16-08-2026

6001CMD30302226009 MD

PHYSICS

1) The hard ferromagnetic material is characterized by :-

(1) Narrow hysteresis loop

(2) Broad hysteresis loop
(3) High mechanically hardness, all over
(4) Mechanically hard surface

2)

Which of the following statements is correct for diamagnetic materials :-

(1)
(2) is negative and low
(3) does not depend on temperature
(4) All of the above

3) Which of the following statements is correct for ferromagnetic material :-

(1) These become diamagnetic at Curie temperature

(2) These become paramagnetic at Curie temperature
(3) Their magnetic susceptibility becomes zero at Curie temperature
(4) Its magnetic properties are explained on the basis of electron principle

4) The correct measure of magnetic hardness of a material is :-

(1) Ramnant magnetism

(2) Hysteresis loss
(3) Coercivity
(4) Curie temperature

5) If the relative permeability of a material is 0.9999 then its nature will be :-

(1) Paramagnetic
(2) Diamagnetic
(3) Ferromagnetic
(4) Non-magnetic

6) For paramagnetic materials magnetic susceptibility is related with temperature as :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) The material of permanent magnet has

(1) High retentivity, low coercivity

(2) Low retentivity, high coercivity
(3) Low retentivity, low coercivity
(4) High retentivity, high coercivity

8) Which statement is true :

(1) atomic magnetic dipole moment of diamagnet is zero

(2) atomic magnetic dipole moment of paramagnet is zero
(3) atomic magnetic dipole moment of ferromagnet is zero
(4) ferromagnet is demagnetised rapidly after moving in magnetising field.

9) Relation between and will be :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A solenoid have the self inductance 2H. If length of the solenoid is doubled having turn density
and area constant then new self inductance is :-

(1) 4H
(2) 1H
(3) 8H
(4) 0.5H

11) A coil having an area of 2 m2 is placed in a magnetic field which changes from 1 Weber/m2 to 4
Weber/m2 in 2 seconds. The e.m.f. induced in the coil will be :-

(1) 4 volt
(2) 3 volt
(3) 2 volt
(4) 1 volt

12) The current flows from A to B as shown in the figure. The direction of the induced current in the
loop is :-
(1) Clockwise
(2) Anticlockwise
(3) Straight line
(4) No current

13) The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount in a time The
total quantity of electric charge Q that passes any point in the circuit during the time is
represented by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A constant current i is maintained in a solenoid. Which of the following quantities will not
increase if an iron rod is inserted in the solenoid along its axis ?

(1) Magnetic field at the centre

(2) Magnetic flux linked with the solenoid
(3) Self-inductance of the solenoid
(4) Rate of Joule heating

15) Magnetic flux ϕ (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance 10 ohm varies with time t (in sec)
according to the equation . What is the magnitude of the induced current at t = 0.25
s?

(1) 1.2 A
(2) 0.8 A
(3) 0.6 S
(4) 0.2 A

16) The loops A and B, when both are moved (see figure) near a current carrying wire. Then
direction of induced current in A and B are

(1) No current, clockwise

(2) No current, anticlockwise
(3) Anticlockwise, clockwise
(4) Clockwise, anticlockwise

17) A uniform but time-varying magnetic field B(t) exists within a circular region of radius 'a' and is
directed into the plane of the paper as shown in figure. The magnitude of the induced electric field

at the point P at a distance 'r' from the centre of the circular region :-

(1) Is zero

(2)
E∝
(3) E ∝ r

(4)
E∝

18) A circular ring of diameter 20 cm has a resistance 0.01 ohm. How much charge will flow through
the ring if it is rotated from position perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field of B = 2 T to a
position parallel to field ?

(1) 4 C
(2) 6.28 C
(3) 3.14 C
(4) 25.12 C

19) A conducting loop of radius R is present in a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular the plane of
the ring. If radius R varies as a function of time ‘t’, as R = R0 + t. The e.m.f induced in the loop is :-
(1) 2π(R0 + t)B clockwise
(2) π(R0 + t)B clockwise
(3) 2π(R0 + t)B anticlockwise
(4) Zero

20) A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic field which is directed into the paper. The
magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate. The directions of induced current in wires AB and CD

are :-

(1) B to A and D to C
(2) A to B and C to D
(3) A to B and D to C
(4) B to A and C to D

21) A coil having an area A0 is placed in a magnetic field which changes from B0 to 4B0 in time
interval t. The emf induced in the coil will be :-

(1) 3A0B0/t
(2) 4A0B0/t
(3) 3B0/A0t
(4) 4B0/A0t

22) If current in vertical coil increases with respect to time find the direction of induced current in

Horizontal coil as seen above the coil.

(1) Zero
(2) Clockwise
(3) Anticlockwise
(4) None of the above
23) Graph between magnetic flux and time is given then find induced emf

(1) 5V
(2) 10V
(3) 20V
(4) 0

24) A vertical bar magnet is dropped from position on the axis of a fixed metallic coil as shown in
figure (i). In figure (ii) the magnet is fixed and horizontal coil is dropped. The acceleration of the

magnet and coil are a1 and a2 respectively then :-

(1) a1 > g , a2 > g

(2) a1 > g , a2 < g
(3) a1 < g , a2 < g
(4) a1 < g , a2 > g

25) A copper ring and a wooden ring of the same dimensions are placed so that there is the same
changing magnetic flux through each. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the induced
electric field?

(1) It is same in both the rings

(2) It is more in copper ring than wooden ring
(3) It is more in wooden ring than copper ring
(4) It is zero in both the ring

26) Faraday law represents :-

(1) relation between I and B

(2) relation between magnetic force and magnetic field
(3) relation between e.m.f and rate of change of flux
(4) none of these

27) A metallic ring with a cut is held horizontally and a magnet is allowed to fall vertically through
the ring, then the acceleration of the magnet is :-

(1) equal to 'g'

(2) less than 'g'
(3) more than 'g'
(4) some times less and some times more than 'g'

28) A solenoid wound over a rectangular frame. If all the linear dimensions of the frame are
increased by a factor 3 and the number of turns per unit length remains the same, the self
inductance increased by a factor of :-

(1) 3
(2) 9
(3) 27
(4) 63

29) Assertion : Only a change in magnetic flux will maintain an induced current in the coil.
Reason : The presence of large magnetic flux through a coil maintains a current in the coil if the
circuit is continuous.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

30) Which statement is correct related to induced electric field due to changing magnetic flux

(1) It always varies with time

(2) It is non-conservative
(3) It forms closed loop
(4) Both (2) and (3)

31) As a result of change in the magnetic flux linked to the closed loop an emf 2V is induced in loop.
The work done (in joule) in taking a change 2C once along the loop is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

32) The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of induced emf with

the time would be -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The unit of magnetic flux in SI unit is

(1) Weber
(2) Gauss
(3) Orested
(4) Tesla

34) The current flowing in two coaxial coils in the same direction. On increasing the distance
between the two, the electric current will :-

(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain unchanged
(4) The information is incomplete

35) A horizontal loop abcd is moved across the pole pieces of a magnet as shown in fig. with a
constant speed v. When the edge ab of the loop enters the pole pieces at time t = 0 sec. Which one
of the following graphs represents correctly the induced e.m.f. in the coil :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Flux linked through following coils changes with respect to time then for which coil an e.m.f. is
not induced:-

(1) Copper coils

(2) Wood coil
(3) Iron coil
(4) None

37) Magnetic flux ϕ (in Weber) linked with a closed circuit of resistance 10 ohm varies with time t (in
seconds) as ϕ = 5t2 – 4t + 1. The induced emf in the circuit at t = 0.2 sec. is :–

(1) 0.4 V
(2) – 0.4 V
(3) – 2.0 V
(4) 2.0 V

38) B is changing at constant rate in cylindrical region of radius R. Induced electric field at distance

r from axis is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Assertion : Induced electric field lines form closed loops in space.
Reason : Induced electric field lines do not originate & terminate at charged particle.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

40) Assertion : The possibility of an electric bulb fusing is higher at the time of switch OFF.
Reason : Inductive effects produce a surge at the time of switch-off.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

41) If ar and at represents radial and tangential acceleration, the motion of a particle will be circular
if :-
(i) ar = 0 and at = 0
(ii) ar = 0 but at ≠ 0
(iii) ar ≠ 0 but at = 0
(iv) ar ≠ 0 and at ≠ 0

(1) (i, iii)

(2) (ii, iii)
(3) (iii, iv)
(4) (ii, iv)

42)

A fighter plane is moving in a vertical circle of radius 'r'. Its minimum velocity at the highest point of
the circle will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

43) A particle is moving around a circular path with uniform angular speed . The radius of the
circular path is r. The acceleration of the particle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

44) In uniform circular motion, the velocity vector and acceleration vector are

(1) Perpendicular to each other

(2) In same direction
(3) In opposite direction
(4) Not related to each other

45) A body of mass m is moving in a circle of radius r with a constant speed v. The force on the

body is and is directed towards the centre. What is the work done by this force in moving the
body over half the circumference of the circle -

(1)

(2) Zero

(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Choose the best synthesis of Phenyl n-propyl ether :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Identify the end product (y) of the following sequence of reaction :-

(y)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
3) In the given reaction

(a) + (b) (a) and (b) respectively be :-

(1) CH3CHO and CH3CHO

(2) CH3COCH3 and CH3CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 and CH3COCH3
(4) CH3COOH and CH3COCH3

4) In the reaction

:-

(1) Me3C – OH + CH3CH2I

(2) Me3C – I + CH3CH2OH
(3) Me3C – I + CH3CH2I
(4) Me3C – OH + CH3CH2OH

5) A & B are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) When benzyl methyl ether is reacted with excess of HI then products will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
7) Which of the following reaction involves dichlorocarbene as electrophile ?

(1) Kolbe reaction

(2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(3) Friedel craft's reaction
(4) Hoffman Bromamide Degradation

8)
Which of the following is correct option.

(1) A is Benzene
(2) B is isopropyl alcohol
(3) C is phenol
(4) A is Carbolic Acid

9) Which of the following alcohols will yield the corresponding alkyl chloride readily on reaction with
concentrated HCl at room temperature :-

(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)

In the given reaction,

(1) X = Bromobenzene, Y = Acetophenone

X = o - Bromophenol and p-Bromophenol,
(2)
Y = Salicylaldehyde
(3) X = p-Bromophenol, Y = Salicylic acid
(4) X = o–Bromophenol, Y = Benzoic acid

11)

Which of the following having more bond angle.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) In the reaction +HI→Major product. The major product formed is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Suppose the following reaction, CH3–CH2–OH

(A) + Major product

The structure of major product will be :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

14) converts acetic acid into

(1) Acetaldehyde
(2) Methane
(3) Ethyl alcohol
(4) Methyl alcohol

15) Which of the following is not true in case of reaction with heated copper at 300o C

(1) Phenol Benzyl alcohol

(2) Primary alcohol Aldehyde
(3) Secondary alcohol Ketone
(4) Tertiary alcohol Olefin

16)

The correct reactivity order towards H-X will be

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) II > I > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) II > IV > I > III
(4) II > IV > III > I
17)
Product of above reaction is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) What is the compound C in the following sequence of–

(1) Benzoic acid

(2) 2-hydroxy benzoic acid
(3) Benzaldehyde
(4) Salicyladehyde

19) Ethyl alcohol

What are A & B

(1) Acetaldehyde, Acetone

(2) Acetone, Water
(3) Acetaldehyde, H2
(4) Acetone, H2

20) forms a tribromo derivate. 'x' is:

(1) Bromine in benzene
(2) Bromine water
(3) Potassium bromide solution
(4) Bromine in carbon tetrachloride at 0°C

21) Major product?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22)

Which of the following compounds is aromatic alcohol?

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, D
(3) B, C
(4) A

23) If phenyl magnesium bromide and acetaldehyde are the reactants, the product formed after
hydrolysis would be :

(1) Benzyl alcohol

(2) 1-Phenylethanol
(3) 2-Phenylethanol
(4) Actone
24) In the given reaction sequence major product (B) is: (major)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25)
The major product X in the above reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) and can differentiate by

(1) Na
(2) Lucas reagent
(3) NaOI
(4) Victor meyer test

27) Allyl alcohol on oxidation with pyridinium chloro chromate (PCC) gives :-

(1) CH3–CH=CH–CHO
(2) CH3–CH2–CHO
(3) CH2=CH–COOH
(4) CH2=CH–CHO

28) The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
29)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) 'X' is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which one/ones of the following reactions will yield 2-propanol? Choose the right answer from
(I), (II), (III) and (IV)
(I) CH2 = CH–CH3 + H2O

(II) CH3–CHO

(III) CH3–CHO
(IV) CH2O

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) III and I
(4) II and IV

32)

In the following sequence of reaction

CH3CH2OH (A) (B) (C) (D)

The compound D is :-

(1) Butanal
(2) n-butyl alcohol
(3) n-propyl alcohol
(4) Propanal

33) The alkyl halide is converted into an alcohol by

(1) addition
(2) substitution
(3) dehydrohalogenation
(4) elimination

34) Which of the following alcohol is not oxidised by PCC:

(1) n-butyl alcohol

(2) sec-butyl alcohol
(3) iso-butyl alcohol
(4) 2-methyl-2-propanol

35) The final product obtained in the reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

36)

Which combination of reagents will bring about the following conversion

(1) MeMgBr/H , H2SO4/ , HBr/H2O2

(2) MeMgBr/H , H2SO4/ , HBr
(3) MeMgBr/H , HBr/CCl4

(4) HBr/H2O2, MeMgBr/H

37) Assertion : In lucas test, 3° alcohols react immediately.

Reason : An equimolar mixture of anhyd ZnCl2 and conc. HCl is called Lucas reagent.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

38) Assertion : Reimer-Tiemann reaction of phenol with in NaOH at 340 K gives

salicylaldehyde as the major product.
Reason : Reimer-Tiemann reaction of phenol with in NaOH at 340 K occurs through
intermediate substituted benzalchloride which is hydrolysed in the presence of alkali to produce
salicylaldehyde

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

39) Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Ortho and para nitrophenols are more acidic than phenol.
Reason (R): Phenoxide ion formed by ortho and para nitrophenols are more stable than pehenoxide
ion formed by phenol.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

40) Statement I: t-Butyl methyl ether is not prepared by the reaction of t-butyl bromide with
sodium methoxide.
Statement II: Sodium ethoxide is a stronger base than sodium hydroxide.

(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect

(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

41) What is the hydronium ion concentration of a 0.25 M HA solution?(Ka = 4 × 10–8)

(1) 10–10
(2) 10–5
(3) 10–7
(4) 10–4

42)

If pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12, the value of its K(sp) is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

43) What is the resultant pH of solution if pH = 3 and pH = 5 same volume solution mix together
(log 5.05 = 0.7032) :-

(1) 3.5
(2) 4
(3) 3.3
(4) 3.8

44) Calculate the pH of the mixture when 400 ml, 0.1M HCl is mixed with 100ml, 0.2M NaOH ?

(1) 7
(2) 12.62
(3) 4.3
(4) 1.4

45) Which one is lewis acid :-

(1) NH3
(2) AlCl3
(3) CH3OCH3
(4) H2O

BOTANY

1) Consider the following statements

(a) The length of DNA is usually defined as number of nucleotides present in it, but it is not the
characteristic of an organism.
(b) In a double stranded DNA, the base pairing confers a very unique property to the polynucleotide
chains. They are said to be complementary to each other.
(c) Double helix structure of DNA is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is
constituted by sugar-phosphate and the bases project outside.

(1) (a) and (b) are incorrect

(2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a) and (c) are incorrect
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

2) Which of the following statements about chromatin structure are CORRECT?

I. The DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops held by proteins.
II. Euchromatin is densely packed, stains dark, and is transcriptionally inactive.
III. Heterochromatin is loosely packed, stains light, and is transcriptionally active.
IV. Non-histone chromosomal (NHC) proteins are additional proteins required for packaging of
chromatin at higher level.

(1) I and IV
(2) I, II and IV
(3) II and III
(4) I, III and IV

3) Consider the following statements w.r.t. criteria of genetic material.

I. It should be able to generate its replica (Replication).
II. It should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are required for evolution.
III. It should be able to express itself in the form of 'Mendelian Characters'.

(1) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II and III are correct.

(2) Statement I and II are correct and statement III is incorrect.
(3) Statement I, II and III are incorrect
(4) Statement I, II and III are correct

4) Assertion : RNA is more reactive and unstable compared to DNA

Reason : A highly reactive free OH group present at the 21 'C' of the Ribose sugar in RNA

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

5) Assertion : In a DNA, the distance between both the strands is approximately uniform.
Reason : Always a purine pairs with the another purine on the opposite strand in a DNA.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

6) Find the nature of nucleic acid with 10% adenine, 30% cytosine, 30% thymine and 30% guanine

(1) Double stranded DNA

(2) Single stranded RNA
(3) Double stranded RNA
(4) Single stranded DNA

7) If in a double stranded DNA molecule the percentage of adenine is 10%, then what will be the
percentage of cytosine and thymine respectively?

(1) 40% and 40%

(2) 60% and 40%
(3) 10% and 40%
(4) 40% and 10%

8) Match the following column I with column II.

Column I (Scientist) Column II (Term coined)

(A) Friedrich Meischer I. Central dogma in molecular biology

(B) Gregor Mendel II. Nucleic acids

(C) Altmann III. Factor

(D) Francis Crick IV. Nuclein

(1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(2) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(3) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
(4) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV

9) The following figure is related to replication fork. Find out the option having correct labelling.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues A and B .

(1) A – Histidine, B – Arginine

(2) A – Lysine, B – Arginine
(3) A – Lysine, B – Histidine
(4) A – Valine, B – Glycine

11) Assertion (A): The scheme of DNA replication is termed semi-conservative DNA replication.
Reason (R): During DNA replication, the two strands separate, and each strand acts as a template
for the synthesis of a new complementary strand, resulting in DNA molecules with one parental and
one newly synthesized strand.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

12) In the given below diagram 'A','B' and 'C' represents.

(1) A - Replication ; B - Translation ; C - Transcription
(2) A - Translation ; B - Transcription ; C - Replication
(3) A - Transcription ; B - Replication ; C - Translation
(4) A - Replication ; B - Transcription ; C - Translation

13) The initiation factor of Transcription is

(1) – factor
(2) – factor
(3) – factor
(4) – factor

14) If the base sequence in coding strand DNA is 5' AAAA 3' then the base sequence in mRNA is

(1) 5'UUUU3'
(2) 3'UUUU5'
(3) 5'AAAA3'
(4) 3'TTTT5'

15) The unequivocal proof that DNA is genetic material came from the experiment of

(1) Meselson and Stahl

(2) Avery, Macleod and Mc Carty
(3) Hershey and Chase
(4) Frederick Griffith

16) The discontinuously synthesised fragments of DNA are joined by the enzyme

(1) DNA ligase

(2) DNA-dependent DNA-polymerase
(3) Phosphorylase
(4) Topoisomerase

17) The very fine X-ray diffraction picture of DNA was obtained by

(1) [Link] and [Link]

(2) [Link]
(3) [Link] and [Link]
(4) [Link]
18) Histone octamer is formed by how many types of histone proteins?

(1) Ten
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Five

19) Match the column (A) with column (B)

Column - A Column - B
(Virus/Organism) (Length of DNA)

I. Bacteriophage A. 48502 base pair

II. Bacteriophage lambda B.

III. Escherichia coli C. 5386 nucleotides

IV. Haploid content of human DNA D. base pair

(1) I – D, II – B, III – C, IV – A
(2) I – A, II – C, III – D, IV – B
(3) I – C, II – A, III – B, IV – D
(4) I – C, II – B, III – A, IV – D

20) Find incorrect pair

Sub-unit of ribosome rRNA sub-unit

(1) 30s 16s

(2) 50s 5s

(3) 40s 18s

(4) 60s 23s

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Semiconservative mode of DNA replication was experimentally verified by A using B .

Complete the above statement by choosing correct option for A and B.

(1) A – Watson and Crick, B – [Link]

(2) A – Hershey and Chase, B – Bacteriophage
(3) A – Meselson and Stahl, B – Heavy nitrogen
(4) A – Taylor et al., B – Radioactive nitrogen

22) Enzyme that release tension arises due to supercoiling during DNA replication.
(1) Polymerase
(2) DNA helicase
(3) Endonuclease
(4) Topoisomerase

23) In which year Frederick Griffith conducted a series of experiments with Streptococcus
pneumoniae, witnessed a miraculous transformation in the bacteria.

(1) 1982
(2) 1928
(3) 1952
(4) 1962

24) Taylor [Link]. proved semiconservative mode of chromosome replication in Vicia faba by using

(1) Radioactive sulphur

(2) Isotopes of carbon
(3) Radioactive thymidine
(4) Isotopes of oxygen

25) Choose the odd one w.r.t pyrimidine bases.

(1) Uracil
(2) Thymine
(3) Guanine
(4) Cytosine

26) Which of the following is incorrect according to Griffith experiments :-

(A) S-Strain → Inject into mice → mice live
(B) R-Strain → Inject into mice → mice live
(C) Heat-killed S-Strain → Inject into mice → mice live
(D) Heat killed S-Strain + R-Strain → Inject into mice → mice die

(1) A and D
(2) Only A
(3) B and C
(4) Only B

27) The biochemical nature of transforming principle was defined by

(1) Griffith
(2) Avery, Macleod, McCarty
(3) Watson and Crick
(4) Taylor

28) Heterogenous nuclear RNA is synthesised by

(1) RNA polymerase III
(2) RNA polymerase II
(3) Both RNA polymerase I
(4) RNA polymerase I

29) A structure in which DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer is called

(1) Polysome
(2) Centrosome
(3) Sphaerosome
(4) Nucleosome

30) Which of the following biochemical processes evolve around RNA?

(1) Metabolism
(2) Splicing
(3) Translation
(4) All of the above

31) If [Link] cells having light DNA (14N14N) grown entirely in a 15N medium, what will be the ratio of
Hybrid DNA (15N14N) to light DNA (14N14N) after 40 minutes (generation II)?

(1) 7 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 3 : 1

32) Mark the correct statement

(1) In eukaryotes, the replication of DNA takes place at S-phase of the cell - cycle.
(2) The replication of DNA and cell division cycle should highly coordinated.
(3) A failure in cell division after DNA replication results in to a chromosomal anomaly.
(4) More than one option is correct.

33) Which of the following are the three main regions that primarily define a transcription unit in
DNA?

(1) Origin of replication, Promoter and terminator

(2) A promoter, The structural gene and a terminator.
(3) A promoter, exon and introns only
(4) Promoter and terminator only

34) Transfer-RNA

(1) It is 80% of the cell's total RNA

(2) It is 10-15% of total RNA
(3) It is 1-5% of the cell's total RNA
(4) It is least stable RNA

35) Which strand of DNA acts as a template during transcription?

(1) The strand with 5' to 3' polarity.

(2) The strand with 3' to 5' polarity.
(3) Both (1) and (2).
(4) The strand with 3' to 3' polarity.

36) How many types of enzymes catalyses the transcription of mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA in bacteria?

(1) One single RNA polymerase

(2) Two distinct RNA polymerases
(3) Three separate RNA polymerases
(4) Four specialised RNA polymerases

37) Which of the following correctly describes the process of tailing in hnRNA modification?

(1) 200–300 adenylate residues are added at the 5'-end in a template-dependent manner
(2) 200–300 methyl guanosine residues are added at the 3'-end in a template-dependent manner
(3) 200–300 adenylate residues are added at the 3'-end in a template-independent manner
(4) 200–300 uracil residues are added at the 3'-end in a template-independent manner

38) During DNA replication the molecules that act as substrate and provide energy are

(1) Topoisomerases
(2) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
(3) DNA polymerases
(4) Ribonucleases

39) In which of the following viruses, RNA is the genetic material?

(1) TMV
(2) QB bacteriophage
(3) HIV
(4) More than one option is correct

40) Which enzyme successfully inhibited the transformation process, proving that DNA was the
active transforming principle?

(1) Protease
(2) RNase
(3) DNase
(4) DNAs
41) Find a correct statement w.r.t. RNA polymerase

(1) Enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription

(2) Enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during translation
(3) Enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during replication
(4) All of the above

42) Which chemical substance was used by Meselson and Stahl to generate a density gradient for
distinguishing heavy DNA from normal light DNA during high-speed centrifugation?

(1) Sodium chloride

(2) Cesium chloride
(3) Ethidium bromide
(4) Potassium chloride

43) The DNA polymerases on their own cannot initiate the process of replication. What is the term
given to the specific, definite region in DNA where replication must start?

(1) Replication fork

(2) Promoter region
(3) Origin of Replication (ORI)
(4) Terminator sequence

44) Which of the following is/are non-genetic RNA?

(1) r-RNA
(2) t-RNA
(3) m-RNA
(4) All of the above

45) Reverse transcription was discovered by

(1) Temin and Baltimore

(2) Watson and Crick
(3) Wilkins and Franklin
(4) Avery and MacLeod

ZOOLOGY

1) Which of the following statement is false for the structure labelled as "A" in the figure given
below?

(1) Here maturation of lymphocytes takes place

(2) Here immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes
(3) Here lymphocytes interact with antigen and become effector cells
(4) Here micro-environment is provided for development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.

2) Assertion: Mast cells in the human body release excessive amount of inflammatory chemicals
which cause allergic reactions.
Reason: Allergens in the environment on reaching human body stimulate mast cells in certain
individuals.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

3) Read following statements

(A) Intereferons are secreted by viral infected cells & protect viral infected cells from further
infection.
(B) Interferons are secreted by viral infected cells & kill that viral infected cell.
(C) Interferons are secreted by viral infected cells & protect non-infected cell from further viral
infection.
(D) Interferons are secreted by normal cells & protect adjacent viral infected cells from further
infection.
How many statements are wrong ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

4) A person who has allergy, the type of antibody produced in his body is :

(1) IgE
(2) IgG
(3) IgM
(4) IgA
5) Read the statements given below and select the correct one.

(1) Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full response.
(2) Innate immunity is pathogen specific type of defense
(3) NK-cells are the main cytokine barrier.
(4) Acquired immunity is present at the time of birth.

6)

Which of the following is incorrect for acquired immunity?

(1) Memory based

(2) Primary response is of high intensity.
(3) Pathogen specific
(4) Has a major role of B-cell & T-cell

7) Which property of immune system is the basis of principle of vaccination?

(1) Discrimination between self & nonself

(2) Specificity
(3) Memory
(4) Diversity

8) Choose the correct option (T = True, F = False) for the following respective statements.
(I) Vaccines produced using RDT allow large scale production and hence greater availability for
immunisation.
(II) Modern-day life style has resulted in lowering of immunity and less sensitivity to allergens.
(III) Lymph nodes serve to trap the micro-organisms or other antigens, which happen to get into the
lymph and tissue fluid.
(IV) Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes–all prevent microbial growth.

(1) T,T,T,T
(2) T,F,T,T
(3) T,F,T,F
(4) T,T,F,T

9) The structure of an antibody is:

(1) H2L2 (Two heavy, two light chains)

(2) H4L4 (Four heavy, four light chains)
(3) H1L1 (One heavy, one light chains)
(4) H2L4 (Two heavy, four light chains)

10) Which is a physical barrier in innate immunity?

(1) Acid in stomach

(2) Mucus coating
(3) Interferons
(4) PMNL-neutrophils

11) MALT stands for:

(1) Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

(2) Mucosa-associated lining tissue
(3) Memory-associated lymphoid tissue
(4) Mucopolysaccharide-associated lymphoid tissue

12) A. Immunisation protects against diseases

B. Immunisation involves vaccination
C. Immunisation weakens immune system
Choose the option with correct statements :

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) A, B and C

13) A. Vaccines contain weakened pathogens

B. Vaccination induces memory cells production in host
C. Vaccines provide passive immunity
D. Vaccination prevents diseases
Correct statements are:

(1) A, B, D
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, C, D
(4) A, B, C

14) Passive immunity differs from active immunity because it:

(1) Is long-lasting
(2) Produces memory cells
(3) Provides immediate protection
(4) Involves vaccination

15) Most successful tissue grafting is:

(1) Xenograft
(2) Allograft
(3) Autograft
(4) Homograft

16) The heavy and light chains of an antibody contain :-

(1) Fatty acid sequences
(2) Sugar unit sequences
(3) Amino acid sequences
(4) All of the above

17) An epitope is :-

(1) Antigenic determinant

(2) A part of an antigen that is recognised by the immune system
(3) The specific part of antigen to which an antibody binds
(4) All of these

18) Which of the following statement is true regarding IgM?

(1) IgM is a pentamer and is the largest antibody.

(2) IgM is a monomer.
(3) IgM is the most abundantly found antibody
(4) All of the above

19)

The first vaccination was performed by :

(1) Edward Jenner

(2) Louis Pasteur
(3) Emil Behring
(4) Both (1) and (2)

20) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Injecting microbes during immunization induces passive immunity.

(2) Cell-mediated immune response is responsible for graft rejection.
(3) Colostrum during initial days of lactation provides active immunity to infant.
(4) Both (1) and (2)

21) The use of antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of

(1) Fungal disease

(2) Viral disease
(3) Allergy
(4) Helminthes disease

22) Which of the following is an autoimmune disease ?

(1) Asthma
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus)
(4) Both (2) & (3)

23) B-lymphocytes are associated with

(1) Humoral immunity

(2) Production of heparin
(3) Cell mediated immunity
(4) Production of histamine

24) Which of the following vaccine has been produced from yeast by recombinant DNA technology ?

(1) Hepatitis A vaccine

(2) Hepatitis B vaccine
(3) Tetanus vaccine
(4) Oral polio vaccine

25) How many statements from given list are incorrect?

(a) PMNL is a cellular barrier.
(b) Anamnestic response has low intensity and is based on memory.
(c) Foetus receives some antibodies from its mother, it is an example of active immunity
(d) Thymus and bone marrow provide micro environment for development & maturation of T-
lymphocytes
(e) Interferons inhibit transcription of virus in bacterial infected cells.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

26) Antigen binding site of antibody is composed of ?

(1) Light chain only

(2) Heavy chain only
(3) Both light & heavy chain
(4) Amino group of light chain only

27) ____ produce an army of proteins in response to pathogens into our blood to fight with them:-

(1) Antibody
(2) Antigen
(3) B-lymphocytes
(4) T-lymphocytes

28)

Father of immunology is:

(1) Edward Jenner
(2) Robert Koch
(3) Louis Pasteur
(4) Ferdinand Cohn

29) Which of the following is not an example of active immunity ?

(1) Injecting the microbes deliberately during immunisation

(2) Infectious organisms gaining access into body during natural infection.
(3) Vaccination
(4) Foetus receiving antibodies from their mother through placenta during pregnancy.

30) Which pair is not matched correctly ?

(1) Heat ⇒ Calor

(2) Pain ⇒ Dolor
(3) Swelling ⇒ Erythema
(4) Redness ⇒ Rubor

31)

Which of the following glands is large sized at birth but reduces in size with aging?

(1) Pineal
(2) Pituitary
(3) Thymus
(4) Thyroid

32)

Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and
paralysis of skeletal muscle is

(1) Muscular dystrophy

(2) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Gout
(4) Arthritis

33) The maximum no. of antigens or epitopes can be bound to IgM molecule is :

(1) 10
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 8

34) A low-intensity immune response during the first exposure is called:

(1) Secondary response
(2) Anamnestic response
(3) Cell-mediated response
(4) Primary response

35) The rejection of transplanted organs in humans is mainly due to the ability of the body to:

(1) produce antibodies against the self tissue

(2) discriminate between self and non-self tissue
(3) activate innate immune responses
(4) secrete interferons against foreign tissue

36) IgA in colostrum provides which immunity ?

(1) Natural active acquired

(2) Artificial passive acquired
(3) Natural passive acquired
(4) Artificial active acquired

37)

MALT constitutes about ______ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body

(1) 50%
(2) 20%
(3) 70%
(4) 10%

38) How many of the following statements are false for transplantation and grafting ?
(A) Coronary artery bypass grafting is the most common example of xenograft.
(B) Cornea transplant is successful and easy because cornea is avascular.
(C) Isograft is taken from genetically identical individuals like identical twins.
(D) There is no requirement of MHC-matching in case of allograft.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) All

39)

In the immune system, interferons are a part of

(1) Physiological barriers

(2) Cellular barriers
(3) Physical barriers
(4) Cytokine barriers
40) Identify A,B,C and D.

A-IgE, B-Heparin, C-Osteoporosis,

(1)
D-Steroids
A-IgE, B-Parathormone, C-Sneezing,
(2)
D-Adrenaline
A-IgA, B-Histamine, C-Watery eyes,
(3)
D-Adrenaline
A-IgE, B-Histamine, C-Running nose,
(4)
D-Steroids

41) Identify W, X, Y and Z in the flow chart showing fate of B-cells in humoral immunity:-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
42) Read the statements a-d. How many statements are true for passive immunity ?
(a) Anti-tetanus serum (ATS) is administered after an infection.
(b) An injection of anti-venom after snake bite.
(c) A newborn vaccinated against Hepatitis-B.
(d) Life time immunity attained by suffering from chicken pox once.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

43) Lysozyme that are present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys :

(1) Most virus-infected cells

(2) Certain fungi
(3) Certain types of bacteria
(4) All viruses

44) 'BCG' vaccine is a classic example of :-

(1) Killed vaccine

(2) Live attenuated vaccine
(3) Toxoid
(4) All of the above

45) 'Pannus' is formed in which disease ?

(1) Hashimoto disease

(2) Multiple sclerosis
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Myasthenia gravis
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 2 3 2 3 4 1 1 1 2 4 1 4 4 1 2 2 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 1 3 1 3 1 4 3 4 2 2 1 1 4 4 4 1 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 3 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 2 3 2 1 3 1 4 2 2 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 2 3 2 3 4 2 1 2 1 3 2 4 1 1 2 1 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 3 4 2

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 4 1 3 4 4 2 3 2 1 4 1 3 3 1 3 3 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 2 3 3 2 2 2 4 4 3 4 2 2 2 1 3 2 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 2 3 4 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 1 3 1 1 2 3 2 1 2 1 1 1 3 3 3 4 1 1 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 4 1 2 2 3 3 1 4 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 1 4 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 3 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Broad hysteresis loop

2)

All of the above

3) These become paramagnetic at Curie temperature

4) Coercivity

5) Diamagnetic

6)

7) High retentivity, high coercivity

8) atomic magnetic dipole moment of diamagnet is zero

9)

10)

4H

11)

12)
Field produced is constant

13)
 14)

Question Explanation: The question asks us to identify which physical quantity will not
increase when an iron rod (a ferromagnetic material) is inserted into a solenoid while the
current i is kept constant.

Concept : Self-induction and self-inductance of solenoid.

Solution :
When an iron rod is inserted into a solenoid, the medium inside changes from air/vacuum to iron.
Iron has a much higher Magnetic Permeability (μ) compared to vacuum (μ0).
Specifically, μ = μrμ0, where the relative permeability μr, for iron is very large (typically > 1000).
Analyzing each option
1. Magnetic field at the centre (B): The formula for the magnetic field inside a solenoid is B =
μni. Since μ increases significantly with the iron rod, the magnetic field increases. 2. Magnetic
flux linked with the solenoid (ϕ): Magnetic flux is given by ϕ = Li. Since the inductance (L)
increases, the flux increases. 3. Self-inductance of the solenoid (L): The self-inductance is
calculated as L = μn2 Al. As L is directly proportional to permeability (μ), the inductance increases.
4. Rate of Joule heating (P): The rate of heat dissipation (Joule heating) is given by the formula: P
= i2R Current I is constant
Resistance R remains same (iron core doesn’t affect wire resistance)
→ So heat produced does not increase

Final answer : Option (4)

15) Explain the Question : To find induced current at t = 0.25 sec

Given ϕ = 6t2 – 5t + 1, R = 10 Ω
Concept : This question is based on

Induced current
Solution :

By using

Final Answer : (4)

16) Explain the Question : To find direction of induced current in A and B as given figure.
Concept : This question is based on Lenz's law.
Solution : In 'A' velocity parallel to wire so change in flux zero so no EMI will be observed.
In 'B' loop is moving away from wire so flux is decreasing so current will flow such that
magnetic field should be in inward to plane.
Final Answer : (1)

17) Question Explanation: Find how induced electric field varies at point P outside the
magnetic field region.
Concept:
Changing magnetic field induces circular electric field lines.
For points outside the region (r > a) , enclosed flux is constant → electric field decreases with
distance.

Formula: Calculation

For r > a: E(2πr) = constant Final Answer: Option (2)

18) q = =
ϕ1 = NBA cos θ
(θ = 0)
ϕ1 = NBA
ϕ2 = 0 [∵ θ = 90°]

q=

19) Explain Question: If radius of loop varies as If radius of loop varies as than
e.m.t induced is.

Concept: Induced e.m.f. (Lenz’s law)

Solution:

(anti clock wise)

Flux increase through the loop as radius increase, such that induced current flow antilock
wise.

Final answer: option (3)

20)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The problem asks to find the directions of the induced current in two
segments (wires AB and CD) of a conducting wire frame that is placed in a magnetic field
pointing into the paper. The magnetic field's strength is increasing at a constant rate, causing
an induced current in the wire frame. We need to determine which way the current flows
along AB and CD.

Underlying Concept: This problem is based on electromagnetic induction and Lenz's law.
When a magnetic field through a circuit changes, an induced emf (electromotive force) and
hence an induced current appears in the circuit. Lenz's law states that the direction of this
induced current is such that it opposes the change in the magnetic flux. The right-hand rule
helps us determine the direction of the magnetic field created by the induced current.

Relevant Formulas: Induced emf, , where is magnetic flux, is the area

of the loop, and is the magnetic field.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that Lenz's law always gives a current direction opposing the
change in flux. Also, curling the fingers of your right hand in the current direction shows the
magnetic field direction via the thumb.

Common Mistakes: Students sometimes forget that the induced current is always in a
direction to oppose the increase in flux and may pick a clockwise current instead of
anticlockwise in this case. Also, mixing the direction of magnetic field lines with the induced
current direction is common.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options suggesting current flows from A to B or C to D
fail to produce the opposing magnetic field direction and thus violate Lenz's law. The correct
induced current produces an anticlockwise loop, giving current from B to A in wire AB and D
to C in wire CD.

21) Explain Question:

Calculate the average induced emf in a coil when the magnetic field changes over a period of
time.

Concept:

Faraday's Law of Induction:

Solution: (Step-by-Step)
Initial flux Φ1 = B0A0
Final flux Φ2 = 4 B0A0
Change in flux ΔΦ = 4B0A0 – B0A0 = 3B0A0

Induced emf
Final answer: Option (1)

22) ϕ = 0, e = 0

23)

Explain Question : To find induced emf when magnetic flux and time graph is given.

Concept : Induced emf

Solution :
Final answer : (5)

24)

Explain Question:
Compare the acceleration of a falling magnet and a falling coil in tow electromagnetic setups.
Concept:
Lenz’s Law and electromagnetic damping.
Solution:
• Fig (i): Magnet falls through a stationary coil → changing magnetic flux induces current→
induced magnetic field opposes motion →net downward force decrease→ a1 < g
• Fig (ii): Coil falls toward a stationary magnet → again, changing flux induces current→
induced field opposes motion → a2 < g.
Both experience electromagnetic damping due to Lenz’s Law.
Final answer: Option (3)

25)

It is same in both the rings

26)

relation between e.m.f and rate of change of flux

27)

equal to 'g'

28)

63

29)

Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

30)

31)
=2×2
= 4 Joule
32)

33)

Weber

34)

Increase

35)

36)

None

37) e = = – (5t2 – 4t +1) = – (10t – 4)

= – (10 × 0.2 – 4) = – (2 – 4) = 2V

38)

39)

Theory based

40)

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

41) v = 2t
at t = 3 sec ⇒ v = 6 m/s

m/s2

m/s2
 42)

43)

44)

Perpendicular to each other

45)

Concept
Work done by a force :
Formula ⇒
W = F⋅d = Fdcosθ
Since the angle between the centripetal force and the displacement is always 90°, we use:
cos90° = 0
which means the work done by the centripetal force is zero.
Mathematical Calculation
Since the angle between the force and displacement is 90°:

W = Fdcos90° = 0
Thus, for any motion along the circular path, the work done by the centripetal force is zero.
Final Answer
Correct Option: (2) Zero
Level : Easy

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

48) Break the bond and put the OH

49) Stable carbocation gives halide.

50)

51) Benzyl methyl ether

52) In Reimer-Tiemann reaction :CCl2 is an electrophile.

53)

A is Carbolic Acid

54) 3°-Alcohol react with conc-HCl at once.

55)

56)

57)
58)

59)

60)

61)

II > IV > III > I

62) When one of the alkyl of ether is 3° alkyl then breaking of C–O bond takes place by SN1
path.
In SN1 reaction, breaking site towards the most stable carbocation

63)

65) +3HBr

66) NSR by SN1

67)

B, C

68)

Explaining the Question :-

Question is asking about the product of PhMgBr and acetaldehyde
Concept:- This question is based on
Preparation of alcohol by the reaction of Grignard reagent with carbonyl.
Solution :-

69)

Explaining the Question :-

Question is asking about major product B from the given reaction sequence.
Concept:- This question is based on
Preparation of anisol and electrophilic substitution reaction of.
Solution :-

Final Answer :- (3)

70) Saytzeff’s alkene will be major product.

71)
NaOI

72)

CH2=CH–CH2–OH CH2=CH–CHO

73)

Question Explanation: Find out the structure of intermediate A in the following reaction.

Concept: This question based on oxidation of cumene.

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (2)

74)

Ketone is reduced to Alcohol by NaBH4 while Ester remain unaffected

75)

Explain Question : Determine the product formed when phenylmagnesium bromide adds to
the carbonyl of Ph–C(=O)–CH2–Ph followed by acid workup.

Concept : This question is based on Grignard reaction, Nucleophilic addition to carbonyl,

Acidic workup.

Solution : Reaction of Grignard reaction with Ketone. (NAR)

Final Answer : option (2)

76)

Explain Question: The given reactions will yield 2-propanol.

Concept:

(i) Acid catalysed hydration of alkene.

(ii) Grignard reagent nucleophilic addition reaction with aldehyde.

(iii) Oxidation of carbonyl compounds.

Solution:

Final answer: option (1)

77)

Explaining the Question :-

Question is asking about the final product D from the given reaction sequance
Concept:-
This question is based on preparation and reaction of G.R.
Solution :-

Final Answer :- (3)

78)
 79)

2-methyl-2-propanol

80)
Hydration (addition of H+/OH–) takes place according to Markownikoff rule.

81)

MeMgBr/H , H2SO4/ , HBr/H2O2

82)

Explain Question: Evaluate the given assertion reason.

Concept: This question is based on Lucas reagent.
Solution: Assertion (A) is correct: Tertiary (3°) alcohols form the most stable 3° carbocations
in the SN1 mechanism of the Lucas test, so they react immediately to form turbidity.
Reason (R) is correct: The Lucas reagent is an equimolar mixture of anhydrous ZnCl2 and
concentrated HCl.
However, R only defines the reagent; it does not explain why 3° alcohols react fastest. The
explanation for (A) is the stability of the carbocation intermediate. Therefore, R is not the
correct explanation of A.
Final answer: 2

83) Question Explanation:

The question asked to evaluate the assertion and reason about the Reimer–Tiemann reaction
of phenol with chloroform in alkali.

Concept: Reimer-Tiemann Mechanism.

Solution:

A. Assertion: Correct. Phenol reacts with chloroform and alkali to introduce a formyl group at
the ortho position, forming salicylaldehyde.
B. Reason: Correct. The mechanism involves a dichlorocarbene (:CCl2) electrophile attacking the
ring to form a dichloromethyl (benzal chloride) intermediate. Subsequent alkaline hydrolysis
produces the aldehyde group.

Conclusion: Both statements are true, and the Reason accurately explains the chemical process in
the Assertion.

Final Answer: Option (1)

84) p-Nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol because nitro group helps in the stabilization of
the phenoxide ion by dispersal of negative charge due to resonance.
85) [Old NCERT Page-345]

86) Asking About :- Hydronium ion [H3O+]

Concept :- Based on O strand's dilution LAW
Soln / Explanation :- Ace. to strand's dilution law for weak electrolyte

=
[H+] = 10–4
[H3O+] = 10–4
Option -4 is correct answer

87)
1s 2s

pH = 12
pOH = 2

88)

1. Convert pH values to [H+] concentrations :

[H+]1 = 10–3 = 1.0 × 10–3 M
[H+]2 = 10–5 = 1.0 × 10–5 M
2. Since equal volumes are mixed, the new [H+] concentration is the average.

= 5.05 × 10–4 M
3. Find the resultant pH :
pHfinal = –log (5.05 × 10–4)
Approximating using logarithm properties :
pH 3.3

Answer: Option 3, 3.3

89) Question Explanation: What is the pH of the resulting mixture when 400 mL of 0.1 M
 is mixed with 100 mL of 0.2 M ?
Concept: Acid-Base Neutralization.
Solution:
Initial millimoles of ,
Initial millimoles of .
After neutralization, the remaining excess millimoles of in a total
volume of .

The concentration of hydrogen ions is .

Thus, the pH of the mixture is .
Final Answer: Option (4)

90) Explain Question:

To select the species can act as Lewis acid.

Concept:
Lewis acid - base Theory.

Solution:
Lewis acid : Species which can accept lone pair.
Lewis base : Species which can donate lone pair.
⇒ AlCl3 can accept long pair. It has incomplete octet.

Final Answer: Option (2).

BOTANY

91) NCERT P.g:- 80, 81

92)

NCERT P.g:- 83, 84

93)

NCERT P.g:- 87

94)

NCERT P.g:- 87

95)

NCERT P.g:- 81
96)

NCERT P.g:- 80

97) NCERT P.g:- 80

98) NCERT P.g:- 79, 81, 82

99) NCERT P.g:- 88

100)

NCERT P.g:- 83

101) NCERT P.g:- 90

102)

NCERT P.g:- 82

103) NCERT P.g:- 93

104) NCERT P.g:- 94

105) NCERT P.g:- 85, 86

106)

NCERT P.g:- 90

107) NCERT P.g:- 81

108) NCERT P.g:- 90

109) NCERT P.g:- 80

110)

NCERT P.g:- 134

111) NCERT P.g:- 89

112) Allen Module P.g:- 128

113)

NCERT P.g:- 84

114) NCERT P.g:- 90

115) NCERT P.g:- 80

116) NCERT P.g:- 84

117) NCERT P.g:- 85

118) NCERT P.g:- 93

119) NCERT P.g:- 83

120) NCERT P.g:- 88

121) NCERT P.g:- 88

122) NCERT P.g:- 91

123) NCERT P.g:- 91

124) Allen Module:- 134, 135, 136

125) NCERT P.g:- 92

126) NCERT P.g:- 93

127) NCERT P.g:- 95

128) NCERT P.g:- 90

129) NCERT P.g:- 87

130) NCERT P.g:- 85

 131) NCERT P.g:- 92

132) NCERT P.g:- 89

133) NCERT P.g:- 90

134) NCERT / Allen Module P.g:- 133

135) Allen Module P.g:- 118

ZOOLOGY

136)

Here lymphocytes interact with antigen and become effector cells

137)

Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.

138)

Statement C is Correct

139) IgE antibody involve in allergic reaction.

140)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the correct statement about types of
immunity in humans.

Concept: The question is based on innate vs acquired immunity.

Solution: The correct answer is option 1.

A. Active immunity develops when the body is exposed to a pathogen or a vaccine and
produces specific antibodies and memory cells. It is slow initially because the adaptive
immune system takes time to recognize the antigen and mount a full response.

B. Innate immunity is non-specific and present from birth.

C. NK-cells are part of innate immunity, not a “cytokine barrier”.
D. Acquired immunity is not present at birth; it develops after exposure.

Final answer: Option 1

 141)

Solution/Explanation:
Acquired immunity's first fight against a pathogen is slow (primary response), not rapid. It
takes time to build defenses. Memory cells make the second fight (secondary response) fast.

The answer is "Primary response is rapid."

142)

Question Explanation: Which property of acquired immunity forms the basis of vaccination?

Concept: The question is based on acquired immunity.

Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. Vaccination works by introducing a weakened or inactivated pathogen, which stimulates the

immune system to form memory cells.
B. On subsequent exposure to the same pathogen, these memory cells trigger a faster and
stronger immune response, providing protection.

Final Answer: Option 3

143) Solution- NCERT, page no -137, para-7.2.5

144) Solution : Antibody has two light and two heavy chains (H2L2)
Final Answer : (1)

145) Solution : Mucus coating is a physical barrier preventing entry of microbes.

Final Answer : (2)

146) Explanation: MALT protects mucosal surfaces.

Final Answer: (1)

147) Explanation: Immunisation strengthens immunity.

Final Answer: (1)

148) Explanation: Vaccination gives active, not passive, immunity.

Final Answer: (1)

149) Explanation: Passive immunity gives immediate but short-term protection.

Final Answer: (3)

150)

Autograft
151) NCERT XIIth Pg.#151

152)

All of these

153)

IgM is a pentamer and is the largest antibody.

154)

Edward Jenner

155)

Cell-mediated immune response is responsible for graft rejection.

156)

Allergy

157)

Both (2) & (3)

158)

Humoral immunity

159)

Hepatitis B

160)

Statement b, c and d are incorrect.

161)

NCERT XII, Pg # 117

162)

B-lymphocytes
 163)

164) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 152

165)

Swelling ⇒ Erythema

166)

Thymus

167)

Myasthenia gravis

168)

10

169) NCERT Page: 136

170) NCERT Page Number: 186

171) Question Explanation: What type of immunity does IgA in colostrum provide to the
newborn?
Concept: The question is based on types of acquired immunity.
Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. IgA antibodies in colostrum (mother’s first milk) are transferred to the infant, giving
natural passive acquired immunity, since ready-made antibodies are passed naturally from
mother to child.

Final answer: 3.

172)

NCERT Pg no 138

173)

Two

174)
NCERT Page no 135

175)

A-IgE, B-Histamine, C-Running nose, D-Steroids

176)

177)

a and b are true.

178) Certain types of bacteria

179) Live attenuated vaccine

180) Rheumatoid arthritis