1. The age of the universe, according to the Big Bang 10.

Which pair of thinkers most directly influenced

theory, is estimated to be about: Darwin's formulation of natural selection, through ideas
(A) 4.5 billion years on gradual geological change and population growth
(B) 15 billion years respectively?
(C) 2000 million years (A) Lamarck and Mendel
(D) 6000 years (B) Lyell and Malthus
(C) Oparin and Haldane
2. The primitive atmosphere of the earth, as proposed
(D) Wallace and Hooker
by Oparin and Haldane, lacked which of the following?
(A) Methane 11. Homologous organs are best defined as structures
(B) Ammonia having:
(C) Free oxygen (A) Similar function but different basic structure and origin
(D) Water vapour (B) Similar basic structure and origin but different function
(C) Identical function and structure with no common
3. In the classic 1953 experiment simulating early
ancestry
atmospheric conditions, electric discharge was passed
(D) No structural or functional similarity
through a mixture of:
(A) CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapour 12. Which of the following pairs represents
(B) CO2, O2, N2 and water vapour homologous organs?
(C) CH4, O2, N2 and H2 (A) Wings of a butterfly and wings of a bird
(D) NH3, O2, CO2 and water vapour (B) Forelimbs of a whale and forelimbs of a bat
(C) Eye of an octopus and eye of a mammal
4. The major product formed within a week in the
(D) Sweet potato (root) and potato (stem)
Miller-Urey experiment was:
(A) Nucleotides 13. Which of the following is an example of analogous
(B) Simple amino acids organs?
(C) Complex proteins (A) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
(D) Lipids (B) Wings of a bird and wings of an insect
(C) Forelimb of a horse and forelimb of a man
5. The molecule believed to have been the first
(D) Vertebrate heart across different classes
self-replicating, catalytic biomolecule, giving rise to the
"RNA world" hypothesis, is: 14. Analogous organs arise as a result of:
(A) DNA (A) Divergent evolution
(B) RNA (B) Convergent evolution
(C) Protein (C) Adaptive radiation from a single ancestor
(D) Polysaccharide (D) Genetic drift

6. The first cellular forms of life are estimated to have 15. Homologous organs arise as a result of:
appeared approximately: (A) Convergent evolution
(A) 500 million years ago (B) Divergent evolution
(B) 2000 million years ago (C) Parallel mutation
(C) 15 billion years ago (D) Founder effect
(D) 10,000 years ago
16. The presence of gill slits at some stage in the
7. Fossils are most reliably dated using: embryos of all vertebrates, including those that never
(A) Their location above ground develop gills as adults, is cited as evidence from the
(B) Radioactive dating of the rock layers in which they are field of:
found (A) Palaeontology
(C) Their colour (B) Comparative embryology
(D) Their overall size (C) Biochemistry
(D) Ecology
8. Fossils found in the deepest (oldest) sedimentary
rock layers generally represent: 17. The high degree of similarity in the sequence of
(A) The most recent organisms cytochrome-c across widely different organisms is
(B) The most ancient organisms used as evidence of evolution from the field of:
(C) Organisms unrelated to modern forms (A) Comparative anatomy
(D) Only marine organisms (B) Biochemistry / molecular biology
(C) Palaeontology
9. Archaeopteryx is frequently cited as a classic
(D) Embryology
example of:
(A) A living fossil
(B) A connecting link between reptiles and birds
(C) An analogous structure
(D) A vestigial organ
18. Adaptive radiation refers to: 26. When a small group of individuals establishes a
(A) Migration of a species to multiple continents new colony and, purely by chance, carries a different
(B) The process by which a species radiates into several allele frequency than the original population, this
new forms from a single point of origin to occupy different phenomenon is called:
habitats (A) Adaptive radiation
(C) Convergence of unrelated species toward a common (B) Founder effect
form (C) Industrial melanism
(D) Random loss of alleles in small populations (D) Directional selection
19. Darwin's finches on the Galapagos Islands are a 27. A trait-distribution graph in which individuals with
classic example of: average phenotypes are favoured while both extremes
(A) Convergent evolution are eliminated, narrowing the population's variation,
(B) Adaptive radiation illustrates:
(C) Genetic drift (A) Directional selection
(D) Vestigial organs (B) Disruptive selection
(C) Stabilizing selection
20. The variety of Australian marsupials that diversified
(D) Genetic drift
from a common pouched-mammal ancestor is an
example of: 28. A trait-distribution graph in which one extreme
(A) Convergent evolution phenotype is favoured, causing the population mean to
(B) Adaptive radiation shift toward that extreme over generations, illustrates:
(C) Founder effect (A) Stabilizing selection
(D) Directional selection (B) Directional selection
(C) Disruptive selection
21. When placental mammals on other continents and
(D) Founder effect
marsupials in Australia independently evolved
similar-looking forms occupying similar ecological 29. A trait-distribution graph in which both extreme
niches, this overall pattern is best described as: phenotypes are favoured over the intermediate
(A) Adaptive radiation only phenotype, potentially producing two distinct peaks,
(B) Convergent evolution following independent adaptive illustrates:
radiations (A) Directional selection
(C) Homologous evolution (B) Stabilizing selection
(D) Genetic drift (C) Disruptive selection
(D) Genetic drift
22. Which of the following, if it occurs in a population,
would disturb Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? 30. Human birth weight, in which infants of average
(A) Absence of mutation weight show the highest survival rate compared to very
(B) Random mating light or very heavy infants, is a commonly cited
(C) Natural selection favouring certain genotypes example of:
(D) A very large population size (A) Directional selection
23. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation p² + 2pq + q² = 1, (B) Disruptive selection
(C) Stabilizing selection
the term "2pq" represents the frequency of:
(D) Sexual selection
(A) Homozygous dominant individuals
(B) Heterozygous individuals 31. The shift in predominant colouration of the
(C) Homozygous recessive individuals peppered moth (Biston betularia) from light to dark
(D) The total population forms in industrial areas of England is a classic
example of:
24. A change in the allele frequency of a population that
causes it to deviate from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (A) Mutation creating new dark alleles
is, by definition: (B) Directional natural selection acting on pre-existing
variation
(A) Genetic drift only
(C) Genetic drift
(B) Evolution
(D) Disruptive selection
(C) Mutation only
(D) Migration only 32. Before industrialization in England, the light form of
Biston betularia predominated mainly because:
25. Genetic drift is most pronounced and evolutionarily
significant in: (A) It was better camouflaged on soot-covered trees
(B) It was better camouflaged on lichen-covered tree
(A) Very large populations
trunks
(B) Small populations
(C) It had higher fitness regardless of background
(C) Populations undergoing no reproduction
(D) Predators preferred dark moths
(D) Populations with no variation
33. Industrial melanism illustrates which important 41. The hominid considered to be an early tool user,
evolutionary concept? with an estimated brain capacity of about 650-800 cc,
(A) New variants are always created directly by the is:
environment (A) Homo erectus
(B) Natural selection acts on pre-existing heritable (B) Homo habilis
variation; it does not create variation (C) Homo neanderthalensis
(C) Evolution requires geographic isolation (D) Homo sapiens
(D) Acquired characters are inherited
42. Homo erectus, with an estimated brain capacity of
34. The type of variation caused by mutation is about 900 cc, is represented by fossil specimens
generally: commonly referred to as:
(A) Continuous and gradual (A) Java man
(B) Discontinuous and abrupt (B) Cro-Magnon man
(C) Never heritable (C) Peking duck
(D) Restricted to somatic cells only (D) Neanderthal man

35. The type of variation arising from recombination 43. Homo neanderthalensis, who lived roughly between
during meiosis (Mendelian variation) is typically: 1,00,000 and 40,000 years ago in Central Asia and
(A) Discontinuous Europe, is notable for:
(B) Continuous (A) Never using any tools
(C) Non-heritable (B) Using hides to protect their bodies and burying their
(D) Absent in sexually reproducing organisms dead
(C) Being entirely arboreal
36. The development of resistance to DDT in mosquito
(D) Lacking any brain development
populations exposed to repeated pesticide use is best
explained by: 44. Fossils of Homo sapiens dating from roughly 75,000
(A) DDT directly inducing resistance mutations to 10,000 years ago that are found in Europe are
(B) Selection of pre-existing resistant variants that survive commonly referred to as:
and reproduce (A) Java man
(C) Genetic drift alone (B) Cro-Magnon man
(D) Adaptive radiation (C) Peking man
(D) Ramapithecus
37. Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic in a population
repeatedly exposed to that antibiotic arises primarily 45. According to the currently accepted view of human
through: evolution, modern Homo sapiens:
(A) Directional selection of pre-existing resistant variants (A) Evolved independently and simultaneously on every
(B) Disruptive selection continent
(C) Founder effect (B) Originated in Africa and subsequently migrated to other
(D) Stabilizing selection parts of the world
(C) Evolved directly from Neanderthals in Europe
38. Compared to Dryopithecus, Ramapithecus is
(D) Shows no evolutionary relationship with earlier
generally regarded as being:
hominids
(A) Entirely aquatic in habit
(B) More man-like 46. Which of the following best represents the overall
(C) Identical to modern Homo sapiens trend seen across the hominid fossil record from early
(D) More ape-like ancestral forms to Homo sapiens?
(A) A progressive decrease in brain capacity
39. Dryopithecus, in contrast to Ramapithecus, is
(B) A progressive increase in brain capacity along with an
generally regarded as being more:
increasingly upright gait
(A) Man-like (C) No change in brain capacity over time
(B) Ape-like (D) A loss of tool-using ability over time
(C) Identical to modern Homo sapiens
(D) Aquatic in habit 47. Convergent evolution, unlike divergent evolution,
results in organisms of:
40. Fossils of Australopithecus, associated with early
(A) Common recent ancestry developing dissimilar
hominids that probably hunted with stone weapons and
structures
largely ate fruit, were discovered in:
(B) Different ancestry independently developing
(A) Java superficially similar structures adapted to similar functions
(B) East Africa (C) Identical genetic makeup
(C) Central Europe (D) No adaptive significance
(D) Central Asia
48. A "living fossil" refers to an organism that: 54. Assertion: A very large, randomly mating
(A) Is completely extinct population, without mutation, migration or selection,
(B) Closely resembles its ancient fossil ancestors, having tends to maintain constant allele frequencies across
undergone little morphological change over long generations.
evolutionary time Reason: This is described by the Hardy-Weinberg principle
(C) Has no fossil record at all of genetic equilibrium.
(D) Evolved only within the last few decades (A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is
49. In evolutionary biology, the "fitness" of an organism the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
primarily refers to its:
NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(A) Physical strength
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(B) Relative reproductive success / ability to survive and
(D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
produce fertile offspring
(C) Body size 55. Assertion: Industrial melanism in Biston betularia
(D) Resistance to disease alone occurred because industrial pollution caused moths to
mutate and turn dark.
50. The process by which new species arise, typically
involving reproductive isolation of populations, is Reason: Natural selection favoured pre-existing
called: dark-coloured moths once tree trunks became darkened by
soot.
(A) Adaptive radiation
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is
(B) Speciation
the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) Genetic drift
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
(D) Founder effect
NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
51. Assertion: The Miller-Urey experiment supported (C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
the idea that organic molecules could form (D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
spontaneously under primitive earth conditions.
56. Assertion: Genetic drift can change allele frequency
Reason: The experiment used a reducing atmosphere purely by chance, independent of selection.
containing methane, ammonia, hydrogen and water vapour
Reason: Genetic drift has the greatest evolutionary impact
subjected to electric discharge.
in very large populations.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is
the correct explanation of Assertion
the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
52. Assertion: Homologous organs provide strong
57. Assertion: Darwin's finches on the Galapagos
evidence for divergent evolution.
Islands show marked diversity in beak shape and size.
Reason: Homologous organs have a different basic
Reason: This diversity arose through adaptive radiation
structure but perform the same function.
from a common ancestral finch species in response to
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is
different available food sources.
the correct explanation of Assertion
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
the correct explanation of Assertion
NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
53. Assertion: Analogous organs indicate convergent (D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
evolution.
58. Assertion: Stabilizing selection increases the
Reason: Analogous organs arise from a common ancestral variation within a population over successive
structure that has diverged over time. generations.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is
Reason: Stabilizing selection favours individuals with
the correct explanation of Assertion
average phenotypes and eliminates both extremes.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is
NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
(D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
59. Assertion: Fossils found in deeper sedimentary 64. Assertion: Homo neanderthalensis is known to have
rock layers are generally older than those found in buried their dead.
more superficial layers. Reason: This behaviour has been inferred from
Reason: Sedimentary rock layers are deposited over time, archaeological findings at Neanderthal burial sites.
with older layers buried beneath more recently deposited (A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is
layers. the correct explanation of Assertion
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is (B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
the correct explanation of Assertion NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is (C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
NOT the correct explanation of Assertion (D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
65. Assertion: Convergent evolution results in
(D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
organisms with a common recent ancestor developing
60. Assertion: The presence of gill slits at some dissimilar structures.
embryonic stage in all vertebrates, including humans, Reason: Convergent evolution occurs when unrelated
is evidence of shared evolutionary ancestry. organisms independently evolve similar adaptations to
Reason: This is an example of evidence provided by similar environmental pressures.
comparative embryology. (A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
the correct explanation of Assertion (B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
NOT the correct explanation of Assertion (C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false (D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
66. Statement I: Oparin and Haldane proposed that the
61. Assertion: RNA is believed to have been the first first form of life could have originated from inorganic
genetic material capable of both storing information molecules under conditions prevailing on early earth.
and catalysing reactions. Statement II: The primitive atmosphere had abundant free
Reason: RNA can act as a ribozyme, showing catalytic oxygen.
activity similar to enzymes. Statement III: Simple organic molecules could combine to
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is form macromolecules such as proteins and nucleic acids.
the correct explanation of Assertion Statement IV: Life is thought to have originated in water,
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is with chemical evolution possibly followed by biological
NOT the correct explanation of Assertion evolution.
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false How many of the above statements are correct?
(D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(A) One
62. Assertion: A founder population that colonizes a (B) Two
new geographical area may show significantly different (C) Three
allele frequencies compared to the parent population. (D) Four
Reason: This difference is entirely due to natural selection 67. Statement I: Homologous organs share a common
acting on the founder population. evolutionary origin.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is Statement II: Wings of a bird and wings of an insect are
the correct explanation of Assertion homologous structures.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
Statement III: The forelimbs of a whale, bat, cheetah and
NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
human all share the same basic pentadactyl pattern.
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
Statement IV: Analogous organs typically arise via
(D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
divergent evolution.
63. Assertion: Antibiotic resistance appears in a How many of the above statements are correct?
bacterial population only after exposure to the (A) One
antibiotic, because the antibiotic induces the resistance (B) Two
mutation. (C) Three
Reason: Natural selection can act only upon heritable (D) Four
variation that already exists within a population.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is
the correct explanation of Assertion
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is
NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
68. Statement I: Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium requires 72. Statement I: Adaptive radiation can occur within a
random mating within the population. single, isolated geographical area, without the
Statement II: Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium requires a very diversifying species migrating to different continents.
large population size. Statement II: Darwin's finches diversified in beak structure
Statement III: Migration into or out of a population disturbs based on the type of food available.
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Statement III: Australian marsupials show adaptive
Statement IV: Natural selection has no effect on radiation from a common ancestor.
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Statement IV: Convergent evolution can occur when
How many of the above statements are correct? adaptive radiation happens independently in geographically
(A) One separated regions.
(B) Two How many of the above statements are correct?
(C) Three (A) One
(D) Four (B) Two
(C) Three
69. Statement I: Stabilizing selection reduces variation
(D) Four
in a trait within a population.
Statement II: Directional selection favours individuals at one 73. Statement I: Ramapithecus was more man-like than
phenotypic extreme. Dryopithecus.
Statement III: Disruptive selection favours intermediate Statement II: Australopithecus fossils were discovered in
phenotypes over the extremes. East Africa.
Statement IV: Natural selection can act only on heritable Statement III: Homo habilis is believed to be an early
variation. hominid to use stone tools.
How many of the above statements are correct? Statement IV: Homo erectus had a larger brain capacity
(A) One than Homo neanderthalensis.
(B) Two How many of the above statements are correct?
(C) Three (A) One
(D) Four (B) Two
(C) Three
70. Statement I: Industrial melanism in Biston betularia
(D) Four
is an example of directional selection.
Statement II: Prior to industrialization, dark moths were rare 74. Statement I: Cro-Magnon fossils are associated with
because they were more visible to predators on Homo sapiens found in Europe.
lichen-covered trees. Statement II: Neanderthals are known to have used hides to
Statement III: The dark allele arose newly in the population protect their bodies.
as a direct result of pollution. Statement III: Modern Homo sapiens is believed to have
Statement IV: After industrialization, dark moths had a originated in Africa and migrated to other continents.
survival advantage due to camouflage on soot-darkened Statement IV: Java man refers to fossils of Homo habilis.
trees. How many of the above statements are correct?
How many of the above statements are correct? (A) One
(A) One (B) Two
(B) Two (C) Three
(C) Three (D) Four
(D) Four
75. Statement I: Mutation typically produces continuous
71. Statement I: Genetic drift is more significant in variation in a population.
small populations than in large ones. Statement II: Recombination during meiosis is a major
Statement II: The founder effect is a specific case of genetic source of continuous, heritable variation.
drift. Statement III: Natural selection can act on variations
Statement III: Genetic drift always increases genetic produced by both mutation and recombination.
variation within a population. Statement IV: All variation within a population is caused
Statement IV: A natural disaster wiping out most of a large solely by environmental influence and is not heritable.
population and leaving a small surviving group with a How many of the above statements are correct?
skewed allele frequency is an example of genetic drift. (A) One
How many of the above statements are correct? (B) Two
(A) One (C) Three
(B) Two (D) Four
(C) Three
(D) Four
76. Statement I: DDT resistance in mosquitoes is an 79. Statement I: A population matching Hardy-Weinberg
example of selection acting on pre-existing genetic predicted genotype frequencies is considered to be in
variation. genetic equilibrium at that locus.
Statement II: The use of DDT directly causes Statement II: Deviation from Hardy-Weinberg proportions
resistance-conferring mutations to appear. indicates that one or more evolutionary forces may be
Statement III: Repeated pesticide application increases the acting.
relative frequency of resistant individuals over generations. Statement III: Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is easily
Statement IV: Antibiotic resistance in bacteria can spread maintained in very small populations because of genetic
through a population by a similar selective mechanism. drift.
How many of the above statements are correct? Statement IV: Non-random mating can cause deviation from
(A) One Hardy-Weinberg genotype proportions.
(B) Two How many of the above statements are correct?
(C) Three (A) One
(D) Four (B) Two
(C) Three
77. Statement I: Conserved biochemical molecules,
(D) Four
such as cytochrome-c, across diverse organisms
support the theory of common ancestry. 80. Statement I: Speciation may occur when
Statement II: Comparative embryology shows that populations become reproductively isolated from one
unrelated groups of vertebrates pass through similar another.
developmental stages. Statement II: Geographic isolation can be a precursor to
Statement III: Vestigial organs have no evolutionary reproductive isolation and speciation.
evidence value. Statement III: Species formed via adaptive radiation are
Statement IV: Palaeontological evidence, based on the always found on entirely different continents.
fossil record, helps establish evolutionary relationships and Statement IV: Over long periods, accumulated genetic
timelines. differences between isolated populations can prevent
How many of the above statements are correct? successful interbreeding.
(A) One How many of the above statements are correct?
(B) Two (A) One
(C) Three (B) Two
(D) Four (C) Three
(D) Four
78. Statement I: According to Hardy-Weinberg, p²
represents the frequency of the homozygous dominant 81. Match Column I with Column II.
genotype. Column I
Statement II: q² represents the frequency of the (a) Oparin and Haldane
homozygous recessive genotype. (b) Miller and Urey
Statement III: p + q = 1, where p and q are the allele (c) Charles Darwin
frequencies at a locus with two alleles. (d) Hardy and Weinberg
Statement IV: 2pq represents the frequency of the Column II
homozygous recessive genotype. (i) Proposed natural selection as the mechanism of
How many of the above statements are correct? evolution
(A) One (ii) Proposed chemical evolution of life from inorganic
(B) Two molecules
(C) Three
(iii) Experimentally simulated primitive earth conditions to
(D) Four
produce amino acids
(iv) Formulated the principle of genetic equilibrium in
populations
(A) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(B) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(D) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
82. Match Column I with Column II. 85. Match Column I with Column II.
Column I Column I
(a) Forelimbs of whale and bat (a) Large, strong beak
(b) Wings of butterfly and wings of bird (b) Thin, pointed beak
(c) Eye of octopus and eye of mammal (c) Short, thick beak
(d) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita (d) Slender, warbler-type beak
Column II Column II
(i) Homologous (i) Insect-eating
(ii) Analogous (ii) Fruit / nectar and insect probing
(iii) Analogous (iii) Seed-crushing, ground-feeding
(iv) Homologous (iv) Insect-probing among foliage
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (A) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(B) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (B) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(C) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (C) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(D) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (D) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

83. Match Column I with Column II. 86. In a population of 1000 individuals at
Column I Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the
(a) Stabilizing selection recessive allele (a) is 0.4. What is the expected
(b) Directional selection frequency of homozygous recessive (aa) individuals?
(c) Disruptive selection (A) 0.08
(B) 0.16
(d) Genetic drift
(C) 0.24
Column II
(D) 0.40
(i) Favours average phenotypes, reduces variation
(ii) Shifts mean phenotype toward one extreme 87. In the same population (q = 0.4, p = 0.6), what is the
(iii) Favours both extreme phenotypes, may create a expected frequency of heterozygous (Aa) individuals?
bimodal distribution (A) 0.24
(iv) Random change in allele frequency, independent of (B) 0.36
selection (C) 0.48
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (D) 0.60
(B) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii 88. If the frequency of homozygous recessive
(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii individuals (aa) in a population at Hardy-Weinberg
(D) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv equilibrium is 0.09, what is the frequency of the
84. Match Column I with Column II. recessive allele (a)?
Column I (A) 0.09
(a) Homo habilis (B) 0.3
(C) 0.6
(b) Homo erectus
(D) 0.7
(c) Homo neanderthalensis
(d) Homo sapiens (Cro-Magnon) 89. For the population in the previous question (q =
Column II 0.3), what is the frequency of the dominant allele (A)?
(i) ~650-800 cc, an early stone tool user (A) 0.3
(ii) ~900 cc, Java man (B) 0.49
(iii) ~1400 cc, buried the dead (C) 0.7
(D) 0.91
(iv) Modern brain capacity, found in Europe
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 90. A recessive genetic disorder affects 1 in 10,000
(B) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii individuals in a population at Hardy-Weinberg
(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i equilibrium. What is the approximate frequency of
(D) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii unaffected carriers (heterozygotes) in this population?
(A) About 1 in 100
(B) About 1 in 50
(C) About 1 in 10,000
(D) About 1 in 5,000
91. In a survey of 500 plants, 320 were tall (dominant 97. A distribution curve for human birth weight shows
phenotype) and 180 were dwarf (recessive phenotype). the highest survival for infants near the average weight,
Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the with sharply reduced survival at both very low and very
frequency of the recessive allele 't'? high birth weights, and the curve becomes narrower
(A) 0.36 over successive generations. This illustrates:
(B) 0.4 (A) Directional selection
(C) 0.6 (B) Disruptive selection
(D) 0.8 (C) Stabilizing selection
(D) Founder effect
92. Continuing from the previous question (q = 0.6, p =
0.4), how many of the 500 plants are expected to be 98. A bacterial population is exposed to a constant,
heterozygous (Tt)? increasing concentration of an antibiotic over many
(A) 120 generations. A graph of the population's mean
(B) 180 resistance level against time shows a steady,
(C) 240 one-directional increase. This is best explained by:
(D) 300 (A) Stabilizing selection
(B) Directional selection
93. In a genetic survey of a population of 1000
(C) Disruptive selection
individuals, the observed genotype numbers were AA =
(D) Genetic drift with no selection
640, Aa = 320, aa = 40. What is the allele frequency of 'a'
in this population? 99. In a small isolated population of 50 birds, a storm
(A) 0.1 kills 45 individuals at random, unrelated to any
(B) 0.2 particular trait. The surviving 5 birds happen to have a
(C) 0.3 much higher frequency of a rare allele than the original
(D) 0.4 population. This chance-based shift in allele frequency
is an example of:
94. For the population above (frequency of A = 0.8,
(A) Natural selection
frequency of a = 0.2), what is the Hardy-Weinberg
(B) Genetic drift (bottleneck effect)
expected number of heterozygotes (Aa) out of 1000,
(C) Gene flow
and how does it compare with the observed number
(D) Directional selection
(320)?
(A) Expected = 320; the population is in Hardy-Weinberg 100. A small group of 20 individuals from a mainland
equilibrium population colonizes a remote island. By chance, this
(B) Expected = 360; the population deviates from founding group has a higher frequency of a particular
equilibrium allele than the mainland population, and over
(C) Expected = 160; the population deviates from generations this allele becomes very common on the
equilibrium island. This is an example of:
(D) Expected = 400; the population is in equilibrium (A) Directional selection
(B) The founder effect
95. A moth population before industrialization had 95%
(C) Stabilizing selection
light-coloured and 5% dark-coloured individuals. After
(D) Convergent evolution
several decades of industrial pollution, surveys showed
20% light-coloured and 80% dark-coloured individuals.
This shift in phenotype frequency is best explained by:
(A) Random genetic drift
(B) Directional natural selection favouring the dark form
due to changed camouflage conditions
(C) Founder effect
(D) Disruptive selection

96. A distribution curve of beak depth in a finch

population is unimodal and centred at an intermediate
value before a drought. After the drought, the curve
becomes bimodal, with peaks at very small and very
large beak depth, and very few birds with intermediate
beak depth. This shift illustrates:
(A) Stabilizing selection
(B) Directional selection
(C) Disruptive selection
(D) Genetic drift