03-05-2026

2302CMD303001250056 MD

PHYSICS

1) 1 + + + + ...... ∞ =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Value of (1.002)3 = .....

(1) 1.008
(2) 1.004
(3) 1.006
(4) 1.005

3)

cos215° – sin215° = .......... ?

(1)

(2) 1

(3)

(4)

4) For given graph of straight line. Which statement is correct :-

(1) Slope angle is 143°

(2) Intercept on y-axis is 10
(3) Slope is negative
(4) All above

5) If –3x – 5y = 15 then y – x graph is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) If y = ax3 + bx + clogex then find =?

(1)
3ax2 + bx +
2
(2) 3ax +b+clogex

(3)
3ax2 + o +

(4)
3ax2+b+

7) The area of a circle is given by A = πr2, where r is the radius. Calculate the rate of increase of
area w.r.t. radius :-

(1) πr
(2) 2πr
(3) 2r

(4)

8) What is the minimum value of

(1) 0
(2) 1

(3)
(4)

9) = ......?

(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 2 + π

10) Evaluate
Where KQ1Q2 is a constant.

(1)
KQ1Q2

(2)
KQ1Q2

(3)
KQ1Q2

(4)
KQ1Q2

11) =

(1)

(2)
+C

(3)
+C

(4)
+C

12)

If m indicate slope of a straight line then for the given lines A and B the value of is equal to :
(1)

(2) 3

(3)

(4)

13) What is the value of 20 minute in radian ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A jeep moving on a circular track covers a distance of 314 metre and angle of rad about its
centre. What is radius of circular track ?

(1) 100 m
(2) 150 m
(3) 200 m
(4) 250 m

15) Differential coefficient of 3x2 + ex is equal to :-

(1)
sin x +
(2) sec2x + x2
(3) 6x + ex
(4) ln x

16) If then

(1)

(2)

(3) 2
(4) 1

17) If slope of the line is “1” then the angle between the line and x-axis is

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

18) The derivative of sin(x2)

(1) 2xcos(x2)
(2) 2xsin(x2)
(3) –2xcos(x2)
(4) –2xsin(x2)

19) For the given graph, slope will be :–

(1) tan(30°)

(2)

(3) (1) and (2) both

(4) tan (150°)

20)

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) –2

21)

Area bounded by the curve y = sin x, when x varies from 0 to is :-

(1) 1 unit
(2) 2 units
(3) 3 units
(4) 0

22) Draw the graph of equation 4y2 + 25x2 = 100.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Find the equation for the curve :-

(1) y = 3x2
(2) x = 3y2
(3) y = 3ex
(4) y = e3x

24) Equation of line passing through (3, –4) and making an angle 45° with x-axis

(1) x + y = 7
(2) x – y = 7
(3) 2x + y = 7
(4) x + 2y = 7

25)

If y = 3x2 – 4x + 6 then find minimum value of y :

(1) 7/3
(2) 4/3
(3) 14/3
(4) 2/3

26) Solution of 7x2 + 8x – 12 = 0 is :

 –2,
(1)

(2)
2,

(3)
2,
–2,
(4)

27) Find the sum of the given arithmetic progression, 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + .......... upto 50 terms.

(1) 2400
(2) 2600
(3) 2500
(4) 2700

28) Which of the following function remain unchanged after differentiation or integration ?

(1) sin x
(2) tan x
(3) sec x
(4) ex

29) If y = 4 sinθ, then find average value of y between to .

(1)

(2)

(3) 0

(4)

30)

Find value of

(1) 3 cos x
(2) 2 cos x
(3) 2 tan x
(4) 0
31) y = 3x3 + 4x2, then will be :-

(1) 9x2 + 8x
(2) 18 x + 8
(3) 6x2 + 8
(4) 9x2 + 8

32) Suppose that the radius r and surface area s = 4πr2 of a sphere are differentiable functions of t.
Write an equation that relates ds/dt to dr/dt.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) If mA, mB & mC are the slopes at points A, B and C respectively in the figure shown then :-

(1) mA > mB > mC

(2) mA = mB = mC
(3) mA = mC < mB
(4) mA < mB < mC

34) What is the value of sin (225°)?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
35) The value of at point A in the given graph is :

(1) 0
(2) ∞
(3) 1
(4) None of above

36)

(1)

(2)

(3) cot x
(4)

37) The side of a square is increasing at the rate of 0.2 cm/s. The rate of increase of perimeter w.r.t.
time is :

(1) 0.2 cm/s

(2) 0.4 cm/s
(3) 0.6 cm/s
(4) 0.8 cm/s

38) The value of shaded area is :-

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) –2
39) Find from A to B :-

(1) 3 units

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

40) Calculate the area of the shaded region.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

41) The equation of graph shown is y = 3x2.

the slope of graph at point A is :-

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 16
42) Equation for y-x graph is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) is equal to:-

(1) sin x + cos x

(2) sin x + x cos x
(3) x – cos x
(4) x cos x

44) Calculate distance between two points (3, 4) and (–3, –4) :-

(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) 10

45) The greatest value of the function –5 sinθ + 12 cosθ is

(1) 12
(2) 13
(3) 7
(4) 17

CHEMISTRY

1) The weight of gaseous molecule that displaces 22.4 L air at NTP is :

(1) Molecular weight

(2) Atomic weight
(3) Equivalent weight
(4) All

2) Which of the following contains largest number of atoms ?

(1) 4 g of H2
(2) 16 g of O2
(3) 28 g of N2
(4) 18 g of H2O

3) Which one of the following has maximum number of atoms?

(1) 1g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]

(2) 1g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
(3) 1g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
(4) 1g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]

4) One amu is :

(1) Having mass exactly equal to one-twelfth of the mass of one carbon-12 atom
(2) 1.66 × 10–24g
(3) Also known as unified mass (u)
(4) All of these

5) For NaCl 58.5 amu is :

(1) Its molas mass

(2) Its formula mass
(3) Its molecular mass
(4) Its atomic mass

6) In three moles of ethane which of the following is correct?

(1) 6 gram atom of carbon is present

(2) 18 gram atom of hydrogen is present
(3) 3NA molecules of C2H6 is present
(4) All of these

7) Calculate the ratio of number of atoms in 52 mol Ar and 52 g He ?

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

8) The highest number of helium atoms is in :

(1) 4 mol of helium
(2) 4 u of helium
(3) 4 g of helium
(4) 2.271098 L of helium at STP

9) Gram atomic weight of oxygen is

(1) 16 amu
(2) 16 g
(3) 32 amu
(4) 32 g

10) The modern atomic weight scale is based on.

(1) C12
(2) O16
(3) H1
(4) C13

11) Vapour density of gas is 11.2. Volume occupied by 2.4 g of this at STP will be -

(1) 11.2 L
(2) 2.24 L
(3) 22.4 L
(4) 2.4 L

12) The vapour densities of two gases are in the ratio of 1 : 3. Their molecular masses are in the
ratio of :-

(1) 1 : 3
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 3 : 1

13) 7.5 g of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is :-

(1) NO
(2) N2O
(3) CO
(4) CO2

14) Which of the following has maximum mass :

(1) 0.1 gram atom of carbon

(2) 0.1 mol of ammonia
(3) 6.02 × 1022 molecules of hydrogen
(4) 1120 cc of carbon dioxide at STP

15) The carbonate of a metal is isomorphous with MgCO3 and contains 6.091% of carbon. Atomic
weight of the metal is nearly -

(1) 48
(2) 68.5
(3) 137
(4) 120

16) Insulin contains 3.4% sulphur by mass. The minimum molecular weight of insulin is :

(1) 941.176
(2) 944
(3) 945.27
(4) None

17) An aqueous solution contains 2 g of solute in 16 g of water. The mass % of solute is :

(1) 11.1%
(2) 10%
(3) 12.89%
(4) 60.45%

18)

An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gives 38.71% of
C and 9.67% of H. The empirical formula of the compound would be :-

(1) CHO
(2) CH4O
(3) CH3O
(4) CH2O

19) Which of the following compounds has same empirical formula as that of glucose:-

(1) CH3CHO
(2) CH3COOH
(3) CH3OH
(4) C2H6

20) A hydrocarbon contain 80% C. The vapour density of compound is 30. Empirical formula of
compound is :-

(1) CH3
(2) C2H6
(3) C4H12
(4) C4H8

21) At same temperature and pressure, 1 litre of a hydrocarbon weighs as much as one litre of CO2.
The molecular formula of hydrocarbon is :-

(1) C3H8
(2) C2H6
(3) C2H4
(4) C3H6

22) In a given reaction, 9 g of Al will react with

2Al + O2 → Al2 O3

(1) 6 g O2
(2) 8 g O2
(3) 9 g O2
(4) 4 g O2

23) What quantity of lime stone on heating will give 56 kg of CaO :-

(1) 1000 kg
(2) 56 kg
(3) 44 kg
(4) 100 kg

24) 4 gm of hydrogen are ignited with 4 gms of oxygen. The weight of water formed is :

(1) 0.5 gm
(2) 3.5 gm
(3) 4.5 gm
(4) 2.25 gm

25) Mass of CO2 produced on heating 20 g of 40% pure limestone :-

(1) 8 g
(2) 8.8 g
(3) 3.52 g
(4) None of these

26) Ratio of amount of CO2 produced when 1 mole of carbon is burnt in air and also in 16 g of
dioxygen is:

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 3 : 1

27) CaCO3 is 90% pure. Volume of CO2 collected at NTP when 10 g of CaCO3 is decomposed is -

(1) 2.016 litres

(2) 1.008 litres
(3) 10.08 litres
(4) 20.16 litres

28) The number of litres of air required to burn 8 litres of C2H2 is approximately -

(1) 40
(2) 60
(3) 80
(4) 100

29) The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through
Haber's process is :-

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

30) 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion give 40 mL of CO2(g) and 50 mL of H2O (vap.). The
hydrocarbon is -

(1) C3H6
(2) C8H18
(3) C4H8
(4) C4H10

31) If ten volume of dihydrogen gas reacts with five volumes of dioxygen gas, how many volumes of
water vapour would be produced?

(1) 100 volume

(2) 10 volume
(3) 1000 volume
(4) 1 volume

32) If 1.6 g of SO2 and 1.5 × 1022 molecules of H2S are mixed and allowed to remain in contact in a
closed vessel until the reaction 2H2S + SO2 → 3S + 2H2O, proceeds to completion. Which of the
following statement is true ?
(1) Only 'S' and 'H2O' remain in the reaction vessel.
(2) 'H2S' will remain in excess
(3) 'SO2' will remain in excess
(4) None

33) For reaction A + 2 B → C. The amount of product formed by starting the reaction with 5 moles of
A and 8 moles of B is :

(1) 5 mol
(2) 8 mol
(3) 16 mol
(4) 4 mol

34) The hydrated salt Na2CO3. xH2O undergoes 63% loss in mass on heating and becomes
anhydrous. The value of x is :-

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 18

35) 4.8 g of KClO3 when heated produced 1.9 g of oxygen and the residue (KCl) left behind 2.9 g.
Which law of chemical combination is illustrated.

(1) Law of mass conservation

(2) Law of definite proportion
(3) Law of reciprocal proportion
(4) Law of gaseous volume

36) The law of multiple proportion is illustrated by the two compounds :-

(1) Sodium chloride and sodium bromide

(2) Ordinary water and heavy water
(3) Caustic soda and caustic potash
(4) Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide

37) In which of the following, law of multiple proportion can be applied :-

(1) KCl and HCl

(2) K2O and H2O
(3) NO2 and SO2
(4) CO2 and C3O2

38)

5.6 litres of Oxygen at NTP is equivalent to :-

(1) 1 mole

(2)
mole

(3)
mole

(4)
mole

39) In the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2 NH3, ratio by volume of N2, H2 and NH3 is 1 : 3 : 2. This illustrates
law of -

(1) Difinite proportion

(2) Multiple proportion
(3) Reciprocal proportion
(4) Gaseous volumes

40) Equal mass of oxygen, hydrogen and methane are taken in a container in identical conditions.
What is the ratio of their moles :-

(1) 1 : 16 : 1
(2) 1 : 16 : 2
(3) 8 : 1 : 8
(4) 16 : 1 : 8

41) Which of the following represents Avogadro's hypothesis?

(1) Gases react together in volumes which bear a simple ratio to one another
Equal volumes of all gases under same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal
(2)
number of molecules
Equal volumes of all gases under same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal
(3)
number of atoms
(4) The rate of diffusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square root of their densities

42) In seven molal solution that contains 2.8 mole of a solute, there is :

(1) 400 g of solvent

(2) 400 mL of solvent
(3) 500 g of solvent
(4) 800 mL of solvent

43) 4 g NaOH is present in 100 ml solution, molarity of solution is

(1) 1 M
(2) 0.4 M
(3) 0.1 M
(4) 0.01 M
44) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding concentration terms?

(1) Molarity is the number of moles of solute present in 1 kg of solvent.

(2) Molality is the number of moles of the solute present in 1 kg of solvent.
(3) Molarity is the number of moles of solute present in 1 litre of the solution.
Mole fraction is the ratio of number of moles of a particular component to the total number of
(4)
moles of the solution.

45) What will be the molarity of pure water?

(1) 18 M
(2) 50.0 M
(3) 55.6 M
(4) 100 M

BOTANY

1) The cell theory proposed by Schleiden and Schwann, did not explain as to how the new cells are
formed? ______ modified the cell theory to give it a final shape.

(1) Nageli
(2) Rudolf Virchow
(3) Robert Hooke
(4) Purkinje

2) Cell is______and______unit of life.

(1) Structural
(2) Functional
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) Fundamental unique

3) Which of the following is not an inclusion body?

(1) Glycogen granules

(2) Phosphate granules
(3) Cyanophycean granules
(4) Polysome

4) Packaging of materials, to be delivered either to the intra-cellular targets or secreted outside the
cell is done by :

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Golgi body
(3) Lysosome
(4) Vacuole
5) The function of mesosome in prokaryotes is:-

(1) Respiration
(2) Cell wall formation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) N2 - fixation

6) In bacteria, plasmid is :-

(1) Extra chromosomal material

(2) Main DNA
(3) Non functional DNA
(4) Repetitive gene

7) Main arena of cellular activities in both plant and animal cell is :

(1) Nucleus
(2) Cell organelles
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Centriole

8)

Identify the following cell type

(1) WBC's
(2) Mesophyll cell
(3) Neuron
(4) Tracheid

9) Which is a single membrane bound cell organelle?

(1) Ribosomes
(2) Lysosome
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Centriole

10) It is the smallest cell :

(1) Bacteria
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Yeast
(4) Blue-green algae

11) Correct name for the membrane of vacuole :

(1) Leucoplast
(2) Tonoplast
(3) Aleuroplasts
(4) Elaioplasts

12) Lysosomal enzymes are active at pH :-

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) Variable

13) The main chemical component of fungal cell wall is:

(1) Peptidoglycan
(2) Chitin
(3) Hemicellulose
(4) Pectin

14) Which of the following layers is found closest to the cytoplasm?

(1) Middle lamella

(2) Primary wall
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Secondary wall

15) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Hook is the longest portion of bacterial flagella.

(2) The cell envelope of bacteria is a tri-layered structure.
(3) Many ribosome attach to m-RNA & form a chain called polysome.
(4) Gas vacuole are found in BGA or cyanobacteria.

16) Which of the following is/are double membrane bound cell organelles?

(1) Nucleus
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondria
(4) All the above

17) Bacterial cell envelope is composed of :

(1) Outermost cell wall followed by glycocalyx and plasma membrane towards innerside
(2) Outermost plasma membrane followed by cell wall and glycocalyx towards innerside
(3) Outermost glycocalyx followed by cell wall and plasma membrane towards innerside
(4) Outer most plasma membrane and inner glycocalyx

18) ER, Golgi complex, lysosome and vacuole are included in endomembrane system because :-

(1) Their Functions are similar

(2) Their structure is same
(3) Their functions are co-ordinated
(4) All these cellular components are originated from the mitochondria

19) Choose the correct option for given figure.

(1) Responsible for protein synthesis

(2) Involve in detoxification
(3) Glycoproteins are synthesized in it
(4) It is not a part of endomembrane system

20) According to the fluid mosaic model, the A nature of lipids enables lateral movement of B
within the bilayer. This ability to move within the membrane is measured as its C .

(1) A-Solid, B-Proteins, C-Fluidity

(2) A-Quasi-Fluid, B-Lipids, C-Fluidity
(3) A-Quasi Fluid, B-Proteins, C-Fluidity
(4) A- Solid, B-Lipids, C-Fluidity

21) A plant cell has :–

(1) a large central vacuole and rigid cell wall

(2) a centriole for cell division
(3) a centrosome inactive in non-dividing cells
(4) absence of cell membrane

22) Molecules which are transported across the membrane against their concentration gradient.
Such a transport is called :–

(1) Active transport, e.g., diffusion

(2) Passive transport, e.g., diffusion
(3) Active transport, e.g., Na+/K+ pump
(4) Osmosis, a type of simple diffusion

23) Which of the following is the site of lipid synthesis ?

(1) Rough ER
(2) Smooth ER
(3) Golgi bodies
(4) Ribosome

24) Cell wall of prokaryotes is made up of :-

(1) Chitin
(2) Cellulose
(3) Glucose
(4) Peptidoglycan

25) The cis and trans faces of the Golgi apparatus are:

(1) Entirely different but interconnected.

(2) Similar and interconnected.
(3) Similar but not interconnected.
(4) Entirely different and not interconnected.

26) An organelle devoid of membrane covering is :-

(1) Vacuole
(2) Ribosome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Peroxisome

27) Algal cell wall contains :-

(1) Cellulose
(2) Galactans
(3) Mannans
(4) All of the above

28) Choose the incorrect statement with respect to cell membrane :-

(1) Cell membrane is an asymmetric structure

(2) Cholesterol controls fluidity of animal cell membrane
(3) Phospholipid molecules does not exhibit flip-flop movement
(4) Integral proteins can not be easily detached from cell membrane

29) Proteins which can be easily extracted from plasma membrane is known as :-
(1) Integral protein
(2) Tunnel protein
(3) Peripheral protein
(4) Transmembrane protein

30) Main constituent of middle lamella is :-

(1) Ca pectate
(2) Mg pectate
(3) Glycolipid
(4) Hemicellulose

31) Arrange the following cells in descending order of their size and choose the correct option.

(1) Ostrich egg > Bacteria > Human RBC > Mycoplasma
(2) Ostrich egg < Human RBC < Bacteria < Mycoplasma
(3) Mycoplasma < Bacteria > Human RBC < Ostrich egg
(4) Ostrich egg > Human RBC > Bacteria > Mycoplasma

32) The membrane of red blood cells in human beings constitutes approximately :

(1) 42% proteins and 58% lipids

(2) 52% proteins and 40% lipids
(3) 52% lipids and 40% proteins
(4) 50% proteins and 50% lipids

33) In Amoeba, the contractile vacuole is important for :-

(1) Excretion
(2) Endocytosis
(3) Exocytosis
(4) Osmosis

34) When glycocalyx is thick and tough it is called :-

(1) Capsule
(2) Slime mold
(3) Slime layer
(4) Cell membrane

35) Fluid mosaic model was given by :-

(1) Watson and Crick

(2) Singer and Nicolson
(3) Jacob and Monad
(4) Beadle and Tatum

36) Name the organelle which divides intracellular space into two distinct compartments i.e. luminal
and extra luminal :-

(1) ER
(2) Nucleus
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Chloroplast

37) The diameter of cisternae is:-

(1) 1.0 - 4.1 μm

(2) 75 - 100 Å
(3) 0.5 μm to 1.0 μm
(4) 5 mm

38) Nuclear membrane is absent in :-

(1) Human
(2) Acetabularia
(3) Dog
(4) [Link]

39) In prokaryotes like cyanobacteria, beside mesosome other membranous extensions into
cytoplasm containing pigments is:

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Chromatophores
(3) Ribosome
(4) Mitochondria

40) The cell wall of plants is made up of :

(1) Hemicellulose + pectin only

(2) Hemicellulose + lipids + proteins only
(3) Hemicellulose + pectin + cellulose + protein
(4) Hemicellulose + Chitin

41) The arrangement of lipid molecules in plasma membrane is found as:

(1) Polar head towards the outer side and hydrophilic tails towards the inner side.
(2) Tails towards the outer side while polar head towards the inner side.
(3) Non-polar tail of saturated hydrocarbons protected from aqueous environment.
(4) Polar tail of unsaturated hydrocarbons protected from aqueous environment.

42) Which of the following is absent in Prokaryotes ?

(1) DNA
(2) Mitochondria
(3) RNA
(4) Cell membrane

43) Which of the following structures in the image is responsible for the synthesis of lipids, including

steroidal hormones in animal cells?

(1) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER)

(2) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Nuclear Pore

44) Secondary cell wall is formed on :-

(1) The inner side of primary cell wall

(2) The outer side of primary cell wall
(3) Middle side of cell
(4) Intercellular space

45) Which cell organelle is formed by Golgi apparatus ?

(1) Lysosome
(2) Vacuole
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Both (1) and (2)

ZOOLOGY

1) Out of the following, which tissue is originated by ectoderm?

(1) Connective tissue
(2) Areolar tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

2) Which type of tissue has maximum power of regeneration ?

(1) Muscular tissue

(2) Nervous tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

3) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column I Column I

Help to stop
Adhering substances from
a 1
Junctions leaking across a
tissue

Perform cementing
b Gap Junctions 2 to keep neighbouring
cells together

Facilitate the cells to

Tight
c 3 communicate with
Junctions
each other
(1) a-3, b-2, c-1
(2) a-2, b-3, c-1
(3) a-2, b-1, c-3,
(4) a-1, b-3, c-2

4) "Linking & supporting other organs of body" this statement refers to :-

(1) Tight Junctions

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Epithelial tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

5) Compound epithelium found in following places except :-

(1) Dry surface of skin

(2) Pharynx
(3) Duct of salivary glands
(4) Stomach

6) Lack of blood supply and presence of the noncellular basement membrane are the characteristics
of the :–
(1) Muscular tissue
(2) Fluid connective tissue
(3) Epithelial tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

7) Select the option of location in which the given epithelia is found :-

(1) PCT
(2) Wall of blood vessels
(3) Inner Lining of stomach
(4) Fallopian tubes

8) Which epithelium provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses and also play a
limited role in secretion and Absorption :-

(1) Simple columnar epithelium

(2) Compound epithelium
(3) Glandular epithelium
(4) Transitional epithelium

9) Goblet Cell are :

(1) Unicellular gland

(2) Multicellular gland
(3) Dead Keratinised cells
(4) Straitified epithelium

10) The structural protein fibres secreted by cells of all connective tissue except by blood is :-

(1) Collagen fibres

(2) Elastic fibres
(3) Prothrombin
(4) Both (1) and (2)

11) Which of the following is not the secretion of exocrine glands?

(1) Mucus
(2) Milk
(3) Ear wax
(4) Hormones

12) Which are most abundant are widely distributed tissue in the body of complex animal ?
(1) Neural tissue
(2) Muscular tissue
(3) Epithelial tissue
(4) Connective tissue

13) Which epithelial cells get specialised for secretion and are called glandular epithelium :-

(1) Columnar
(2) Cuboidial
(3) Spherical
(4) Both (1) and (2)

14) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts

labelled A, B, C and D, and select the right option about them.

Options :

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

(1) Macrophage Collagen fibres Fibroblast Mast cell

(2) Mast cell Collagen fibres Fibroblast Macrophage

(3) Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres Mast cell

(4) Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Which type of muscle tissue is found in the wall of internal organs such as blood vessels,
stomach and intestine ?

(1) Skeletal muscle tissue

(2) Smooth muscle tissue
(3) Cardiac muscle tissue
(4) Skeletal and smooth both

16) The matrix of connective tissue is of :

(1) Lipids
(2) Monosaccharides
(3) Modified polysaccharide
(4) Phospholipids
17) Find the correct statement -

(1) Tendon is a specialised C.T.

(2) Cartilage is a loose C.T.
(3) Adipose is a dense C.T.
(4) Areolar is a loose C.T.

18) How many of the following structures are examples of connective tissue?
Cartilage, Bone, Tendon, Ligament, Cardiac muscle, Smooth muscle, Neuron and Blood.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

19) The intercellular material of cartilage is ______ and _______.

(1) Solid, pliable

(2) Solid, non-pliable
(3) Ossein, Fibre
(4) Both (1) and (2)

20) Which connective tissues are present below the skin?

A. Areolar tissue
B. Adipose tissue
C. Dense irregular connective tissue

(1) Only B
(2) Only A
(3) Only A and B
(4) All A, B and C

21) Identify the correct statement :-

(1) All voluntary muscle are non striated in nature

(2) All involuntary muscle are striated in nature
(3) All striated muscle are voluntary in nature
(4) All non striated muscle are involuntary in nature

22) Striated muslces are primarily involved in

(A) Locomotory actions
(B) Changes in body postures
(C) Transportation of food through digestive tract
(D) Transportation of gametes through genital tract

(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) C, D
(4) A, D

23) Smooth muscle is :-

(1) Involuntary, cylindrical, striated

(2) Voluntary, Spindle–shaped, uninucleated
(3) Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
(4) Voluntary, multinucleated, cylindrical

24)

Intercalated discs are found in

(1) Tendons
(2) Skeletal muscles
(3) Unstriped muscles
(4) Cardiac muscles

25) A skeletal muscle fibre is

(1) Binucleate
(2) Uninucleate
(3) Multinucleate
(4) Enucleate

26) Functionally cardiac muscles are similar to :-

(1) Unstriped muscles

(2) Striped muscles
(3) Striped & Unstriped muscles
(4) None of these

27) Nissl's granules are made up of ?

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria

(2) Ribosome and Mitochondria
(3) Ribosome and Endoplasmic Reticulum
(4) Golgi body and Ribosome

28) Fibres which transmit impulses towards the cell body called as :-

(1) Axon terminal

(2) Axon
(3) Dendrites
(4) Axon hillock
29) Nerve fibres are surrounded by an insulating fatty layer called :-

(1) Adipose sheath

(2) Myelin sheath
(3) Hyaline sheath
(4) Peritoneum

30) The gap between two adjcent myelin sheath is called :-

(1) Associated area

(2) Nissl's granules
(3) Broca's area
(4) Node of Ranvier

31) Nissl's granules are not found in :-

(1) Cyton
(2) Dendron
(3) (1) and (2) both
(4) Axon

32) The unit of neural system are

(1) Non excitable neurons

(2) Non excitable neuroglial cells
(3) Excitable neuroglial cells
(4) Excitable neurons

33) What is the function of neuroglial cells?

(1) Formation of neurons

(2) Destruction of neurons
(3) Protection of neurons
(4) Transmission of impulse along the neurons

34) Neuroglial cells exhibit

(1) Cell division

(2) Excitability
(3) Conductivity
(4) Extensibility

35) When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated which swiftly
travels along its?

(1) Axoplasm
(2) Sarcolemma
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Nissl’s Granule

36) In bronchioles and fallopian tube which type of epithelium is present ?

(1) Pseudo stratified epithelium

(2) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Non-ciliated columnar epithelium

37) __________ forms a diffusion boundary in our body

(1) Compound epithelium

(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium

38) Brush-bordered appearance in epithelial cell is due to presence of :-

(1) Pseudopodia
(2) Flagella
(3) Cilia
(4) Microvilli

39) The given figure is of adipose tissue, identify the marked alphabets :-

A B C

1 Fat storage area Nucleus Cell membrane

2 Nucleus Fat Cell membrane

3 Cytoplasm Fat Cell membrane

4 Vacuole Fat Cell membrane

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
40) The tissue which joins bone to bone and muscle to bone respectively :-

(1) Tendon, Ligament

(2) Ligament, Cartilage
(3) Cartilage, Ligament
(4) Ligament, Tendon

41) Assertion :- Connective tissues are named because of their special function of linking and
supporting.
Reason :- Connective tissue provide linking and supporting other tissues/organ of the body.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

42) Assertion :- Blood is the main circulating fluid that helps in the transport of various substances.
Reason :- Blood is a fluid connective tissue containing plasma, RBC, WBC and platelets.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

43) Assertion : Cells, tissues, organs and organ systems split up the work in a way that exhibits
division of labour.
Reason : Division of labour helps an organism to efficiently integrate distinct cellular activities thus
increases the chances of survival of an organism.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

44) Assertion : Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground substance.

Reason : Ground substance of bones is rich calcium salts and collagen fibres which give bone its
strength.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

45) Assertion (A) :- Most of the bones are cartilaginous in origin.

Reason (R) :- Most of the embryonic cartilage goes under the process of ossification.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 3 4 1 4 2 3 3 1 2 1 4 3 3 3 2 1 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 3 2 3 4 3 4 3 4 2 2 4 4 2 3 4 4 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 2 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 1 4 2 4 1 1 2 1 4 1 1 4 3 1 1 3 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 4 3 3 2 1 4 3 4 2 1 4 1 1 4 4 3 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 1 1 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 4 2 3 1 3 1 2 2 2 1 2 3 1 4 3 3 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 2 4 1 2 4 3 3 1 4 2 1 1 2 1 3 4 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 2 1 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 4 2 2 4 3 2 2 1 4 4 4 4 3 2 3 4 3 1 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 4 1 3 4 3 1 3 3 2 4 4 4 3 1 3 2 3 4 1 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 1 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Question Explanation: In this question, we have to find the sum of given geometric
progression
Concept: Geometric progression
Solution:
Sum of infinite G.P. is given by

[a = first term, r = common ratio]

Final Answer: option (2)

2) (1.002)3 = (1 + 0.002)3
By binomial theorem
= [1 + 3(0.002)]
= 1.006

3) cos215° – sin215°
cos2θ = cos2θ – sin2θ
∴ cos215° – sin215°
= cos30°
=

4)

Let α = 37º

Slope angle ⇒ θ = 180º – α

θ = 180º – 37º
θ = 143º
Intercept on y-axis = 10
Slope = tan θ = tan 143º
= tan (180º – 37º)
slope = – tan 37º

slope =
5)
– 3x – 5y = 15
5y = – 3x – 15

y=

Here :- c = –3

6)

Question Explanation: Differentiate y = ax³ + bx + c ln x with respect to x.

Concept: Differentiation (Differentiation and Integration).
Formula Used:
d(x³)/dx = 3x², d(x)/dx = 1, d(ln x)/dx = 1/x

Solution:
dy/dx = d(ax³)/dx + d(bx)/dx + d(c ln x)/dx
dy/dx = 3ax² + b + c / x

Final Answer: Option (4)

7)

Question Explanation: Given area of circle A = πr2, we are asked to find rate of increase of

area w.r.t radius i.e. .

Concept: Application of differentiation
Solution :
This question is based on Differentiate area, A with respect to r using the power rule :

Final Answer : Option (2)

8)

Let
Let x = 4 + sin θ + cos θ
y will be minimum when x will be maximum and
x = 4 + sin θ + cos θ
xmax = 4 + 2 =6
y=

9) Question Explanation: In this question, we have to evaluate the given definite integral.
Concept: Definite integration
Solution:

Solving within proper limits, we get

= 8 – {–1 – (1)}
= 8 + 2 = 10

Final Answer: option (3)

10) Question Explanation: In this question, we have to evaluate the given integral
Concept: Definite Integration
Solution:
Given here

= K Q1 Q2

= K Q1 Q2

= K Q1 Q2

Final Answer: option (1)

11)

Explain the Question : Find .

Concept : This question is based on use power rule : .

Solution : =
Final answer : 2
12) Question Explanation :
In this question, we have to find the value of slop of two lines A and B, which makes angles 30º
and 60º respectively with the positive x-axis.

Concept :
Slope of a line i.e. M = tan θ.

Solution :
Angel made by line - A with positive x-axis = θA = 30º.
Angle made by line - B with positive x-axis = θB = 60º.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

13)

14) ℓ = rθ

314 = r ×

r=

15) Question Explanation : Determine the value of =?

Concept : Differentiation of Algebraic Functions & Exponential Functions.
Formula :

(1)

(2)
Solution :

Final Answer : option (3)

16)
17)

18)

19) Slope = tan θ = tan 30°

(Angle is measured anti clockwise is positive)

20) ⇒
2 2
= [2 – 1 ] – 4[2 – 1] = 4 – 1 – 4 = –1.

21) y = sinx

Area =

=
⇒

⇒
⇒ 1

22)
4y2 + 25x2 = 100

=1
a = 2, b = 5

23) y = ae(bx)
 at x = 0, y = a = 3
So equation y = 3ex

24) y + 4 = 1 (x – 3)
x–y=7

25)

⇒ at x = , y will be minimum

ymin =

26)

Question Explanation : We need to find solution of given quadratic equation.

Concept : Quadratic equation.

Solution :
Given that :

Final answer : Option(4)

27) Explaining :
To calculate sum of finite A.P. series
Concept :

This question is based on

a = first term = 1
d = common difference = 2
n = no. of terms = 50
Solution :

Final Answer :
Option (3)

28)

Explanation the Question:

In this question we have to determine which of the given function remain unchanged after
differentiation of integration.
Concept:
This question is based on Differentiation Integration
Solution:

→ unchanged (except + for the constant in integration)

∴ e remains unchanged be cause ex is its an derivative and integral
x

Final Answer: (4)

30) Question Explanation :

Determine =?
Concept :
1. Trigonometric identity
2. Differentiation of a constant value
Formula:
1.

2.
Solution :

Final Answer : option (4)

31)

Conceptual
33)

Conceptual

34) sin (225°) = sin (180 + 45)

= – sin 45

35) Problem Explanation: Find at point A from the graph. The derivative represents the
slope of the tangent drawn to the curve at that point.
Concept: If the tangent at a point is vertical, slope becomes infinite because a very small
change in x produces a large change in y .
Formula:

Calculation:

At point A, the curve has a vertical tangent (parallel to y-axis).

Slope of vertical line → infinite.

Final Answer: Option (2)

36)

37) If side = a then rate of increase of perimeter w.r.t.

time =

38) =

= –1–1
= –2

39) Question Explanation : In this question we have to find the magnitude of area under (y
–x) graph.

Concept : Application of integration.

Solution:

= Area under (y–x) graph = area of trapezium.

Final Answer: option(2)

40) Question Explanation: In this question, we have to find the area of given ellipse.

Concept: Area of ellipse (Co-ordinate Geometry​​)

Solution:
Area of ellipse = π ab

a = semi major axis =

b = semi minor axis =

∴ Area = π (2) (1) = 2π

Final Answer: option(1)

41) Slope =

42) In graph a = 3, b = 2

thus

43) Question Explanation:

To find

Concept :
Differentation

Solution :

= 1 sin x + x cos x

Final Answer :
Option (2)

44)
 Distance =
=
=

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Molecular wt. because it is wt. of 1 mole substance also 22.4 L is wt. of 1 mol substance.

47) Concept:
• Moles Calculation: Moles = Mass (g) / Molar Mass (g/mol)
• Number of Atoms: Number of atoms = Moles x Number of atoms per molecule x
Avogadro's number (6022 × 1023)
Formula:
• Number of atoms = (Mass / Molar Mass) x (Atoms per molecule) × (6.022 × 1023)
Solution:
1. Calculate Molar Masses:
• H2 : 2×1 (H) = 2 g/mol
• O2 : 2×16 (O) = 32 g/mol
• N2 : 2×14 (N) = 28 g/mol
• H2O : 1 (H) + 16 (O) g/mol
2. Calculate Moles and Number of Atoms for Each Substance:
• H2:
• Moles - 4 g/ 2 g/mol = 2 moles
• Atoms = 2 moles *2 atoms/molecule* (6.022 x 1023) = 4* (6.022 x 1023) atoms
• O2:
• Moles = 16 g/ 32 g/mol = 0.5 moles
• Atoms — O.S moles *2 atoms/molecule* (6.022 x 1023) = 1 * (6.022 × 1023) atoms
• N2:
• Moles - 28 g / 28 g/mol = 1 mole
• Atoms — 1 mole * 2 atoms/molecule* (6.022 x 1023) = 2* (6.022 × 1023) atoms
H2O :
• Moles = 18 g/ 18 g/mol = 1 mole
• Atoms — 1 mole * 3 atoms/molecule* (6.022 x 1023) = 3* (6.022 × 1023) atoms
3. Compare the Number of Atoms:
• H2: 4* (6.022 × 1023) atoms
• O2: 1* (6.022 × 1023) atoms
• N2: 2* (6.022 × 1023) atoms
• H2O: 3* (6.022 × 1023) atoms
4. Determine the Largest Number of Atoms
• 4 g of H2 contains the largest number of atoms.
5. Conclusion: Therefore, the correct answer is 1.4 g of H2
48)

Number of atoms =

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

49) 1 amu = mass of an atom of carbon- 12

–27
= 1.66 × 10 kg
= 1.66 × 10–24 g
& ‘amu’ is also called unified mass (u).

50)

58.5 amu → formula mass of NaCl

The sum of atomic masses of constituent particles in an ionic compound.

51)

3 moles ethane ≡ 3 (C2H6)

⇒ 6 mole C → 6 g atom carbon
⇒ 18 mole H → 18 g atom Hydrogen

& ⇒ 3 moles × NA = No. of molecules

∴ No. of molecules = 3NA

52) ⇒ 1 mole Ar = 40g NA atoms

52 mole Ar 52 NA atoms

⇒ = 13 moles
1 mole NA atoms
13 mole 13 NA atoms

Ratio = =4:1

53) (1) 4 mol of He ; Number of He atom = 4 × NA

(2) 4u of He ; Number of He atom = 1
(3) 4 g of He ; Number of He atom = NA
(4) 0.1 mol of He ; Number of He atom = 0.1 NA

54)

Gram atomic weight of ‘O’

1 mol ‘O’ mass = 16g

55) Explanation :
We are asked which isotope is used as the standard reference for the modern atomic weight
scale.

Concept :
The modern atomic weight scale (also called the relative atomic mass scale) defines atomic
masses relative to a chosen standard isotope. Which is assigned an exact atomic mass.

Solution :
The standard is carbon-12 (C12) which is assigned exactly 12 atomic mass units (amu.). All
other atomic weights are measured relative to this isotope.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

56) Explain Question: We need to find Volume of gas at STP if Vapour density and mass of
gas are given.
Concept:

Solution:
Molar Mass = 2 x Vapour density

Volume of gas at STP = 2.4 L

Final Answer: Option(4)

57)

We know that ratio of molecular weight & V.D. for two gases are same.
So that molecular masses are in ratio = 1 : 3.
Hence, option (1) is correct.

58)

Given P = 1 atm
V = 5.6
W = 7.6 g
T = 273 k

1 × 5.6 = × .0821 × 273

Mwt = 7.6 × 4 = 30.4
Mwt of NO = 14 + 16 = 30
Hence, option (1) is correct.

59)
 Question Explanation:
Wt of substance

Concept:
calculation of mole

Solution:
option 1. → .1 × 12 = 1.2 g
option 2. → .1 × 17 = 1.7 g

option 3. → = .2g

option 4. → = 2.2 g

Final Answer:
option (4) is correct

60) Formula of metal carbonate = MCO3

at. wt. of metal = A
mol wt. of MCO3 = A + 60

% of carbon = × 100 = 6.091

Calculate A

61)

% of S ⇒ 3.4 =

Minimum molecular wt. =

62) (% mass)solute =

= 11.1 %

63) Question Explanation :

Determine the simplest whole number ratio of atoms in the compound based on the given
percentage composition.

Concept :
This question is based on

Solution :

Element C H O
 % composition 38.71 9.67 51.62

Relative mole

Simplest ratio 1 3 0

Final Answer :
Option (3)

64)

Question Explanation :
Identify the compound whose simplest whole number ratio of atoms matches glucose.

Concept :
This question is based on Empericial formula, glucose formula (C6H12O6)

Solution :
E. F. of glucose = C6H12O6
⇓÷6
E. F. = CH2O
CH3COOH ⇒ C2H4O2
⇓÷2
E. F. CH2O

Final Answer :
Option (2)

65)

C → 80% H → 20% V. D. = 30

M w = 2 × VD
6.66 20 = 2 × 30 = 60
Empirical formula of compound- CH3

66) Question Explanation:

We need to find the molecular formula of a hydrocarbon that has the same molar mass as CO2.
Concept:

A. Avogadro's Law: Equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure contain the
same number of molecules.
B. Molar Mass: The mass of one mole of a substance.

Solution :
1 liter of hydrocarbon weighs the same as 1 liter of CO2 at the same temperature and pressure.

A. Molar mass of CO2: 12 (C) + 2 ×16 (0) = 44 g/mol

B. We need to find a hydrocarbon with a molar mass of 44 g/mol.
C. C3H8 has a molar mass of 123 (C) + 81 (H) = 44 g/mol.
Final Answer: Option (1)

67)

Explain the Question : Find mass of O2 required to react with 9g Al using balanced reaction.
Concept : This question is based on use stoichiometry : mole ratio from balanced equation
and molar masses.
Solution :

Moles of Al =

Moles of O2 =

Weight of O2 = × 32
Weight of O2 = 8 g
Final answer : 2

68)

Explanation:
Limestone on heating will give quick lime and carbon dioxide.

Given Data:
56 kg CaO

Concept:

Calculation:
1 mol CaCO3 = 1 mol CaO

mol of CaO = gm = 1 K mol.

mol of CaCO3 = 1 K mol.
w of CaCO3 = 1 × w3 mol × 100 = 100 × 103 gm
= 100 kg.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

69)

Explanation:
The limiting reagent is the reactant that is completely consumed first, limiting the amount of
Product formed.

Given Data:
4 gm of H2
4 gm of O2
Concept:
2H2(a) + O2(a) → 2H2O (ℓ)

Calculation:
2H2(a) + O2(a) → 2H2O (ℓ)

O2 is LR
1 mol. of O2 = 2 mol of H2O

mol of O2 = mol of H2O

= mol H2O

= 4.5 gm

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

70) Question Explanation : Calculate CO2 mass produced by heating 20g of 40% pure
limestone
Concept : Stoichiometry, purity and molar masses determine product mass from reactant.
Solution :

% purity =

40 =

Pure CaCO3 mass =

CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
100 g CaCO3 → 44g CO2

1 g CaCO3 →

8 g CaCO3 → CO2
Final Answer : Option (3)

71) ⇒ C + O2 → CO2
1 mole C 44 g of CO2
⇒ C + O2 → CO2
16 g = 0.5 mole
∴ 0.5 mole O2 0.5 mole CO2
= 22 g of CO2

∴ Ratio = =2:1
72)

CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

100 g 22.4 L
10 g 2.24 L
1g 0.224 L
[∵ CaCO3 is 90% pure so 10 gms of CaCO3 contains 9 g pure CaCO3]
∴ vol. of CO2 evolved from (10 – 1 = 9 g) CaCO3 = (2.24 – 0.224) L = 2.016 L

73)

Explain the question : We are asked to calculate the volume of air required to burn 8 litres
of C2H2.
Concept : This question is based on combustion reaction of acetylene
2C2H2 + 5O2 → 4CO2 + 2H2O
Air contains approximately 21% O2 volume
Solution :-
From the reaction 2L C2H2 requires 5 LO2
So, 8L C2H2 requires (8 × 5) ÷ 2 = 20 L O2
Since air contains 21%O2 :
Volume of air required = 20 ÷ 0.21 ≈ 95.2 L ≈ 100L
Final answer :- (4)

74)

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
2 mole NH3 produce by 3 mole H2

so 20 mole NH3 will produce by mole of H2.

75) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about to determine the hydrocarbon, we need to analyze the combustion
reaction by using stoichiometric coefficient.

Concept :
This question is based on Mole, Stoichiometric coefficietn.

Solution :
Combustion equation is : CxHy + (x+y/4) O2(g) → xCO2(g) + y/2H2O(g), from the stoichiometry :
1 volume of CxHy produce x volume of CO2. So, 40 mL CO2 / 10mL CxHy ⇒ x = 4
1 volume of CxHy produces 2y volumes of H2O. So, 50 mL H2O / 10 mL CxHy = 2y Þ 5 = 2y ⇒ y =
10
Thus, the hydrocarbon in C4H10.

Final Answer :
Option (4)
76) H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(g)

1 volume H2(g) volume O2(g)

∴ 10 volume H2(g) × 10
= 5 volume O2(g)
(here both H2 & O2 are limiting reagent)
∴ 1 volume H2(g) 1 volume H2O(g)

∴ 10 volume H2(g) 10 volume H2O(g)

77)

Concept:
• Limiting Reactant:
• Excess Reactant:
Formula:
• Moles = Mass (g) / Molar Mass (g/mol)
• Moles Number of molecules / Avogadro's number (6.022 × 1023)
Solution:
1. Calculate Moles of Reactants:
° SO2:
• Molar Mass of SO2 = 32 (S) +2 × 16 (0) 64 g/mol
• Moles of SO2 = 1.6 g / 64 g/mol = 0.025 moles
° H2S:
• Moles of H2S = (1.5 × 1022 molecules) / (6022 × 1022 molecules/mol)
• Moles of H2S = 0.0249 moles (approximately 0.025 moles)
2. Determine Limiting Reactant:
° From the balanced equation, 2 moles of H2S react with 1 mole of SO2.
° Ratio (H2S: SO2) = 2:1
° We have 0.025 moles of SO2 and 0.025 moles of H2S
° If we use all 0.025 moles of SO2, we need 2 × 0.025 = 0.05 moles of H2S
° Since we only have 0.025 moles of H2S, is the limiting reactant.
° However, since the moles are very similar. and the question says that the reaction proceeds
to completion, it implies that both reactants are completely consumed.
3. Reaction to Completion:
° Since the reaction proceeds to completion, both reactants are completely consumed.
° Therefore, only the products, S and H2O, will remain in the reaction vessel.
Conclusion:
Therefore, the correct answer is 1. Only 'S' and 'H2O• remain in the reaction vessel.

78)

Explanation:
Limiting reagent is that is completely consumed first, limiting the amount of product formed.

Given Data:
5 moles of A
 8 moles of B

Concept:
A + 2B → C

Calculation:
1 mol of A react with
2 mol of B
A + 2B → C

2 mol of B can visit into 1 molecule C.

1 mol of B = mol C

8 mol at B = 8 × mol of C
= 4 mol. of C

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

79)

Explain the question :We need to find the number of water molecules (x) in Na2CO3.xH2O
when it loses 63% of its mass on heatiration to become anhydrous.
Concept : This question is based on water of crystallization
Solution :-
Given : % mass loss = 63% (due to water loss)
M(Na2CO3) = 106 g/mol
M(Na2CO3.xH2O) = 106 + 18x

% mass of water =
18x = 0.63 (106 + 18x)
18x = 66.78 + 11.34x
6.66x = 66.78 ⇒ x ≈ 10
Final answer :- (1)

80) 1. Analyze the Given Data:

A. Mass of KClO3 (reactant) = 4.8 g

B. Mass of O2 (product) = 1.9 g
C. Mass of KCl (product) = 2.9 g

2. Concept → Law of Conservation of Mass:

Solution :-

A. The law of conservation of mass states that matter cannot be created or destroyed in a
chemical reaction. Therefore, the total mass of reactants must equal the total mass of the
products.
B. Check if this holds true:
C. Mass of reactants = 4.8 g (KClO3)
 D. Mass of produces = 1.9 g (O2) + 2.9 g (KCl) = 4.8 g
E. Since the mass of the reactants equals the mass of the products, the law of conservation of
mass is illustrated.

The correct answer is : Law of mass conservation

81)

Question Explanation :- We need to identify which two compounds illustrate the law of
multiple proportions.
Concept :- This question is based on the law of multiple proportions.
Solution
Given: Compounds: SO₂ and SO₃

A. In SO₂: 1 g of S combines with 2 × 16 = 32 g of O

B. In SO₃: 1 g of S combines with 3 × 16 = 48 g of O

Ratio of masses of O combining with fixed mass of S = 32:48 = 2:3 → small whole numbers,
illustrating the law.
Final Answer :- 4

82)

Question Explanation: Law of multiple proportions applies when two elements form more
than one compound, and the masses of one element that combine with a fixed mass of the
other are in simple whole number ratios.

Concept: The law of multiple proportion is valid only for compounds composed of the same
two elements in different ratios.

Solution:

A. KCl and HCl → Both contain Cl but the other element is different (K and H), so
law cannot be applied.

B. K₂O and H₂O → Both contain O but the other element is different (K and H), so
law cannot be applied.

C. NO₂ and SO₂ → NO₂ contains N and O, SO₂ contains S and O, different elements,
law cannot be applied.

D. CO₂ and C₃O₂ → Both contain C and O in different ratios, law can be applied.

Final Answer: Option (4)

83)

1 mole = 22.4 L at STP

x ? = 5.4 L at STP

84) Explain Question :

We are asked: Which law is illustrated by the volume ratio 1 : 3 : 2 in the reaction
N2 + 3H2 → 2 NH3.

Concept :
Law of gaseous volumes (Gay-Lussac's law): Gases react in simple whole-number ratios by
volume under
same temperature and pressure.

Solution :
• Volume ratio: N2 : H2 : NH3 = 1 : 3 : 2
• This is a simple whole-number ratio → directly supports Gay-Lussac's law.

Final Answer : Option (4)

85)

Let assume mass = x

No. of moles →
Ratio of moles →

⇒
⇒ 1 : 16 : 2

86)

Conceptional

87)

Question Explanation : We need to find weight of solvent using molality and No. of moles.

Concept : This question is based on Molality (m).

Solution :

weight of solvent = 0.4 kg = 0.4 × 1000 = 400 g

 Final Answer: option (1)

88)

89) Conceptual.

90)

The molarity of pure water is 55.6 M with can be calculated by

BOTANY

91) Question Explanation :

The question is asking : Who modified the original cell theory proposed by Schleiden and
Schwann's to explain how new cell are formed?

Concept :
Cell theory.

Solution :
The correct answer is 2. Rudolf Virchow.
Explanation :
Schleiden and Schwann's cell theory (1838-39) stated that all living things are made up of
cells, but didn't explain how new cells arise.
In 1855, Rudolf Virchow modified it by adding :
"Omnis cellula e cellula" – meaning all cells arise from pre-existing cells.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

92)

Question Explanation: The basic unit of life.

Concept: Cell theory.

Solution:
The cell is both a structural and a functional unit of life.

A. As the structural unit, the cell is the basic building block of all organisms, forming the
structure of an organism.
 B. As the functional unit, the cell carries out essential functions required for life, such as
energy production, metabolism, and reproduction.

Thus, the cell is both structural and functional.

Final Answer: Option (3)

93) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 129

94) NCERT Pg. # 134

95) Explain Question:- The question asks about the function of mesosomes in prokaryotic
cells.

Concept:- Based on bacterial structure

Solution:- Mesosomes are infoldings of the plasma membrane found in prokaryotes like
bacteria. They are involved in cellular respiration and cell wall formation during division. They
help increase surface area for enzymatic activity and assist in DNA replication as well.

Final answer:- Option 3

96)

The answer is extra chromosomal material.

Explanation:
In bacteria, plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules that are separate from the main
chromosomal DNA. They are extrachromosomal, meaning they exist outside of the main
chromosome. Plasmids
- Histonic double-stranded DNA: This is characteristic of eukaryotic cells, where DNA is
wrapped around histone proteins to form chromatin. Prokaryotes do not have histones.

97)

Explain the Question : The question asks which part of the cell is the main site of cellular
activities in both plant and animal cells.
Concept : This question is based on an overview of cell.
Solution : The cytoplasm is the arena where most cellular activities happen
Final answer : 3

98)

It seems you're referring to a diagram for cell identification,

Correct answer is Option 1, WBC (White Blood Cell)
Reasoning:
White blood cells (WBCs) typically have a large, irregularly shaped nucleus, and they play a
key role in the immune response. If the diagram shows a cell with these characteristics, it
would be identified as a WBC.

99)

NCERT Page # 102

100) Mycoplasma

101) tonoplast

102)

Module

103)

Question Explanation: Main component of fungal cell wall.

Concept: Kingdom Fungi / Cell Structure

Solution: The cell walls of organisms vary between kingdoms. While plant cell walls are
primarily made of cellulose and bacterial cell walls are made of peptidoglycan, the cell wall of
most fungi is composed of chitin. Chitin is a durable, nitrogen-containing polysaccharide that
provides structural support, and is also found in the exoskeletons of insects and crustaceans.

Final Answer: The correct option is 2: Chitin

104) Question Explanation: Identifying the innermost cell layer.

Concept: Plant Cell Wall Structure
Solution: The cell membrane is the innermost layer of a plant cell, directly enclosing the
cytoplasm. It lies just inside the primary and secondary cell walls. The middle lamella is the
outermost layer, which holds adjacent cells together.
Final Answer: Cell membrane

105) Explain Question : The question is asking to identify the wrong statement about
bacterial structures
Concept : This question is based on Bacterial Cell Structure
Explanation : Bacterial flagella has 3 parts → Filament (longest portion), Hook (short curved),
and Basal body (anchors in cell envelope).
So, statement 1 is incorrect because filament, not hook, is the longest part.
Final answer : 1

106) Question Explanation: Identifying double-membrane organelles.

Concept: Cell Organelle Structure
Solution: Cell organelles can be single-membraned, double-membraned, or non-membranous.
The nucleus, chloroplast, and mitochondria are all examples of organelles that are
enclosed by two membranes. The presence of a double membrane helps compartmentalize
these organelles and their specific functions, such as DNA storage, photosynthesis, and
cellular respiration, respectively.
Final Answer: All the above

107)

NCERT [Link]. 90

108)

Explain Question – The question is asking about why ER, Golgi complex, lysosome, and
vacuole are part of the endomembrane system.

Concept – The endomembrane system

Solution – The endomembrane system includes organelles whose functions are connected
through membrane-bound transport and coordination, especially in synthesis, packaging, and
transport of [Link] answer – Option 3

109)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 133, Figure 8.6

110) NCERT XI Pg. # 132

111)

The correct answer is : 1. a large central vacuole and rigid cell wall

Explanation: Plant cells have a large central vacuole for storage and a rigid cell wall for
structure. Other options describe features not typical of plant cells.

112)

NCERT XI pg.# 132

113)

The correct answer is : 2. Smooth ER

Explanation: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (Smooth ER) is the site of lipid
synthesis, including phospholipids and steroids. It also plays a role in detoxification and
calcium storage.

114)
 The correct answer is : 4. Peptidoglycan

Explanation: The cell wall of prokaryotes,especially bacteria, is primarily made of

peptidoglycan (also called murein), which provides structural support and protection. Chitin
and cellulose are found in the cell walls of fungi and plants, respectively, while glucose is a
sugar, not a structural component of prokaryotic cell walls.

115)

The correct answer is: 1. Entirely different but interconnected

Explanation: The cis face of the Golgi apparatus is the receiving or Entry side (facing the
ER), while the trans face is the Exit side or maturing side (facing the plasma membrane).
They are functionally and structurally different,but part of the same interconnected
organelle involved in processing and packaging proteins and lipids.

116) Asking about :

Identifying the organelle that lacks a membrane covering.

Concept:
Understanding the basic structure and characteristics of different cellular organelles.

Solution:

A. Ribosomes are the only organelles listed that are not enclosed by a membrane.
B. They are composed of RNA and protein and are responsible for protein synthesis.
C. Vacuoles, lysosomes and peroxisomes are all membrane bound organelles.

Answer : 2. Ribosome

117)

Question explanation

The question is asking about the components of algal cell wall

Concept

Cell wall

Solution

The cell wall of algae is complex and cellulose is a common component, many types of algae
also have cell walls containing other polysaccharides like galactans and mannans.

Final answer: All of the above

118) The incorrect statement is: 3. Phospholipid molecules do not exhibit flip-flop
movement.
 Explanation:
Phospholipids do exhibit flip-flop movement, although it occurs infrequently. The other
statements are correct.

119) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 131, 8.5.1

120)

The correct answer is: 1) Ca pectate

Explanation : The middle lamella is the cementing layer between two plant cells and is mainly
composed of calcium pectate, which helps in cell adhesion.

121) NCERT pg no. 126, 127

122) NCERT Page No. 93.

123) NCERT Page # 134

124)

NCERT pg # 128

125) NCERT Pg. # 132, Para-1, Line-2

126) NCERT Pg.#133

127) NCERT Pg. # 133

128) Module Pg. # 104

129) NCERT Page no. 129

130)

Question explanation: The question is asking about the main structural components of the
plant cell wall.

Concept: Plant cell wall

Solution: The primary structural component of a plant cell wall is cellulose, a polysaccharide
and also include hemicellulose , pectin and some proteins.

Final answer: Hemicellulose + pectin + cellulose + protein

 131) New NCERT Page no. 93

132) Explain Question:

We need to find which structure is not present in prokaryotes.

Concept:
This question is based on Prokaryotic vs Eukaryotic Cell Structures

Explanation :
Mitochondria → Absent in prokaryotes (instead, they perform respiration on the plasma
membrane / mesosomes).

Final answer: Option 2: Mitochondria

133) The Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is a network of membrane tubules that lacks
ribosomes on its surface. It is the primary site for lipid synthesis, including the production of
steroidal hormones in animal cells. The RER, on the other hand, is studded with ribosomes and
is involved in protein synthesis. In the image, you can identify the SER as the network of
tubules without the small dots (ribosomes) attached to them.

134)

Question explanation

The question is asking about where is the secondary cell wall formed in relation to the primary
cell wall

Concept

Cell wall

Solution

The primary cell wall forms first and is flexible to allow cell growth. Once the cell stops
growing, the secondary cell wall is deposited inside the primary wall, between the primary
wall and plasma membrane.

Final answer
The inner side of primary cell wall

135) The correct answer is:

4. Both (1) and (2)
Explanation:
The Golgi apparatus is involved in the formation of both lysosomes and vacuoles:

A. Lysosomes are formed by the Golgi apparatus, where enzymes are packaged into vesicles that
become lysosomes for cellular digestion.
B. Vacuoles, particularly in plant cells, can also be formed or modified by the Golgi apparatus,
which helps in the storage and transport of cellular materials.
Therefore, both lysosomes and vacuoles can be associated with the Golgi apparatus.

ZOOLOGY

136)

The correct answer is 4. Nervous tissue.

Here's why:

A. Ectoderm is the outermost of the three primary germ layers in the early embryo. It gives
rise to various tissues and organs, including:

A. Nervous tissue, Epidermis, Sensory organs

137)

Question Explanation: Identifying the tissue with highest regenerative power.

Concept: Tissue Regeneration

Solution: Epithelial tissue has the highest power of regeneration among the options. Its
primary function is to form coverings and linings, so its cells must be replaced frequently to
repair damage. This is unlike nervous tissue which has very little to no regenerative ability,
and muscular and connective tissues, which have limited regenerative capabilities.

Final Answer: Epithelial tissue

138)

OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

139)

Question Explanation: Identify the tissue type responsible for linking and supporting other
organs of the body.
Concept: Types of animal tissues

Solution: The correct answer is option 2

A. Connective tissue provides structural support, binding, and connection between different
organs and tissues in the body. It also stores nutrients, protects organs, and helps in
repair.

Final Answer: Option 2

 140) NCERT XI, Pg. # 102, IIIrd Para

141) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 100

142) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

143)

NCERT-XI [Link]-102, Para-2

144)

Question Explanation: Identify the type of gland represented by goblet cells.

Concept: The question is based on classification of glands in epithelial tissue.

Solution: The correct answer is option 1.

A. Goblet cells are unicellular glands found in the lining of the respiratory and intestinal tracts;
they secrete mucus to lubricate and protect the epithelial surface.

Final Answer: Option 1

145) NCERT Pg. # 103

146) [NCERT Pg. 102]

147)

Question Explanation: Identify the most abundant and widely distributed tissue in complex
animals.
Concept: Connective tissue
Solution: Connective tissue, because it is the most abundant and widely distributed tissue
providing support, protection, and binding of organs.
Final Answer: Option 4 Connective tissue

148) Question Explanation:

The question asks for the correct classification or description of Exocoetus.
Correct Answer and Explanation:
Option 4: It is a member of osteichthyes
• Exocoetus is a genus of flying fish. Flying fish are bony fish (belonging to the class
Osteichthyes) known for their ability to glide through the air using their enlarged pectoral fins.

149)

Question Explanation: The question is asking to identify the labelled parts A, B, C and D in a
diagram of connective tissue and choose the correct matching option.
Concept: Areolar connective tissue components.
Solution: In areolar connective tissue, macrophages are irregular cells, fibroblasts are
elongated cells, collagen fibres are thick fibres, and mast cells are granular. Option 3 correctly
matches the sequence: macrophage, fibroblast, collagen fibres, mast cell.

Final answer: Option 3

150) NCERT-XI, Pg # 105, Para.-7.1.3

151) NCERT XI Pg. # 103

152)

Question Explanation: Which statement correctly matches the type of connective tissue?

Concept: The question is based on connective tissues

Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

A. Areolar connective tissue is a type of loose connective tissue.

Other options are incorrect because:

A. Tendon is a dense regular connective tissue, not specialised.

B. Cartilage is a specialised connective tissue, not loose.

C. Adipose tissue is a loose connective tissue, not dense.

Final Answer: Option 4.

153)

Explain Question : The question is asking how many of the listed structures belong to
connective tissue.
Concept : This question is based on structural Organisation in Animals – Connective Tissue.
Explanation : There are five connective tissues: cartilage, bone, tendon, ligament, and blood.
Final answer : 3

154)
NCERT Pg # 104

155) A. Areolar Tissue: This is a loose connective tissue that acts as a packing material
between organs. It's found beneath the skin and around blood vessels, nerves, and organs.
B. Adipose Tissue: This is a specialized type of connective tissue that stores fat. It's also
found beneath the skin, acting as insulation and energy storage.
C. Dense Irregular Connective Tissue: This tissue is characterized by its irregularly
arranged collagen fibers. It provides strength and support, but it's not typically found beneath
the skin. Instead, it's found in areas like the dermis of the skin, capsules around organs, and
the white portion of the eyeball.
Answer - 3

156) NCERT Pg. No. 218, 219

157)

Striated muscles, also known as skeletal muscles, are under voluntary control and are
primarily responsible for body movement and posture. They are attached to bones via tendons.

Option Analysis:
(A) Locomotory actions: Correct. Locomotion refers to movement from one place to another
(walking, running, jumping, etc.). Striated muscles are essential for these actions. They
contract to generate the forces needed for movement.
(B) Changes in body postures: Correct. Maintaining and adjusting posture (sitting,
standing, balancing) relies heavily on striated muscles.
(C) Transportation of food through the digestive tract: Incorrect. The movement of food
through the digestive tract (peristalsis) is primarily controlled by smooth muscle. Smooth
muscle is involuntary, meaning we don't consciously control it.
(D) Transportation of gametes through the genital tract: Incorrect. While smooth muscle
plays a significant role in gamete transport (e.g., in the movement of sperm or the contraction
of the uterus during childbirth), striated muscles are not primarily involved.

Correct Answer: The correct answer is option 1.

158)

Question explanation
The question is asking about the structural and functional characteristics of smooth muscle.

Concept
smooth muscle.

Solution
Smooth muscles are involuntary, spindle-shaped (fusiform), and non-striated, found in walls of
internal organs.

Final answer
Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
159)

Module

160) NCERT Pg.#304

161)

Question Explanation:
Determine which type of muscle cardiac muscles are functinally similar to.

Solution Explanation:
Cardiac muscles share the striated (striped) appearance with skeletal muscles due to the
organized arrangement of actin an myosin filaments.

Final Answer:
The correct answer is 1. Unstriped muscles.

162)

163)

164)

165) NCERT Pg. # 317

166)

NCERT Pg#317

167)

Explaining the Question :- The unit of neural system are ?

Concept:- Neural system

Solution :- The unit of neural system are excitable neuron

Final Answer :- (4)

168) NCERT Page No.-105

169) NCERT page-105

170) When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated which swiftly
travels along its plasma membrane.

171)

Explanation:
In both bronchioles and fallopian tubes, ciliated columnar epithelium is present. The cilia help
in moving mucus in the bronchioles and transporting the ovum in the fallopian tube.

Correct answer: Option (2) Ciliated columnar epithelium.

172)

Question Explanation: : Identify the epithelial type that facilitates diffusion across body
surfaces.

Concept : This question is based on Epithelial tissue.

Solution : The correct answer is option 3 (Simple squamous epithelium) because

* It consists of thin , flat cells with minimal barrier, ideal for diffusion and filtration.
* Found in alveoli of lungs, Bowman's capsule, and capillary walls.
Final Answer : option (3)

173)

The correct answer is 4. Microvilli.

Here's why:Microvilli are tiny, finger-like projections of the cell membrane that increase the
surface area of the cell.

174) Question explanation: The given figure is of adipose tissue, identify the marked
alphabets :-

Concept: Structural organisation in animal

Solution:: A: Fat storage area, B: Nucleus, C: Cell membrane
Final answer: 1

175) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 103

176) NCERT XI, Page # 102

177) NCERT XI, Page # 104

178)

Question explanation:
The question is asking whether the statements about division of labour in cells, tissues,
organs, and systems are correct and whether the reason explains the assertion properly.
Concept: This question is based on Structural Organisation in Animals.
Solution:
Assertion: Correct – Cells, tissues, organs, and systems divide work to ensure efficiency.
Reason: Correct – Division of labour integrates different functions and increases survival.
The reason directly explains why division of labour exists.
Final answer:
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion

179)

Question explanation:
The question is asking whether the statements about the hardness of bone and its ground
substance are true and if the reason explains the assertion correctly.
Concept: This question is based on Connective Tissue.
Solution:
Assertion: Correct – Bone indeed has a hard and non-pliable ground substance.
Reason: Correct – The presence of calcium salts (rigidity) and collagen fibers (tensile strength)
makes the bone hard and strong.
The reason directly explains the assertion.
Final answer:
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion

180) NCERT, Pg # 104

Both A & R correct & R is the correct explanation of A.