secondary helix
58) Identify the correct set of statements out of followings :
(a) Primary structure of protein is like a long straight chain
(b) Secondary structure of protein appear in zig-zag form.
(c) All tertiary structure of protein are insoluble in water
(d) A protein thread does exist throughout as an extended rigid rod.
Choose the correct answer from the given options below :

(1) a, b and d
(2) only a and b
(3) b, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d all

59) The most common bond present in both primary and tertiary structure of a protein is

(1) Hydrogen bond

(2) Disulphide bond
(3) Ionic bond
(4) Peptide bond

60) Consider the figure given below.

Identify the labeled bonds A and B and select the correct option.

(1) A-Hydrogen bond, B-Disulphide bond

(2) A-Hydrogen bond, B-Peptide bond
(3) A-Peptide bond, B-Hydrogen bond
(4) A-Disulphide bond, B-Hydrogen bond

61) Given structural formula is correctly identified alongwith its related function by which of the

following options ?

(1) Cholesterol – A component of animal cell membrane

(2) Lecithin – A component of plant cell membrane
(3) Triglyceride – An energy source
(4) Adenosine – A component of nucleic acids

62) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement :-

(1) Secondary metabolites are found in plant, fungal and microbial cells.
 Many secondary metabolites like rubbers, drugs, spices, scents and pigments are useful to
(2)
human welfare.
(3) Some secondary metabolites have ecological significance.
(4) Flavonoids, antibiotics, coloured pigments and lecithin are secondary metabolites.

63) One of the following is almost not found in living organisms –

(1) Si
(2) Mg
(3) Ca
(4) S

64) There is one feature common to all these compounds found in the acid soluble pool. They have
molecular weight ranging from :

(1) 180 to 1800 dalton

(2) 18 to 8000 dalton
(3) 18 to 800 dalton
(4) 1800 to 18000 dalton

65) Match the Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-II

a. Lectin i. Saturated fatty acid

b. Glycerol ii.

c. α-amino acid iii. Trihydroxy propane

d. Palmitic acid iv. Concanavalin A

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii

66) Match the following with their suitable groups.

Column-A Column-B

(a) Drugs (i) Morphine

(b) Toxins (ii) Lemon grass oil

(c) Terpenoides (iii) Abrin

(d) Alkaloids (iv) Vinblastin

 (v) Diterpenes
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-i
(2) a-v, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-iii

67) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

The acid insoluble fraction, has only four types of organic compounds, proteins, polysaccharides
(1)
nucleic acid and lipids
(2) Chemical compounds found in living organisms are of two types, acid soluble and acid insoluble
(3) The compounds which are found in the acid insoluble fraction are called micromolecules
(4) The acid soluble pool represents roughly the cytoplasmic composition

68) Maltose is a disaccharide that can easily be digested into glucose molecules. The glycosidic
linkage between glucose molecules in maltose is ________.

(1) β 1 - 4
(2) α 1 - 2
(3) α 1 - 4
(4) β 1 - 2

69) Primary structure of protein is due to the presence of ______.

(1) hydrogen bonds

(2) peptide bonds
(3) – S – S – linkages
(4) ionic bonds

70) Triglycerides are made up of

(1) 2 fatty acids + 2 glycerol molecules

(2) 3 fatty acids + 2 glycerol molecules
(3) 3 fatty acids + 1 glycerol molecule
(4) 1 fatty acids + 3 glycerol molecules

71) Identify A and B bonds in the following diagrammatic representation of a portion of glycogen.
(1) A = 1-4 α-glycosidic bonds, B = 1-6 α-glycosidic bonds
(2) A = 1-6 α-glycosidic bonds, B = 1-4 α-glycosidic bonds
(3) A = 1-1 α-glycosidic bonds, B = 1-1 α-glycosidic bonds
(4) A = 1-4 α-glycosidic bonds, B = 1-4 α-glycosidic bonds

72) Read the given statements and select the correct option.
(i) Right end of a polysaccharide chain is called reducing end while left end is called non-reducing
end.
(ii) Starch can hold iodine molecules in its helical secondary structure but cellulose being non-
helical, cannot hold iodine.
(iii) Cellulose and glycogen are branched molecules.
(iv) Starch and glycogen are the reserve food materials of plants and animals, respectively.

(1) Statements (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

(2) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(3) Only statement (iv) is correct.
(4) All statements are correct.

73) Which of the following is a part of macromolecular fraction but not macromolecule?

(1) Protein
(2) Lipid
(3) Nucleic acid
(4) Polysaccharides

74) Arachidonic acid has :-

(1) 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon

(2) 18 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon
(3) 16 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon
(4) 22 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon

75)

CH3(CH2)14 –COOH is the formula of :-

(1) Glutamic acid
(2) Palmitic acid
(3) Stearic acid
(4) Valine

76) The most abundant protein in animal world is

(1) Chitin
(2) Collagen
(3) Peptidoglycan
(4) Hyaluronic acid

77) Choose the odd one w.r.t aromatic amino acids

(1) Tryptophan
(2) Phenylalanine
(3) Tyrosine
(4) Glycine

78) Which of the following content is present in acid soluble pool ?

(1) RNA
(2) Cellulose
(3) Glucose
(4) Protein

79) Most abundant and least abundant element in earth crust are respectively -

(1) O and Si
(2) Si and O
(3) S and N
(4) O and N

80) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

a. Water i. 3%

b. Protein ii. 70-90%

c. Carbohydrates iii. 2%

d. Lipids iv. 5-7%

e. Nucleic acids v. 10-15%

(1) a-(v), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv), e-(i)
(2) a-(ii), b-(v), c-(i), d-(iii), e-(iv)
(3) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(v), e-(ii)
(4) a-(v), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii), e-(i)

81) Which of the following is true about chitin and cellulose?

Chitin and cellulose are both homopolymers, but cellulose is found in the exoskeletons of
(1)
arthropods.
(2) Chitin is found in plant cell walls, while cellulose is found in animal exoskeletons.
(3) Chitin contains amino-sugars, while cellulose is made of glucose units only.
(4) Chitin is a simpler polysaccharide compared to cellulose.

82) A homopolymer has only one type of building block called monomer repeated ‘n’ number of
times. A heteropolymer has more than one type of monomer. Proteins are heteropolymers made of
amino acids. While a nucleic acid like DNA or RNA is made of only 4 types of nucleotide monomers,
proteins are made of

(1) 20 types of monomers

(2) 40 types of monomers
(3) 30 types of monomers
(4) 50 types of monomer

83)

All the following statements about the cellulose are correct except :-

(1) Cellulose is a homopolymer

(2) It contain β(1-4) glycosidic linkage
(3) Cellulose is used for formation of paper
(4) Cellulose gives blue-black colour with iodine solution

84) A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose; if the formula for
glucose is C6H12O6 then what should be the formula of maltose?

(1) C12H22O11
(2) C12H24O11
(3) C12H20O10
(4) C12H24O12

85) Identify the given compound:

(1) Lecithin
(2) Cellulose
(3) Fatty acid
(4) Triglyceride

86) The organic compound ‘X’ that is 5-7% of the total cellular mass in living organisms, constitute
monomeric units that are joined together with the help of

(1) Phosphodiester bonds

(2) Peptide bonds
(3) Glycosidic bonds
(4) Hydrogen bonds

87) Given below are the diagrammatic representations of organic compounds in living tissue

A B

C D

When one has to perform a chemical analysis, which of the following organic compounds will be
present in filtrate ?
(1) A, B and E
(2) A, B and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) C and E

88) Recognise the figure and find out the correct statement. :-
(1) This compound is a nucleoside called adenosine
(2) This compound is a nucleoside called adenylic acid
(3) This compound is a nucleotide called adenosine
(4) This compound is a nucleotide called adenylic acid

89) How many of the following statements are correct ?

A - Tyrosine is an aromatic amino acid.
B - The structure of amino acids changes in solutions of different pH.
C - The side group in alanine is –CH3 .
D - Amino acid is a substituted methane

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Assertion : Haemoglobin is the example of quaternary structure of protein.

Reason : Haemoglobin consist of 4-subunits (two α-types and two β-types)

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 2 4 1 4 3 1 3 3 4 4 2 3 3 2 3 2 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 4 4 2 3 1 4 4 4 2 2 3 4 1 4 3 3 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 2 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 4 4 1 4 3 4 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 2 4 4 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 2 3 3 2 4 1 2 2 2 4 1 3 2 1 2 2 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 4 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 1 2 1 4 3 3 1 4 1 3 4 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 3 3 3 1 2 1 2 2 3 4 4 2 3 4 3 2 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 1 1 4 1 3 4 2 3 1 1 2 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 1 3 1 1 3 3 2 3 1 1 2 1 2 2 4 3 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 4 1 1 1 2 4 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

∵ 2πr × N = v × t
∴ 2π × 5 × N = 7π × 5
∴ N = 3.5 rev.

So,

2) ,

3)

Vavg =

Vavg = = 6 m/min.

4)

If velocity is zero at particular instant then acceleration can be non zero.

Ex. : If particle is projected upwards then at highest point velocity is zero but acceleration is g
downwards.

5)

∴ <a>= Δv/Δt
= Δv = 2v and Δt = πR/v

= <a> = 2v2/10π = 200/10π =

6)

Here average acceleration =

But we can't say certainly that body have uniform acceleration.

7)

∵ Snth = u +

∴ 65 = u +

∴u+ ............(1)

and u + ............(2)
from equation (1) and equation (2) :
u = 20 m/s & a = 10 m/s2

∴ S20 = 20 × 20 + × (20)2 = 2400 m

8)

Urel = V1 – V2 , Vrel = 0, arel = –a

∴ Vrel = Urel + arelt

∴ 0 = (V1 – V2) – axt, ∴

9)

9=

v = 300 cm/s

10)

Both magnitude and direction of velocity changes and path of particle is parabolic.

11)

∵ S6 = 2S6th

∴
∴ 6u – 180 = 2u – 110
∴ 4u = 70
∴ u = 17.5 m/s

12) stopping distance

S2 = 32 m

13)

ST = = 30 u

SC = u × 10 + u × 10 +
= 20 u + 150
∵ ST = SC ∴ 30 u = 20 u + 150
∴ 10 u = 150 ∴ u = 15 m/s

14)

S1 = for 2nd particle

2 2
v = 10 v = u + 2a s
25+5=30m 0 = 100 – 20 s
s=5

15)

H=5=
⇒

time to reach at maximum height =

No of ball thrown per minute = 60

16)

t = 4s
17)

18)
= 15 m/s2

19) = Area under a–s graph = 32

V=

20)

Velocity increases till fuel apply thrust (i.e. acceleration)

21) x = 8 – 4t + 6t2

∴v= = – 4 + 12t ∴ v = 12t – 4

This equation a straight line, in which slope is positive and C is negative, so

22) From 0 to t1, acceleration is increasing linearly with time; hence, v-t graph should be
parabolic upwards.
From t1 to t2, acceleration is decreasing linearly with time; hence, the v – t graph should be
parabolic downwards.

23) Let the velocity of the scooter be v m s–1.

Then (v – 10) 100 = 1000 or v = 20 m s–1.
24)

25)

Given that t2 – t1=6 ...(1)

We know that t1 + t2 = 12 = T(Total time) ...(2)
From (1) and (2)
t2 – t1 = 6s t2 = 9
t1 + t2 = 12 t1 = 3

Also,
9 × 3 = 2h/10
h = 135 m

26) t2 = ⇒ x = a + bt2
⇒ constant accelerated motion

27)

u=

28)
1/2
s = kt

As t increases, the retardation decreases.

29)

30)

31)
∵ s = ut + at2

∴ – 200 = u × 8 – × 10 × (8)2
∴ u = 15 m/s

32)

33)

∵ S = ut + at2 ∴S= gt2

∴ Separation S = S1 – S2 =

∴S=

34)

t = 2,4,6 & 8 sec

Slope = 0 ⇒ V = 0
VAV (2s to 6s) = 0 (displacement = 0)

35)

36) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part I, Page No.76

37) If a stone is dropped from height h

then ...(i)
If a stone is thrown upward with velocity u then

...(ii)
If a stone is thrown downward with velocity u then

...(iii)
From (i) (ii) and (iii) we get

...(iv)

...(v)
Dividing (iv) and (v) we get
or
By solving

38) If the body starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration then the ratio of
distances in consecutive equal time interval

39)

40)

xn = u + (a/2)(2n–1)

41) 5th half sec. at t = 2.5 s

ΔS = 2.25 m

42) v2 = 4 x
 ac = 2
v = 0 + act

43)

∵ Retardation = constant.

∴ ∴ N = 4.3
So, No. of planks required = 5

44) Velocity at t = 10 sec.

∴ v = 0 + 10 × 2 = 20 m/s

distance =
= 750 m

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Which of the following statement is Incorrect?

(B) Among 15th group the ΔHeg of N is sliggtly exothermic process.
⇓
Incorrect
–
N + e → N– ΔHeg = (+)ve
endothermic process
because ≃ ΔHeg –E.A.
E.A of N = Negative
So ΔHeg = Positive
47) With increasing in electronegative difference ionisation occur radily.

48)

49)

Ni < Cu < Zn

50) Addition of electrons in the 4f-orbitals without significant increase in shielding

51)

Valence e– = z

52) Due to lanthanide contraction

IP of 5d > IP of 4d.

53)

I.E. Ne < Ne+ as successive I.E. always ↑

54)
EA of Neutral Atom = IP of Anion

55)

56)

57)
58)

59)

60)

N2O neutral oxide

61)

62)

ns(n–2)f (n–1)d np

63)

Concept

64)

Concept

67)

68) Ionic radius

-ve charge → For Isoelectronic species
+ve charge → For same Atom of diff

69) Ionisation energy of Tℓ is higher than Aℓ

70) Option (3) is correct

71)

72)

NCERT - XI, Pg.# 81, Part - 1

Chapter - periodic table

73)

Removal of electron from an atom reduces the inter-electronic repulsion and thus the
screening effect or the shielding effect decreases. As a result, the nuclear force of attraction
increases and size decreases

74)

NCERT-XI, Part-I, Pg # 82, Para.-3.7.1(d)

75) (i) Zeff of Li+ > Zeff of B+3 (False)

Zeff ∝ +ive charge

(ii) σ of B < σ of C (True)
across the pd σ↑
(iii) Correct statement as no σ is present.
(iv) Correct statement

76)

N – N–, endothermic due to 2p3 stable conf.

77)

NCERT-XI, Part-I, Pg # 82, Para.-3.7.1(d)

78)

79)

Due to min. size.

 80) In general zeff remains constant in group

81)

82)

Na(g) + 5.1 eV → Na+(g) + 1e

Na+(g) + 1e → Na(g), ΔHeg = –5.1 eV

83) O– + e– —→ O2– endothermic other's exothermic.

84)

Option (4) is correct

85)

86) Eka Manganese = Technetium

87) Law of triad is applicable when :-

(i) Triad elements belong to same group
(ii) Difference in atomic number between consecutive triad elements is same

88) Option (4) is correct

89) In heavier elements, Hund’s rule is not always followed, i.e., option (1) is correct.

90)

Option (1) is correct

BIOLOGY

91) Chromosome number doesn't increase but DNA content increases after S phase.

92)
NCERT-XI Pg#127

93)

NCERT Pg # 163

94)

Explain Question : The question gives a cell division diagram (likely from meiosis) and asks
which statement is true for the next stage after the given diagram.
Concept : This question is based on Meiosis : telophase
Explanation :
Homologous chromosomes separate – This is correct for anaphase-I, which comes after
metaphase-I. Next stage is telophase ITelophase I :- Nuclear membrane and nucleolus
reappear – Happens in telophase I.
Final answer : 3

95)

NCERT-XI, Pg#169-170, Fig.-10.3, 10.4

96) NCERT XI Pg. # 165

97) NCERT Pg No. 167, 169, Para-10.3, 10.4.1

98) NCERT Pg. # 163

99) NCERT-XI, Pg # 168

100) NCERT-XI, Pg # 168

101) NCERT-XI, Pg-168

102) Module No-6, P. No # 230

103) NCERT XI Pg # 164

104) NCERT Pg. # 163

105)

Explain Question : This question asks about the cell division pattern that leads to the
formation of liquid endosperm in coconut.
Concept : This question is based on cytokinesis
Explanation : In coconut, the liquid part (coconut water) is the free-nuclear endosperm,
formed when karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis. This allows nuclei to remain in a
shared cytoplasm. Later, the outer part may become cellular (coconut meat).
Final answer : 4

106)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 124

107)

NCERT Pg # 166

108) NCERT XIth Pg.#167

109) Explanation

A. The 100 mL beaker is filled in 60 minutes.

B. The 50 mL mark is reached at 59 minutes.

C. The 25 mL mark is reached at 58 minutes.

Correct Answer: 3 (58 minutes)

110) NCERT Pg. # 168

111)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

112) NCERT Pg. # 168

113)

Question Explanation: Identifying the prolonged meiotic stage in oocytes.

Concept: Meiosis in Oogenesis.

Solution:
During diplotene (which is part of prophase I of meiosis), the oocyte undergoes a prolonged
resting phase. This phase can last a significant amount of time in many vertebrates,
particularly in species where the eggs are held in a state of suspended development until
 triggered by hormonal signals or environmental factors to resume development.

Final Answer: 3

114) Question Explanation:

We need to identify the correct statement about interkinesis.

Concept : Meiosis – Interkinesis

Interkinesis is the stage between meiosis I and meiosis II.

Explanation :

A. It is short-lived

B. No DNA replication occurs

C. It is followed by prophase II

Hence, the correct statement is option 3.

Final Answer: Option (3)

115) Explain the Question : The question asks which event does not occur in both interphase
(before meiosis I or mitosis) and interkinesis (between meiosis I and meiosis II).
Concept : This question based on Interphase , Interkinesis
Explanation :
Interphase involves G₁, S, and G₂ phases, where DNA replication occurs in S-phase.
Interkinesis is a short rest period between meiosis I and II — it lacks DNA replication (no S-
phase), but growth, enzyme synthesis, and protein synthesis can still [Link] synthesis –
Does not occur in interkinesis; only in interphase S-phase.
Final Answer : Option 3 – DNA synthesis

116) Explanation:
If in a cell 10 tetrads are present in prophase-I, then what will be the number of chromatids in
each cell during metaphase-II and anaphase-II respectively ?

Solution:
• If there are 10 tetrads in Prophase -I it means there are 10 pair of homologous
chromosomes, and each tetrad consists of 4 chromatids (2 from each homologous
chromosome).
• The question asks about the number of chromatids in each cell during Metaphase- II and
Anaphase- II.

Hence,
Correct option: (1) 20 and 20
117) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 170 (Figure 10.4)
In meiosis-II, separation of sister chromatids during anaphase-II is responsible for the
maintenance of same number of chromosomes in daughter cell (i.e. cell after meiosis-II) as
compare to mother cells (i.e. cell after meiosis-I).

118) XI NCERT, Eng. Page - 167

XI NCERT, िहदी पे ज - 167 & 168

119) NCERT-XI Pg. # 167, IIIrd para VII line

120)

Question explanation
The question is asking how many meiotic divisions are needed to produce 2000 seeds.

Concept
Meiosis and gamete formation

Solution
In plants, one meiotic division produces 4 megaspores, but usually only 1 develops into a
functional egg.
If each seed requires 1 egg, the total meiotic divisions needed = 2000 × (4/3) = 2500.
Final answer
Option 2

121)

Question Explanation
The question is asking to evaluate the correctness of the assertion and reason and whether the
reason explains the assertion.

Concept
Meiosis II

Solution
Meiosis II is similar to mitosis because sister chromatids separate without reduction in
chromosome number, so the assertion is correct. Meiosis I requires homologous chromosome
pairing and therefore cannot occur in haploid cells, so the reason is also correct. However, this
reason does not explain why meiosis II is similar to mitosis.

Final answer: Option 3

122) Ncert Pg No: 128

123) A → Mitosis, B → Meiosis

 124)

NCERT XI [Link].169

125) NCERT Page No.169

126) NCERT PG. 168-169

127)

Question Explanation:

Identifying incorrect statement about metaphase.

Concept:

Mitosis - Metaphase stage

Solution:

Metaphase chromosomes are made up of two sister chromatids, not four.

These two sister chromatids are held together by the centromere.
The statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct descriptions of the events in metaphase.

Final Answer:

Metaphase chromosomes are made up of four sister chromatids held together by centromere

128)

Correct answer: Option 2 - Zygotene

Explanation:

A. Leptotene (Option 4) → Chromosomes start condensing, but no pairing occurs yet.

B. Zygotene (Option 2) → Synapsis begins, where homologous chromosomes pair up and form the
synaptonemal complex.
C. Pachytene (Option 1) → Crossing over occurs, but synapsis is already completed.
D. Diplotene (Option 3) → Homologous chromosomes begin separating, and chiasmata become
visible.

Conclusion:

A. Synapsis (pairing of homologous chromosomes) occurs in the Zygotene stage of Meiosis-I.

129)

SOLUTION—

Cells in the G0 phase of the cell cycle suspend the cell cycle.

The correct answer is: OPTION(3)suspend the cell cycle

130)

SOLUTION—The stage during which separation of paired homologous chromosomes begins is

Diplotene. During this stage, the synaptonemal complex dissolves, and homologous
chromosomes begin to separate, remaining connected only at chiasmata.

131)

SOLUTION —
Therefore, in the schematic break-up of the cell cycle, "D" indicates the S phase or synthetic
phase, where DNA replication takes place.

The correct answer is: OPTION(4) D-Synthetic phase

132)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 121

133)

Question Explanation: Identifying a specific phase of cell division.

Concept: Mitosis and Meiosis

Solution: The diagram shows homologous chromosomes separating and moving towards
opposite poles, a key characteristic of anaphase I of meiosis. The chromosomes are still
composed of two sister chromatids. This image doesn't match the options provided. However,
the image shows homologous chromosomes separating, which is the key characteristic of
Anaphase I of Meiosis. Out of the given options, the closest and most plausible answer is
'Transition to Anaphase (mitosis)'. In this image, the chromosomes are not arranged on a
metaphase plate, and they are shown separating, so the image can be classified as Anaphase.
Although it's Meiosis-I, based on the provided options the best choice is option 4.

Final Answer: Transition to Anaphase (mitosis).

134)

Condensation of chromosomal material

135)

Correct option is 2.

137)

Left end represents → 1st amino acid (N-terminal amino acid)

138)
 142) NCERT Pg. # 106

143)

NCERT XII Pg. # 96

146) Question Explanation:

Proteins have diverse functions, including structural suppor, enzymatic activity, hormone
regulation, and transport.

Solution:
III (Intercellular ground substance) (Structural protein in connective tissues)

A. Typsin - IV (Enzyme) (Digestive enzyme that breaks down proteins)

B. Insulin - II (Hormone) (Regulates blood glucose levels)
C. Glut - 2 - I (Glucose transport) (Facilitates glucose uptake into cells)

Hecne,
Correct Option:1

147) Tertiary structure

149) Peptide bond

150) A-Hydrogen bond, B-Disulphide bond

151)

The correct answer is 1. Cholesterol - A component of animal cell membrane.

The structural formula shown is characteristic of cholesterol, a vital component of animal cell
membranes.

152) NCERT Pg.#146

153) Concept:
Trace Elements: Silicon is found in trace amounts in some organisms.
Explanation:
Silicon (Si): While silicon is abundant in the Earth's crust, it's present in very low
concentrations in most living organisms. It's found in some organisms like diatoms and certain
plants, but it's not a major component of most living tissues.
Final Answer:
1. Si
154) NCERT-XI, Pg # 147

155)

Explaining the Question :-

Match column-I and Column-II.
Concept:- Lipids / Fat
Solution :- → Lectin → Concanavalin – A
→ Glycerol → Trihydroxy propane

→ a-Amino acid →
→ Palmitic acid → Saturated fatty acids
Final Answer :- (1)

156)

a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-i

158)

α1-4

159) Solution : Proteins are polypeptide. A polypeptide is formed of a linear row of amino
acids joined by peptide bonds. This constitutes the primary structure (1°).
Final Answer : (2)

160) 3 fatty acids + 1 glycerol molecule

161)

A = 1-4 α-glycosidic bonds, B = 1-6 α-glycosidic bonds

162)

Statements (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

163) NCERT Pg # 109

165)

Explaining the Question :-

CH3(CH2)14–COOH
Concept:- Lipids
Solution :- Palmitic Acid = 16 Carbons
Final Answer :- Option (2)

166) Because chitin, peptidoglycan and hyaluronic acid, are polysaccharide, not protein.

167)

Correct option 4

168)

The correct answer is 3

(Glucose).Glucose: Glucose is a simple sugar and a small molecule. It is readily soluble in acid.

169)

Allen Module Page No. 254

170) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 109
Water – 70-90%
Protein – 10-15%
Nucleic acids – 5-7%
Carbohydrates – 3%
Lipids – 2 %
Ions – 1%
Final Answer : (2)

171) Solution: Chitin is a complex polysaccharide that contains amino-sugars (like

glucosamine), while cellulose is a simpler homopolymer made only of glucose monomers.
Both serve structural roles but in different organisms (cellulose in plants and chitin in
arthropods).
Final Answer : (3)

172) Ncert page 109.

174)

Concept :
A dehydration reaction and formation of disaccharides (Like maltose)

Explanation
Two glucose molecules combine to give C12H22O11 after the removal of one water molecule
(H2O).
Final Answer : (1)

178)

Question Explanation: The structure contains adenine (base), ribose (sugar), and a
phosphate group, making it a nucleotide, not a nucleoside.

Explanation: Since it includes a phosphate group, the correct name is adenylic acid (AMP -
Adenosine Monophosphate).

Answer: Option (4) : "This compound is a nucleotide called adenylic acid."

179)

NCERT [Link] 143

180) NCERT XI Page No. # 150