16-08-2026

1001CMD303361260051 MD

PHYSICS

1) One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a process from A to B along a path AB as shown in

the figure. The change in internal energy of the gas during this
process is :

(1) –20 kJ
(2) 20 J
(3) –12 kJ
(4) 20 kJ

2) Two spherical vessel of equal volume, are connected by a narrow tube. The apparatus contains an
ideal gas at one atmosphere and 300K. Now, if one vessel is immersed in a bath of constant
temperature 600K and the other in a bath of constant temperature 300 K, then the common pressure

will be :-

(1) 1 atm

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) In given figure, a fixed mass of an ideal gas undergoes the change represented by XYZX below.

Which one of the following sets could describe these changes ?

XY YZ ZX
(1) Isothermal expansion Adiabatic compression Compression at constant pressure
(2) Adiabatic expansion Isothermal compression Pressure reduction at constant volume
(3) Isothermal compression Adiabatic expansion Compression at constant pressure
(4) Adiabatic compression Isothermal expansion Compression at constant pressure
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) The following graphs shows two isotherms for a fixed mass of an ideal gas. The ratio of rms speed

of the molecules at temperature T1 & T2 is :-

(1)

(2)
(3) 4
(4)

5) One mole of an ideal gas goes through process Pa. Then change in temperature of
3 3
gas, when volume changes from V = 1 m to V = 2 m , will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The molar heat capacity of a certain substance varies with temperature according to given
equation C = 2T × 10–3.
The heat necessary to change the temperature of 1 mole of substance from 100K to 200K is :-

(1) 20 J
(2) 30 J
(3) 40 J
(4) 50 J

7) Find the correct options from following :-

(a) Ice point in Fahrenheit scale in 32°F
(b) Ice point in kelvin scale is 273 K
(c) Steam point in Fahrenheit scale is 212°F.
(d) Steam point in Fahrenheit scale is 252°F.

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d

8) A pendulum clock is 5 sec fast per day at temperature of 15ºC and 10 sec slow per day at a
temperature of 30ºC. At what temperature does it give the correct time ?

(1) 18ºC
(2) 20ºC
(3) 22ºC
(4) 25ºC

9) A uniform cylindrical rod of length L and radius r is made from a material whose young modulus
of elasticity equals Y. When this rod is heated by temperature T and simultaneously subjected to a
net longitudinal compressional force F, its length remains unchanged. The coefficient of volume
expansion of material of rod is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) At 0°C, the densities of a cork and a liquid in which the cork floats are d1 and d2 respectively.
The coefficients of expansion for the material of the cork and the liquid are γ and 100γ respectively.
If the cork sinks when temperature of liquid is t°C, then ratio (d2/d1) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
11) 2 litre water at 27°C is heated by 2 kW heater in an open container. On an average heat is lost to
surrounding at rate 320 J/sec. The time required for the temperature to reach 77°C is approximately
:-

(1) 8 min 20 sec

(2) 10 min
(3) 16 min 40 sec
(4) 4 min 10 sec

12)

Figure shows the temperature variation when heat is added continuously to a specimen of ice (10 g)
at –40 °C at constant rate.
(Specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/g °C and
Lice = 80 cal/g, Lwater= 540 cal/g)

Column-I Column-II

(A) Value of Q1 (in cal) (P) 800

(B) Value of Q2 (in cal) (Q) 1000

(C) Value of Q3 (in cal) (R) 5400

(D) Value of Q4 (in cal) (S) 200

(T) 900
(1) A→S; B→P; C→Q; D→T
(2) A→P; B→S; C→Q; D→R
(3) A→P; B→S; C→R; D→Q
(4) A→S; B→P; C→Q; D→R

13) A tungsten body of diameter 2.3 cm is at 2000°C. It radiates 30% of the energy which is radiated
by a black body of same radius and temperature. Find radius of black body which will radiate energy
at same rate at the same temperature ? [(0.3)1/2 = 0.547]

(1) 2.32 cm
(2) 1.49 cm
(3) 0.629 cm
(4) 0.123 cm

14) Statement - I :- Like light radiation, thermal radiations are also electromagnetic radiations.
Statement - II :- Thermal radiations require no medium for propagation.

(1) Both Statement - I and Statement - II are false.

(2) Both Statement - I and Statement - II are true.
(3) Statement - I is true but Statement - II is false.
(4) Statement - I is false but Statement - II is true.

15) For a black body at temperature 727°C, its radiating power is 60 W and temperature of
surrounding is 227°C. If the temperature of the black body is changed to 1227°C, then its radiating
power will be :

(1) 120 W
(2) 240 W
(3) 304 W
(4) 320 W

16) Assertion (A) :- According to Newton's law of cooling, the rate of cooling –dT/dt of the body is
directly proportional to the difference of temperature between body and surrounding.
Reason (R) :- This law holds for all type of temperature differences.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

17)

The spectral emissive power Eλ for a body at temperature T1 is plotted against the wavelength and
area under the curve is found to be A. At a different temperature T2, the area is found to be 9A. Then

(1) 3
(2) 1/3

(3)

(4)

18) A sample of an ideal gas is contained in a cylinder. The volume of the gas is suddenly decreased.
A student makes the following statements to explain the change in pressure of the gas :
I. The average kinetic energy of the gas atoms increases.
II. The atoms of the gas hit the walls of the cylinder more frequently.
III. Temperature of the gas remains unchanged.
Which of the above statements is/are true ?

(1) I and II only

(2) I and III only
(3) II and III only
(4) I, II and III

19) Consider the following statement(s) :

(I) On increasing temperature, most probable speed increases.
(II) At the same temperature, nitrogen molecules move faster than chlorine molecules.
(III) The mean square speed is the direct measure of the average kinetic energy of given gas
molecules.
The correct statement(s) is/are :-

(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) I and III only
(4) I, II and III

20) A light container, having a diatomic gas enclosed inside it, is moving with velocity V. Mass of the
gas is M and number of moles is n. The kinetic energy of gas w.r.t. ground is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Select the incorrect relation. (Where symbols have their usual meanings) :-

(1)
CP =
(2) CP – CV = R

(3)
ΔU =
CV =
(4)

22) A closed vessel contains a mixture of two diatomic gases A and B. Molar mass of A is 16 times
that of B and mass of gas A contained in the vessel is 2 times that of B.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Average K.E per molecule of A (p) is 4 times that of A

(b) rms velocity of B (q) is equal to of B

(c) Pressure exerted by B (r) is 8 times of A

(d) Number of molecules of A in the vessel (s)

is times that of B
(1) a→q, b→s, c→r, d→q
(2) a→q, b→p, c→r, d→s
(3) a→q, b→p, c→r, d→q
(4) a→s, b→p, c→q, d→r

23) The efficiency of Carnot heat engine is 50% and temperature of sink is 500 K. If the temperature
of source is kept constant and its efficiency is to be raised to 60%, then the required temperature of
sink will be:

(1) 600 K
(2) 500 K
(3) 400 K
(4) 100 K

24) Assertion: Liquids usually expand more than solids.

Reason: The intermolecular forces in liquids are weaker than in solids.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

25) Vertical displacement of a plank with a body of mass 'm' on it is varying according to law y = sin
ωt + cos ωt. The minimum value of ω for which the mass just breaks off the plank and the
moment it occurs first after t = 0 are given by: ( y is positive vertically upwards)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A particle performs simple harmonic motion with amplitude A. Its speed is tripled at the instant
that it is at a distance from equilibrium position. The new amplitude of the motion is:

(1)

(2) 3A
(3)

(4)

27) A pendulum made of a uniform wire of cross sectional area A has time period T. When an
additional mass M is added to its bob, the time period changes to TM. If the Young's modulus of the

material of the wire is Y then is equal to (g = gravitational acceleration)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) In the figure shown, the block A collides with the block B and after collision they stick together.

The amplitude of resultant vibration is u. Find the value of x

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 5

29) A ball is suspended by a thread of length L at the point O on the wall PQ which is inclined to the
vertical through an angle α. The thread with the ball is now displaced through a small angle β away
from the vertical and the wall. If β < α, then the time period of oscillation of the pendulum will be-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

30) Acceleration a and time period T of a body in S.H.M. is given by a curve shown below. Then
corresponding graph between kinetic energy KE and time t is correctly represented by

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

31) A system of two identical rods (L-shaped) of mass m and length are resting on a peg P as
shown in the figure. If the system is displaced in its plane by a small angle θ, find the period of

oscillations

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A light spring of stiffness k is hanging from the ceiling. It is stretched by a distance d, then a
mass m attached to the end A which is then released. The amplitude of the oscillations will be
(1) mg/k
(2) 2mg/k
(3) d
(4) |(mg/k) - d|

33) The time period of a simple pendulum is T. The relative density of bob is σ. The whole of the
pendulum is immersed in water and allowed to oscillate. Assuming there are no viscous forces, the
new time period of pendulum will be :–

(1) T(σ – 1)

(2)

(3) T/(σ – 1)

(4)

34) For a wave if propagation constant is rad/m, then phase difference between two particles

having path difference , will be :-

(1) 5 rad
(2) 10 rad
(3) 2.5 rad

(4)
rad

35) Transverse waves can propagate

(1) only in solids

(2) both in solids and gases
(3) neither in solids nor in gases
(4) only in gases

36) If Third overtone of a closed organ pipe is in unison with fourth harmonic of an open organ pipe.

The ratio of length of the pipes is.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A wave represented by the equation

y = a cos(kx – ωt) is supersposed with another wave to form a stationary wave such that the point x
= 0 is a node. The equation of the other wave is :

(1) y' = a sin (kx + ωt)

(2) y' = –a cos (kx – ωt)
(3) y' = –a cos (kx + ωt)
(4) y' = –a sin (kx – ωt)

38) A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning fork forming standing waves with five antinodes
between the two bridges when a mass of 9 kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is
replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the
same positions of the bridges. The value of M is :

(1) 25 kg
(2) 5 kg
(3) 12.5 kg
(4) (1/25) kg

39) As a wave propagates, then correct statements are :–

(I) The wave intensity remains constant for a plane wave
(II)The wave intensity decreases as the inverse of the distance from the source for a spherical wave
(III)The wave intensity decreases as the inverse square of the distance from the source for a
spherical wave
(IV)Total power of the spherical wave over the spherical surface centred at the source remains
constant at all time

(1) I, III, IV
(2) II, III, IV
(3) I, II, IV
(4) I, II, III

40) A sound wave of wavelength 0.40 m enters the tube at S. The smallest radius r of the circular
segment to hear minimum intensity at detector D must be :-

(1) 1.75 m
(2) 0.175 m
(3) 0.93 m
(4) 9.3 m

41) Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves given by y1= 4 sin(500πt) and y2= 2
sin(506πt). These tuning forks are held near the ear of a person. The person will hear

(1) 3 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 4.
(2) 3 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 9.
(3) 6 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 4.
(4) 6 beats/s with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 9.

42) The vibrations of four air columns of same length are represented in figure. The ratio of
frequencies np : nq : nr : ns is:

(1) 12 : 6 : 3 : 4
(2) 1 : 2 : 4 : 3
(3) 4 : 2 : 3 : 1
(4) 6 : 2 : 3 : 4

43) A resonance tube is resonated with tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz. If the length of first and
second resonating air columns are 32 cm and 100 cm, then end correction will be

(1) 1 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 6 cm

44) If λ1, λ2, λ3 are the wavelengths of the waves giving resonance in the fundamental, first and
second overtone modes respectively in a open organ pipe, then the ratio of the wavelengths λ1 : λ2 :
λ3, is :

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 3 : 5
(3) 1 : 1/2 : 1/3
(4) 1 : 1/3 : 1/5

45) An earthquake generates both transvere (S) and longitudinal (P) sound waves in the earth . The
speed of S waves is about 4.5 km/s and that of P waves is about 8.0 km/s. A seismograph records P
and S waves from an earthquake. The first P wave arrives 4.0 min before the first S wave. From the
point of observation, the epicenter of the earthquake is located at a distance about

(1) 25 km
(2) 250 km
(3) 2500 km
(4) 5000 km
 CHEMISTRY

1) Trichloroacetaldehyde (CCl3CHO) reacts with chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and

produces :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The major product of the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

3) Correct reactivity order towards hydrolysis :-

I. II.

III. IV.

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I > III > IV > II
(3) I > IV > III > II
(4) III > IV > II > I

4) Two teachers P & Q tried to prepare t-butyl methyl ether by different ways.

P :-

Q :-
Then choose the correct option(s) :-

(1) P's way is elimination reaction.

(2) Only Q will get the desired product.
(3) Both will get the desired product in good yield.
(4) Only P will get the desired product in good yield.

5)

Correct order of reactivity towards SN1 reaction is :-

(I) (II) (III)

(1) I < II < III
(2) III < II < I
(3) III < I < II
(4) II < III < I

6)
Rate of nucleophilic substitution reaction is maximum if G is :-

(1) –OCH3
(2) –CH3
(3) –NO2
(4) –H

7) A dextrorotatory optically active alkyl halide undergoes hydrolysis by SN2 mechanism. The
resulting alcohol is :-

(1) Dextrorotatory
(2) Laevorotary
(3) Optically inactive due to racemization
(4) May be dextro or laevorotatory

8) Correct order of rate of SN1 reaction is -

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(1) iv < ii < iii < i

(2) i < ii < iii < iv
(3) iv < i < iii < ii
(4) iv < i < ii < iii

9)

Choose the correct option ?

(1) SN2 is bimolecular reaction having order = 1.

(2) SN1 is unimolecular reaction having order = 2.
(3) Leaving group ability for both SN1 & SN2 is R–I > R–Br > R–Cl > R–F
(4) In SN2 reaction 100% racemization occurs

10) Which of the following ether cannot be prepared by williamson ether synthesis :-
(1) Methyl phenyl ether
(2) Methyl t-butyl ether
(3) Diethyl ether
(4) Diphenyl ether

11) Which of the following has the highest melting point?

(1) o-Dichlorobenzene
(2) m-Dichlorobenzene
(3) p-Dichlorobenzene
(4) All have the same melting point.

12) Alkyl halides can be obtained by all methods excepts

(1)
CH3—CH2—OH + HCl
(2) CH2=CH—CH3 + HBr →
(3) C2H5OH + NaCl →

(4) CH3—CH2—OH + NaBr

13)

C6H5CH2Br X
The product (X) is :-

(1) C6H5CH2OH
(2) C6H5CH3
(3) C6H5CH2CH2C6H5
(4) C6H5CH2OCH2C6H5

14)
Major product is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

15) Which of the following is most reactive towards the acid-catalyst dehydration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) correct statement regarding reaction

(1) is strong nucleophile than which favour formation of CH3-CH2-I

(2) NaCl is precipitate in acetone so it facilitate forward reaction
(3) is strong nucleophile than which favour formation of CH3-CH2-I
(4) Acetone is polar protic solvent which favour forward reaction.

17) Which one of the following compounds undergoes predominantly SN2 reaction with aqueous
NaOH in a polar aprotic solvent ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
18) What is the major product of the following E2 reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) The structure of the major product formed in the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A and B are respectively :-

(1) CH3—CN, CH3—NC

(2) CH3—NC, CH3—CN
(3) CH3—CH2CN, CH3CH2NC
(4) CH3—CH2NC, CH3—CH2—CN

21) Match List - I with List - II.

List - I List - II
(Compound) (Use)
 (A) Carbon tetrachloride (I) Paint remover

(B) Methylene chloride (II) Refrigerators and air conditioners

(C) DDT (III) Fire extinguisher

(D) Freons (IV) Non-Biodegradable insecticide

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

22) Which of the following is not used in swarts reaction :

(1) AgF
(2) Hg2F2
(3) HF
(4) SbF3

23) SN2 mechanism is based on steric effect. Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column II
(Compound in SN2 reaction) (Relative rate in SN2)

(A) CH3–X (P) 0.0

(B) CH3–CH2–X (Q) 0.02

(C) (CH3)2CH–X (R) 1.00

(D) (CH3)3C–X (S) 30

(1) (A) → P, (B) → Q, (C) → R, (D) → S
(2) (A) → S, (B) → R, (C) → Q, (D) → P
(3) (A) → R, (B) → S, (C) → Q, (D) → P
(4) (A) → P, (B) → Q, (C) → S, (D) → R

24) Match the following column :

Column-I Column-II
(CH3–X) (Dipole moment/Debye)

(A) CH3–F (i) 1.86

(B) CH3–Cl (ii) 1.83

(C) CH3–Br (iii) 1.847

(D) CH3–I (iv) 1.636

(1) (A) - ii, (B) - i, (C) - iv, (D) - iii
(2) (A) - iii, (B) - i, (C) - ii, (D) - iv
(3) (A) - i, (B) - iii, (C) - ii, (D) - iv
(4) (A) - i, (B) - iii, (C) - i, (D) - iv

25) Select the correct statement among the following.

Thionyl chloride is preferred for preparation of alkyl chloride from alcohols due to formation of
(1)
SO2 and HCl gases
(2) Addition of HI on propene yields 1-iodopropane as major product
(3) Reddish brown colour of bromine cannot be decolourised by ethylene
Formation of secondary butyl chloride by the reaction of butane and Cl2/UV light undergoes
(4)
through carbocation formation mechanism

26) The major product formed in the following reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) In which of the following reaction, phenol is not obtained :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

28) Match the reagents (List-I) with the product (List-II) obtained from phenol.

List-I List-II
(i) NaOH
(a) (ii) CO2 (i) Picric acid
(iii) H+
(i) Aqueous NaOH
(b) (ii) Benzene
+ CHCl3 (ii) H+
Salicyl
(c) Zn dust, Δ (iii)
aldehyde
Salicylic
(d) Con. HNO3+H2SO4 (iv)
acid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

29) Oxidation of phenol with chromic acid produces.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) The most preferred method for the preparation of pure alkyl chlorides from alcohols is

(1) R – OH + PCl5 → R – Cl + POCl3 + HCl

(2) R – OH + SOCl2 → R – Cl + SO2 + HCl
(3) R – OH + PCl3 → R – Cl + H3PO3

(4) R – OH + HCl R – Cl + H2O

31)

The alkane that can be oxidized to the corresponding alcohol by KMnO4 as per the equation is, when
:

(1) R1 = H; R2 = H; R3 = H
(2) R1 = CH3; R2 = CH3; R3 = CH3
(3) R1 = CH3; R2 = H; R3 = H
(4) R1 = CH3; R2 = CH3; R3 = H

32) Predict the major product of the following reaction.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Mark the correct increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds with HBr.

(1) A < B < C

(2) B < A < C
(3) B < C < A
(4) C < B < A

34)
What is X and Y in above reaction respectively

(1)

and

(2)

and
(3)

and

(4)

and

35) Which alcohol react readily with lucas reagent :-

(1) Benzyl alcohol

(2) p-Methoxy benzyl alcohol
(3) Allyl alcohol
(4) Vinyl alcohol

36) A C2H5OH B, A and B respectively are :-

(1) Ethene, Ethanal

(2) Ethyne, Ethanal
(3) Ethanal, Ethene
(4) Ethene, Ethyne

37)
C is :-

(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Products
x moles of HI is consumed

Products
y moles of HI is consumed
sum of (x+y) ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

39)
What is B ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Consider following reaction

+ CHCl3 Major product

(a) Salicylic acid is major product
(b) Dichloro carbene is electrophile
(c) Name of reaction is Reimer-tiemann reaction
Correct statement is/are :-

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) a, b

41) Product (A) will be:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Find out correct product of reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Assertion (A):- Phenoxide ion is a poor nucleophile than a methoxide ion.
Reason (R):- Due to resonance phenoxide ion is more stable.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

44) Statement-I : The large difference in boiling points of alcohols and ethers is due to the
presence of hydrogen bonding in both alcohols and ethers.
Statement-II : The miscibility of ether with water resembles those of alcohols of the same
molecular mass. Both ethoxyethane and butan-1-ol are miscible to almost the same extent i.e. 7.5
and 9 g per 100 mL water.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

45) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : When the vapours of a 1° or 2° alcohol are passed over heated Cu at 573 K an
aldehyde and ketone respectively is formed.
Statement II : 3° alcohols do not react with Cu at 573 K

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 4 4 2 2 1 2 3 1 4 4 3 2 4 3 4 1 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 3 1 1 4 1 2 1 1 2 4 2 1 2 2 3 1 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 2 4 4 3 4 1 3 4 3 3 2 3 3 2 2 3 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 2 1 1 2 3 1 2 2 2 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 4 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

ΔU = µCVΔT, ,

so,

Now,

⇒ =–20 kJ

2) μ = μ1 + μ2

3) Clearly XY is a compression process & YZ is an expansion process but slope of XY is greater

than slope of YZ curve.
XY → adiabatic compression
YZ → isothermal expansion
Also, ZX → compression at constant pressure

4) T ∝ PV ⇒

5)

PiVi = nRTi ...(1)

PfVf = nRTf ...(2)
(2) – (1)

ΔT
6) dQ = nCdT

Q = 10–3 [30000] = 30 J

7)

Ice point = 0°C

Steam point = 100°C

8) Question Explanation : A pendulum clock :

At 15 °C → it becomes 5 sec fast per day
At 30 °C → it becomes 10 sec slow per day
At θ °C → it shows the correct time
Find ⇒ θ = ?
Formula : Δt = αtΔθ
Concept : The effect of thermal expansion on the time-period of a pendulum clock
Solution :
Case (I) : at 15 °C → Δt = +5 sec
+5 = αt(θ - 15) .....(i)
Case (II) : at 30 °C → Δt = -10 sec
–10 = αt(θ - 30) .....(ii)
Equation (i) ÷ (ii) ⇒ θ = 20°C

9) (ΔL)due to temp = (ΔL)due to compressive force

So, γ = 3α =

10)

d1' = d2'

11) Power used in heating = 2000 – 320 = 1680 watt

t = 50 × 5 = 250 sec

= 4 min. 10 sec

12)

Q1 = msΔT = 10 × 0.5 × 40 = 200 → (S)

Q2 = mL = 10 × 80 = 800 → (P)
Q3 = msΔT = 10 × 1 × 100 = 1000 → (Q)
Q4 = mL = 10 × 540 = 5400 → (R)

13) (e = 1)

R1 = 0.629 cm

14) Light radiation and thermal radiations both belongs to electromagnetic spectrum. Light
radiation belongs to visible, while thermal radiation belongs to infrared region of EM
spectrum. Also, EM radiations does not required medium for propagation.

15)

16) As we know that, from Newton's law of cooling,

Rate of cooling ∝ (Tbody – Tsurrounding)
⇒ That means the assertion is true.
But, this law is only valid when the difference between body temperature & surrounding
temperature is not more than 35°C. Therefore reason is not correct.

17)

As we know that,

Area of Eλ vs λ curve (A) = Emissive Power (P)

From Stefan's law, Emissive Power (P) ∝ T4

∵ Now, from Wein's law,

So,

18) Adiabatic compression will increase temperature and kinetic energy.

19)

(I)

(II)

(III)

20) The kinetic energy of gas w.r.t. centre of mass of the system K.E. =
Kinetic energy of gas w.r.t. ground = Kinetic energy of centre of mass w.r.t. ground + Kinetic
energy of gas w.r.t. centre of mass

K.E. =

21) ΔU = nCV ΔT = nCV (T2 – T1)

= (T2 – T1)

= =

22)

(a) (does not depend on mass of gas molecule)

(b) νrms =

(c) PV =

(d)
23)
T1 = 1000K ...(i)

...(ii)
from (i) and (ii)
T2 = 400 K

24)

• Assertion: -Liquids usually expand more than solids" — This is true. Liquids generally have a
higher coefficient of thermal expansion than solids, meaning they expand more for the same
temperature change.
• Reason: "The intermolecular forces in liquids are weaker than in solids" — This is true. In
solids, particles are more tightly bound, leading to less expansion when heated. In liquids, the
weaker forces allow for more freedom of movement and greater expansion.
Conclusion:
The reason correctly explains the assertion, as weaker intermolecular forces in liquids
contribute to their greater expansion compared to solids.
Hence, option (1) is correct

25) y = 1 sin ωt + cosωt

y = 2sin (ωt + )
For breaking off plank

ωmin =

At t = 0, ϕ0 = , It leaves when ϕ =

Δϕ =

26)
now

5A2 = A'2 –

A' =
27) ,

28)

Common velocity after collision be v then by COLM

Hence, kinetic energy = (2M)

It is also the total energy of vibration because the spring is unstretched at this moment, hence
if A is the amplitude, then

KA2 = Mu2 ⇒ A =

29)

As β <α so T = 2π

30)

From the graph, equation of acceleration can be written as

a = – amax cos ωt
∴ velocity can be written is
v = – vmax sin ωt.

KE = mv2 = mv2max sin2 ωt

Hence the correct graph is shown in option 1.

31)

Center of mass 2m of a system is at a distance from peg P is and moment of inertia of the
 system is

32) When the mass m is attached, the new equilibrium extension ( xₑ ) is given by
(k × xₑ = m × g)
⇒ (xₑ = (m × g)/k)
Initially, the spring was stretched by (d). The difference between the initial position and
equilibrium position is (A = |xₑ – d|)
This distance becomes the amplitude of oscillation when the mass is released.
Hence,
Amplitude (A) = |(m × g)/k – d|

33)

T= ; T' =

geff =

34)

Phase difference = × path difference

or

∴ Phase difference =
= 5 rad

35)

A. Transverse mechanical waves require shear stress for propagation, which is possible in solids
 due to their rigidity.
B. Gases cannot sustain shear stress, so transverse mechanical waves cannot travel in gases.
C. But electromagnetic waves which are transverse in nature can propegate in both the medium.
D. Therefore, we can say transverse wave can propagate in both solids and gases.

36)

(f)closed = (f)open

37) For stationary wave, the two identical waves must travel in opposite directions. The given
incident wave y = a cos(kx – ωt) is travelling in +x direction.
Waves given in options (2) and (4) also travel in +x direction, therefore these two choices are
not possible.
However, waves in options (1) and (3) travel in –x directions. But the wave in option (1) can be
rewritten at x = 0 as
y' = a sin ωt
and that the incident wave at x = 0 is
y = a cos (–ωt) = + a cos ωt [∵ cos (–θ) = cosθ]
Their resultant is
y + y' = a sin ωt + a cos ωt ≠ 0
Similarly, wave in option (3) can be written at
x = 0 as
y' = –a cosωt
so, y + y' = a cosωt – a cosωt = 0
Hence, at x = 0 the resultant wave produce a node for given wave. superimposing with wave in
option (3).

38) Let L be the length of the sonometer wire and m its linear mass density. The frequency of
the wire of resonance is given by

f= = =
where p is the number of loops between the bridges. When the sonometer wire resonates with
the frequency f,
= 2Lf = constant

or p2M = constant ⇒ M ∝

or =

M2 =

= × 9 = 25 kg
39)

Plane wave: Area (A) is constant, so Intensity is constant.

Spherical wave: Area (A = 4 πr2), so Intensity is proportional to

Total power of spherical wave over a sphere of radius r is I × A = P, which is constant.

40) (for destructive interference)

(π – 2)r = 0.2
⇒ r = 0.2/(1.14) = 0.175 m

41) • For Tuning Fork 1

• ω1 = 500π
2πf1 = 500π (∵ ω = 2πf)
f1 = 250 Hz
• For Tuning Fork 2
• ω2 = 506 π
2πf2 = 506 π
f2 = 253 Hz
Now, fbeat = |f2 – f1| = (253–250)
fbeat = 3

Amax = |4 + 2| = 6 ∵ Amax = |A1 + A2|

Amin = |4 –2| = 2 ∵ Amin = |A1 – A2|

42)

From the figures:

p shows the fundamental mode (COP) → ,

lowest frequency (1 unit).
q shows the fundamental mode (OOP) →

frequency = 2 units.

r shows second harmonic (OOP) →

frequency = 4 units.

s shows third harmonic (COP) →

frequency = 3 units.
Thus,
np : nq : nr : ns = 1 : 2 : 4 : 3

43)

Resonance tube end correction,

First resonating length, ℓ1 = 32cm
Second resonating length, ℓ2 = 100cm

e = 2cm

44)

Given : : : = 1:2:3
⇒ n1 : n2 : n3 = 1 : 2 : 3

λ1 : λ2 : λ3 = 1 : :

45)
 ts – tp = 4 × 60 sec.

⇒ d ≈ 2500 km

CHEMISTRY

46) Question Explanation : Trichloroacetaldehyde (CCl3CHO) reacts with chlorobenzene in

presence of sulphuric acid and produces.
Concept : Electrophilic aromatic substitution and condensation.
Solution :

Final Answer : Option (1)

47) Explain the question : Identify the product of the given reaction.
Concept : This question is based on SN2 reaction : stereochemistry based.
Solution :
• Alkyl halides are more reactive than aryl halides.

Final answer : 1

48) Question Explanation:

Which will undergo nucleophilic substitution aromatic SNAr most readily.

Concept:
This question is based on Aromatic Nucleophilic Substitution.

Solution:
In (I) option PhCH2–Cl direct SN2 reaction is possible as –Cl is attached to the side chair of the
benzene ring. Thus it is most reactive.
In (II) –Cl attached to the benzene ring directly but does not have any ewg so it is least
reactive.
In (IV) ewg is present but it is at meta where only –I.E. of –NO2 is applicable.
in (III) ewg is attached to para position so it is most reactive.
Overall order I > III > IV > II

Final Answer:
The correct option is (2)

49) Explain the question : Identify the correct reaction to prepare t-butylmethyl ether.
Concept : This question is based on williamson's ether synthesis reaction.
Solution : Williamson's ether synthesis reaction is an SN2 reaction.
∴ 3° alkyl halide do not give williamson ether synthesis reaction.

P.

Q.
Final answer : 4

50) Explanation Question: We have to compare reactivity of the given compound in SN1
reaction mechanism
Concept: This question is based on Reactivity in SN1 reaction mechanism and stability of
carbocation as reactivity in SN1 depends on stability of carbocation
Solution: Given reactants will produce following carbocations.

I. II. III.
Stability order I > III > II
Reactivity in SN1 I > III > II
Final Answer option : (4)

51)

Question Explanation : Identify 'G' in the reactant compound in the reaction.

Concept : Rate if NSR in Aryl Halides.
Solution : Rate of NSR in Aryl Halides ∝ –M, –I group attached to benzene ring.
 Here 'G' must be -M group to increase rate of NSR in Aryl Halides.
∴ G ⇒ -NO2 [-M group]
Final answer : Option (3)

52)

The resulting alcohol may be dextero or laevorotatory.

53)

Explain question:
Identify the correct order of reactivity of rate SN1 reaction

Concept:
Rate SN1 reaction

Solution:

Rate of SN1 reaction ∝ Stability of carbocation.

∝ leaving group ability.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)
∴ order of reactivity towards SN1 : (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
 Final Answer: Option (1)

54)

Explanation: Identify the correct statement.

Concept: This question is based on (i) SN1 reaction. (ii) SN2 reaction (iii) Leaving group
ability.
Solution:
1. SN2 is bimolecular reaction having order = 1 is incorrect since order of reaction is 2.
2. SN1 is unimolecular reaction having order = 2 is incorrect since order of reaction is 1.
3. Leaving group ability for both SN1 and SN2 is R – I > B – Br > B – Cl > R – F is correct since
more stable the anion is better is the leaving group –ve charge is more stable on large sized
atom along the group. Hence order of stability and leaving group ability is I⊝ > Br⊝ > Cl⊝ > F⊝.
4. In SN2 Reaction 100% racemisation occurs is incorrect while SN2 have complete inversion of
configuration.
Final Answer: option (3)

55)

Question Explanation - Determine which ether cannot be synthesized using the Williamson
reaction by evaluating the reactivity of the required alkyl halide.

Concept - Nucleophilic Substitution SN2 Reaction.

Solution - Williamson ether synthesis requires an SN2 reaction between an alkoxide ion and
an alkyl halide. This process fails if the halide is an aryl halide, such as chlorobenzene,
because the C-X bond has partial double-bond character due to resonance. For diphenyl ether,
both starting components would require an aryl halide, which is unreactive toward
nucleophilic substitution under standard conditions.
Final Answer - Option (4)

56)

Explain the Question : Identify which of the following has the highest melting point.
Concept : This question is based on physical properties of alkyl halide.
Solution :
Melting point depends on symmetry and packing efficiency in the crystal lattice:

A. More symmetrical molecules pack better → higher melting point.

B. Less symmetrical molecules pack poorly → lower melting point.

Melting Point =
Para > Ortho > Meta
(Para is most
symmetrical/tightly packed).
Final answer : Option (3)

57) Question Explanation: Identify the reaction method that is unsuitable for the preparation
of alkyl halides from the given options.
Concept Used: Preparation of Alkyl Halides, Nucleophilic Substitution, Acid Catalysis
Solution :

(1) Grooves' Process (Valid):

(2) Hydrohalogenation (Valid):
(3) Salt with Alcohol (Invalid):
(Requires conc. H2SO4 to protonate alcohol and generate HCl)
(4) In-situ HBr Gen (Valid):

Final Answer : Option (3)

58)

Question Explanation: The problem asks to identify product X formed when benzyl bromide
reacts with magnesium in dry ether, followed by acid hydrolysis.

Concept: Grignard reagent formation, Organometallic compounds, Acidic hydrolysis,

Hydrocarbons.

Solution: Benzyl bromide reacts with Mg to form Benzyl magnesium bromide (Grignard
reagent). Subsequent hydrolysis replaces the MgBr group with a hydrogen atom.

C6H5CH2Br C6H5CH2MgBr C6H5CH3 + Mg(OH)Br

Final Answer: Option (2)

59)

Anti Elimination

60)

Explain Question : Identify the alcohol most reactive towards acid-catalyst dehydration.
Concept : This question is based on rate of E-1 reaction : Dehydration of alcohol.
Solution : Rate of E-1 reaction ∝ stability of carbocation.

1. → ⇒ 7 α-H

2. → ⇒ Resonance + 2 α-H
3. → ⇒ Resonance + 5 α-H

4. ⇒ do not undergo dehydration because of partial double bond character between C-O
due to resonance.
Hence order of rate of dehydration is : 3 > 2 > 1 > 4.
Final answer : 3

61) Question Explanation: Identify the correct statement regarding the given reaction.
Concept: Finkestein reaction : Halide exchange reaction.
Solution:
CH3–CH2–Cl + NaI CH3CH2–I + NaCl
NaCl is precipitate in acetone it facilitate forward reaction according to le-Chatelier principle.
Final answer: option (2)

62)

In primary halide

Rate of SN2 ∝ EWG ∝

–O–CH3(ERG), –NO2(EWG), –NH2(ERG)

63)

Saytzeff alkene (trans is major)

64)

Question Explanation: Identify the structure of major product formed in the given reaction.
Concept: This question based on SN2 reaction of alkyl halide.
Solution:

⇒ When alkyl halide reacts with NaCN/KCN then Nitrile is formed since NaCN is ionic and

attack is from side of carbon .

⇒ Here 'I' is in conjugation hence cannot undergo substitution easily.
⇒ ∴ 'Cl' not is conjugation so undergo substitution to form desired product.
Final Answer: Option (4)

65) Explain the question : Identify the major product 'A' and 'B' of the given reaction.
Concept : This question is based on SN1 and SN2 reaction.
Solution :

Final answer : 4

66)

CCl4 used in fire extinguisher. CH2Cl2 used as paint remover. Freons used in refrigerator and
AC. DDT used as non Biodegradable insecticide.

67) CoF2 is used only (only metal fluoride is used)

68) Explain Question:

Match the compound given in column I with the rate given in column II.
Concept :
Rate of SN2 reaction.
Solution:

Rate of SN2 reaction α

∴ Rate of SN2 reaction follows the order:-
CH3–X > 1° Alkyl halide > 2° Alkyl halide > 3° alkyl halide.
(A) CH3–X (S) 30
(B) CH3–CH2–X (R) 1.00

(C) (Q) 0.02

(D) (P) 0.0

Final answer: option (2)

69) NCERT XII Pg. # 286

70) Explain Question : Correct statement among the given.

Concept : This question is based on Thionyl chloride reaction with alcohols, Addition of HI to
propene, Bromine water and free radical substitution reaction.
Solution :
Statement 1 is correct: SOCl2 is preferred because SO2 and HCl gases escape, driving the
reaction forward and simplifying
purification.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Addition of HI to propene forms 2-iodopropane (Markovnikov
product), not 1-iodopropane.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Bromine's reddish-brown colour is decolourised by ethylene due to
 electrophilic addition.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Chlorination of alkanes occurs via radical mechanism, not
carbocation.
Final answer : 1

71)

Explaining the Question :-

Question is asking about the product of given reaction of ether with HI
Concept:-
This question is based on reaction of ether with HI
Solution :-

Final Answer :- (1)

72)

Explain the Question : Identify reaction which doesn't given phenol.

Concept : This question is based on preparation of benzene.

Solution :

Given reaction

Final answer: option (2)

73) (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

74)

NCERT XII Part-II Pg. # 213

75)

Explain Question: The most preferred method for the preparation of pure alkyl chlorides
from alcohols is.
Concept: Darzens process.
Solution:
When an alcohol (ROH) reacts with thionyl chloride (SOCl2) in the presence of pyridine, the
reaction produces an alkyl chloride (RCl) with SO2 and HCl as gaseous byproducts:

• SO2 and HCl escape as gases, shifting the reaction forward and giving a high yield.
• No inorganic salts remain in the mixture, so purification is easy.
• Pyridine acts as a base to neutralize HCl and promotes an SN2 mechanism with inversion.
Final answer: option (2)

76)
R1 = CH3, R2 = CH3, R3 = CH3

77)

Question Explanation : Cleavage of aryl ether and aromatic nitration.

Concept : Ether Cleavage and Electrophilic Substitution.

Solution :

Final Answer : Option (2)

78)

Explaining the Question :-

Question is asking correct reactivity order of given Benzyl alcohol with HBr.
Concept:- This question is based on
Reaction of alcohol with HBr SN1 reaction of alcohol with HX.
Solution :-
It follows SN1 mechanism rate ∝ stability of carbocation stability of carbocation ∝ + I, +M, +
HC

reactivity order w.r.t. HBr α stability of carbocation stability order of carbocation's from A B C
is

So reactivity order is B < C < A w.r.t HBr

Final Answer :- (3)

79) Question Explanation: Identify the product 'X' and 'Y' of the given reaction
Concept: ESR of phenol : Halogenation.
Solution:
 Final answer: option (4)

80) Explain Question: Alcohol is most reactive towards Lucas reagent.

Concept: Reactive of SN1 Mechanism α Stability of carbocation.
Solution:

Given compound Remark

1 Benzyl alcohol (i) Phenyl group resonance

2 p-Methoxy benzyl alcohol

(i) Phenyl group resonance.(ii) –OCH3 +M effect.

3 Allyl alcohol (i) Allyllic group resonance.

4. Vinyl alcohol CH2=CH–OH Resonance stabilised leaving group (poor leaving gp)

Reactivity of alcohol = 2 > 1 > 3 > 4

Final answer: Option (2)

81)

Explain Question: Find out the Product A & B in the given reaction.

Concept: The question is based on dehydrogenation & dehydration.

Solution:

(I) Alcohol when heated with Cu undergoes dehydrogenation to form carbonyl compound.
(II) Under Al2O3/Δ alcohol undergoes dehydration to form alkene.
Final answer: Option (3)

82)

Explain Question: The major products C in the given reaction will be.

Concept:

(i) Aliphatic primary amine to reacted with nitrous acid HNO2.

(ii) Oxidation of alcohol.
(iii) Ketone reaction with Grignard reagent.

Solution:

Final answer: option (4)

83)

Question Explanation: We need to determine the total number of moles of HI consumed

when anisole and cyclohexyl methyl ether each react with excess concentrated HI.
Concept : Ether cleavage by HI, nucleophilic substitution, stability of carbocations, reaction
stoichiometry.
Solution :
1 + 2 = 3 mole
Final Answer: Option (2)

84)

Explaining the Question :- Question is asking about product of hydroboration of alkene to

give alcohol and oxidation of alcohol by PCC.

Concept :- (1) Hydroboration oxidation

(2) Oxidation of alcohol with PPC

Solution :-

Final Answer :- Option (3)

85) Explain the Question : Identify the correct statement regarding the given reaction.
Concept : This question is based on Reimer Tiemann formylation reaction.
Solution :

Reaction is called as Reimer Tiemann Reaction

Here dichloro carbene [:CCl2] is electrophile.
Hence statement b, c are correct.
Final Answer : (3)

86)

Explaining the Question :- The question asks for the major product of the reduction reaction
using NaBH4.

Concept:- This question is based on Reduction of carbonyl compounds.

Solution :- NaBH4 is mild reducing agent It can selectively reduce Aldehyde and ketones to
their corresponding alcohol it is not strong enough to reduce esters.

Final Answer :- 3
 87)

Question Explanation: We need to identify the correct product formed when a compound
reacts with excess HBr under heat.
Concept Used: Acidic cleavage of ethers, nucleophilic substitution, and ring-opening
reactions of cyclic ethers.

Solution:

Final answer: option (2)

88)

Question Explanation: Determine whether the Assertion and Reason are correct and
whether the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Concept: Nucleophilicity, Resonance, Stability of anions.

Solution: Greater resonance stabilization → Greater anion stability → Lower

nucleophilicity.

Species Dominating Effect Nucleophilicity

CH3O– (Methoxide ion) No resonance Strong Nucleophile

C6H5O– (Phenoxide ion) Resonance Poor Nucleophile

Assertion: Correct ✔️
Reason: Correct ✔️ and it correctly explains the Assertion.

Final Answer: Option (4)

89) Question Explanation: The question asks to evaluates two statements regarding the
physical properties (boiling points and water solubility) of alcohols versus ethers of
comparable molecular masses.

Concept:

A. Boiling Point: Alcohols form intermolecular hydrogen bonds due to the -OH group;
ethers cannot hydrogen bond with themselves, leading to lower boiling points.

B. Solubility: Both can form hydrogen bonds with water molecules, making their miscibility
comparable.
Solution:

A. Statement-I is incorrect: Ethers lack intermolecular hydrogen bonding; only alcohols

have it. This disparity causes the boiling point difference.

B. Statement-II is correct: Both ethoxyethane and butan-1-ol (isomers, C4H10O ) show

similar solubility (approx. 7–9 g/100 mL) because both can accept hydrogen bonds from
water.

Final Answer : Option (4)

90) Explain Question:

Identify correct answer
Concept:
oxidation of Alcohol by Cu
Solution:

Final answer: Option (2)