16-08-2026

2321CMD303034260001 MD

PHYSICS

1) A ball is thrown upwards and it returns to ground describing a parabolic path. Which of the
following remains constant

(1) Kinetic energy of the ball

(2) Speed of the ball
(3) Horizontal component of velocity
(4) Vertical component of velocity

2) Ratio of minimum kinetic energies of two projectiles of same mass is 4 : 1. The ratio of the
maximum height attained by them is also 4 : 1. The ratio of their ranges would be :-

(1) 16 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

3) A tractor is moving in north direction holding a flag with velocity 25 km/hr. Wind is flowing in east
direction with velocity 25 km/hr. In which direction the flag will fly. :-

(1) Towards south

(2) Towards west
(3) Towards south-west
(4) Towards south-east

4) One second after projection, a stone moves at an angle 45º with horizontal. Two seconds after
projection, it moves horizontally. Its angle of projection is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1)
(2) tan–1 (4)
(3) tan–1 (3)
(4) tan–1 (2)

5) A bullet fired from ground at an angle of 60° with the horizontal covers a horizontal distance
of 100 m in 5s. If the bullet is fired at the same angle from a trolley travelling horizontally at 36
km/h, then horizontal distance covered by the bullet in same time will be-

(1) 50 m
(2) 100 m
(3) 150 m
(4) 200 m
6) A person is standing on the top of a building of height 25 m. He want to throw a ball towards a
boy who stands on top of another building of height 20 m at distance 15 m from first building. For
which horizontal speed of projection, it is possible :

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 15 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 20 m/s

7) Four persons P, Q, R and S of same mass travel with same speed u along a square of side 'd' such
that each one always faces the other. After what time will they meet each other ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) An aircraft is flying horizontally at a height of 2000 m vertically above the ground. If the
angle subtended at a ground observation point by the aircraft positions, 8 s apart is 45°. What is
the speed of aircraft?

(1) 100 m/s

(2) 200 m/s
(3) 250 m/s
(4) 400 m/s

9) In a projectile motion, projected from ground at some angle θ (θ < 90°) the velocity is

(1) Always perpendicular to acceleration

(2) Never perpendicular to acceleration
(3) Perpendicular to acceleration at one instant
(4) Perpendicular to acceleration at three instants

10) Equation of trajectory of a projectile is given by y = 4x – 5x2. Horizontal range of projectile

motion is (x → horizontal axis; y → vertical axis)

(1) 0.8 m
(2) 1.20 m
(3) 1.25 m
(4) 1.50 m

11) Two balls A and B are moving with velocity m/s and m/s respectively. Then the
magnitude of relative velocity of ball B w.r.t. ball A is

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3)
(4) 5 m/s

12) Two perpendicular rail tracks have two trains A and B respectively. Train A moves towards
north with a speed of 36 km/h and train B moves towards east with speed of 72 km/h. Then
the magnitude of relative velocity of train B w.r.t. train A is

(1) 10 m/s
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) The figure shows position-time graph for two women going home from the market. Which of the

following statement regarding their relative velocity is true?

(1) Relative velocity is zero

(2) Relative velocity is constant
(3) Relative velocity first increases then decreases
(4) Relative velocity first decreases then increases

14) Raindrops are falling vertically with respect to ground with a velocity of 10 m/s. A person who
is running on straight road, the raindrops appear him to be coming with a velocity of 20 m/s.
The running speed of man is

(1) 10 m/s
(2)
(3)
(4) 20 m/s

15) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding a projectile projected

from ground? a. The maximum possible horizontal range attained by a projectile is , where u is
the projection speed.
b. To attain maximum possible horizontal range, body is thrown at an angle 45°.
c. Linear momentum is conserved throughout projectile motion journey.

(1) Only a
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) a and c

16) A cricket ball is thrown at a speed of 90 km/h in a direction 60° with the vertical. The time taken
by the ball to return to same level is (g = 10 m s–2)

(1)
(2) 2.5s
(3) 4s

(4)

17) Two balls are projected from ground at angles 30° and 60° with same initial speeds. If R1 and
R2 are the ranges of first and second ball, similarly H1 and H2 are their maximum heights and T1
and T2 are time of flights. Then match the information given in column I with column II.

Column I Column II

(A) (P)

(B) (Q)

(C) (R) 1

(1) A → Q; B → P; C → R
(2) A → R; B → Q; C → P
(3) A → R; B → P; C → Q
(4) A → P; B → R; C → Q

18) If a man can swim in still water with 5m/s try to swim at 127° with river flow direction in a river
flowing with 3m/s then find time taken by man to cross this 500 m wide river.

(1)

(2) 125 sec

(3) 250 sec
(4) 123 sec

19) The force 'F' acting on a particle of mass 'm' is indicated by the force-time graph shown below.
The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is :-

(1) 24 Ns
(2) 20 Ns
(3) 12 Ns
(4) 6 Ns

20) Bullets of mass 50g are fired from a gun of mass 10 kg with velocity of 300 m/s. If 5 bullets are
fired per second then what force a person will have to apply on the gun so that it does not recoil:-

(1) 75 N
(2) 150 N
(3) 225 N
(4) 300 N

21) A body of mass 2 kg moving with a speed of 100 m/s hits perpendicular to wall and rebounds
with the same speed. If the contact time is (1/50) s, the average force applied on the wall by the
body is :-

(1) 104 N
(2) 2 × 104 N
(3) 4 N
(4) 8 N

22) In a rocket; fuel is ejected with a velocity of 6 km/sec. If the fuel burns at the rate of 1 kg/sec,
then thrust on rocket is :-

(1) 6 × 103 N
(2) 6 × 102 N
(3) 60 N
(4) 6N

23) For the given F-t graph, if force starts acting on a body of mass 2 kg, which is initially at

rest, then find its velocity after 15 sec :-

(1) 75 m/s
(2) 150 m/s
(3) 125 m/s
(4) None of these

24) A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 1200 m/s. The man holding it, can exert
maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second at the most ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) A force Newton produces acceleration of 1m/sec2 in a body. The mass of the
body is (in kg) :-

(1)

(2) 13 kg
(3) 5 kg
(4) None of these

26) A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the help of a rope which moves with a velocity v as

shown in figure. The horizontal velocity of the block is:

(1) v
(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A cricket player catches a ball of mass 10–1 kg, moving with a velocity of 25 ms–1. If the ball is
caught 0.1 s, the force of the ball exerted on the hand of the player is :-

(1) 4 N
(2) 25 N
(3) 40 N
(4) 250 N

28) The time taken by a body to slide down the smooth inclined plane is 4 sec. The time taken by the
body to slide 1/4 th of the length of the plane is
(1) 1 sec.
(2) 2 sec.
(3)
(4) 0.25 sec

29) Contact forces f1 and f2 are :-

(1) 10N, 6N
(2) 6N, 10N
(3) 3N, 2N
(4) 2N, 3N

30) In the arrangement shown acceleration of the block is

(1) Zero
(2) g/2
(3) g
(4) 2g

31) A body of weight 2kg is suspended as shown in the figure. The tension T1 in the horizontal string

(in kg wt) is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 2

32) Find out minimum value of F so that the 5 kg block remains at rest

(1) 50 N
(2) 100 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 25 N

33) An object is in equilibrium under four concurrent forces in the directions as shown in the figure.
Magnitudes of and are :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 8N, 4N
(4) 4N, 8N

34) For the given pulley system with ideal pulley and ideal strings, find the acceleration of the 4 kg

block and tension in string connecting the blocks. (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 2 m/s2, 32 N
(2) 2 m/s2, 48 N
(3) 4 m/s2, 32 N
(4) 4 m/s2, 48 N

35) A block of 7 kg is connected with a block of 5 kg by a heavy rope of mass 4 kg. If an upward
force of 200 N is applied as shown in figure then the tension at the top of the rope at point P will be–
(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 2.27 N
(2) 112.5 N
(3) 87.5 N
(4) 360 N

36)
Find tension at mid–point of 4kg rope :-

(1) 40 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 60 N
(4) None of these

37) Two bodies of masses 6 kg & 4 kg are arranged as shown. Neglect friction and find acceleration.

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 6 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) 5 m/s2

38) A block of mass 5 kg and surface area 2 m2 just begins to slide down an inclined plane when the
angle of inclination is 30°. Keeping mass same, the surface area of the block is doubled. The angle at
which this starts sliding down is :

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 15°
(4) none

39) A block of mass M = 5 kg is resting on a rough horizontal surface for which the coefficient of
friction is 0.2. When a force F = 40 N is applied as shown in figure the acceleration of the block will
be (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 5.73 m/sec2

(2) 8.0 m/sec2
(3) 3.17 m/sec2
(4) 10.0 m/sec2

40) Acceleration of block A varies with time as shown in figure. The value of coefficient of kinetic
friction between block A and B is :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6
(3) 0.4
(4) None of these

41) A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. Force of 2.8 N
is applied on the block. The force of friction between the block and the floor is

(1) 2.8 N
(2) 8.0 N
(3) 2.0 N
(4) zero

42)

The maximum value of force ‘F’ so that block does not slide up.

(1) 35 N
(2) 24 N
(3) 84 N
(4) 95 N

43)

A block slides down an inclined plane with an acceleration g/2 as shown in fig. Then coefficient of
kinetic friction is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

44)

A block 10 kg is placed on a horizontal surface. Coefficient of static and kinetic friction are 0.4 and
0.3 respectively friction force between the surfaces is when applied horizontal force on the block is
20 N is:-

(1) 20 N
(2) 30 N
(3) 40 N
(4) 50 N

45) A 60N force is needed to start a 60 kg skater moving across a frozen lake. The coefficient of
static friction for steel on ice is approximately (g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 0.06
(2) 0.6
(3) 0.1
(4) 1

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following represents zero overlap of atomic orbitals.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

2) Which of the following structure is most stable ?

Choose the correct option.

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) All three have same stability

3) Correct set of species with zero dipole moment is :

(i) CO2 (ii) COCl2 (iii) CH2Cl2 (iv) BCl3

(1) (i) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv)

4) Which of the following is paramagnetic ?

(1) O2
(2) B2
(3) NO
(4) All

5) Hybridization of the central atom in BrF5 molecule is :-

(1) sp3
(2) sp3d
(3) sp3d2
(4) sp3d3

6) Which one of the following conversion involves change in both hybridization and shape?

(1) CH4 → C2H6

+
(2) NH3 → NH4
–
(3) BF3 → BF4
+
(4) H2O → H3O

7) All the four sigma bonds in perchlorate ClO4– ion are-

(1) sp3 – sp3 bond

(2) sp3 – p bond
(3) sp2 – sp2 bond
(4) sp2 – p bond

8) Geometry of SF2Cl2 molecule is-

(1) Tetrahedral
(2) Octahedral
(3) Square pyramidal
(4) Trigonal bypyramidal

9) Pair of Non-Planner Molecules are ?

(1)
(2) NH3, XeF2
(3)
(4) XeF4,CH4

10) Which of the following is Non polar and planner molecule ?

(1) XeF6
(2) CH4
(3) NH3
(4) SO3

11) The strength of bonds formed by 2s-2s, 2p-2p and 2p-2s has the order:

(1) s-s > p-p > p-s

(2) s-s > p-s > p-p
(3) p-p > p-s > s-s
(4) p-p > s-s > p-s

12) Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing radius ?

(1) K+(aq) < Na+(aq) < Li+(aq)

(2) Na+(aq) < K+(aq) < Li+(aq)
(3) K+(aq) < Li+(aq) < Na+(aq)
(4) Li+(aq) < Na+(aq) < K+(aq)

13) Statement-1 : Dipole moment of NF3 is less than that of NH3.

Statement-2 : Polarity of N—F bond is less than of N—H bond.

(1) If statement-1 is true but statement-2 is false.

(2) If statement-1 is false but statement-2 is true.
(3) If both statements are true and statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1.
(4) If both statements are true and statement-2 is not correct explanation of statement-1.

14) The paramagnetic behaviour of B2 is due to the presence of :

(1) 2 unpaired electron in Bonding MO.

(2) 2 unpaired electron in Antibonding MO.
(3) 2 unpaired electrons in σ MO.
(4) 2 unpaired electrons in σ Antibonding MO.

15) Match the compound given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in column II and
mark the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(A) XeF6 (i) distorted octahedral

(B) XeO3 (ii) square planar

(C) XeOF4 (iii) pyramidal

(D) XeF4 (iv) square pyramidal

Code :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

16) Assertion :- N2+ is more stable than N2–

Reason :- N2+ and N2– have same bond order but N2+ have less number of electrons in anti bonding
molecular orbital than N2–.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) Assertion : 2nd period elements do not expand their octet. Reason : 2nd period elements do not
have vacant 2d-orbitals.

(1) Assertion is true but the reason is false

(2) Assertion is false but reason is true
(3) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(4) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

18) Statement I: Octet theory does not account for the shape of molecules.
Statement II: NO is an odd electron molecule.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct option.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

19) Assertion :- In NH3, N is sp3 hybridised but angle is found to be 107°.

Reason :- The decrease in bond angle is due to repulsion by the lone pair.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

20) Which of the following will have maximum bond energy?

(1) N2
(2) O2
(3) O3
(4) H2

21) Which of the following molecules has the maximum number of A–X bonds of identical length,
where 'A' is the central atom and 'X' is the surrounding atom :-

(1) SF6
(2) IF7
(3) PF5
–
(4) ClO4

22) Assertion (A) :- p-hydroxy benzoic acid has a lower boiling point than O-hydroxy benzoic acid.
Reason (R) :- O-hydroxybenzoic acid has intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

23) Which of the following order is incorrect :-

(1) BF3 < PF3 Dipole moment

(2) N–N < P–P bond strength
(3) PH3 > NH3 solubility in water.
(4) Ne < Ne+ (I.P)

24)

Among KO2, AlO2–, BaO2 & NO2+ unpaired electron is present in :-

+
(1) NO2 & BaO2
–
(2) KO2 & AlO2
(3) KO2 only
(4) BaO2 only

25) Nitrogen forms N2 but phosphorus doesn't form P2. The reason is :-

(1) weak pπ–pπ bonding

(2) multiple bond is formed easily
(3) strong pπ–pπ bonding
(4) triple bond is present in phosphorus atoms

26) Elements in and beyond the third period can expand their octet in the molecules like PF5, SF6
etc, because :-

(1) they contain more than eight-electron in the outermost shell.

(2) their atomic size is large.
(3) they have vacant (n – 1)d orbitals.
(4) They have vacant nd orbitals.

27) The cause of chemical combination is :-

(1) Tendency of acquire minimum energy

(2) Tendency to acquire noble gas configuration
(3) (1) & (2) both
(4) None of these

28) Incorrect order of bond dissociation energy will be

(1) H – H > Cl – Cl > Br – Br

(2) Si – Si > C – C > H – H
(3) C - C > N – N > O – O
(4) H – Cl > H – Br > H – I

29) Which statement is incorrect ?

(1) ClF3 molecule is 'T' shape

(2) In SF4 molecule F–S–F equatorial bond angle is 103º due to l.p - l.p repulsion
(3) In OF2 bond angle is less than H2O
– 0 0
(4) In [ICl4] , Cl – I – Cl bond angle is 90 and 180

30)

Which of the molecule has p – p overlapping?

(1) Cl2
(2) HCl
(3) H2O
(4) NH3

31)

If internuclear axis is y then π- bond is form by-

(1) px + px
(2) s + px
(3) py + py
(4) px + py

32)

In the compound CH3OH, CH4, CF4, CO2 which has maximum dipole moment.

(1) CH3OH
(2) CF4
(3) CH4
(4) CO2

33) In which of the following maximum no. of pπ-dπ bonds are present ?

(1) SO3
(2) XeO3F2
–
(3) NO2
(4) CO2

34) Incorrect statement for ice is :-

(1) less density than liquid water
(2) each O atom is surrounded by four equidistance H-atom
(3) distance between two adjacent O-atoms is equal
(4) open cage like crystal structure

35) Which of the following order is correct :-

CO2 < CO32–

(1)

(2) NH – > NH
2 3

(3) BeCl2 < SnCl2 (dipole moment)

(4) H2O > H2O2 (Boiling point)

36) dipole – dipole attraction is present in :-

(1) CCl4 + CCl4

(2) C6H6 + Xe
(3) Br2 + H2O
(4) H2O + H2O

37) Due to inter molecular H–bond generally :-

(1) Solubility increases

(2) Boiling point increases
(3) Viscosity increases
(4) All of these

38) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) During formation, one electron is removed from the bonding molecular orbital of N2
(2) During formation, one electron is removed from the antibonding molecular orbital of O2.
(3) During formation, one electron is added to the bonding molecular orbital of O2.
(4) During formation, one electron is added to the bonding molecular orbital of B2.

39) If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is 1.73 B.M, it may be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) O2,

40) Which of the following has all equal bond lengths?

(1) SF4
(2) ICℓ3
(3) PCl3
(4) PCl5

41) Statement-1 : In PCl5 molecule, all the hybridised orbitals are equivalent in energy & shape.
Statement-2 : PCl5 contains six bond angle = 90°

(1) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect

(2) Statement-1 & Statement-2 Both are correct
(3) Statement-1 & Statement-2 Both are incorrect
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct

42) Pair of elements which do not form stable compound in its ground state.

(1) N, P
(2) O, S
(3) B, Si
(4) I, Xe

43) Statement-I :- Bond dissociation energy of F2 is greater than Cl2.

Statement-II :- Electronegativity of Cl is greater than F.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

(2) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

44) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is not present in :-

(1) Methyl alcohol

(2) Chloral hydrate
(3) Ortho-nitrophenol
(4) Ortho-fluorophenol

45) An ionic compound A+B– is most likely to be formed when ?

(1) The ionization energy of A is high and electron affinity of B is low.

(2) Both, the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B are high.
(3) Both, the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B are low.
(4) The ionization energy of A is low and electron affinity of B is high.

BOTANY

1) Assertion : Panthera is a polytypic genus.

Reason : Panthera has specific epithets like leo, tigris, pardus.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

2) The number of species is known and described:-

(1) 1.7-1.8 billion

(2) 1.7-1.8 million
(3) 1.3-2.8 billion
(4) 1.3-2.8 million

3) Match the column-I to column-II and select the correct option –

(1) i - a, ii - b, iii - d, iv - c
(2) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a
(3) i - b, ii - d, iii - a, iv - c
(4) I - d, ii - b, iii - c, iv - a

4)

Find the incorrect from the following statements.

(1) To know about diversity and relationship of organisms is systematics

The scope of systematics was later enlarged to include identification, nomenclature and
(2)
classification of organisms
(3) Systematics takes into account evolutionary relationships among organisms
The earliest classifications of organisms were based on evolutionary relationships among
(4)
organisms

5) Mango and wheat belong to same

(1) Phylum
(2) Division
(3) Class
(4) Order
6) Choose the incorrect statement from following :-

(1) Biological names are generally in latin and written in italics

In biological name first word represents the specific epithet while the second word represents
(2)
the genus
(3) Both the words in a biological name when hand written are separately underlined
(4) In biological name the author name appears after specific epithet

7) The biological concept of species given by Ernst Mayr, is based on :-

(1) Morphological characters

(2) Floral characters
(3) Sexual characters
(4) Sexual reproduction

8) Assertion : Based on characteristics all living organisms can be classified into different taxa.
Reason : Lower the taxa, more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon share.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) What is the basics of taxonomy ?

(1) Identification
(2) Nomenclature
(3) Classification
(4) All of the above

10) Process of standardisation of naming of living organisms such that a particular organism is
known by the same name all over the world, is known as

(1) Identification
(2) Taxonomic hierarchy
(3) Classification
(4) Nomenclature

11) Which of the following statement is wrong

(1) Genera are aggregates of closely related species

(2) Scientific name of human being is Homo sapiens
(3) Each genus has only one specific epithet
(4) Panthera pardus is the scientific name of leopard

12) Which scientist is called 'The Darwin of the 20th century' ?

(1) Ernst Mayr
(2) Katherine Esau
(3) G. N. Ramachandran
(4) Melvin Calvin

13) Systema Naturae was written by :

(1) Mayr
(2) De Candolle
(3) Linnaeus
(4) John ray

14) Term 'systematics' was derived from the word "Systema" which means _____ :-

(1) Evolutionary relationship

(2) Systematic arrangement of organisms
(3) Naming of organisms
(4) Classification of organisms

15) As we go from kingdom to species, the number of common characteristic goes on -

(1) Decreasing
(2) Increasing
(3) Remain same
(4) First increasing then decreasing

16) In Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum, and Panthera leo, all the three words, indica,
tuberosum and leo represent the :-

(1) Names of species

(2) Names of specific epithets
(3) Names of genus
(4) Names of generic epithet

17) Scientific name of Mango plant is Mangifera indica Linn. in the above name Linn. refers to :-

(1) Variety of Mango

(2) A taxonomist who proposed the present nomenclature in honour of linnaeus
(3) A scientist who for the first time described the mango plant
(4) A scientist who changed the name proposed by Linnaeus and proposed present name

18) Taxonomically a species is :-

(1) A group of individuals having same Floral characters only

(2) A group of species capable of interbreeding
(3) A group of individuals living together in a habitat
(4) A group of individual organisms with fundamental morphological similarities

19) Which of the following rank contains organisms least similar to one another?

(1) Class
(2) Genus
(3) Species
(4) Kingdom

20) Study the following table which shows different organisms with their taxonomic categories -

Common
Family Order Class Phylum/Division
name

Man Hominidae Primata Mammalia A

Houselfy Muscidae Diptera B Arthropoda

Mango C Sapindales Dicotyledonae Angiospermae

Wheat Poaceae Poales D Angiospermae

Select the correct option for A, B, C and D
A-Chordata, B-Insecta, C-Anacardiaceae,
(1)
D-Monocotyledonae
A-Animalia, B-Anacardiaceae, C-Solanaceae,
(2)
D-Dicotyledonae
A-Chordata, B-Anacardiaceae, C-Polymoniales,
(3)
D-Monocotyledonae
A-Non-chordata, B-Insecta, C-Anacardiaceae,
(4)
D-Dicotyledonae

21) Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. Species?

(1) A group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities

(2) Two different species breed together to produce fertile offsprings
(3) Human beings belong to the species sapiens
(4) Panthera has many specific epithets as tigris, leo and pardus

22) The relation of Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae with Polymoniales is similar to the relation
occuring in :-

(1) Felidae and Canidae with Carnivora

(2) Primata and Carnivora with Mammalia
(3) Amphibia and Reptilia with Chordata
(4) Solanum and Petunia with Solanaceae

23) The species (man, housefly, mango, wheat, dog, cat, lion, tiger, potato, brinjal, makoi and
leopard) given here belong to how many different families?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 4

24) Two animals which are the members of the same order must also be the members of the
same_________.

(1) Class
(2) Family
(3) Genus
(4) Species

25) The common characteristics between tiger and cats will be maximum at the level of their :-

(1) Class
(2) Genus
(3) Species
(4) Family

26) Muscidae is the _____ of housefly

(1) Family
(2) Order
(3) Class
(4) Phylum

27) Plant families are characterised on the basis of

(1) Vegetative features only

(2) Reproductive features only
(3) Both vegetative and reproductive features
(4) Either vegetative or reproductive systems/features

28) Recognise the following diagram & find the correct option:

Here A, B & C are : -

(1) A- Polymoniales , B- Fabaceae, C- Brassica

(2) A - Convulvulaceae , B- Petunia , C- Polymoniales
(3) A - Fabaceae , B- Petunia , C- Convulvulaceae
(4) A- Polymoniales , B- Convulvulaceae , C- Petunia

29) The number and types of organisms present on earth make :-

(1) Taxonomy
(2) Plant diversity
(3) Animal diversity
(4) Biodiversity

30) Which of the following is not a part of taxonomy ?

(1) Identification
(2) Nomenclature
(3) Classification
(4) Conservation

31) Practical purpose of taxonomy or classification :-

(1) Facilitate the identification of unknown species.

(2) Explain the origin of organisms.
(3) To know the evolutionary history
(4) Identification of medicinal plants

32) Assertion : All living organism present, past and future are linked to one another.
Reason : All living organism share the common genetic material but to varying degrees.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

33) A is the branch of science which deals with diversity of organisms and the B relationship
amongst them.
Complete the above statements why choosing correct option for A and B.

(1) A – Taxonomy, B – Reproductive

(2) A – Systematics, B – Evolutionary
(3) A – Classification, B – Evolutionary
(4) A – Identification, B – Evolutionary

34) Cat and Dog are present in the same class but not in the same family. They belong to same :-

(1) Species
(2) Genus
(3) Variety
(4) Order

35) Which character defines a species, but not used in taxonomy ?

(1) Morphological resemblance

(2) Biochemical resemblance
(3) Anatomical characters
(4) Interbreeding

36) Each category, referred to as a unit of classification, in fact, represent a rank and is commonly
termed as-

(1) Taxon
(2) Manual
(3) Monograph
(4) Hierarchy

37) Find the correct statements from the following and give answer :-
(A) Family is a group of related genera with more number of similarities than genus and species.
(B) Every taxonomic category / Rank / Taxon represent a unit of classification.

(1) Both (A) and (B)

(2) only (B)
(3) only (A)
(4) None

38) The most convenient method of nomenclature system, used for nomenclature of maximum plants
is :-

(1) Polynomial nomenclature

(2) Binomial nomenclature
(3) Trinomial nomenclature
(4) Both (1) & (2)

39) ICBN stands for :-

(1) International Code of Biological Nomenclature

(2) International Code of Bacterial Nomenclature
(3) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(4) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature

40) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
(Biological Name) (Family)

I. Panthera leo a. Poaceae

II. Mangifera indica b. Felidae

III. Triticum aestivum c. Anacardiaceae

IV. Musca domestica d. Muscidae

(1) I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-d
(2) I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-d
(3) I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d
(4) I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c

41) In potato, brinjal, lion, leopard, and tiger, how many species and genera are there respectively ?

(1) 4 & 2
(2) 5 & 3
(3) 5 & 4
(4) 5 & 2

42) Animals, mammals and dogs represent :

(1) Taxa at different levels

(2) Taxa at same level
(3) Different taxa at same level
(4) Both (1) and (3)

43) Plant families grouped in an order is mainly based on which characters ?

(1) Anatomical character

(2) Vegetative characters
(3) Affinities
(4) Floral character

44) Assertion : Members of a species are reproductively isolated from others belonging to other
species.
Reason : Species is the basic taxonomic category.

(1) Both statements A and R are true and statement R is a correct explanation of statement A
(2) Both statements A and R are true but statement R is not a correct explanation of statement A
(3) Statement A is true but statement R is false
(4) Both statements A and R are false statements

45) Chose the incorrect statements from following :-

(A) Mayr was awarded the three prizes widely regarded as the triple crown of biology.
(B) ICZN provide informations about various botanical gardens in the world.
(C) Mammals, Dicots, Insects represent different taxa at same level.
(D) The word systematics is derived from greek word 'systema'.

(1) (A) & (D) Only

(2) (B) & (C) Only
(3) (B) & (D) Only
(4) (A), (C) & (D) Only

ZOOLOGY
1) All of the following are basis of differences between veins and arteries, except

(1) Presence of endothelium

(2) Direction of blood flow
(3) Diameter of lumen
(4) Presence of valves

2) Stroke volume can be best described as

(1) Volume of blood that remains in each ventricle after ventricular systole.
(2) Volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle of heart per minute
(3) Cardiac output × Heart rate
(4) Volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle during a cardiac cycle

3) During a standard cardiac cycle, what prevents the backflow of blood from the major arteries into
the ventricles during ventricular diastole?

(1) The relaxation of the sinoatrial (SA) node

(2) The closure of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves
(3) The closure of the semilunar valves
(4) The contraction of the pectinate muscles in the atria

4) In hepatic portal system, the hepatic portal vein carries blood from

(1) Kidney to the liver

(2) Intestine to the liver
(3) Liver to heart
(4) Liver to intestine

5) Assertion (A): The human heart is myogenic.

Reason (R): The nodal musculature of human heart has the ability to generate action potentials
without any external stimuli.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

6)

A laboratory technical mixed blood group ‘A’ donor with blood group ‘B’ recipient.
Agglutination occurs immediately.
Which factor is responsible ?

(1) Presence of antigen ‘A’ and antibody ‘A’ together

(2) Presence of antigen ‘B’ and antibody ‘B’ together
(3) Antigen ‘A’ reacts with anti-A antibodies present in B-group recipient.
(4) Antigen ‘B’ reacts with anti-B antibodies present in A-group recipient.

7) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct

(A) All vertebrates possess a muscular chambered heart
(B) Annelids and chordates have an open circulatory system
(C) Fishes have two chambered heart with an atrium and a ventricle
(D) Amphibians have a three chambered heart with two atria and a single ventricle
(E) The study of heart is called nephrology

(1) A,B,C
(2) B,C,D
(3) A,C,D
(4) C,D,E

8) Which one of the following statement is correct regarding blood pressure ?

(1) 190/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney
(2) 120/80 mmHg is considered high and requires treatment
(3) 100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure
(4) 105/50 mmHg makes one very active

9) Read the following statements (A-D)

(A) To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrical leads (One
to each wrist and to the left ankle) that continuously monitor the heart activity
(B) By counting the number of QRS complexes that occur in a given time period, one can determine
the heart beat rate of an individual
(C) ECG obtained from different individuals have roughly the same shape for a given lead
configuration
(D) The P-wave represents the electrical excitation (or depolarisation) of the atria, which leads to the
contraction of both the atria
How many of the above statements are true :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2

10) The SAN generates an action potential which stimulates both the atria to undergo as
simultaneous contraction, which is represented in ECG by

(1) T-wave
(2) QRS complex
(3) P wave
(4) S-T segment

11) At the time of diastole, heart is filled with

(1) Mixed blood
(2) Venous blood
(3) Deoxygenated blood
(4) Oxygenated blood

12) Mark the correct answer for given diagram :

(1) Blood flow with High pressure Blood flow with low pressure
(2) Valve present / Deep situated Valve absent / Superficial
(3) Tunica interna formed by squamous epithelium Tunica interna formed by squamous epithelium
(4) Thin wall / Narrow lumen Thick wall / Wide lumen
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Match the following columns :

Column-I Column-II
Heart muscle is
(A) Heart failure I. suddenly damaged
by inadequate blood supply.
Chest pain due to inadequate O2
(B) Cardiac arrest II.
reaching the heart muscles.
(C) Heart attack III. Atherosclerosis.
Coronary
Heart not pumping blood effectively
(D) Artery Disease IV.
enough to meet the needs of the body.
(CAD)
(E) Angina pectoris V. Heart stops beating
Codes:
(1) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-II
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-III, E-II
(3) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III
(4) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-III, E-I

14)

Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Ca-ion is necessary for blood coagulation
II. Coagulation in blood vessel is prevented during normal condition by heparin.
III. Clotting of blood involves changes of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin
IV. Blood clotting involves cascading process involving a number of factors present in the active
form always.

(1) I, III, IV
(2) II, IV
(3) I, II, III
(4) III, IV

15) In emergency, which group of blood can be transfused safely without cross matching ?

(1) A and Rh–

(2) O and Rh–
(3) A and Rh+
(4) O and Rh+

16) Which is not correct about joint diastole ?

(1) Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are open

(2) All four chambers are in diastole
(3) Semilunar valves are open
(4) Semilunar valves are closed

17) Which is the correct pathway of pulmonary circulation ?

(1)
Rt. ventricle Lungs Lt. atrium

(2)
Rt. ventricle Lungs Lt. atrium

(3)
Lt ventricle Lungs Rt. atrium

(4) Lt ventricle Body tissues Rt ventricle

18) During cardiac cycle, about .... A ...% of ventricular filling occurs prior to the atrial contraction
and ...B...% ventricular filling occurs due to atrial contraction. Choose the correct option for A and B
:

(1) A-30; B-70

(2) A-70; B-30
(3) A-40; B-60
(4) A-60, B-40
19)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Assertion (A) : Closed circulatory system is more advantageous over open circulatory system.
Reason (R) : Flow of blood can be more precisely regulated in closed circulatory system.
Which of the following option is correct regarding given statements –

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true

21) Find out the correct match –

Column-A Column-B

Ventricular
1.
repolarisation

Atrial
2.
repolarisation

Atrial
3.
depolarisation

Use to
4. determine
HR

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
22) Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
Guards the opening
A. Tricuspid valves I. between right atrium
and right ventricle
Guards the opening
between the left
B. Sino-atrial node II.
atrium and the left
ventricle
Guards the opening
of right and left
Mitral
C. III. ventricles into
valves
pulmonary artery and
aorta, respectively
Cardiac musculature
Semilunar in the right upper
D. IV.
valves corner of right
atrium
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

23) Read the following statements and select the correct ones.
(i) Nodal tissue is specialised cardiac musculature in human heart which has the ability to generate
action potential due to an external stimuli.
(ii) Position of SAN - right upper corner of right atrium.
(iii) Position of AVN-right corner of ventricle
(iv) AV bundle continues from AVN.

(1) (i) & (ii)

(2) (i) & (iii)
(3) (ii) & (iv)
(4) All

24) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :

Column I Column II
A. Fishes 1 Two-chambered
B. Amphibians 2 Three-chambered
C. Reptiles 3 Four-chambered
D. Birds
E. Mammals
(1) A–1, B–2, C–2, D–2, E–3
(2) A–2, B–2, C–2, D–3, E–3
(3) A–1, B–2, C–2, D–3, E–3
(4) A–1, B–1, C–2, D–2, E–3

25)
'B', 'A' and 'C' respectively are :-

(1) (60-65), (20-25), (2-3)

(2) (60-65), (2-3), (20-25)
(3) (20-25), (60-65), (2-3)
(4) (2-3), (20-25), (60-65)

26) Right atrium in mammalian heart receive blood from :-

(a) Superior vena cava
(b) Pulmonary veins
(c) Pulmonary artery
(d) Inferior vena cava
(e) Aorta

(1) a and d
(2) e
(3) b
(4) c

27) The first heart sound is :

(1) 'LUB' sound produced at the beginning of atrial systole

(2) 'DUB' sound produced at the end of atrial systole
(3) 'LUB' sound produced at the beginning of ventricular systole
(4) 'DUB' sound produced at the beginning of atrial systole

28) Match the column-I to column-II :

Column-I Column-II
(I) Polycythemia (a) Increased no. of acidophil
(II) Leucocytosis (b) Decreased no. of platelets
(III) Thrombocytopenia (c) Increased no. of R.B.C
(IV) Eosinophilia (d) Increased T.L.C
(1) (I)-(c) (II)-(b) (III)-(d) (IV)-(a)
(2) (I)-(b) (II)-(a) (III)-(c) (IV)-(d)
(3) (I)-(c) (II)-(d) (III)-(b) (IV)-(a)
(4) (I)-(d) (II)-(a) (III)-(b) (IV)-(c)
29) During blood clotting, which of the following sequence is correct?

(1) Prothrombin → Thrombin → Fibrinogen → Fibrin

(2) Fibrinogen → Thrombin → Prothrombin → Fibrin
(3) Thrombin → Prothrombin → Fibrin → Fibrinogen
(4) Prothrombin → Fibrinogen → Thrombin → Fibrin

30) Which of the following correctly differentiates RBCs and WBCs in terms of structure and
function?

(1) RBCs have nucleus and perform defense

(2) WBCs lack nucleus and transport oxygen
(3) RBCs lack nucleus and transport oxygen
Both have nucleus and perform clotting
(4)

31) Which of the following correctly explains the relationship between plasma proteins and blood
pressure?

(1) Albumin decreases osmotic pressure

(2) Globulins regulate clotting
(3) Albumin maintains colloidal osmotic pressure
(4) Fibrinogen transports oxygen

32) Erythroblastosis foetalis can be prevented by administering anti-Rh antibodies to

(1) Rh-ve mother after delivery of first Rh+ve baby

(2) Rh-ve mother after conception of first Rh+ve baby
(3) Rh-ve mother after delivering second Rh-ve baby
(4) Rh+ve mother after conception of second Rh-ve baby

33) Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for the biconcave shape of mature human
erythrocytes?

(1) To increase surface area for oxygen transport

(2) To facilitate easy passage through capillaries
(3) To allow maximum space for haemoglobin
(4) All of the above

34) Which of the following is not a granulocyte?

(1) Neutrophil
(2) Eosinophil
(3) Basophil
(4) Monocyte

35) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion (A) : Vertebrates have a closed circulatory system to transport blood.
Reason (R) : The blood pumped by the heart of vertebrates is always circulated through a closed
network of blood vessels.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) A is correct but R is not correct

36) Assertion (A): Blood group AB is a universal recipient.

Reason (R): AB individuals have no anti-A or anti-B antibodies in plasma.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

37) The thickest layer of the heart wall is:

(1) Pericardium
(2) Endocardium
(3) Myocardium
(4) Epicardium

38) Assertion (A): SA node is called the pacemaker.

Reason (R): It generates the highest number of action potentials per minute.

(1) Both A and R true, R explains A

(2) Both true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true

39) Which of the following is the CORRECT mode of conduction of wave ?

(1) SAN → AVN → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres → Heart muscles

(2) AVN → SAN → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres → Heart muscles
(3) AVN → SAN → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His → Heart muscles
(4) SAN → AVN → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His → Heart muscles

40) In a normal adult human, nearly what per cent of the blood is constituted by the formed
elements?

(1) 6-8
(2) 55
(3) 45
(4) 90-92

41) Duration of joint diastole in cardiac cycle is:

(1) 0.4 seconds

(2) 0.8 seconds
(3) 1.0 second
(4) 1.2 seconds

42) Statement I: CAD narrows artery lumen.

Statement II: Due to deposits of calcium, fat, cholesterol.

(1) Both true, II explains I

(2) Both true, II does not explain I
(3) I true, II false
(4) Both are false

43)

Select the incorrect one :

Antibodies
Blood Group Donor's Group
in plasma

(1) A anti-B A,O

(2) O anti-A,B O

(3) B anti-A A,O

(4) AB nil AB, A, B, O

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Myogenic heart means regulation by what?

(1) Neural centre in medulla

(2) Specialised muscles (nodal tissue)
(3) Hormones only
(4) ANS only

45) Observe the diagram given below and choose the correct answer.

(1) Only artery which carry deoxygenated blood is ‘A’.

(2) Only vein which carry oxygenated blood is ‘B’.
(3) More surface area is covered by ‘E’.
(4) All of the above.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 4 4 3 2 1 3 3 1 4 2 2 3 4 2 3 2 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 1 3 2 3 2 2 1 2 3 2 1 2 2 3 1 1 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 2 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 1 4 3 3 2 4 1 4 3 1 1 1 2 1 3 4 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 3 3 1 4 3 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 3 4 4 3 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 4 1 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 2 4 2 2 4 2 4 4 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 4 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 3 1 4 1 3 4 4 4 1 1 2 4 4 1 2 2 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 4 2 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 4 3 2 3 3 3 1 2 3 2 3 1 3 2 3 1 2 1 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 4 3 3 3 2 1 3 3 1 3 3 1 4 4 2 1 3 1 1 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

ax = 0
vx = constant

2) ⇒

3)

Explanation the Question:

A tractor is moving in north direction holding a flag with velocity 25 km/hr. Wind is flowing in
east direction with velocity 25 km/hr. We have to calculate the direction in which the flag will
fly.
Concept:

This question is based on

Solution:

the flag will fly in south east direction

Final Answer: (4)
4) T = ⇒
⇒ u sinθ = 2g ...(1)

u sinθ – g = u cosθ
2g – g = u cos θ
u cos θ = g .... (2)
tan θ = 2
θ = tan–1 (2)

5) R = ucosθ × t
100 = ucosθ × 5
ucosθ = 20
Now

Also R =

⇒ 100 = or usinθ = 25

Now R' =

= = 150 m

6)

For vertical disp.

5 = 0 + 10t2

t = 1 sec
and,
R=V×t
15 = V × 1
V = 15 m/s

7)
8) Correct Answer
Option (3) 250 m/s

9) Correct Answer
Option (3)
Perpendicular to acceleration at one instant

10) Correct Answer

Option (1) 0.8 m

11) Correct Answer

Option (4) 5 m/s

12) Correct Answer

Option (2)

13) Correct Answer

Option (2)
Relative velocity is constant

14) Correct Answer

Option (3)

15) Correct Answer

Option (4)
a and c

16) Correct Answer

Option (2)
2.5s

17) Correct Answer

Option (3)
A → R; B → P; C → Q
18)

= 125 sec.

19) Explain the Question : Find change in momentum form 0 to 8sec.

Concept : This question is based on change in momentum (F vs t curve).
Solution :

Area under F-t curve gives change in momentum (ΔP)

ΔP = 6 – 6 + 12
ΔP = 12 Ns
Final Answer : (3)

20)

Correct option is (1)

21) Explain the Question : Asking about the average force applied on the wall by the body.

Concept : This question is based on striking & rebouncing perpendicularly.

Solution :

F = 2 × 104 N

Final Answer: Option (2)

22) Explain Question:
Question ask to find thrust on rocket.

Concept:
Rocket propulsion.

Solution:

= 6 × 103 N

Final Answer: Option(1)

23)

Explain the Question : For a body of mass m = 2 kg initially at rest, subjected to the time-
varying force (F−t) graph shown, find its final velocity v2​ after t = 15
sec.
Concept : This question is based on the impulse - change in its linear momentum.
Formula : Impulse (J) = Δp = m(v2​ − v1​) = Area of the F−t graph
Solution : Impulse = Δp = Area of force-time graph

m(v2 – v1) =
2(v – 0) = 10 + 30 + 25 + 50 + 20 + 15
v = 75 m/sec
Final answer : 1

24)

144 = (40 × 10–3) (1200)

= 3 bullets/sec.

25) Explain Question : A force of F Newton produces an acceleration of 1m/s2 in a body. We

need to determine the mass of the body.

Concept : This problem is based on Newton's Second Law of Motion.

Formula :
F = ma

Solution :

Given: a = 1m/s2 F = = = 13 N so,

Final Answer : Option (2)

26)

Explain the Question : We need to find the horizontal velocity of the block shown in the
figure, from given data.
Concept : This question is based on constraint motion.
Solution :
v' sinθ = v

Final answer : 3

27) Question Explanation:

A cricket player catches a ball, stopping it in 0.1s. We need to calculate the force exerted on
the player's hand.

Concept :
Newton's second law - Impulse and force

Formula Used: F =
Calculation:
• Initial momentum: Pi = (0.1) × (25) = 2.5 kg m/s • Final momentum: Pf = 0 • Change in

momentum: ΔP = 2.5 – 0 = 2.5 • Force: F= = 25 N

Final Answer:
25 N (Option 2)

28) Explain: A body slides down a smooth inclined plane and takes 4 seconds to cover the
entire length. Find the time it takes to slide down 1th of the length of the same plane, starting
from rest.
Concept: For motion down a smooth inclined plane starting from rest, the distance covered is
directly proportional to the square of the time taken

Formula: s = ut + at2

Here, initial velocity u = 0, so s = at2 ‘a’ is the acceleration down the inclined plane, which is
constant (g sinθ).
Calculation:
t

= = =

t2 = = = 2 sec
Ans. (2) Difficulty level: Moderate
29) Question Explanation:
Calculating contact forces between three blocks.

Concept:
System acceleration and Free Body Diagrams.

Solution:
Total mass = 3 + 2 + 1 = 6kg

Acceleration (a) = = 2m/s2

f2 (force on 3kg block) = m3 × a = 3 × 2 = 6N
f1 (force between 2kg and 1kg) pushes (3kg + 2kg)
f1 = (3 + 2) × a = 5 × 2 = 10N

Final Answer: Option (1)

30) Explain the question : To find the acceleration of the block.

Concept: This question is based on motion of bodies connected with pulley systems without
spring
Formula: Net force = mass × acceleration
Solution:

⇒a= upward
Final answer : 2

31) Explanation: We need to find out the tension T1 in the horizontal string .

Concept: Equilibrium .

Formula: Fnet = 0.

Solution :
ΣFy​ = 0 ⇒ T2 sin 30° = 2g ....(i)

ΣFx​ = 0 ⇒ T2 ​cos 30∘ = T1 ... (ii)

Equation (i) (ii)

Final Answer: Option(3)

32) Explain the Question : We need to find the minimum force F, which is sufficient to keep
the block in the state of equilibrium, against the rough vertical wall shown.
Concept : This question is based on block against rough vertical wall.
Solution :
µN = Mg
0.5(F) = 5(10)
F = 100 N
Final Answer : 2

33) Question Explanation: To Find value of F1 and F2.

Concept: Based on translational equilibrium.

Solution:
F1 + 4 cos(30°) = F2 sin(30°) ....(1)

F2 cos(30°) = (8) + 4 cos(60°)

F2 = 10 N

F2 = N

From eq. (1)

F1 +

F1 =

Final Answer: Option (1)

34) Explain Question:

Question ask to find the acceleration of the 4 kg block & tension in string

Concept:
Motion of bodies connected with pulley system.

Solution:

Final Answer: option(2)

35) Explain Question:

Question ask to find tension at top of the rope
 Concept:
Motion of bodies connected with string.

Solution:

m/sec2
TP = 9(g + a)

TP =
TP = 112.5 N

Final Answer: option(2)

36)

Question Explanation: We have to calculate tension at mid-point of 4 kg rope.

Concept: Newton's Second Law
Solution:

Common acceleration of system:

Let tension at mid-point of 4 kg rope is T

80 – T = (5) (4)
80 – T = 20
T = 60 N

Final answer: Option (3)

37) Explain Question :

Calculating acceleration for a horizontal pulley system.

Concept:
Newton's Second Law of Motion.

Solution:
Net pulling force = Mhanging × g
Force = 4 × 10 = 40 N
Total system mass = 6 + 4 = 10 kg

Acceleration (a) =
Final Answer: Option (1)

38) Question Explanation: Question ask to find angle at which sliding starts.
Concept: Motion on Rough Incline plane.
Solution:
The angle at which a block begins to slide is called the angle of repose, defined by .
Friction is independent of the surface area of contact between the two bodies.
Doubling the surface area while keeping the mass and material constant does not change the
coefficient of friction .
Since μs remains the same, the sliding angle remains 30º.

Final Answer: Option (1)

39)

Question Explanation:
In this question, we have to calculate acceleration of block placed on a rough horizontal
surface when an external force of F = 40 N is applied.

Concept: Motion of a block on rough horizontal surface.

Solution: Resolving the force F into its components and drawing the FBD

In vertical direction
N + 40 sin 30º = 50
N = 50 – 40 sin 30º = 30

flimiting = μN = 0.2 × 30 = 6 N

In horizontal direction
Fnet = ma = 40 cos 30º – flimiting

a=

Final Answer: Option (1)

40)

Explain Question:
To calculate coefficient of kinetic friction between the blocks 'A' & 'B'.
 Concept:
Friction

Solution:
after 10 sec , for block A
fK = ma
µkmg = ma

a = µkg ⇒ µk = = 0.5

Final Answer: Option (1)

41)

fmax = 20 × 0.4 = 8N
∴ f = 2.8N (Applied force)

42)

F = mg Sin 37° + μ Mg Cos 37°

43) Explain the Question : We need to find the coefficient of kinetic friction for the given
rough inclined plane.
Concept : This question is based on motion on an rough inclined plane.
Formula : Fnet = ma
Solution :
a = g (sin60° – μ cos60°)

⇒
Final Answer : 2

44) 1. Problem Explanation

A 10 kg block is placed on a horizontal surface with static friction (11, 0.4) and kinetic friction
( μ (0.3). We need to determine the friction force when a 20 N horizontal force is applied.

2. Concept

A. Static friction prevents motion until a certain limit .

B. If the applied force exceeds , the block moves, and kinetic friction ( fk ) acts.

3. Formula

A. Maximum static friction:

B.

where N = mg is the normal force.

A. Kinetic friction:
 B.

4. Calculation

A. Normal force:
B. Maximum static friction:

A. Since applied force (20 N) is less than , the block does not move, and static
friction equals the applied force:
B. Friction force =20 N (static friction acting to balance the applied force).

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) zero overlap

47)

In I, lp occupies equitorial position &

have minimumrepulsion
most stable
Option 1

48)

Question Explanation :
Identify molecules with symmetrical geometry causing zero net dipole moment.

Concept :
This question is based on Dipole moment.

Solution :
CO2 and BCl3 have symmetrical structures, so their bond dipoles cancel out, resulting in zero
overall dipole moment.
Final Answer : Option (1)

49) Explained on the basis of MOT.

50)

Explain Question: Determine the hybridisation of bromine in BrF5 molecule.

Concept: This question is based on VSEPR and hybridisation theory.
Solution: BrF5 has 5 bond pairs and 1 lone pair → 6 electron domains → sp3d2 hybridisation,
giving a square pyramidal shape.
Final Answer: Option (3)

51) BF3 —→ BF4–

3σ 4σ
2
sp sp3
Trigonal Tetrahedral
Planar

52)
Hybridization of Cl ⇒ sp3
so sp3 – p ovarlapping

53)

54)
55) SO3 ⇒
μ = 0 ⇒ N.P
sp2
Trigonal planner

56)

Bond strength depends upon extent of overlapping.

Extent of overlapping ∝ in (Principle Quantum no.)
of n is same then extent of overlapping ⇒ p > s (directional nature)
Hence, overall ⇒ 2p-2p > 2p-2s > 2s-2s

57) Hydrated size of ion ∝ Charge density of ion. K+(aq) < Na+(aq) < Li+(aq)

58) Dipole moment of NF3 is less than that of NH3.

Polarity of N—F bond is more than of N—H bond.

59)

Question Explanation: Paramagnetism arises when a molecule has unpaired electrons in

its molecular orbitals.

Concept:
Molecular Orbital (MO) theory for homonuclear diatomic molecules (B₂ to N₂):
Energy order →KK' σ2s < σ*2s < π2pₓ = π2pᵧ < σ2p

Solution:
B₂ has 10 electrons.
MO configuration: KK'(σ2s)² (σ*2s)² (π2pₓ)¹ (π2pᵧ)¹

Two electrons occupy π bonding MOs singly, remaining unpaired → paramagnetism.

2 unpaired electrons in π bonding MO.

Final Answer: Option 1

60) XeF6 → sp3d3 → distorted octahedral

XeO3 → sp3 → pyramidal

XeOF4 → sp3d2 → square pyramidal

XeF4 → sp3d2 → square planar

61)

Question Explanation: Compare stability of N2+ and N2– using bond order.
Concept: This question is based on Molecular orbital theory
Solution: Both N2+ and N2– have the same bond order (2.5), but N2+ has fewer electrons in
antibonding orbitals than N2–, hence higher bond order and greater stability. So Reason
correctly explains Assertion.

N2+ (13 electrons)- σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​π2px2 = ​π2py2, ​σ2pz1
0
N2– (15 electrons)- σ1s2, ​σ∗1s2, σ2s2, ​σ∗2s2, ​π2px2 = ​π2py2, ​σ2pz2 , π∗2px1= ​π∗2py
Final Answer: Option (1)

62)

Explain Question: Check validity of statement about octet expansion in 2nd-period elements.

Concept: octet rule, covalency.

Solution: 2nd-period elements (Li–Ne) lack 2d orbitals, so they cannot expand octet. Thus,
both assertion and reason are true, and reason explains assertion correctly.

Final Answer: Option (3)

63)
 Explain the Question :- Determine correctness of statements about octet theory and NO
molecule.
Concept :-This question is based on Octet rule limitations and odd-electron species
Solution :- Octet theory fails to explain molecular shapes; NO has 15 electrons, making it an
odd-electron molecule. Hence, both statements are correct.
Final answer :- (4)

64) Explain the question : Explain why NH3 has bond angle 107° instead of 109.5°C.
Concept : This question is based on VSEPR theory.
Solution : NH3 is sp3 hybridised with one lone pair. Lone pair-bond pair repulsion compresses
H–N–H angle from 109.5° to 107°.
Final answer : 1

65)

Question Explanation: Identify molecule with the strongest (maximum energy) bond.
Concept: This question is based on Bond order ∝ Bond energy
Solution:

A. N2: Bond order = 3 → very strong triple bond

B. O2: Bond order = 2
C. O3: Resonating bonds < double bond
D. H2: Single bond

Final Answer: Option (1)

66) SF6 = Octahedral all six S – F bond length are same

67)

Due to intramolecular H-bonding in O-hydroxy benzoic acid

68) NH3 forms H-bond with water.

69)

Question Explanation :We are asked: Among KO2, AlO2–, BaO2, and NO2+, in which species is
an unpaired electron present?

Concept : Magnetic nature of molecule

Solution :
KO₂: O₂⁻ has 13 valence electrons → one unpaired electron present.
AlO₂⁻: Total valence electrons paired → no unpaired electron.
BaO₂: O₂²⁻ has 14 valence electrons → all electrons paired.
NO₂⁺: Total valence electrons = 16 → no unpaired electron.

Final Answer : Option 3

 70) Page. 167 para 6th (Anamolous property of N)

71)

Explain Question: Identify correct reason for octet expansion in higher period elements.

Concept: d-orbitals involvement, Covalency

Solution: Elements in the third period (n = 3) and beyond have access to vacant 3d orbitals in
addition to 3s and 3p orbitals. These vacant nd orbitals allow the central atom to accommodate
more than eight electrons by accepting additional bonds, leading to an expanded octet in
molecules like PF₅ (10 electrons) and SF₆ (12 electrons).

(n–1)d orbitals are inner and not involved

Final Answer: Option (4)

72) Explanation: The question asks what drives atoms to form chemical bonds.

Concept : (Drives atoms to form chemical bonds)

Atoms combine to lower their energy state, achieving greater stability.
They also strive for a noble gas electron configuration (full valence shell). Therefore, both
minimum energy and noble gas configuration drive chemical combinations.

Final Answer - Option (3)

73)

Bond energy

H–H > C–C > Si–Si

74) In SF4, F–S–F equitorial bond angle is 103° due to ℓ.p – b.p repulsion.

75)

76)

77)

Dipole moment (D.P.) ⇒

(1) CH3OH = SN = 4 = DM≠ O

(2) CF4 = SN = 4 = DM = O

(3) CH4 = SN = 4 = DM = O
(4) CO2 = SN = 2
O = C = O DM = O

78)

XeO3F2 ⇒ 3 pπ–dπ bonds

79)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the incorrect statement about the
structure and properties of ice.

Concept: Ice has an open cage-like (hexagonal) crystal structure due to hydrogen
bonding. Each O atom is tetrahedrally surrounded by four H atoms, but two are
covalently bonded and two are hydrogen-bonded, so the O–H distances are not equal.

Solution:

A. Ice has less density than liquid water → Correct

B. Each O atom is surrounded by four equidistant H atoms → Incorrect (2 covalent O–H

< 2 hydrogen-bonded O···H)

C. Distance between adjacent O atoms is equal in the crystal → Correct

D. Ice has an open cage-like crystal structure → Correct

Final Answer: Option 2

80)
Explain Question: Identify the correct order among given molecular properties.
Concept: Bond angle, dipole moment, boiling point trends
Solution: BeCl2 is linear with zero net dipole moment μ = 0 due to symmetry. SnCl2 is bent
with one lone pair, resulting in a non-zero dipole moment μ ≠ 0.
Thus BeCl2 < SnCl2 in dipole moment.
Final Answer: Option (2)

81) Question explanation : We need to identify in which case dipole–dipole attraction is

present.
Concept : Dipole–dipole forces occur between molecules that are polar and have permanent
dipole moments.
Solution
CCl4 + CCl4: Nonpolar molecule → only London forces.
C6H6 + Xe: Both nonpolar → only London forces.
Br2 + H2O: Br2 is nonpolar, H2O polar → dipole–induced dipole, not dipole–dipole.
H2O + H2O: Both polar molecules → strong dipole–dipole interactions (plus hydrogen
bonding).
Final answer Option 4 (H2O + H2O)

82)

Explain Question: Determine the general effects of intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

Concept: This question is based on Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
Solution: Intermolecular H-bonds lead to stronger molecular attraction, causing higher
solubility, greater boiling point, and increased viscosity.
Hence, all effects occur.
Final Answer: Option (4)

83) Explain Question: Identify which statement about electron removal/addition and
molecular orbitals (MOs) is wrong.
Concept: This question is based on molecular orbital theory
Solution:
1. N2 → N2+: N2 HOMO is σ2p (bonding) ⇒ removal from bonding. (True)
2. O2 → O2+: O2 HOMO is π*2p (antibonding) ⇒ removal from antibonding. (True)
3. O2 → O2–: added electron goes into π*2p (antibonding), not a bonding orbital. (False)
4. B2 → B2–: B₂ HOMO is π2p (bonding) ⇒ added electron goes into a bonding π orbital. (True)
Final Answer: 3

84) number of magnetic moment

unpaired electron
O2– 1 1.73 B.M
O2– 1 1.73 B.M
O2 2 2.83 BM

85)

Explain Question : Identify molecule with all identical bond lengths among given options.
 Concept : This question is based on bond lengths

Solution : PCl3 has all equal bond lengths due to its trigonal pyramidal shape, making all
three P-Cl bonds equivalent.

Final Answer : option (3)

86) Explanation - The question asks you to evaluate the correctness of two statements
regarding the hybridization and bond angles in the PCl5 molecule.

Concept -

A. PCl5 has sp³d hybridization, resulting in non-equivalent axial and equatorial orbitals.
B. The molecule features a trigonal bipyramidal geometry with 90° axial-equatorial bond angles.
C. Therefore, the hybrid orbitals are not equivalent in energy and shape.
D. PCl5 does contain six 90° bond angles.

Final Answer - Option (4)

87)

Explain Question: Identify pairs that require electronic excitation to form stable compounds.

Concept: Valence bond theory requires unpaired electron for covalent bond formation.

Solution:
Boron and silicon have 2s2 2p1 and 3s2 3p2 ground state configurations to achieve their
common valencies (3 and 4), an electron must be promoted from the s to the p orbital, as
ground state lack sufficient unpaired electrons.

Final Answer: Option (3)

88) Explain Question: Question is asking about correct and incorrect statements
Concept: Bond dissociation energy, Electronegativity.
Solution:
B.E. = Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
EN = F > Cl > Br > I
So Both statements are false
Final Answer (4)

89) Explain Question: Question is asking the molecule in which intramolecular hydrogen
bonding is absent.
Concept: Intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
Solution: In Methyl alcohol intermolecular hydrogen bonding is present, not Intramolecular
Hydrogen bonding.
 Final Answer: (1)

90) Explaion Question: Question is asking about the condition when an ionic compound A+B-
is most likely to be formed.
Concept: Ionic compound
Solution: To form the ionic bond A+B- the condition is the ionization energy of A is low and
electron affinity of B is high because ionic bond is formed between a metal and non-metal and
generally metals have low ionization energy of and non-metals have high electron affinity.
Final Answer: 4

BOTANY

91)

Explain the Question : The question asks whether the assertion (Panthera is a polytypic
genera) and the reason (Panthera has specific epithets like leo, tigris, pardus) are true, and
whether the reason correctly explains the assertion.
Concept : This question is based on a polytypic genus.
Solution : Assertion is true, Panthera is polytypic because it has multiple species.
Reason : True, since Panthera indeed has species epithets like leo, tigris, pardus.
The reason correctly explains the assertion, because the presence of multiple species makes
the genus polytypic.
Final answer : 1

92) 1.7-1.8 million

93) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a

94)

NCERT XI Pg # 3,4,5

95)

Division

96)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 7

97)

Module-4, Page # 8
98) NCERT Page No. 7, 11

99) NCERT, Pg. # 8

100) standardise the naming of living organisms such that a particular organism is known by
the same name all over the world. This process is called nomenclature

101) Each genus have more than one specific epithet

102) NCERT XI Page No. # 2

103) NCERT, Page No. 8

104)

The correct answer is 2. Systematic arrangement of organisms.

Explanation: The term 'systematics' is derived from the Greek word "Systema," which
means the systematic arrangement of organisms. Systematics involves the classification and
study of the relationships among organisms, focusing on their identification, naming, and
evolutionary connections.

105) NCERT Pg. # 10

106) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 9

107)

The correct answer is 3) A scientist who for the first time described Mango plant.
Explanation: In the scientific name Mangifera indica Linn., Linn. refers to Carl Linnaeus,
who first described the Mango plant and gave it its scientific name. The abbreviation "Linn." is
used to indicate Linnaeus as the scientist who originally classified and described the species.

108) NCERT, Pg # 9

109)

NCERT XI Pg. # 10

110)

NCERT Pg. # 8

111)
 Explain Question: The question is asking: Which statement about “species” is incorrect?
Concept: Species
Solution:

A. A group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities → Correct. This is a valid

definition of species.
B. Two different species breed together to produce fertile offsprings → Incorrect. Different
species usually produce sterile offspring (like a mule from horse × donkey).
C. Human beings belong to the species sapiens → Correct. Our species is Homo sapiens.
D. Panthera has many specific epithets as tigris, leo, and pardus → Correct. These are species
under the genus Panthera.

Final answer: Option(2)

112)

Explain Question: The question asks about the relation which is similar to the relation of
Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae with Polymoniales.

Concept: Order/ Family.

Solution:

The relation of Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae with Polymoniales is similar to the relation
occuring in : Felidae and Canidae with Carnivora

So, the correct answer is: 1.

Final answer: Option (1)

113)

Explain Question : The question asks about how many different families are represented by
the given list of species.
Concept: This question is based on taxonomic categories: - Family
Solution : Man → Hominidae, Housefly → Muscidae, Mango → Anacardiaceae , Wheat →
Poaceae, Dog → Canidae, Cat → Felidae
Lion → Felidae, Tiger → Felidae, Leopard → Felidae, Potato → Solanaceae, Brinjal →
Solanaceae , Makoi (Solanum nigrum) → Solanaceae.
Total = 7 families
Final answer : (3)

114) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 10

115)

Explain the Question : The question asks about the taxonomic level at which tiger and cat
share the maximum common characteristics.
Concept: This question is based on family.
Solution: Since genus and species are different, the lowest (most specific) common category
between tiger and cat is family, where similarities are maximum.
Final answer: (4)

116) (NEW NCERT 11th Page No. 8)

117)

Explain Question: The question is asking to identify the criteria used to define and classify
plant families.

Concept: Family

Solution: Plant families are characterised using both vegetative features (root, stem, leaves)
and reproductive features (flowers, fruits, seeds).Reproductive characters are more reliable,
but both types are considered for classification.
Final answer: Option 3

118)

Explain Question: The question is asking to identify the correct taxonomic ranks for the
labels in the diagram.

Concept: Taxonomic categories

Solution: Based on the diagram and classification: A → Order → Polymoniales B → Family →

Convolvulaceae C → Genus → Petunia

Explanation:Plant families like Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae are grouped under the order
Polymoniales because of shared floral [Link] the family Solanaceae the genus
Petunia is an example of a member genus.
Final answer: option 4

119)

NCERT Pg. # 6

120)

NCERT Pg. # 6, 7

121) Correct Answer: 1. Facilitate the identification of unknown species

The practical purpose of taxonomy or classification is to facilitate the identification of
unknown species. Taxonomy helps organize and identify species, making it easier to
recognize and study new or unidentified organisms.

122)

Ncert Pg No: 5, 2021-2022

123)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 6

124)

NCERT XI pg.# 10

125)

Interbreeding

126) NCERT Pg # 08

127) Question Explanation – The question is asking to identify the correct statements
regarding taxonomy. Concept – Based on taxonomy and hierarchical categories. Solution –
(A) Family is a group of related genera with more number of similarities than genus and
species. → Incorrect.
Family has fewer similarities than genus and species. Genus and species are more specific, so
similarities are greater at those levels. (B) Every taxonomic category / Rank / Taxon represent
a unit of classification. → Correct. Each rank (species, genus, family, etc.) is a unit of
classification. Thus, only statement (B) is correct. Final answer – Option (2) only (B)

128) NCERT Pg. # 6

129) NCERT Page # 06

130) NCERT Pg. # 8

131)

Explain Question: The question asks to count the number of species and number of genera
represented by potato, brinjal, lion, leopard, and tiger.

Concept: Species and Genus

Solution:
Potato →Solanum tuberosum ,Brinjal →Solanum melongena →Same genus Solanum,but
different species →2 species,1 genus
 Lion → Panthera leo , Leopard → Panthera pardus , Tiger → Panthera tigris
→ Same genus Panthera, but different species → 3 species, 1 genus
Total: Species = 2 + 3 = 5 Genera = Solanum + Panthera = 2

Final answer: 4

132) NCERT Pg. # 7

133) NCERT XI_ Pg. # 07

134)

NCERT Pg. # 9

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 2, 4, 5

ZOOLOGY

136) Endothelium is the inner lining of blood vessels.

Both arteries and veins have endothelium.
Veins carry blood towards the heart whereas arteries carry blood away from the heart. Lumen
of artery is narrower as compared to veins which leads to high pressure of blood. Valves are
present in veins.

137) In humans, about 70 mL of blood is pumped out by each ventricle during a cardiac cycle
and it is called stroke volume. Volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle of heart per
minute is called cardiac output. Heart rate × stroke volume = cardiac output

138) As the ventricles relax (diastole) and intra-ventricular pressure drops, the semilunar
valves at the base of the aorta and pulmonary artery snap shut to prevent blood from flowing
backward into the heart.

139) In hepatic portal system, the hepatic portal vein carries blood from intestine to the liver
before it is delivered to the systemic circulation.

140) The nodal musculature of human heart has the ability to generate action potentials
without any external stimuli, i.e., it is auto-excitable.
Normal activities of the heart are regulated intrinsically, i.e., autoregulated by specialised
muscles (nodal tissue), hence the heart is called myogenic.

141) Group ‘B’ has antigen B, antibody anti-A. If given blood ‘A’ (with antigen A), anti ‘A’
antibodies agglutinate RBCs.
142)

(B) Annelids and chordates have a open circulatory system.

(E) The study of heart is called nephrology

143) A blood pressure of 190/110 mmHg indicates severe hypertension. Such high pressure
can damage vital organs like the brain, heart, and kidneys. The other given values are either
incorrect or wrongly interpreted.

144) All statements are correct.

145) P-wave = represent depolarisation of Atria which leads to Atrial systole.

QRS-wave = represent depolarisation of ventricle which leads to ventricle systole.
T-wave = represent repolarisation of ventricles.

146) At the time of joint diastole, Heart is filled with Venous blood.

147)

Artery – Blood flow with low pressure.

– Valve absent
– Thick walled with wide lumen.

148) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-II

149) Blood clotting involves cascading process involving a number of factors present in the
inactive form.

150)

Blood group O lacks both A and B antigens, so it does not trigger immune reactions in
recipients of other ABO groups.
Rh–ve is chosen because Rh+ blood can cause severe reactions if given to Rh–ve individuals.
Therefore, O negative blood is considered the universal donor and is safest in
emergencies when cross matching is not possible.

151) Joint diastole is the period when all four chambers are relaxed. The atrioventricular (AV)
valves (bicuspid/mitral and tricuspid) are open for passive filling, and the semilunar valves
(aortic and pulmonary) are closed to prevent backflow from the arteries. The incorrect
statement is that semilunar valves are open.
152)

Rt. ventricle Lungs Lt. atrium

153) During cardiac cycle, about 70% of ventricular filling occurs, prior to the atrial
contraction 30% ventricular filling occurs due to atrial contraction.

154) Ans. (1)

1 is the correct answer

155) Reason in the correct explanation of given assertion.

156) By counting the number of QRS complex we can determine the heart rate of an
individual.

157)

A. Tricuspid valves - I. Guards the opening between the right atrium and right ventricle
B. Sino-atrial node- IV. Cardiac musculature in the right upper corner of right atrium
C. Mitral valves- II. Guards the opening between the left atrium and the left ventricle
D. Semilunar valves- III. Guards the opening of right and left ventricles into pulmonary artery
and aorta, respectively

158)

(i) – Wrong, because nodal tissue generates AP without external stimulus (auto excitable).
(ii) Position of SAN – right upper corner of right atrium. (correct)
(iii) – AVN is not in the ventricle.
(iv) – AV bundle continues from AVN. (correct)

159)

Two chambered heart → Fishes.

Three chambered heart → Amphibians & reptiles.
Four chambered heart ® Birds, mammals.
160)

Neutrophils → Most abundant (60-65)

Acidophils → (2-3)
lymphocytes → (20-25 percent)

161) Heart receives blood from superior vena cave and inferior vena cave.

162) The first heart sound, "LUB," is produced at the beginning of ventricular systole
(contraction).
It is caused by the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves (tricuspid and mitral) as
ventricular pressure rises above atrial pressure.

163) (I)-(c) (II)-(d) (III)-(b) (IV)-(a)

164)

Question Explanation: The question asks correct clotting sequence.

Concept: Blood clotting

Solution: Prothrombin is converted to thrombin, which converts fibrinogen into fibrin threads
forming clot.
Final answer: Option - 1

165)

Question Explanation: The question asks difference between RBC and WBC.

Concept: Blood cells

Solution: RBCs are anucleate and contain haemoglobin for oxygen transport, while WBCs are
nucleated and function in immunity.
Final answer: Option - 3

166)

Question Explanation: The question asks role of plasma proteins in BP.

Concept: Plasma proteins

Solution: Albumin maintains osmotic balance by retaining water in blood vessels. This helps
regulate blood pressure and prevents fluid leakage.
Final answer: Option - 3

167) Rh-ve mother after delivery of first Rh+ve baby

168) Solution: Erythrocytes are biconcave discs (no nucleus) that provide large surface area
for gas exchange, flexibility to pass through narrow capillaries, and space for haemoglobin.
Final Answer : (4)

169) Solution: NCERT classifies monocytes as agranulocytes.

Final Answer : (4)

170) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

171) Solution: Because group AB individuals lack these antibodies, their immune system will
not attack or "clump" (agglutinate) transfused red blood cells from donors of any other blood
type. This absence of antibodies is precisely what makes them universal recipients.
Final Answer : (1)

172) Solution: Heart wall layers: myocardium is thick muscular layer.

Final Answer : (3)

173) Solution: The sino-atrial node (SA node), located in the wall of the right atrium, is called
the pacemaker of the heart because it has the highest intrinsic rate of spontaneous
depolarization.
Final Answer : (1)

174) SAN → AVN → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres → Heart muscles

175) 45

176) Solution: joint diastole in cardiac cycle is 0.4 seconds.

Final Answer : (1)

177) Solution: Atherosclerosis deposits narrow arteries.

Final Answer : (1)

178)

NCERT Page No. # E-280, H-281

179) Solution: Normal activities regulated intrinsically by nodal tissue, hence myogenic.
Final Answer : (2)

180)

All given statements are correct.