Q1.
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation: Benzene pollution is caused by motor vehicle exhaust, tobacco smoke, wood
burning, varnishes/paints, and polyurethane/synthetic foam products.
Q2. Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Coal ash contains toxic heavy metals (Pb, As, Hg), power plants emit \text{SO}_2
and \text{NO}_x, and Indian coal inherently has a high ash content (30–45%).
Q3. Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation: Magnetite nanoparticles are emitted from vehicular brake friction, engine
combustion, and fossil-fuel thermal power plants; microwave stoves and telephone lines do not
generate magnetite particles.
Q4. Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Furnace oil is a heavy residue fraction from oil refining, used by power plants and
industrial boilers, and emits high levels of sulphur dioxide upon combustion.
Q5. Answer: (d) Power plants using fossil fuels
Explanation: Fossil-fuel thermal power generation (coal and oil combustion) is the single largest
worldwide anthropogenic contributor to atmospheric sulphur dioxide (\text{SO}_2).
Q6. Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Copper smelting generates slag that leaches heavy metals (like arsenic and lead)
and releases \text{SO}_2 gas, but it does not emit lethal quantities of carbon monoxide
(\text{CO}).
Q7. Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: India’s per capita \text{CO}_2 emissions are roughly 1.9–2.0 t \text{CO}_2/capita
(making Statement 1 incorrect), while India ranks second in Asia-Pacific (after China) with
electricity/heat generation being its primary emission source.
Q8. Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Direct Air Capture (DAC) captures atmospheric \text{CO}_2 for geological
sequestration, plastic/food processing usage, and manufacturing synthetic low-carbon aviation
fuels.
Q9. Answer: (a) Silver iodide and dry ice (solid carbon dioxide)
Explanation: Cloud seeding for precipitation and air-scrubbing primarily uses silver iodide
(\text{AgI}) and dry ice (\text{solid CO}_2) as effective ice-nucleating agents.
Q10. Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains
Statement I.
Explanation: Underground coal gasification in-situ converts unmined coal beds directly into
syngas, which is primarily composed of hydrogen (\text{H}_2) and carbon monoxide (\text{CO}).
Q11. Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Artisanal/small-scale gold mining and coal combustion are major global sources of
mercury, and WHO affirms there is no safe level of mercury exposure.
Q12. Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both explain Statement I
Explanation: Activated carbon effectively remediates industrial effluents because of its massive
surface area and strong heavy metal adsorption capability, and it can be synthesized from high-
carbon agricultural/organic wastes.
Q13. Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: PFAS ("forever chemicals") resist environmental degradation, bioaccumulate in
human/animal tissue over time, and contaminate food, packaging, and drinking water sources.
Q14. Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation: Biofilters in RAS rely on nitrifying bacteria to convert toxic ammonia (\text{NH}_3)
into nitrate (\text{NO}_3^-); mechanical filters handle solid feeds, and biofilters do not generate
phosphorus nutrients.
Q15. Answer: (d) Toiletries and cosmetics
Explanation: Triclosan is a synthetic broad-spectrum antimicrobial agent added to consumer
hygiene products like antibacterial soaps, toothpastes, and cosmetics.
Q16. Answer: (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
Explanation: Microbeads in personal care products bypass wastewater treatment, entering
oceans where marine organisms ingest them, causing toxic bioaccumulation.
Q17. Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 5 only
Explanation: Arsenic, Fluoride, and Uranium are widely documented endemic groundwater
contaminants across various states in India; Sorbitol and Formaldehyde are not typical
groundwater contaminants.
Q18. Answer: (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
Explanation: Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) quantifies organic pollution levels by measuring
the oxygen consumed by aerobic microorganisms decomposing waste in water bodies.
Q19. Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Lower ocean pH reduces carbonate ions (\text{CO}_3^{2-}), impeding
shell/skeleton formation in both calcifying phytoplankton (coccolithophores) and coral reefs.
Q20. Answer: (b) Polycarbonate plastics
Explanation: Bisphenol A (BPA) is a monomeric building block essential for synthesizing rigid
polycarbonate plastics and epoxy resin linings.
Q21. Answer: (b) Rice
Explanation: Anaerobic soil conditions in flooded rice paddies generate methane (\text{CH}_4),
while intermittent wetting and nitrogen fertilizer application produce nitrous oxide
(\text{N}_2\text{O}).
Q22. Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: SRI uses single young seedlings (reducing seeds), non-flooded alternate wetting
and drying (reducing anaerobic methane emissions), and lower irrigation pumping demand
(saving electricity).
Q23. Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Steel slag acts as a aggregate base for road construction, an agricultural soil
conditioner (liming agent to neutralize acidity), and a supplementary raw material in Portland
cement production.
Q24. Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Zero tillage allows direct wheat drilling into standing crop stubble without burning
residue and preserves organic carbon sequestration in undisturbed soil (Direct Seeded
Rice/Paddy in wet soil is an alternative crop establishment method, not an advantage of zero
tillage itself).
Q25. Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Biochar serves as a lightweight porous substrate in vertical farming, boosts soil
moisture retention, and provides a favorable habitat for nitrogen-fixing soil bacteria.
Q26. Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Spreading reactive silicate rocks (like ground basalt) on land and ocean alkalinity
enhancement (adding lime/alkaline minerals) are both recognized forms of Enhanced
Weathering for atmospheric \text{CO}_2 capture.
Q27. Answer: (b) Neem coating slows down the rate of dissolution of urea in the soil.
Explanation: Neem oil acts as a natural nitrification inhibitor, slowing the microbial conversion
and dissolution of urea to prevent rapid leaching and gaseous nitrogen loss.
Q28. Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Microbes can naturally or genetically break down organic pollutants into harmless
end-products, but heavy metal elements (like Cadmium and Lead) cannot be degraded into non-
elemental forms—only bioaccumulated or transformed in oxidation state.
Q29. Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains
Statement I.
Explanation: Chewing gum is a major source of microplastic pollution because its commercial
base relies on synthetic elastomer polymers (such as polyisobutylene and polyvinyl acetate)
that do not biodegrade.
Q30. Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Cigarette filters contain cellulose acetate plastics, eyeglass lenses are made from
optical polymers (like polycarbonate/CR-39), and tyres use synthetic rubber polymers (like
styrene-butadiene).
Q31. Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Natural nanoparticles exist extensively (e.g., in volcanic ash, ocean spray, forest
fires), while metal oxide nanoparticles (e.g., \text{TiO}_2, \text{ZnO}) are used in
sunscreens/cosmetics and can pose ecotoxicological environmental risks.
Q32. Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Electronic waste contains toxic heavy metals, including Lead (solders/CRTs),
Cadmium (switches/batteries), Mercury (switches/backlights), and Beryllium
(motherboards/connectors).
Q33. Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Phytoremediation utilizes living vegetation to extract or neutralize environmental
toxins in-situ, eliminating the need to excavate and transport contaminated soil off-site.
Q34. Answer: (c) Stockholm Convention
Explanation: The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (2001) is the global
treaty dedicated to eliminating or restricting toxic, bioaccumulative, long-range POPs.
Q35. Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Green hydrogen can power modified internal combustion engines directly, be
blended into natural gas infrastructure (H-CNG) for heating/power, and fuel hydrogen fuel cell
vehicles (FCEVs).
Q36. Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: A circular economy minimizes waste generation, reduces primary raw material
extraction through recycling/reuse, and lowers life-cycle greenhouse gas emissions.
Q37. Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Explanation: India’s National Policy on Biofuels allows the usage of starch/sugar/oil sources
including damaged grains, starch-containing roots (Cassava, rotten potatoes), pulses/oilseeds
(Horse gram, Groundnut), and sugar crops (Sugar beet).
Q38. Answer: (a) Long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year.
Explanation: The Social Cost of Carbon (SCC) calculates the monetized economic damage
resulting from emitting one additional metric ton of carbon dioxide in a given year over its
atmospheric lifespan.
Q39. Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: The Kigali Amendment targets the phase-down of Hydrofluorocarbons
(HFCs)—greenhouse gases with high global warming potential that were introduced as non-
ozone-depleting alternatives to CFCs/HCFCs.
Q40. Answer: (b) It is a state where anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions are balanced
globally by anthropogenic removals over a specified period.
Explanation: Net Zero means achieving a net balance where human-caused GHG emissions
released into the atmosphere are entirely offset by equal amounts of human-driven GHG
removals (sinks).
Q41. Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: The SWM Rules 2016 mandate a three-stream waste segregation (Wet, Dry,
Domestic Hazardous) and apply beyond municipal limits, but the fixing of user fees is under the
jurisdiction of local urban bodies/municipalities, not the CPCB.
Q42. Answer: (b) Red
Explanation: Under Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, Red-colored containers are
dedicated specifically to recyclable contaminated waste made of plastic/rubber like catheters,
tubing, and IV bottles.
Q43. Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: EPR mandates PIBOs to collect and recycle rigid, flexible, and multi-layered
packaging; Micro and Small Enterprises are not fully exempt from the regulatory framework
(registration/reporting rules apply under designated categories).
Q44. Answer: (b) The prevention of marine pollution by the dumping of wastes and other matter
at sea.
Explanation: The London Convention (1972) and its 1996 Protocol are international agreements
specifically created to control and prevent marine pollution caused by the dumping of waste
materials at sea.
Q45. Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: MARPOL is the principal IMO treaty covering operational and accidental ship
pollution across six technical annexes (oil, chemical liquids, sewage, garbage, air pollution), to
which India is a signatory state.
Q46. Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains
Statement I.
Explanation: The UNEA established the INC to draft a legally binding treaty addressing global
plastic pollution through a comprehensive approach covering the complete life cycle of plastics.
Q47. Answer: (b) Micrometer thickness of carry bags
Explanation: Under Plastic Waste Management Rules, the minimum thickness of plastic carry
bags was progressively increased (from 50 to 75 and then 120 microns) to improve reusability
and collection viability.
Q48. Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: The Basel Convention covers hazardous solid waste, E-waste, and strict Prior
Informed Consent (PIC) for contaminated plastic waste trade, but explicitly excludes radioactive
waste covered under IAEA instruments.
Q49. Answer: (a) Human anatomical waste, animal anatomical waste, and expired/discarded
medicines
Explanation: Yellow category bio-medical waste—including human/animal anatomical tissues
and expired/discarded drugs—must be disposed of via high-temperature incineration or plasma
pyrolysis.
Q50. Answer: (b) To ensure that the financial responsibility for repairing environmental damage
and compensating victims falls on the polluter.
Explanation: The Polluter Pays Principle mandates that the party responsible for environmental
contamination bears the full financial cost of remediation and third-party compensation.
Q1. Discuss the structural and enforcement challenges faced by NCAP, and suggest policy
interventions required for regional airshed-level air quality management. (15 Marks, 250 Words)
Introduction
The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP), launched in 2019, aims for a 20–40% reduction in
\text{PM}_{2.5} and \text{PM}_{10} concentrations by 2026 across 131 non-attainment cities.
However, treating air pollution as an isolated urban phenomenon rather than a regional, airshed-
wide crisis limits its effectiveness.
Structural and Enforcement Challenges Faced by NCAP
NCAP Bottlenecks
├── Structural Limitations
│ ├── City-Centric Focus (Ignores transboundary flows)
│ ├── Fragmented Mandates (CPCB, State PCBs, Urban Local Bodies)
│ └── Bureaucratic Delay in Fund Utilization
└── Enforcement & Technical Deficits
├── Sparse Monitoring (Inadequate CAAQMS in rural/semi-urban belts)
├── Non-Binding Targets (Lacks statutory backing under EPA 1986)
└── Weak Penal Institutions (Inability to penalize non-compliant sector bodies)
Structural Challenges
Jurisdictional Fragmentation: NCAP operates via City Action Plans managed by Urban Local
Bodies (ULBs). It lacks a legal framework to enforce cross-boundary compliance on surrounding
agricultural, industrial, or rural zones contributing to transboundary pollution.
Funding Bottlenecks: Funds allocated under the 15th Finance Commission and NCAP are
disproportionately tied to civil works (e.g., road paving, water sprinklers) rather than addressing
core emission sources like biomass burning or industrial fuel switching.
Institutional Overlap: Overlapping mandates between State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs),
ULBs, transport authorities, and regional bodies (like CAQM in NCR) lead to diffused
accountability.
Enforcement Challenges
Lack of Statutory Teeth: Unlike the US Clean Air Act, NCAP target trajectories are non-binding
guidelines lacking penalties for non-compliant municipalities or states.
Monitoring Gaps: Real-time Continuous Ambient Air Quality Monitoring Stations (CAAQMS) are
concentrated in tier-1 cities, leaving rural and peri-urban source regions under-monitored.
Weak Industrial Oversight: SPCBs suffer from severe staffing shortages (often >40% vacancies)
and poor technical capacity, hindering continuous stack monitoring.
Policy Interventions for Regional Airshed-Level Management
Legal Recognition of Airsheds: Amend the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to define and
notify airsheds (e.g., Indo-Gangetic Plain) as singular planning units overriding municipal
boundaries.
Statutory Airshed Management Authorities: Replicate and scale regional governance models
like the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) across major airsheds with legal
power to issue binding directives to agricultural, energy, and transport sectors.
Integrated Source Apportionment & Emissions Inventories: Dynamic, real-time emission
inventories supported by satellite remote sensing and dense CAAQMS grid deployments to
track seasonal pollutant transport.
Airshed-Wide Fiscal Incentives: Link Central Finance Commission grants to measurable, airshed
-level baseline reductions rather than input-based municipal expenditure.
Conclusion
Transitioning from fragmented city-level interventions to a legally backed, airshed-governance
framework is essential for NCAP to move beyond surface-level mitigation and achieve
sustainable air quality standards across India.
Q2. What are the key features of the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016? Critically examine
the bottlenecks in their effective implementation at the Urban Local Body (ULB) level,
particularly with regard to source segregation and legacy waste management. (15 Marks, 250
Words)
Introduction
The Solid Waste Management (SWM) Rules, 2016 replaced the 2000 framework, expanding
coverage beyond municipal areas to include urban agglomerations, industrial townships, and
defense establishments, while placing responsibility on waste generators.
Key Features of SWM Rules, 2016
Mandatory Source Segregation: Generators must segregate waste into three distinct streams:
Wet (biodegradable), Dry (recyclable), and Domestic Hazardous Waste.
Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR): Brand owners and manufacturers of non-
biodegradable packaging must establish collection systems for plastic and synthetic waste.
Integration of Informal Sector: Formal inclusion of waste pickers and informal recyclers into
municipal waste management systems.
Processing & Disposal Guidelines: Wet waste processing via composting/anaerobic digestion,
RDF (Refuse Derived Fuel) utilization, and restricting unsegregated waste dumping to sanitary
landfills.
Legacy Waste Remediation: Mandated biomining and bioremediation of existing dumpsites.
Bottlenecks at the Urban Local Body (ULB) Level
Focus AreaImplementation BottlenecksImpact on SWM Framework
Source Segregation• Lack of dual-compartment collection vehicles.
Q3. Explain the phenomenon of cultural eutrophication and evaluate the efficacy of current
regulatory frameworks in controlling agricultural non-point source pollution in India. (15 Marks,
250 Words)
Introduction
Cultural (or anthropogenic) eutrophication refers to the accelerated nutrient enrichment of
aquatic ecosystems caused by human activities. Excessive inputs of phosphorus and nitrogen
trigger algal blooms, causing hypoxic "dead zones" and ecological degradation in freshwater
and coastal ecosystems.
Mechanism of Cultural Eutrophication
Anthropogenic Runoff (Synthetic N & P Fertilizers, Municipal Sewage)
Nutrient Enrichment in Water Bodies
Rapid Algal Blooms & Macrophyte Proliferation
Light Penetration Blocked ➔ Submerged Plants Die
│
Aerobic Microbial Decomposition ➔ Dissolved Oxygen Depleted
Hypoxia / Aquatic Mass
Anthropogenic Runoff (Synthetic N & P Fertilizers, Municipal Sewage)
Nutrient Enrichment in Water Bodies
Rapid Algal Blooms & Macrophyte Proliferation
Light Penetration Blocked ➔ Submerged Plants Die
Aerobic Microbial Decomposition ➔ Dissolved Oxygen Depleted
Hypoxia / Aquatic Mass
Evaluation of Regulatory Frameworks in Controlling Agricultural Runoff
Agricultural runoff is classified as Non-Point Source (NPS) Pollution because it originates from
diffuse areas, making direct monitoring difficult under traditional environmental laws.
1. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
Deficiency: The Act focuses on point-source industrial effluents and municipal sewage
discharge pipes. It lacks statutory mechanisms or standards to monitor, regulate, or penalize
agricultural runoff carrying excess fertilizer residues.
2. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and National Policies
Deficiency: National schemes like the Neem Coated Urea (NCU) initiative and Paramparagat
Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) aim to optimize nutrient usage, but they function as agricultural
support initiatives rather than legally enforceable environmental standards.
3. Soil Health Card Scheme & Fertilizer Control Order
Efficacy: Soil Health Cards promote balanced NPK application. However, deeply entrenched
fertilizer subsidies (especially on urea) undermine these targets by distorting application ratios
from the ideal 4:2:1 toward excessive nitrogen use.
Strategic Gap Analysis
Absence of Water Quality Criteria for Runoff: India lacks legally mandated concentration
thresholds for nitrate and phosphate levels in agricultural drainage networks.
Lack of Buffer Zone Mandates: No statutory requirement for riparian buffer strips (vegetated
zones along rivers) to filter agricultural runoff before it enters open water systems.
Conclusion
Controlling cultural eutrophication requires shifting from voluntary agronomic schemes to
legally binding non-point source regulations. Establishing mandatory riparian buffer zones and
restructuring fertilizer subsidies will be critical steps toward safeguarding aquatic biodiversity.
Q4. Highlight the environmental and public health risks associated with informal E-waste
recycling, and evaluate how far the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) portal mechanism
can formalize this sector. (15 Marks, 250 Words)
Introduction
India is the world's third-largest e-waste producer. Despite the E-Waste (Management) Rules,
2022, over 80–90% of discarded electronics are processed by the informal sector using
primitive, hazardous techniques.
Environmental and Public Health Risks of Informal Recycling
Open Burning of Cables: Releases carcinogenic Dioxins, Furans, and polycyclic aromatic
hydrocarbons (PAHs) into the air.
Acid Bath Leaching: Extracting gold and copper using nitric and hydrochloric acids generates
toxic wastewater, contaminating surrounding soils and urban aquifers with heavy metals like
Cadmium, Lead, and Mercury.
Occupational Hazards: Manual dismantling without personal protective equipment (PPE)
exposes informal workers—often women and children—to Lead toxicity (neurological damage),
Beryllium (chronic lung issues), and Brominated Flame Retardants (endocrine disruption).
Evaluation of the EPR Portal Mechanism in Formalizing the Sector
The E-Waste Management Rules, 2022 introduced a centralized online EPR Portal managed by
the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) to enforce digital traceability via EPR certificates.
EPR Formalization Architecture
┌──────────────────────────────────────────┐
│ Producers / Importers / Brand Owners │
└────────────────────┬─────────────────────┘
│ Purchases Certificates
┌──────────────────────────────────────────┐
│ Central CPCB EPR Portal (Traceability) │
└────────────────────▲─────────────────────┘
│ Issues Certificates
┌────────────────────┴─────────────────────┘
│ Registered Formal Recyclers / Processors │
└────────────────────▲─────────────────────┘
│ Integrates / Buys Raw Scrap
┌────────────────────┴─────────────────────┘
│ Informal Aggregators & Collectors │
└────────────────────────────
Successes & Potentials
Standardized Auditing: Replaces self-declarations with verifiable digital EPR credit trading,
forcing electronics manufacturers to contract registered recyclers.
Digitized Traceability: Tracks recycling capacities against end-of-life collection quotas, curbing
fraudulent recycling claims.
Economic Value Creation: Creates financial incentives for formal recyclers, enabling them to
offer competitive prices for e-waste scrap.
Operational Gaps Preventing Total Formalization
Bypassing Collection: Informal aggregators can offer immediate cash payments without tax
deductions, outcompeting formal collection centers hampered by formal banking procedures.
Paper-Only Recycling: Risk of fraudulent transactions where registered recyclers sell digital
certificates on the portal without processing physical waste.
Exclusion of Informal Pickers: The portal targets registered producers and recyclers, offering no
direct pathway for informal collectors to register without complex tax and regulatory burdens.
Conclusion
To prevent the informal e-waste sector from operating unregulated, the EPR portal must be
paired with formalization initiatives, such as recognizing informal collectors as material
aggregators and linking them with certified processing facilities.
Q5. Analyze the underlying socio-economic causes behind fertilizer overuse and discuss the
role of micro-irrigation and bio-fertilizers in restoring agricultural sustainability. (15 Marks, 250
Words)
Introduction
The Green Revolution transformed India into a food-secure nation, but it also encouraged a
reliance on synthetic inputs. Today, skewed application ratios—often reaching 8:3:1 in states
like Punjab compared to the recommended 4:2:1—cause soil degradation, water depletion, and
declining crop responses.
Socio-Economic Causes Behind Fertilizer Overuse
Distorted Nutrient Subsidies: Under the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) regime, urea (nitrogen)
remains under price control and heavily subsidized, while Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K)
fertilizers are deregulated. This price difference drives excessive application of cheap urea.
Distorted MSP and Crop Selection: Price support systems favor water- and nutrient-intensive
staple crops like paddy and wheat over less input-intensive options like pulses and millets.
Risk Avoidance in Intensive Farming: Farmers often view heavy urea application as cheap
insurance against yield variability, compensating for declining soil organic carbon.
Declining Soil Extension Services: Inadequate field laboratory infrastructure leaves farmers
reliant on retail chemical dealers for nutrient advice, leading to over-application.
Restoring Agricultural Sustainability
Sustainable Agriculture Transition
┌────────────────────────┴────────────────────────┐
▼ ▼
Micro-Irrigation Bio-Fertilizers
• Fertigation reduces nutrient leaching. • Nitrogen-fixing (Azotobacter/Rhizobium).
• Increases Water Use Efficiency (WUE) ~90%. • Solubilizes soil-bound Phosphorus.
• Delivers precise root-zone nourishment. • Restores microbial biomatrix & SOC.
. Micro-Irrigation (Drip and Sprinkler)
Fertigation Efficiency: Dissolving water-soluble fertilizers directly into drip systems delivers
nutrients to the root zone, cutting fertilizer losses from surface runoff and deep leaching by
25–40%.
Resource Optimization: Boosts Water Use Efficiency (WUE) up to 90%, preventing root rot and
slowing soil salinization driven by conventional flood irrigation.
2. Bio-Fertilizers
Biological Nitrogen Fixation: Strains like Rhizobium, Azotobacter, and Azospirillum convert
atmospheric nitrogen into bioavailable forms, reducing synthetic urea requirements.
Phosphate Solubilization: Phosphate Solubilizing Bacteria (PSB) mobilize insoluble phosphorus
bound in the soil, improving root uptake and rebuilding soil organic carbon (SOC) levels.
Conclusion
Rebuilding agricultural sustainability requires pairing technological solutions like micro-irrigation
and bio-fertilizers with policy reform, particularly rationalizing urea subsidies under the NBS
framework and expanding initiatives like PM-PRANAM.
Q6. Discuss the ecological impacts of marine plastic debris and analyze the significance of the
proposed UN Global Plastics Treaty in establishing a legally binding lifecycle approach to plastic
waste. (15 Marks, 250 Words)
Introduction
An estimated 11 million metric tons of plastic enter the oceans annually, a figure projected to
triple by 2040 without intervention. Marine plastic debris has evolved from a localized coastal
issue into a global transboundary crisis affecting deep-sea trenches and remote polar waters.
Ecological Impacts of Marine Plastic Debris
Entanglement and Physical Injury: Marine megafauna (sea turtles, marine mammals, seabirds)
become entangled in discarded fishing gear ("ghost nets"), causing drowning, starvation, and
physical injuries.
Microplastics and Ingestion: Microplastics (<5\text{ mm}) are ingested by plankton, shellfish,
and fish. This blocks digestive tracts and causes bioaccumulation across marine food webs.
Chemical Toxicity & Vectors: Plastics leach additives (e.g., Bisphenol A, phthalates, PFAS) and
adsorb persistent organic pollutants (POPs) from seawater, causing endocrine disruption in
marine life.
Habitat Destruction & Invasive Transport: Floating plastics damage coral reefs by scraping
surfaces and blocking sunlight, while serving as rafts that carry invasive species into non-native
ecosystems.
Significance of the UN Global Plastics Treaty (UNEA Resolution 5/14)
The proposed legally binding instrument represents a paradigm shift from traditional
downstream waste management to a full-lifecycle governance model.
Linear vs. Global Plastics Treaty Approach
──────────────────────────────────────────────────
Linear Model:
Extraction ──► Production ──► Consumption ──► Ocean Waste
(Focus of old policies)
Treaty Lifecycle Model:
[Caps on Polymer Production]
[Redesign & Non-Toxic Criteria]
[Mandatory EPR & Circular Reuse]
[Remediation & Safe Disposal]
──────────────────────────────────────────────────
Key Pillars of the Lifecycle Approach
Upstream Supply Caps: Regulates and sets limits on primary virgin plastic polymer production,
targeting the root cause of plastic growth rather than just managing output waste.
Product Redesign Standards: Establishes global standards for recyclability, circular design, and
phasing out toxic chemical additives and hard-to-recycle single-use plastics (SUPs).
Downstream Enforcement and EPR: Harmonizes Extended Producer Responsibility rules
globally, requiring producers to fund infrastructure for collection, sorting, and environmentally
safe recycling.
Financial and Technical Assistance: Introduces financial assistance and technology transfers to
help developing nations build sustainable waste infrastructure and manage legacy marine
plastic waste.
Conclusion
By shifting focus from ocean cleanup to controlling upstream virgin polymer production, the UN
Global Plastics Treaty provides a comprehensive framework to slow plastic output and protect
marine ecosystems over the long term.