28-06-2026

2331CMD303033260001 MD

PHYSICS

1) An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius R in 20 seconds. What will be his
displacement at the end of 2 minutes 20 seconds ?

(1) Zero
(2) 2R
(3) 2πR
(4) 7πR

2) A projectile is thrown with an initial velocity of = a + b . if range of the projectile is double the
maximum height attained by it then :

(1) a = 2 b
(2) b = a
(3) b = 2a
(4) b = 4a

3) The equation of a projectile is y = 16x – . The horizontal range is :

(1) 16 m
(2) 8 m
(3) 64 m
(4) 12.8 m

4) A particle is fired with velocity u making θ angle with the horizontal. What is the magnitude of the
change in velocity when it is at the highest point ?

(1) u cos θ
(2) u
(3) u sin θ
(4) (u cosθ – u)

5) A particle moves from the point m, at t = 0, with an initial velocity ms–1.

It is acted upon by a constant force which produces a constant acceleration ms–2. What
is the distance of the particle from the origin at time 2s ?

(1)
(2)
(3) 5 m
(4) 15 m

6) A body is thrown vertically upwards and takes 5 seconds to reach maximum height. The distance
travelled by the body will be same in :-

(1) 1st and 10th second

(2) 2nd and 8th second
(3) 4st and 6th second
(4) Both (2) & (3)

7) A projectile is given initial velocity of . The equation of the path is : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) y = 2x – 5x2
(2) y = x – 5x2
(3) 4y = 2x – 5x2
(4) y = 2x – 25x2

8) A body is projected vertically upward with speed 40 m/s. The distance travelled by body in the last
second of upward journey is [take g = 9.8 m/s2 and neglect effect of air resistance] :-

(1) 4.9 m
(2) 9.8 m
(3) 12.4 m
(4) 19.6 m

9) A cyclist starts from the centre O of a circular park of radius one kilometre, reaches the edge P of
the park. Then cycles along the circumference and returns to the centre along QO as shown in the
figure. If the round trip takes ten minutes, the net displacement and average speed of the cyclist (in

metre and kilometre per hour respectively) is:-

(1) 0,1

(2)

(3)

(4) 0, 21.4

10) A car moves for half of its time at 80 km/h and for rest half of time at 10 km/h. Total distance
covered is 60 km. What is the average speed of the car-

(1) 60 km/h
(2) 45 km/h
(3) 120 km/h
(4) 180 km/h

11) Let and denote the velocity and acceleration respectively of a body in one-dimensional
motion

(1) must decrease when <0

(2) speed must increase when >0
(3) speed will increase when both < 0 and >0
(4) speed will decrease when < 0 and >0

12) A person first goes m in East direction. Then after he goes 10 m in north direction and
finally he goes m 60° south of west. Net displacement of person will be :-

(1) 20 m, in north
(2) 10 m, in north
(3) 20 m, in south
(4) 10 m, in south

13) If a car covers of the total distance with speed v1 and distance with speed v2 then
average speed is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The direction of average velocity is along

(1) the direction of net displacement

(2) the tangent of path
(3) opposite to direction of displacement
(4) None of these

15) Two trains, which are moving along different tracks in opposite directions towards each other,
are put on the same track by mistake. Their drivers, on noticing the mistake, start slowing down the
trains when the trains are 300 m apart. Graphs given below show their velocities as function of time
as the trains slow down. The separation between the trains after both have stopped, is :
(1) 120 m
(2) 280 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 20 m

16) An aeroplane is flying at a height of 1960 m in horizontal direction with a velocity of 360 km/hr.
When it is vertically above the point A on the ground, it drops a bomb. The bomb strikes at a point B
on the ground then the time taken by the bomb to reach the ground is-

(1) 20 sec
(2) 20 sec
(3) 10 sec
(4) 10 sec

17) During a projectile motion if the maximum height equals to the horizontal range, then the angle
of projection with the horizontal is :-

(1) tan–1(4)
(2) tan–1(1)
(3) tan–1(3)
(4) tan–1(2)

18) When a particle is thrown horizontally from a height, with a speed 20 m/s then speed of a
projectile after 2 sec is :-

(1) 20 m/s
(2) m/s
(3) 40 m/s
(4)

19) A particle P is projected from ground with an initial speed of 10m/s at an angle of 60° with the
horizontal. From what height h should an another particle Q be projected horizontally with velocity 5
m/s so that both the particles collide at ground at point C, if both are projected simultaneously? (g =

10 m/s2)
(1) 10 m
(2) 30 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 25 m

20) The velocity time graph of a body is shown in Figure. It implies that at point B :-

(1) The acceleration is zero

(2) There is a acceleration towards motion
(3) There is a acceleration which opposes motion
(4) None of the above

21) The position x of a particle with respect to time t along x-axis is given by : x = 9t2 – t3, where x is
in metres and t in seconds. What will be the position of this particle when it achieves maximum
speed along the +X-direction ?

(1) 54 m
(2) 81 m
(3) 24 m
(4) 32 m

22) Velocity of a particle changes with position according to following curve. Acceleration of the

particle at x = 1 m :-

(1) 24 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 20 m/s2
(4) 3 m/s2

23) Consider a hypothetical planet, the value of whose acceleration due to gravity on its surface is 8
m/s2. A small ball is thrown vertically upwards from its surface with some initial velocity. The
distance travelled by the ball in the last two seconds of its ascent is :-

(1) 5 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 4 m

24) The velocity-time graph of a particle in straight line motion is shown in figure. The particle starts

its motion from origin. The distance travelled by

particle in 8 s is :

(1) 18 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 8 m
(4) 6 m

25) The relation between time t and distance x is t = ax2 + bx. Where a and b are constant. The
acceleration is :

(1) –2abv2
(2) 2bv3
(3) –2av3
(4) 2av2

26)

Two particles are fired from the same point, with speeds 100 m/s and 100 m/s, and firing angles with
horizontal = 60° and 120° respectively. The time after which their velocity vectors become
perpendicular to each other, is :

(1) 5 s
(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A particle A is projected with initial velocity 60 m/s at an angle 30º to the horizontal. At the
same time a second particle B is projected in opposite direction with initial speed of 50 m/s from a
point at a distance of 100 m from A. if the particles collide in air find angle α :
(1) 53°
(2) 37°
(3) 30°
(4) 60°

28) A man running at a speed of 5 m/s, the rain drops appear to be falling at an angle of 45° from the
vertical. If the rain drops are falling vertically downwards w.r.t. ground, then velocity (w.r.t. ground)
in m/s is

(1) 5
(2) 5
(3) 5
(4) 4

29) A man can swim in still water at a speed of 5 km/hr. He wants to cross a river 6 km wide, flowing
at the rate of 4 km/hr. If he heads in a direction making an angle of 127° with stream direction, then
he will reach a point on the other bank :

(1) upstream at a distance of 1.5 km

(2) downstream at a distance of 1.5 km
(3) directly on the other side of the bank
(4) never reach the other bank

30) If a person (A) is moving with velocity and person (B) is moving with velocity
calculate the velocity of (B) seen from (A) :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) A man is walking towards east with a velocity of 3km/h. Rain falls vertically downwards at a
speed of 10 km/h. What is the direction with vertical in which man should hold his umbrella to
protect himself from the rain :-

(1) tan–1(0.3)
(2) tan–1(2)
(3) tan–1(0.6)
(4) tan–1(4)
32) To a driver going east in a car with a velocity of 40 km/hr, a bus appears to move towards north
with a velocity of km/hr. What is the actual velocity and direction of motion of the bus :-

(1) 40 km/hr, 30° north of east

(2) 80 km/hr, 30° east of north
(3) 40 km/hr, 60° north of south
(4) 80 km/hr, 60° east of north

33) Two particles A and B, move with constant velocities and . At the initial moment their
position vectors are and respectively. The condition for particle A and B for their collision is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

34) Two identical balls are set into motion simultaneously from equal heights h. While the ball A is
thrown horizontally with velocity v, the ball B is just released to fall by itself. Choose the alternative
that best represents the motion of A and B with respect to an observer who moves with velocity v/2

with respect to the ground as shown in the figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
35) The ratio of the distances traversed, in successive intervals of time by a body falling from rest,
are

(1) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 : .....
(2) 2 : 4 : 6 : 8 : 10 : .....
(3) 1 : 4 : 7 : 10 : 13 : .....
(4) None of these

36) A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate α for same time after which it decelerates at a
constant rate β to come to rest. The total time taken for the jounery is t. The maximum velocity
attained by the car is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Six persons of same mass travel with same speed u along a regular hexagon of side 'd' such that
each one always faces the person next to him. After how what will they meet each other ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A train is moving towards east and a car is along north, both with same speed. The observed
direction of car to the passenger in the train is :

(1) east -north direction

(2) west-north direction
(3) south-east direction
(4) none of these

39) Two bodies are moving in opposite direction with velocity v. The relative velocity of one w.r.t.
the other is :
(1) zero
(2) v
(3)
(4) 2 v

40) Two parallel rail tracks run north-south. Train A moves north with uniform speed 15 m/s and
train B moves south with uniform speed 25 m/s. Then match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

Magnitude of velocity of train B

(A) (p) Zero
w.r.t. train A

Magnitude of velocity of ground

(B) (q) 40 m/s
w.r.t. train B

Magnitude of velocity of ground

(C) (r) 15 m/s
w.r.t. train A

Magnitude of acceleration of train

(D) (s) 25 m/s
A w.r.t. train B
(1) A(p), B(q), C(r), D(s)
(2) A(q), B(s), C(r), D(p)
(3) A(q), B(p), C(s), D(r)
(4) A(r), B(s), C(p), D(q)

41) Statement-I: For a moving object, |displacement|≤ distance. Statement-II: instantaneous

speed is equal to the magnitude of the instantaneous velocity.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

42) Assertion : In a projectile motion, the vertical velocity of the particle is continuously decreased
during its ascending motion. Reason : In projectile motion downward constant acceleration is
present in vertical direction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

43) Assertion : To cross the river in minimum time, swimmer should swim in perpendicular
direction to the water current.
Reason : In this case river flow do not helps to cross the river.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

44) A body is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 10 ms–1. It reaches the maximum
vertical height h in time t. In time t/2, the height covered is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A body let fall from the top of a building reaches the ground in 3 sec. The height of building is

[g=9.8 ]:-

(1) 14.7 m
(2) 29.4 m
(3) 44.1 m
(4) 66.2 m

CHEMISTRY

1) In which of the following electron distribution in ground state, only the Hund's rule is violated ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The maximum number of electrons in third shell of an atom can be

(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 18
(4) 32

3) Which of the following set of quantum numbers is/are possible?

 n l ml ms

I. 4 2 –2

II. 2 1 1

III. 3 1 2

IV. 1 0 0

(1) I, II and III

(2) I, II and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I, III and IV

4) The energy (kJ mol–1) of one mole of electrons of radiations whose frequency is 2 × 1014 Hz, is

(1) 436.1
(2) 132.8
(3) 79.8
(4) 624.5

5) Lyman series of hydrogen atom falls in which of the following region of electromagnetic
spectrum?

(1) Microwave
(2) Ultraviolet
(3) Visible
(4) Infrared

6) The energy associated with the second orbit of He+ ion is

(1) –4.36 × 10–14 J

(2) –3.18 × 10–14 J
(3) –2.18 × 10–18 J
(4) –8.72 × 10–18 J

7) Given below are two statements.

Statement-I: In photoelectric effect, the number of electrons ejected is proportional to intensity of
light.
Statement-II: The kinetic energies of ejected electrons are independent of frequency of light used.
In light of above statements choose the correct answer.

(1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false

(2) Both statements-I and II are true
(3) Both statements-I and II are false
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true

8) The correct relation for Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle is represented by

(1)
Δx × Δpx ≤

(2)
Δx × Δpx ≥

(3)
Δx × Δpx ≤

(4)
Δx × Δpx ≥

9) The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 100 kJ and 200 kJ respectively. The relation between
their frequencies i.e. ν1 and ν2 will be

(1) ν1 = 2ν2
(2) 2ν1 = ν2

(3)
ν1 =
(4) ν1 = 4ν2

10) When the electron of a hydrogen atom jumps from n = 4 to n = 1 state, the total number of
spectral lines emitted is

(1) 15
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Let the mass of electron is five times, mass of proton is two times and mass of neutron is halfed
of orginal. Then the new atomic weight of will be :-

(1) Increase by 25%

(2) Decrease by 25%
(3) Remain unchanged
(4) Decrease by 20%

12) The period number, group number, and block of the element having atomic number 39 will be :

(1) 5, 5, d
(2) 5, 4, d
(3) 5, 3, d
(4) 5, 15, p

13) Which metal oxide dissolve in NaOH :-

(1) SO3
(2) P2O5
(3) BeO
(4) All

14) Pauling calculated electronegativity values of elements by using :-

(1) Ionisation energy

(2) Bond energy
(3) Electron affinity
(4) Both (1) and (2)

15) The correct order of Electron Affinity. is :-

(1) F > Cl > Br > I

(2) Cl > F > Br > I
(3) I > Br > Cl > F
(4) I > Br > F > Cl

16) Which order is correct for electron negativity :-

(1) Al < Si < P

(2) N = Cl > H
(3) P = H < B
(4) Both (1) and (2)

17) If the ionisation potential is IP, electron affinity is EA and electronegativity is X then which of the
following relation is correct :-

(1) 2X – EA – IP = 0
(2) 2EA – X – IP = 0
(3) 2IP – X – EA = 0
(4) 2IP + X – EA = 0

18) Which of the following is neutral ?

(1) SnO2
(2) CO2
(3) N2O
(4) NO2

19) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) Electronegative character increases with increasing atomic number in a group

(2) Similar atomic radius of Zr and Hf is a consequence of poor shielding effect of 4f electrons
(3) For Li , the value of σ and Zeff are respectively zero and 3.
+2

(4) If Zeff for Boron is 2.6 then Zeff for oxygen is 4.55.

20) Identify the incorrect match.

Name IUPAC official Name

(A) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium

(B) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium

(C) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium

(D) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium

(1) (A), (i)
(2) (B), (ii)
(3) (C), (iii)
(4) (D), (iv)

21) What will be the order of 1st ionisation energy :-

(1) Li > Na > K

(2) K > Li > Na
(3) Na > Li > K
(4) Li > K > Na

22) Second electron gain enthalpy of an element is :–

(1) Always exothermic

(2) Endothermic for few elements
(3) Exothermic for few elements
(4) Always endothermic

23) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R),
Assertion (A): Boron has a smaller first ionisation enthalpy than beryllium.
Reason (R): The penetration of a 2s electron to the nucleus is more than the 2p electron hence 2p
electron is more shielded by the inner core of electrons than the 2s electrons

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

24) Which of the following is smallest anion of periodic table ?

(1) O–2
(2) H–
(3) F–
(4) Br–

25) Compare magnetic moment of Mn, Mn+, Mn2+, Mn3+

(1) Mn3+ > Mn > Mn2+ > Mn+

(2) Mn+ > Mn2+ > Mn3+ > Mn
(3) Mn = Mn2+ > Mn3+ > Mn+
(4) Mn+ > Mn = Mn2+ > Mn3+

26) In the general electronic configuration -

(n – 2)f1–14 (n – 1)d0–1 ns2, if value of n = 7 the configuration will be -

(1) Lanthanides
(2) Actinides
(3) Transition elements
(4) None

27) Which of the following has largest radius -

(1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2

(2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1
(3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p3
(4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p5

28) Which of the following sequences is correct for decreasing order of ionic radius -

(1) Se–2 > I– > Br– > O–2 > F–

(2) I– > Se–2 > O–2 > Br– > F–
(3) Se–2 > I– > Br– > F– > O–2
(4) I– > Se–2 > Br– > O–2 > F–

29) The uncertainty in the position of a moving bullet of mass 10 gm is 10–5 m. Calculate the
uncertainty in its velocity :-

(1) 5.2 × 10–28 m/sec

(2) 3 × 10–28 m/sec
(3) 5.2 × 10–22 m/sec
(4) 3 × 10–22 m/sec
30)
For the atom, correct relation is :-

(1) λ3 = λ1+λ2

(2)

(3) λ1+λ2+λ3 = 0
(4) λ3 = λ1 +λ2
2 2

31) Supposing the energy of fourth shell for H atom is –25 a.u. (arbitary unit). What would be its
potential energy in ground state :-

(1) –50
(2) –200
(3) –400
(4) –800

32) The frequency of light emitted for the transition n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ is equal to the transition in
H–atom corresponding to which of the following?

(1) n = 3 to n = 2
(2) n = 4 to n = 3
(3) n = 3 to n = 1
(4) n = 2 to n = 1

33)

What are the values of the orbital angular momentum of an electron in the orbitals 1s, 3s, 3d and
2p?

(1) 0, 0, √6 , √2
(2) 1, 1, √4 , √2
(3) 1, 1, √6 , √3
(4) 0, 0, , √6

34) Assertion (A) : All the five d-orbitals are equivalent in energy in absence of electric & magnetic
field.
Reason (R) : All five 3d-orbitals have similar shape.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

35)

What is the maximum number. of orbitals identified by the following quantum numbers?

n = 2, ℓ = 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 5

36) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Total values of m in a shell (P) 0,1,2...(n–1)

(B) Values of ℓ in a shell (Q) n – ℓ – 1

(C) Possible values of m in a subshell (R) +ℓ...+2,+1,0,–1,–2..–ℓ

(D) Number of radial nodes (S) n2

The correct relationship is :
(1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(2) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
(3) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
(4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S

37) Which of the following is correct statement ?

(1) Azimuthal quantum number is related to shape of orbital

(2)
Orbital Angular momentum of electron present in 5p orbital is
(3) Nitrogen has three unpaired electrons with opposite spin
(4) All of the above

38)

Column -I Column -II

(i) Aufbau principle (a) λ = h/(mv)

De Broglie's
(ii) (b) λ = hc/ΔE
hypothesis

(iii) Hund's rule (c) Maximum unpaired e–

(iv) Planck's law (d) Electronic configuration

Correct match is :-
(1) (i) d, (ii) b, (iii) c, (iv) a
(2) (i) c, (ii) a, (iii) d, (iv) b
(3) (i) d, (ii) a, (iii) c, (iv) b
(4) (i) c, (ii) b, (iii) d, (iv) a

39) If the shortest wavelength of H-atom in Lyman series is x, then longest wavelength in Balmer
series of He+ is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Match the following Column-I (Element) to Column-II (Electronic configuration).

Column-I Column-II

(A) 3rd Alkali metal (P) 1s22s22p63s23p63d24s2

(B) 2nd Transition element (Q) 1s22s22p63s23p5

(C) 2nd Noble gas (R) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1

(D) 2nd Halogen element (S) 1s22s22p6

(1) (A)–(S); (B)–(R); (C)–(Q); (D)–(P)
(2) (A)–(S); (B)–(P); (C)–(R); (D)–(Q)
(3) (A)–(R); (B)–(Q); (C)–(P); (D)–(S)
(4) (A)–(R); (B)–(P); (C)–(S); (D)–(Q)

41) Select the correct statement is :

(A) Ionisation enthalpy is always positive
(B) The second ionisation enthalpy will be higher than the first ionisation enthalpy.
(C) First ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals are highest in each period.
(D) First ionisation enthalpy of noble gases are highest in each period.

(1) (A), (C) are correct

(2) (A), (B), (D) are correct
(3) (A), (B), (C), (D) are correct
(4) (A), (C), (D) are correct

42) A graph is plotted between IE of 2nd period elements and their atomic numbers as below :-
 Then which of the following option is incorrect ?

(1) at (i) position Li is present

(2) at (viii) position Ne is present
(3) at (vi) position N is present
(4) at (iii) position B is present

43) Which one of the following arrangement represents incorrect order?

(1) O < S < F < Cl : electron gain enthalpy.

(2) Al < Mg < P < S : order of I.E1
2– – + 2+
(3) O < F < Na < Mg : order of ZEffective
(4) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2– : order of size

44) Statement-I : Helium belong to s-block but its positioning in the p-block along with 18 group
elements.
Statement-II : Helium is a gas at room temperature.
Choose the correct statement.

Both statement-I and statement-II are correct and statement-II is the correct explanation of
(1)
statement-I
Both statement-I and statement-II are correct but statement-II is not correct explanation of
(2)
statement-I
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is wrong
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

45) Select the correct order of IP1 ?

(1) B < Aℓ < Ga < In < Tℓ

(2) B < Tℓ < Ga < Aℓ < In
(3) B > Tℓ > Ga > Aℓ > In
(4) B > Aℓ > Ga > In < Tℓ

BOTANY

1) Synapsis occurs between :-

(1) Two homologous chromosomes

(2) A male and a female gamete
(3) mRNA and ribosomes
(4) Spindle fibres and centromere

2) Cytokinesis of plant cells differs from animal cell because of in plant cell it:-

(1) Occurs by formation of furrow

(2) Starts at periphery
(3) Occurs by formation of cell plate
(4) Occurs before karyokinesis

3) Chromosomal movement in Anaphase occurs with the help of :-

(1) Astral rays

(2) Centrioles
(3) NOR
(4) Spindle fibres

4) Slipping of chiasmata towards the ends of bivalent is called :-

(1) Terminalisation
(2) Diakinesis
(3) Interkinesis
(4) Congression

5) In meiosis, how many cycles of chromosome Splitting occurs ?

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

6) Which does not occurs in prophase ?

(1) Decondensation of chromatin

(2) Condensation of chromatin
(3) Appearance of chromosome
(4) Disappearance of nuclear membrane and nucleolus

7) In which stage of mitosis, the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids ?

(1) Prophase & metaphase

(2) Anaphase and telophase
(3) Prophase and telophase
(4) Metaphase and anaphase

8) In meiosis, division of centromere occurs during:-

(1) Interphase
(2) Anaphase - I
(3) Anaphase - II
(4) Metaphase - I

9) Separation of homologous chromosomes during Anaphase - I is called :-

(1) Synapsis
(2) Disjunction
(3) Nondisjunction
(4) Crossing over

10) Which of the following is wrong about G1 phase ?

(1) G-1 Stage followed by Mitosis

(2) Cell is metabolically active
(3) Cell grows continuously
(4) Cell does not replicate its DNA

11) A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct
identification of the stage with its characterstics.

Endoplasmic reticulum and

(1) Telophase
nucleolus not reformed yet.

Nuclear envelop reforms,

(2) Telophase
golgi complex reforms.

Chromosomes move a
(3) Late anaphase away from equatorial plate,
golgi complex not present.

Cell plate formed,

(4) Cytokinesis mitochondria distributed
between two daughter cells.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12)
Which one is correct for G0 stage ?
I. It is a quiescent stage.
II. In this phase cell cycle is suspended
III. G0 cells do not grow or proliferate but metabolically active
IV. G0 cells can divide in response to some stimulus

(1) All are correct

(2) I,II,III are correct
(3) I,II are correct
(4) Only I and IV are correct

13) If the number of bivalents are 8 in metaphase – I, what shall be the number of chromosomes in
daughter cells after meiosis – I and meiosis – II respectively:-

(1) 8 and 4
(2) 4 and 4
(3) 8 and 8
(4) 16 and 8

14) In which phase of cell cycle the amount of DNA in a diploid cell become four times as compared
to a haploid cell ?

(1) G1
(2) S
(3) G1, S & M
(4) Go

15)

Arrange the events of interphase in the correct sequences

(i) RNA synthesis, DNA polymerase synthesis
(ii) Replication of DNA histone protein synthesis
(iii) Tubulin protein synthesis, ATP synthesis

(iv) Karyokinesis, cytokinesis

(1) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv)
(2) (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (iv)
(3) (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)
(4) (iii) → (iv) → (ii) → (i)

16) Read the following four statements (A - D) :-

(A) The interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle.
(B) In animal cells during the s-phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus and the centriole
duplicates in the nucleolus
(C) Since the number of chromosomes in the parent and progeny cells is the same so mitosis is also
called as equational division.
(D) Mitosis usually results in the production of diploid daughter cells with identical genetic
complement.
How many of the above statement/s is/are incorrect?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

17) What would be number of chromatids in a cell during metaphase stage of mitosis if 46
chromosomes are present in prophase stage ?

(1) 46
(2) 26
(3) 92
(4) 69

18) What is the significance of mitosis ?

(1) Growth of multicellular organisms

(2) Cell repair
(3) Restores the nucleo–cytoplasmic ratio
(4) All of these

19) A loose and indistinct network of nucleoprotein fibres can be observed in :-

(1) Late prophase

(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Interphase nucleus

20) A root tip cells has 14 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will the cell have, after splitting of
centromere in mitotic anaphase ?

(1) 14
(2) 28
(3) 7
(4) 21

21) An organism has 56 chromosomes in its diploid stage indicate how many chromosomes are
present in the following for that organism (A) Gametes
(B) Anaphase (Mitosis)
A B
(1) 14 112
(2) 14 56
(3) 28 112 (4) 28 56

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) When karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis, it results in the

(1) Entrance of the cell into G0 phase

(2) Formation of cell plate
(3) Haploid stage of the cell
(4) Formation of syncytium

23) Which event is not related with meiosis I ?

(1) Segregation of homologous chromosomes

(2) Crossing over between non sister chromatids
(3) Separation of sister chromatids
(4) Condensation of chromatin

24) Which of the following option correctly described the cell as shown in figure ?

(1) 8 chromosomes ; 8 homologous pair

(2) 16 chromosomes ; 4 homologous pair
(3) 8 chromosomes ; 4 homologous pair
(4) 16 chromosomes ; 8 homologous pair

25)

Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence :-

I - Terminalization of chiasmata
II - Crossing over
III - Synapsis

IV - Disjunction of homologous chromosomes

(1) IV, III, II, I
(2) III, II, I, IV
(3) II, I, IV, III
(4) I, IV, III, II

26) The graph given shows the changes in DNA content during various phases (A to D) in a typical
cell. Identify the phase and select the correct option.
 A B C D

(1) G2 G1 S M

(2) M G2 S G1

(3) G1 S G2 M

(4) M G1 S G2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Select the correct match :-

(1) Quiescent phase - G1 phase

(2) Centriole duplication - G2 phase
(3) Centromere division - Anaphase
(4) Chromosome decondensation - Prophase

28) The sequence of events by which cells duplicate their genome, synthesize the other components
of cell which eventually distribute into two daughter cells is called

(1) Quiescent stage

(2) Generation time
(3) Cell cycle
(4) Kinetochore

29) Prophase–I of meiotic division is typically longer and more complex, it is subdivided into five
phases, on the basis of :-

(1) Staining
(2) Behaviour of chromosomes
(3) Duration
(4) Protein synthesis
30) What is correct about following figure of mitotic division ?

(1) Crossing over has been occured between homologous chromosome

(2) Centrioles divide and move to opposite poles
(3) Each chromosome consists of two chromatids
(4) Daughter chromosomes move to opposite pole

31) What does(i) and (ii) represent in the given flowchart ?

(1) (i) = 2n, (ii) = n

(2) (i) = n, (ii) = n
(3) (i) = n, (ii) = 2n
(4) (i) = 2n, (ii) = 2n

32) Which of the following is unique to meiosis and not a part of mitosis :-
(a) Chromosomes behave independently
(b) Chromatids are separated during anaphase I
(c) Homologous chromosomes in pairs and form bivalents
(d) Homologous chromosomes show crossing over

(1) c and d
(2) a and d
(3) b and c
(4) a and c

33) Zygotene is characterized by :-

(A) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(B) Appearance of synaptonemal complex
(C) Formation of bivalents
(D) Formation of chiasmata

(1) A, B & D only

(2) B, C & D only
(3) All except C
(4) All except D

34) The most dramatic period of the cell cycle :-

(1) Interphase
(2) S-phase
(3) M-phase
(4) Cytokinesis

35) In metaphase II of meiosis

Statement I: Chromosomes align at the equator.
Statement II: Microtubules from opposite poles of the spindle get attached to the kinetochores of
sister chromatids.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

36) Meiosis-I results in formation of ______ of cells with ________ of chromosomes in each cell as
compare to mother cell.

(1) Tetrad, half number

(2) Diad, half number
(3) Tetrad, same number
(4) Diad, double number

37) Read the both statements and choose the correct option:
Statement-I : DNA replication, cell division and cell growth are the events of cell cycle.
Statement-II : Distribution of replicated chromosomes to daughter nuclei done under the genetic
control.

(1) only statement I is correct

(2) only statement II is correct
(3) both statement are correct
(4) both statement are incorrect

38) The site where crossing over take place is :-

(1) Chiasmata
(2) Synaptonemal complex
(3) Recombination nodule
(4) Kinetochore

39) Assertion (A) : Meiosis is called as reductional division.

Reason (R) : Separation of homologous chromosomes takes place during anaphase-I

(1) A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) A and R both are correct and R is not a correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) A and R both are incorrect

40) Match the following:-

Bivalent arrange at
(a) Prophase (i)
equatorial plate

Initiation of
(b) Metaphase-I (ii) condensation of
chromosomal material

Homologous
(c) Metaphase (iii)
chromosome separate

Chromosome aligned at
(d) Anaphase-I (iv)
metaphase plate
(1) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
(2) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii
(3) a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv
(4) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv

41) In relation to the given diagram of cell division for mitosis, which of the following statements

is incorrect:

(1) This representing the transition of prophase to metaphase

(2) Chromosomes are moving towards equatorial plate
(3) Spindle fibres are formed and centrioles are reached at the poles
(4) Nuclear membrane is present while nucleolus, ER and Golgi complex are disappeared

42) Which phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication?

(1) Gap 1/G1 phase

(2) Gap 2/G2 phase
(3) Synthesis/S phase
(4) M phase

43) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) In animals, meiosis involves two sequential cycles of centromere splitting and nuclear division.
(b) If karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis, it results in multinucleated condition.
(c) During cell cycle, the cytoplasmic increase is a continuous process but DNA replication and
separation of sister chromatids occurs in specific stages.
(d) Mitosis results in reduction of chromosome number by half so to conserve the specific
chromosome number across generations.
(e) G0 phase is an inactive stage because all the cells in this stage are metabolically active but never
show division again.
Options :-

(1) a,b,c,d & e

(2) b,c & e only
(3) a,b & d only
(4) b & c only

44) The beginning of ________ is recognised by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and X-
shaped structure will be formed.
Fill in the blank from below options :-

(1) Diplotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Leptotene.

45) Interkinesis is:

(1) DNA replication stage

(2) Resting phase without DNA replication
(3) Crossing over stage
(4) Complete chromosome decondensation

ZOOLOGY

1)

Which of the following steps is not involved in respiration ?

(1) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane

(2) Transport of gases by the blood
(3) Provide nutrients to all the living cells of body
(4) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2.

2) A person with fever (high tempertaure) shows increased oxygen delivery to tissues. Reason ?

(1) Left shift of curve

(2) Right shift of curve
(3) Decreased hemoglobin
(4) Increased plasma

3) The given figure shows the respiratory system. Identify the correct structure marked as 1,2,3 and
4. Whose contraction initiated the inspiration which in turn increases the volume of thoracic
chamber in the antero–posterior axis :-

(1) 1–Lung
(2) 2–Diaphragm
(3) 3–Pleural membranes
(4) 4–Alveoli

4) In Man and mammals, air passes from outside into the lungs through

(1) Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea bronchi, alveoli

(2) Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli
(3) Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli
(4) Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

5) Trachea is straight tube extending up to the _____________ :-

(1) end of thoracic cavity

(2) Mid thoracic cavity
(3) end of the neck
(4) middle of the neck

6) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is :-

(1) TV + ERV
(2) TV + IRV
(3) TLC - RV
(4) ERV + RV

7) Which of the following conditions is responsible for increase in ventilation rate of lungs?

(1) Decrease in O2 content of inhaled air

(2) Decrease in O2 content of exhaled air
(3) Increase in CO2 content of inhaled air
(4) Increase in CO2 content of exhaled air

8) Difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles, seen in?

(1) Emphysema
(2) Sillicosis
(3) Asthma
(4) SARS

9) Normal breathing rate of healthy human is :-

(1) 70-75 times/minute

(2) 15-20 times/minute
(3) 12-16 times/minute
(4) 10-12 times/minute

10) Read the following statements :

(I) Expiration in human beings is an active process
(II) Diaphragm helps in generation of the pressure gradient in the lungs
Choose the correct option

(1) I–True, II–False

(2) I–True, II–True
(3) I–False, II–True
(4) I–False, II–False

11)

The contraction of which muscle is responsible for normal expiration ?

(A) Diaphragm (B) EICM

(C) IICM (D) Abdominal muscles

(1) A, B and D
(2) C and D
(3) A and C
(4) No muscles contract during normal expiration

12) If expiratory reserve volume is 1100 ml residual volume is 1200 ml and tidal volume is 500 ml,
what shall be the functional residual capacity

(1) 1600 ml
(2) 2800 ml
(3) 2300 ml
(4) 1200 ml

13) The volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration is :-

(1) Functional residual capacity

(2) Expiratory capacity
(3) Inspiratory residual volume
(4) Residual volume

14) Given figure is showing spirogram of pulmonary volume and capacities :-

In spirogram, shaded box represents to :-

(1) Functional residual capacity

(2) Inspiratory capacity
(3) Vital capacity
(4) Expiratory capacity

15) Identify a, b, c and d in the given diagram.

a b c d

(1) Inspired Air Expired Air More CO2 More O2

(2) Inspired Air Expired Air More O2 More CO2

(3) Expired Air Inspired Air More O2 More CO2

(4) Expired Air Inspired Air More CO2 More O2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
16) Partial pressure of CO2 is higher :

(1) At alveolar level

(2) At tissue level
(3) In atmosphere
(4) In oxygenated blood

17) Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates at :-

(1) Low in tissues

(2) High in tissues
(3) Equal

(4) All times irrespective of

18) Bohr Effect is :-

(1) Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin due to high CO2 concentration in Alveoli

(2) Dissociation of carbon dioxide containing compounds in alveoli due to high O2 concentration
(3) Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin due to high CO2 concentration in tissues
(4) Dissociation of carboxy hemoglobin due to high CO2 concentration in tissues.

19) 100 ml. pure blood carries :–

(1) 1.34 ml. O2

(2) 20 ml. O2
(3) 15 ml. O2
(4) 4 ml. O2

20)

C-shaped cartilaginous rings in human respiratory tract are found :

(1) From trachea upto end of bronchioles

(2) From trachea upto alveoli
(3) Only in trachea and primary bronchi
(4) From trachea to initial bronchioles

21) Decrease in condition shift the oxygen haemoglobin curve towards the right side :-

(1) Carbon dioxide concentration

(2) Acidity
(3) Temperature
(4) pH

22) Observe the below graph and select the correct statement regarding with curve A and B labelled
in the graph :

(1) Value of P50 is decreased in curve A while increased in curve B

(2) Value of P50 is increased in curve A while decreased in curve B
(3) Curve A shows the condition of low PCO2 at tissue devel.
(4) Curve B shows the condition of high concentration of H+ at tissue level.

23) Choose the correct option related to the given diagram :-

Fig, Diagrammatic view of human respiratory system (sectional view of ____H____ is also shown)

A→Pleural membrane ; B→Alveoli ; C→Pleural fluid ; D→Bronchiole ; F→Bronchus ; G→Cut end of

(1)
rib ; H→Left lung
A→Coelomic epithelium ; B→Alveoli ; C→Visceral Pleuron ; D→Bronchus ; F→Bronchiole
(2)
; G→Sternum and Rib ; H→Right lung
A→Pleura ; B→Alveoli ; C→Pleural fluid ; D→Alveolar duct ; F→Cartilaginous ring ; G→Cut end of
(3)
rib and sternum ; H→Left lung
A→Pleural membrane ; B→Alveoli ; C→Parietal pleuron ; D→Atrium ; F→Cartilaginon
(4)
ring ; G→Cut end of rib ; H→Right lung

24) Approx_______CO2 is transported with the help of_________in the form of______.

(1) 23 %, carbonic anhydrase, H+

–
(2) 27%, cytochrome oxidase, HCO3
(3) 97%, carbonic anhydrase, H+
–
(4) 70%, carbonic anhydrase, HCO3
25) Oxyheamoglobin induces dissociation of CO2 from bicarbonate due to :-

(1) Oxyheamoglobin acts as a stronger base than KOH.

(2) Oxyheamoglobin acts as stronger acid than H2CO3.
(3) Oxyheamoglobin has more affinity with CO2.
(4) Oxyheamoglobin is basic in nature.

26) Neural signal from which centre can reduce the duration of inspiration ?

(1) Chemosensitive area

(2) Respiratory rhythm centre
(3) Pneumotaxic centre
(4) Aortic body

27) Assertion (A) : Role of oxygen in regulation of breathing is quite insignificant.

Reason (R) : Chemosensitive receptors are more sensitive to pCO2 and H+ ions than pO2.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

28) In the given diagram, correct option is :

(1) A-Pulmonary vein, = 40mmHg

(2) B-Pulmonary artery, = 45mmHg
(3) C-Systemic artery, = 95mmHg
(4) D-Systemic vein, = 40mmHg

29) In the given diagrarm, what A, B and C depicts?

 A- Air goes inside to lungs, B-Ribs and sternum returned to original position, C-Diaphragm
(1)
contracted
A-air expelled from lungs, B-Ribs and sternum returned to original position, C-Diaphragm
(2)
relaxed and arched upward
A-Air expelled from lungs, B-Ribs and sternum goes upward, C-Diaphragm relaxed and arched
(3)
upward
A-Air goes inside to lungs, B-Ribs and sternum goes upward, C-Diaphragm relaxed and arched
(4)
upward

30) Study the following figure. Identify the parts from A to C.

(1) A: Basement substance, B: RBC, C: Alveolar wall.

(2) A: Alveolar wall, B: Basement substance, C: RBC.
(3) A: RBC, B: Basement substance, C: Alveolar wall.
(4) A: RBC, B: Alveolar wall, C: Basement substance.

31) What is the correct about alveoli ?

(1) Thin, irregular-walled and vascularised bag-like structures

(2) Thick, irregular-walled and vascularised bag-like structures
(3) Thin, regular-walled and vascularised bag-like structures
(4) Thick, regular-walled and vascularised bag-like structures

32) Assertion : Emphysema is a chronic disorder of Alveoli.

Reason : One of the major causes of Emphysema is cigarette smoking in which alveolar walls are
damaged due to which respiratory surface is increased.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

33) Assertion (A) : The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of
the thoracic cavity will be reflected in the pulmonary cavity.
Reason (R) : Such an arrangement is essential for breathing as we cannot directly alter the
pulmonary volume.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion are correct True but Reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct but reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

34) Which of the following statement are/is true ?

(1) Alveolar wall is one celled thick

(2) The total thickness of diffusion membrane is much less than a millimeter
(3) At the level of alveoli gaseous exchange occurs by simple diffusion
(4) All of these

35)

Match the column-I and column-II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column -II

(A) Larynx (i) Lid of Larynx
(B) Trachea (ii) Air sacs
(C) Alveoli (iii) Voice box
(D) Epiglottis (iv) Common passage of food & air
(E) Pharynx (v) Wind pipe
Options are :-
A B C D E

(1) iii v ii i iv

(2) v iv iii ii i

(3) iii iv v i ii

(4) iii v ii iv i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) How many of the following statements are true ?

(i) Mechanism of breathing in different organism depend on their habitat and level of organisation.
(ii) Gills are used by aquatic Arthropods.
(iii) Pharynx is a common pathway for food and air.
(iv) The initial bronchioles are supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

37) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) pO2 in deoxygenated blood in same as pCO2 is oxygenated blood.

(2) pCO2 in oxygenated blood is same as pO2 in tissue.
(3) pCO2 in oxygenated blood is same as pCO2 in alveoli
(4) pCO2 in tissue is same as pO2 in deoxygenated blood

38) In Earthworms, the respiratory organ is :

(1) Gills
(2) Lungs
(3) Tracheal tubes
(4) Moist cuticle

39)

(i) Increased intrapulmonary pressure

(ii) Decreased thoracic cavity volume
(iii) Contraction of Diaphragm and EICM
(iv) Increased thoracic cavity volume
(v) Relaxation of diaphragm and EICM

How much of the above events are related with initiation of normal inspiration
(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

40) Read the following four (A-D) statements.

(A) Chest expands because air enters into the lungs.
(B) Air enters into the lungs because chest expands.
(C) The muscles of the diaphragm contracts because air enters in the lungs.
(D) A healthy human breathes 12-16 times/minute.
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

41) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?

(A) High concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC
(B) Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma
(C) Every 100 ml deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
(D) 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin

(1) A, C and D
(2) A and D
(3) All correct
(4) Only A
42) What is true about diffusion capacity.

(1) Diffusion capacity of CO2 is much higher than O2

(2) Diffusion capacity of O2 is much higher than CO2
(3) Diffusion capacity of O2 and CO2 is same
(4) None of the above

43) What is true about venous plasma in humans ?

(1) It does not transport O2 at all

(2) It transports 20-25 percent of CO2
(3) It transport 99.5 percent of O2
(4) It transports about 77% CO2

44) Mark the correct answer :-

(1) 1 molecule of haemoglobin carries 4 atoms of oxygen.

(2) High pO2 is favourable factor for oxyhaemoglobin formation.
(3) Pneumotaxic centre is present in medulla of brain .
(4) Low pCO2 shifts the HbO2 curve towards right side.

45) Which statement is not correct regarding thoracic chamber :-

(1) In this chamber lungs are situated

(2) This chamber is an air tight chamber
This chamber dorsally formed by vertebral column & ventrally by sternum and laterally by ribs
(3)
and lower side by dome shaped diaphragm
This chamber dorsally formed by sternum, ventrally by vertebral column and laterally by ribs
(4)
and lower side by dome shaped diaphragm
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 3 3 1 1 1 1 4 2 4 3 4 1 4 2 1 2 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 2 1 3 2 2 1 2 3 1 2 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 2 3 2 3 1 4 2 2 1 3 4 2 2 4 1 3 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 4 3 4 2 1 4 1 2 4 4 1 3 3 3 1 3 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 2 2 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 4 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 2 1 3 2 1 1 3 4 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 3 3 2 3 3 3 2 4 2 1 4 3 3 2 3 3 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 4 1 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 2 2 4 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 3 4 3 1 2 1 3 2 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 4 2 1 4 2 3 1 3 2 4 1 3 4 4 1 1 4 4 4 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 4 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) T = 20 s
In 140 sec. number of rotation =7
Displacement = 0

2) Answer → To find the range of projectile motion.

Concept: Relation between Range and Maximum height

formula :-
Calculation:- Given

Now According to question

R = 2 Hmax

So Hmax = θ

Hmax =
b = 2a

3) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

Explanation: To find horizontal range by trajectory y = 16 x – ;

Concept: Projection Motion

Formula: y = x tan θ

Calculation:

R = 64 m
Conclusion: Option - 3

4) 1. Question Explanation:
The question asks for the change in the velocity of a particle when it reaches the highest point
in its projectile trajectory. considering its initial velocity u and angle of projection
2. Concept Based:
This involves the concept of projectile motion. specifically focusing on the velocity components
at the highest point, where vertical velocity becomes zero.
3. Formula Used:
At the highest point of projectile motion:
• The vertical component of velocity becomes zero (V y = 0).
• The horizontal component remains constant
Change in velocity = Final velocity - Initial velocity.
4. Calculation: At the highest point the velocity is purely horizontal with a magnitude of u cos
θ. Initially. the velocity is u at an angle θ, so its horizontal component is u cos θ and its vertical
component is u sin θ.
The change in velocity is the difference between the final and initial velocities:
• Initial velocity:
• Final velocity at highest point:
Thus, the change in velocity is:

So. the magnitude of the change in velocity is u sin θ,

Answer: The change in velocity is u sin θ.

5)
=

6)
so Answer will be Option (1)

7) Equation of trajectory is

From given initial velocity

tan θ = 2

so y = 2x – = 2x – 5x2

8) Distance covered in last second of upward journey = distance covered in 1st sec. of
downward journey.
9) Explain the Question : With the help of data given we need to find the net displacement
and the average speed of the cyclist.
Concept : This question is based on average speed and the displacement.
Solution :
Net displacement of the cyclist is zero, since the initial position coincides with the final
position. Average speed of the cyclist

= km/min

= km/min

= × 60 km/hr = 21.4 km/hr.

Final Answer : 4

10)

Question Explain : Asking about the average speed during the journey.
Concept : This question is based on Average speed

If distance is covered in two equal interval with different velocity then

Solution : As we know that

∵ s1 = v1 (t/2) & s2 = v2 (t/2)

Vavg =

=
= 45 km/h
Final Answer : Option (2)

11) Explain the Question : The user wants to identify the correct relationship between the
velocity and acceleration of a body in one-dimensional motion and how it affect its speed.
Concept : This question is based on speed changes based on the relative directions of velocity
and acceleration.
Solution :
Speed increases when velocity and acceleration have the same sign. Speed decreases when
they have opposite signs.

When velocity is negative and acceleration is positive, they are in opposite directions, causing
the body to slow down.
Given v<0 and a>0, the vectors for velocity and acceleration point in opposite directions. This
opposition causes the magnitude of the velocity, which is speed, to decrease.
Final answer : 4

12)

Explanation the Question:

We have to calculate net displacement.
Concept:
This question is based on

Solution:

, + d3sin60( )

so displacement will be 20'm', south

Final Answer: (3)

13)

Explanation the Question:

A car covers 2/5​ of the total distance with speed v1​ and the remaining 3​/5 distance with speed
v2​. find the average speed for the entire journey.
Concept:
This question is based on average speed
Formula:

Average speed (vavg) =

Solution:

Final Answer: Option (4)

14)

Explanation the Question:

The problem asks for the direction of average velocity.
Concept:
This question is based on average velocity
Formula:

average velocity =
Solution:
Average velocity is defined as the ratio of the total displacement vector to the total time
interval. Since time is a scalar quantity, multiplying or dividing a vector by a scalar only
changes its magnitude, not its direction. Thus, the direction of the average velocity vector
must be the same as the direction of the displacement vector.
Final Answer: (1)

15)

Final separation
= Initial separation – |Relative displacement|
= 300 – [(1/2) × 40 × 10 + (1/2) × 20 × 8]
= 20 m

16)

17) Explain the Question :

Asking about angle of projection with horizontal for equal horizontal range & maximum height.
Concept : This question is based on max height & horizontal range.
Solution :

if R = nH then tan θ =

∵ R = H then tan θ =
θ = tan–1(4)
Final Answer : 1

18)

vx = 20 m/s
vy = ayt = 10 × 2 = 20 m/s

19) Explaining :
ask : from what height h should another particle Q be projected with velocity 5 m/s so that
both collide at point c.
Concept : This question is based on horizontal projection from height
Solution :
Time of fall of Q = time of flight of P

Put u = 10 m/s, θ = 60°, g = 10 m/s2

⇒ h = 15 m
Final Answer : (3)

20)
= (+ve) (-ve)
= –ve

21) v = 18t – 3t2

a = 18 – 6t = 0 ⇒ t = 3s
X = 9(3)2 – (3)3 = 54m.

22)

V = 2x + 10 (Eq. of straight line)

V(x = 1) = 2 + 10 = 12 m/s

= 12(2) = 24 m/s2

23)

24) distance =
= 12 + 6 = 18 m

25) t = ax2 + bx

= 2ax + b

or = (2ax + b)–1
or V = (2ax + b)–1

on solving we get
a = –2av3
26)

on solving

27)

For collision of these particles vertical components of velocities should be equal

60 sin 30° = 50 sin α

sin α =
α = 37°

28) Explain the Question :

A man running with speed of 4 km/h rain apper to be falling at 45° if rain is vertical w.r.t.
ground than velocity of rain.
Concept : This question is based on rain-man problem.
Solution :

∴ θ = 45°

VRG = 5 m/s
Final Answer : 1

29)

Question Explanation: Find shift of the man from opposite point of the river

Concept: Relative motion (river-boat problems) (2-D).

Solution:
As
which is less river flow (VR), so man will reach in the downstream point (C)
For crossing time

Now displacement of along the river flow

Shift = (VR – VM sin 37°) t
Shift = (4 – 3) (1.5) = 1.5 km

Final Answer: Option(1)

30) Explain the Question :

A person (A) moving with velocity of and person (B) moving with find
velocity of B seen by A.
Concept : This question is based on relative velocity.
Solution :
Given =

Formula :

Final Answer : 3

31)

32)

QUESTION EXPLANATION
A car moves east at 40 km/h. To its driver, a bus appears to move north at 40√3 km/h. We must
find the actual velocity and direction of the bus.

CONCEPT
Relative velocity in plane

SOLUTION

Vbus/relative = Vbus − Vcar.

Relative velocity of bus wrt car = 0i + 40√3 j.
Car’s velocity = 40i.
So bus velocity = (40i + 40√3 j).
Magnitude of velocity = √(40² + (40√3)²)

= √(1600 + 4800)

= √6400 = 80 km/h.
Direction = tan⁻¹((40√3)/40)

= tan⁻¹(√3)

= 60° north of east

FINAL ANSWER
Option 2

33)

For two particles to collide, the direction of the relative velocity of one with respect to other
should be directed towards the relative position of the other particle

i.e. → direction of relative position of 1 w.r.t. 2.

& → direction of velocity of 2 w.r.t. 1

so for collision of A & B

34) Explaining : This problem asks us to choose the best representation of the motion of two
identical balls, A and B, with respect to an observer moving with a constant velocity v/2 with
respect to the ground. Ball A is thrown horizontally with velocity v, and ball B is just released
to fall by itself from the same height.
Concept : This question is based on Motion under gravity: In the absence of air resistance,
the vertical motion of an object under gravity is independent of its horizontal motion. Both
balls will have the same downward acceleration 'g'.
Relative velocity: The velocity of an object A with respect to an observer B is .
Reference frame: The observer is moving with velocity v/2 horizontally. We need to analyze
the motion of balls A and B in the observer's (non-inertial, if observer accelerates; but here
observer is moving at constant velocity, so inertial relative to ground) frame of reference.
Solution :
with respect to man
Final Answer : The correct answer is (3).

35) = u + (2n – 1)
u = 0 and a = g (const.)
∝ (2n – 1) (here n = 1,2,3.....)
S1 : S2 : S3 : .......... = 1 : 3 : 5 : ..........
st nd rd

36)
α t0 = β (t – t0)

0
t =

0
v=αt = :-

37) Explanation:→ to find when the people will meet each other according to situation given in
question.
Concept:→Relative velocity

Formula:→
where 'θ' is angle of regular polygon

calculation:→

=
Alternative method

Ans:→ 3 option

38)
 Velocity of car w.r.t. train
(vct) is towards west north

39)

40)

Explain Question : Asking about the correct match of column for the given table.
Concept : Relative motion in one Dimesion.
Solution : As we know that from the concept of relative motion ⇒ Relative
velocity of A w.r.t B.

, , = 40 m/s
, = 25 m/s
, = 15 m/s
= const. ∴ aAB = 0
Final answer : 2

41) Explain the question : We need to check correctness of two statements; relation between
displacement and distance, and relation between instantaneous speed and velocity.
Concept : This question is based on displacement is the shortest path, so |displacement| ≤
distance; instantaneous speed equals the magnitude of instantaneous velocity.
Formula
|displacement| ≤ distance; v = |velocity| for instantaneous case.
Solution : Both statement are correct based on definitions.
No calculation required, directly based on definitions.
Final answer : 4

42)

Explanation the Question:

The assertion states that the vertical velocity of a projectile continuously decreases during its
ascending motion. The reason states that a constant downward acceleration is present in the
vertical direction. determine if both statements are true and if the reason correctly explains
the assertion.
Concept:
This question is based on ground to ground projectile motion
Formula:
vy = uy – gt
 Solution:
Assertion (A): This statement is correct. As the projectile moves upward, the acceleration due
to gravity acts downward, opposing its upward motion. This causes the upward vertical
velocity to continuously decrease until it reaches zero at the peak of the trajectory.
Reason (R): This statement is also correct. The acceleration acting on a projectile is the
acceleration due to gravity (g), which is a constant and always directed downward, regardless
of the projectile's position or motion.
The reason provides the direct cause for the assertion. The continuous decrease in the vertical
velocity of an ascending projectile is a direct consequence of the constant, downward-acting
acceleration of gravity. Therefore, the reason correctly explains the assertion.
Conclusion: Both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason is the correct
explanation for the assertion.
Final Answer: (1)

43) Explain the question: To check the impact of velocity components on minimum time in
crossing the river.

Concept: This question is based on river-boat concept.

Solution: The Assertion is true the time taken to cross the river depends only on the velocity
component perpendicular to the river flow (vsinθ); this time is minimized when θ = 90°
(swimming straight across).

The Reason is also true because the river flow velocity is horizontal and has zero component in
the vertical direction, meaning it neither helps nor hinders the actual crossing of the width.
However, the reason doesn't explain why swimming perpendicularly is the optimal choice; it
simply states a property of the flow.

Final answer : 2

44)

∵ sy = uyt + ayt2

∴ h1 = 10 × – × 10 ×

=5–

∴ h1 =

45)

CHEMISTRY
 46) Question Explanation: The question asks for which of the provided electron distributions
for a ground state atom violates only Hund's rule, while still following other principles (Aufbau
and Pauli exclusion).

Concept: The problem requires applying the three fundamental rules of electron
configuration: the Aufbau principle (filling lowest energy orbitals first), the Pauli exclusion
principle (max 2 electrons per orbital with opposite spins), and Hund's rule (degenerate
orbitals filled singly with parallel spins before pairing).

Solution:
We analyze the options, assuming a total of 6 electrons in the 2s and 2p subshells (e.g.,
Carbon's valence shell):

A. Option 1 (↑↓ in 2s; ↑↓, ↑, _ in 2p): Follows Aufbau and Pauli, but violates Hund's rule by
pairing electrons in the first 2p orbital before the other two were filled singly. This is the
correct answer.
B. Option 2 (↑↓ in 2s; ↑, ↑, ↑ in 2p): Follows all rules correctly.
C. Option 3 (↑↑ in 2s; ↑↓, ↑, ↑ in 2p): Violates the Pauli exclusion principle (same spin in 2s).
D. Option 4 (↑ in 2s; ↑↓, ↑↓, _ in 2p): Violates the Aufbau principle (2s is not full before 2p is
filled).

Final Answer: Option (1)

47)

Answer:- 18
Conceptual

48)

I, II and IV
Conceptual

49)

Answer will be:- 79.8

Conceptual

50)

Ultraviolet

51)

–2.18 × 10–18 J
Conceptual

52)
Statement-I is true but statement-II is false

53)

Δx × Δpx ≥
conceptual

54)

2ν1 = ν2
Conceptual

55)

Answer:- 6
Conceptual

56)

Increase by 25%

57) Group no. = 18 – [54 – 39]

=18 – 15 = 3rd/ IIIB
Period no. = 5th
Block = d-block

58)

All
Conceptual

59)

Bond energy

60)

Cl > F > Br > I

Conceptual

61)

Both (1) and (2)

62)

2X – EA – IP = 0
Conceptual

63)

N2O
Conceptual

64)

Electronegative character increases with increasing atomic number in a group

65)

Unununium
Atomic number = 111
IUPAC official name : Roentgenium

66)

Li > Na > K
Conceptual

67)

Always endothermic

68)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

69)

Answer will be:- F–

Conceptual

70) Magnetic moment ∝ number of unpaired electrons

71)

Question Explanation:-

The question provides a general electronic configuration: (n – 2)f¹–14 (n – 1)d⁰–1 ns² and asks
what type of elements this configuration corresponds to when n = 7.
Concept:- Electronic configuration

Solution:

A. The given configuration corresponds to elements that have their electrons filling the f
orbital (the inner f-block), and d orbital (transition elements).

B. For n = 7, the configuration would refer to elements with atomic numbers in the 7th
period, and this configuration is characteristic of the actinide series, which fills the 5f
orbitals.

the general electronic configuration of the actinides (elements from atomic number 89 to 103,
which include thorium (Th) to lawrencium (Lr)).

Final Answer: Option (2).

72)

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2

Conceptual

73)

I– > Se–2 > Br– > O–2 > F–

Conceptual

74) Explain Question:

We are asked: For a bullet of mass 10g, if uncertainty in position is 10–5 m, calculate
uncertainty in velocity using Heisenberg's principle.

Concept:
Heisenberg's uncertainty principle:

where Δp = m · Δv.
So,

Solution:
Mass of bullet = 10g = 0.01 kg
Δx = 10–5 m
Planck's constant h = 6.626 × 10–34 J-s
Final Answer: Option(1)

75)
Conceptual

76)

–800
Conceptual

77)

ANSWER WILL BE:- n = 2 to n = 1

Conceptual

78)

0, 0, √6 , √2
Conceptual

79)

Assertion is true but reason is false.

80) n = 2 tells us the electrons is in the second energy level.

ℓ = 1 tells us the electrons is in the p subshell.
For ℓ = 1, the possible values of mℓ are –1, 0, and +1.
Each mℓ value corresponds to one orbital. Therefore, there are three orbitals in the p subshell
(px, py, pz)
Therefore, the maximum number of orbitals identified by n = 2 and ℓ = 1 is 3.

81)

A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q

82)

Azimuthal quantum number is related to shape of orbital

83)

Explain Question : We need to match each concept in Column-I with its correct
description/formula from Column-II
Concept : Basic quantum mechanical principles and laws.

Solution :
(i) Aufbau principla → (d) Electronic configuration (electrons fill orbitals in increasing energy)
(ii) De Broglie's hypothesis → (a) λ = h/(mv) (matter waves)
(iii) Hund's rule → (c) Max. unpaired e– (maximum multiplicity)
(iv) Planck's law → (b) λ = hc/ΔE (energy-frequency relation)

(i) → (d), (ii) → (a), (iii) → (c), (iv) → (b)

Final Answer : option (3)

84)

Explaining : Longest wavelength.

Concept : This question is based on Rydberg formula.
Solution : Shortest wavelength, means energy maximum
i.e. n2 = ∞, n1 = 1

= R(1)2

λ= =x
Now, for He-atom
Longest wavelength in Balmer series
n1 = 2, n2 = 3

=R4 = =

λ=
Final Answer : (2)

85)

Explain Question: Match elements with correct electronic configurations.

Concept: Electronic configuration

Solution:
3rd Alkali metal = K (Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs) = 4s1 (outermost E·C)
2nd Transition element = Ti (3d2 4s²)
2nd Noble gas = Ne (2s² 2p⁶)
2nd Halogen element = Cl (3s² 3p⁵)
So correct option is 4

Final Answer : Option (4)

86) NCERT Pg#85

 87)

at (vi) position N is present

88)

Al < Mg < P < S : order of I.E1

89) NCERT Pg#76

90)

B > Tℓ > Ga > Aℓ > In

Conceptual

BOTANY

91)

Two homologous chromosomes

92) Question Explaination: Identify how cytokinesis in plant cells differs from that in animal
cells.

Concept: Based on cytokinesis.

Solution: Cytokinesis in plant cells occurs by formation of a cell plate.

Final answer: Occurs by formation of cell plate

93)

Spindle fibres

94)

Terminalisation

95)

ANSWER WILL BE:- One

96)

Decondensation of chromatin
 97)

Prophase & metaphase

98)

Anaphase - II

99)

Disjunction

100)

G-1 Stage followed by Mitosis

101)

Explanation

A. Telophase is the final stage of mitosis, where chromosomes decondense and nuclear
structures reform.

Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum reappear, and nuclear envelope reforms around daughter
nuclei.

Correct Answer: ✅ (2) Telophase – Nuclear envelope reforms, Golgi complex reforms.

102)

All are correct

103)

ANSWER WILL BE:- 8 and 8

104)

ANSWER WILL BE:- S

CONCEPTUAL

105) Question Explanation : The question asks to arrange a list of cellular events in the
correct chronological sequence as they occur during the cell cycle.
Concept:
This question is based on Interphase and M Phase (Mitosis)
 Explanation:
G1 phase:
RNA synthesis and DNA polymerase synthesis occur during this phase (i).

S phase:
DNA replication and histone protein synthesis take place in this phase (ii).

G2 phase:
Tubulin protein synthesis and ATP synthesis occur in preparation for mitosis (iii).

M phase (mitosis) :
Karyokinesis (nuclear division) and cytokinesis (cytoplasmic division) are the final steps (iv).

Final answer : 1

106) Question Explanation :

Check which of the four statement about the cell cycle/mitosis are incorrect.

Concept :
Interphase

Solution :
(A) True – interphase occupies the majority (=95%+) of the cell cycle.
(B) False – DNA replication begins in the nucleus during S, but centrioles duplicate in the
cytoplasm (centrosome), not in the nucleolus.
(C) True – mitosis is called equational division because chromosome number is maintained.
(D) True – mitosis usually yields diploid daughters with identical genetic complement.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

107)

To determine the number of chromatids during metaphase of mitosis, let's analyze the
process step by step:
1. Chromosome Number in Prophase:

A. The question states that there are 46 chromosomes in prophase.

B. Recall that before mitosis begins, the S-phase (Synthesis phase) of interphase has already
occurred, during which DNA replication takes place. As a result, each chromosome consists of
two sister chromatids.

2. Chromatids in Metaphase:

A. During metaphase, the chromosomes (which have already been duplicated in S-phase) align
at the metaphase plate.
B. Since each of the 46 chromosomes consists of two sister chromatids, the total number of
chromatids is: 46 chromosomes ×2 chromatids per chromosome = 92 chromatids.
C.
D.
 E.

Answer: 92 chromatids
Correct Option: 3 (92).

108) Question Explanation :

This question is asking the biological significance of mitosis.

Concept :
This question is based on significance of mitosis.

Explanation : Mitosis plays a vital role in the growth of multicellular organisms, repair of
damaged tissues, and restoration of the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
Final answer:4

109) Explain Question : The question is asking during which stage of the cell cycle you can
observe nucleoprotein fibers in a loose and indistinct form.

Concept : This Questions based on cell cycle

Explanation : Interphase nucleus → DNA is in the form of loose chromatin → not individually
visible chromosomes.

Final answer : 4

110) Question Explanation : The user is asking a question about the number of
chromosomes in a root tip cell during a specific stage of mitosis.
Concept :
In mitosis, the number of chromosomes temporarily doubles at anaphase due to the splitting of
centromeres.
• Before anaphase : 14 chromosomes (each with 2 sister chromatids)
• During anaphase : Centromeres split and each chromatid becomes an independent
chromosome
• So the chromosome number becomes doubled.

Solution : Original cell : 14 chromosomes

After centromere splits in mitotic anaphase :
→ Each of the 14 chromosomes splits into 2 daughter chromosomes
→ 14 × 2 = 28 chromosomes (temperature, until cytokinesis)

Final answer : 2

111)

ANSWER WILL BE:- 3

CONCEPTUAL

112)
When karyokinesis (division of the nucleus) is not followed by cytokinesis (division of the
cytoplasm), it results in the formation of a multinucleate condition, also known as a
syncytium.

113) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 168, 169

114)

8 chromosomes ; 4 homologous pair

115)

Explain Question : The question asks to arrange the given events of meiosis in their correct
sequential order.
Concept : This question is based on prophase I
Explanation :
Synapsis (III): Pairing of homologous chromosomes during zygotene of prophase I.
Crossing over (II): Exchange of genetic material occurs during pachytene stage of prophase I.
Terminalization of chiasmata (I): Chiasmata move toward chromosome ends during
diplotene/diakinesis.
Disjunction of homologous chromosomes (IV): Separation of homologous chromosomes during
anaphase I.
Final answer : 2

116)

ANSWER WILL BE:- 3

CONCEPTUAL

117)

Centromere division - Anaphase

118)

119) NCERT Pg. # 168

120)

Explain Question : This question is about identifying the correct statement for a given figure
of mitotic division
Concept : This question is based on anaphase
Explanation : Sister chromatids move to the opposite pole – This describes anaphase.
Final answer : 4

121) Explain Question:

This question is asking about the ploidy (n or 2n) of cells formed after two successive divisions
shown in the given flowchart.

Concept:
Cell Cycle and Cell Division → Meiosis (Meiosis I and Meiosis II).

Solution:
The parent cell is diploid (2n). After Meiosis I (reduction division), the two daughter cells
become haloid (n). Meiosis II is an equational division, so the four daughter cells formed also
remain haploid (n).

Final Answer: Option (2)

122)

ANSWER WILL BE:- c and d

123) NCERT Pg. # 168

124) Question Explanation :

The question asks to identify the most "dramatic" period of the cell cycle.

Concept :
This question is based on M-phase (Mitosis).

Explanation:
"The M phase is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle involving a major reorganisation of
virtually all components of the cell."

Final answer : 3

125) Explain the Question : The question is about events in metaphase II of meiosis, which
occurs in haploid cells after meiosis I. It gives two statements and asks which are correct.
Concept : This question based on metaphase II,
Explanation :
Statement I: In metaphase II, chromosomes (each with two sister chromatids) align at the
equatorial plate.
Statement II: Spindle fibers from opposite poles attach to the kinetochores of sister
chromatids, preparing for their separation in anaphase II.
Final Answer : 3 Both statements I and II are correct

126) Solution : Meiosis-I results in formation of diad of cells with half number of
chromosomes in each cells as compare to mother cell.
Final Answer : (2)

127)

both statement are correct

128)

Question explanation: The question is asking for the site where crossing over occurs during
meiosis.

Concept: Prophase I

Solution: Crossing over occurs at recombination nodules, which are protein structures
present on the synaptonemal complex that facilitate exchange of genetic material between
non-sister chromatids.

Final answer: Option 3

129)

A and R both are correct and R is not a correct explanation of A

130) NCERT-XI Pg. # 125

131)

Nuclear membrane is present while nucleolus, ER and Golgi complex are disappeared

132) NCERT Pg. # 163

133) NCERT XI Eng. Pg # 162, 164, 166, 167, 169, 170

Hindi Pg # 162, 164, 166, 167, 169, 170

134) NCERT Pg. # 168

135) Solution : Interkinesis is resting phase without DNA replication.

 Final Answer : (2)

ZOOLOGY

136)

Provide nutrients to all the living cells of body

137)

Right shift of curve

138)

Explain the Question : The question asks to identify the structure whose contraction initiates
inspiration and increases the thoracic chamber volume in the antero–posterior axis.
Concept : This question is based on mechanism of breathing.
Solution : The diaphragm contracts during inspiration, flattening downward, which increases
the volume of the thoracic chamber in the antero–posterior axis. Other structures like lungs,
pleural membranes, and alveoli do not actively initiate inspiration.
Final answer : 2

139)

Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

140)

Mid thoracic cavity

141)

TLC - RV
CONCEPTUAL

142) Allen module, Page No.: 77

143)

144)

12-16 times/minute
145)

Explanation
The question is asking about the nature of expiration and the role of the diaphragm in humans.

Concept
Mechanism of Breathing.

Solution
Expiration in humans is normally passive, occurring due to elastic recoil of lungs and thoracic
cage. The diaphragm contracts during inspiration, creating a pressure gradient that draws air
in.

Final answer: I–False, II–True

146)

A. Question: Which muscle contraction is responsible for normal expiration?

B. Given Data: Four muscles are listed as options.
C. Concept: This question tests knowledge of the mechanics of breathing, specifically
expiration.
D. Explanation:

(A) Diaphragm: The diaphragm is the primary muscle of inspiration. During inspiration, it
contracts and flattens, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity. During normal expiration,
the diaphragm relaxes and returns to its dome-shaped position.
(B) EICM (External Intercostal Muscles): EICMs are involved in inspiration, helping to
expand the rib cage. They are not involved in normal expiration.
(C) IICM (Internal Intercostal Muscles): IICMs are involved in forceful expiration. During
normal expiration, they are relaxed.
(D) Abdominal muscles: Abdominal muscles are used during forceful expiration, not normal
expiration.
During normal expiration, no muscle contraction is required. It's a passive process that occurs
due to the elastic recoil of the lungs and chest wall. The diaphragm simply relaxes, and the
lungs deflate.

E. Final Answer: The correct answer is 4: No muscles contract during normal expiration.

147)

2300 ml
CONCEPTUAL

148)

Residual volume

149)
Vital capacity

150) Explain Question : Identify a, b, c and d in the given diagram.

Concept : This question is based on transportation of gases
Explanation :

Final answer : 1 a = Inspired Air, b = Expired Air, c = More CO₂, d = More O₂.

151)

At tissue level

152)

Low in tissues

153)

Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin due to high CO2 concentration in tissues

154)

ANSWER WILL BE:- 20 ml. O2

155)

From trachea to initial bronchioles

156)

ANSWER WILL BE:- pH

CONCEPTUAL

157)

Explain the Question : The question asks to interpret curves A and B on the oxyhaemoglobin
dissociation graph in terms of P50 and tissue conditions.
Concept : This question is based on oxygen dissociation curve and Bohr effect.
Solution :
P50 is the partial pressure of oxygen at which hemoglobin is 50% saturated.
Curve A (right-shifted) corresponds to conditions where hemoglobin has lower affinity for
oxygen
→ P50 is increased (higher O2 pressure needed for 50% saturation).
Curve B (left-shifted) corresponds to conditions where hemoglobin has higher affinity → P50 is
decreased.
Right shift occurs at high H+ concentration or high PCO2, typical at tissue level.
Final answer : 2

158)

Explain the Question : The question asks to correctly identify all labelled parts (A–H) in a
sectional diagram of human respiratory system.
Concept : This question is based on structure of lungs, pleura, bronchi, and alveoli
Solution :
A → Pleural membrane (covers lungs)
B → Alveoli (site of gas exchange)
C → Pleural fluid (reduces friction)
D → Bronchiole (air passage to alveoli)
F → Bronchus (branches from trachea)
G → Cut end of rib (shown in section)
H → Left lung (shown in sectional view)
Final Answer : (1)

159)

70%, carbonic anhydrase, HCO3–

160)

Question Explanation: We are asked why oxygenation of haemoglobin helps in the release of
CO₂ from bicarbonate in lungs.

Concept: Transport of gases

Solution: When Hb binds O₂, it becomes oxyhaemoglobin. Oxyhaemoglobin is a stronger acid.

It releases H⁺ ions, which combine with HCO₃⁻ to form H₂CO₃ → which breaks into CO₂ + H₂O.
Thus CO₂ is released in lungs.

Final answer: Option 2

161)

Question Explanation –
The question asks which neural centre sends signals that reduce the duration of inspiration
during breathing.

Concept –
Regulation of breathing

Solution –
The pneumotaxic centre, located in the pons, sends inhibitory signals to the inspiratory centre.
These signals limit and shorten the duration of inspiration, thereby increasing the rate of
respiration.

Final Answer – Option 3

162)

Explain Question : This question asking about regulation of breathing and the relative roles
of pO2 vs pCO2/H+.
Concept : This question is based on regulation of respiration.
Explanation : Peripheral/central chemoreceptors primarily respond to increased pCO2 and H+;
hence O2 has no role in routine regulation, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.
Final answer : 1

163)

C-Dorsal aorta = 95mmHg

164)

A-air expelled from lungs, B-Ribs and sternum returned to original position, C-Diaphragm
relaxed and arched upward

165)

A: RBC, B: Alveolar wall, C: Basement substance.

166) Explain the Question : What is correct about alveoli ?

Concept : This question is based on alveoli
Solution : Thick, irregular-walled and vascularised bag-like structures is correct about alveoli.
Final Answer : 1

167)

Assertion is true but reason is wrong.

 168)

Question explanation: Evaluate the correctness of the statements about lung–thorax

relationship during breathing.
Concept: Respiratory system - lungs and thoracic cage
Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

A. The assertion is true because the lungs are enclosed within the thoracic cavity, so any
change in thoracic volume is directly reflected in pulmonary volume.
B. The reason is also true and correctly explains the assertion, as lungs lack muscles to
change their volume directly, making this anatomical arrangement essential for breathing.

Final answer: Option 4

169)

All of these

170)

ANSWER:- 1

171)

Question explanation: Count how many given statements about respiration and breathing
are true.

Concept: Breathing and respiration – Respiratory organs & pathways

Solution:

(i) True - Mechanism of breathing varies with habitat and level of organization (e.g., skin in
earthworm, gills in fish, lungs in mammals).

(ii) True - Aquatic arthropods (e.g., prawns, crabs) respire using gills.

(iii) True - Pharynx is a common passage for both food and air.

(iv) True - the trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi, and initial bronchioles are
supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings.

Number of true statements = 4

Final answer: Option 1

172)

pCO2 in tissue is same as pO2 in deoxygenated blood

173) Solution: Earthworms use their moist cuticle and insects have a network of tubes
(tracheal tubes) to transport atmospheric air within the body.
Final Answer : (4)

174)

Statement (iii) and (iv) related with inspiration

175)

Two
CONCEPTUAL

176) NCERT Pg. # 274, 17.4..2

177) Question Explanation: This question is asking about diffusion capacity of respiratory
gases across the alveolar membrane.

Concept: This question is based on exchange of gases.

Solution: Diffusion capacity refers to the ability of a gas to diffuse through the respiratory
membrane.
CO2 is about 20 times more soluble and hence its diffusion capacity is much higher than O2.

Final answer: The correct option is (1).

178)

Question explanation: Identify the correct statement about venous plasma in humans.
Concept: Transport of CO₂

Solution:

A. Venous blood carries CO₂ mainly through plasma.

B. About 70% CO₂ is transported as bicarbonate ions and ~7% as dissolved CO₂ in
plasma.

C. Thus, total CO₂ transported through plasma ≈ 77%.

D. Plasma does transport a small amount of O₂ (≈3%), so options stating no O₂ or 99.5% O₂

are incorrect.

Final answer: Option 4

179) NCERT Pg. # 275

180)

Question Explanation: Which statement is incorrect about the thoracic chamber?

Concept: The question is based on thoracic chamber.

Solution: The correct answer is option 4 because it incorrectly states that the thoracic
chamber is dorsally formed by the sternum and ventrally by the vertebral column, whereas
actually the vertebral column is dorsal and the sternum is ventral.

Final answer: Option 4