26-04-2026

4015CMD30303125MAJ01 MD

PHYSICS

1) A galvanometer of 25Ω resistance can read a maximum current of 6mA. It can be used as a
voltmeter to measure a maximum of 6V by connecting a resistance to the galvanometer. Identify the
correct choice in the given answer.

(1) 1025 Ω in series

(2) 1025 Ω in parallel
(3) 975 Ω in series
(4) 975 Ω in parallel

2) In the circuit of adjoining figure the current through 12Ω resistor will be :

(1) 1A

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

3) The effective resistance between points P and Q of the electrical circuit shown in the figure is:-

(1) 2Rr/(R + r)
(2) \(8R(R + r)/(3R + r)\)
(3) \(2r + 4R\)
(4) \(5R/2\,\, + \,2r\)

4) In the following circuit diagram the value of resistance X for which the potential difference
between B and D is zero -

(1) 4 ohm
(2) 6 ohm
(3) 8 ohm
(4) 9 ohm

5) Pure Si at 300 K have equal electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 × 1016 m–3. Doping by
indium increases nh to 4.5 × 1022 m–3. Calculate ne in the doped Si.

(1) (5 × 109 m–3)

(2) (5 × 108 m–3)
(3) (2 × 109 m–3)
(4) (8 × 109 m–3)

6) Assertion (A) : In zener diode, width of depletion layer is thin and electric field at junction is
high.
Reason (R) : In zener diode, both P and N sides are heavily doped.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

7) The figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A & B and the output Y. The logic gate is :
(1) OR gate
(2) AND gate
(3) NAND gate
(4) NOR gate

8) A gas bubble from an explosion under water oscillates with a period proportional to PadbEc where
P is the static pressure, d is the density of water and E is the energy of explosion. Then a, b and c
are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1, 1, 1

9) The equation of the stationary wave is :-

Which of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) The unit of ct is same as that of λ

(2) The unit of x is same as that of λ

(3) The unit of is same as that of

The unit of is same as that of

(4)
10) The n division of main scale coincides (n+1) division of vernier scale. Given one main scale
division is equal to 'a' units. Find the least count of the vernier :-

(1)

(2) (n + 1)

(3)

(4) an

11) A uniform rope of length ℓ lies on a table. If the coefficient of friction is μ, then the maximum
length ℓ1 of the part of this rope which can overhang from the edge of the table without sliding down
is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The potential energy of a particle in a force field is U = , where A and B are positive
constants and r is the distance of particle from the centre of field. For the equilibrium, the distance
of particle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Three blocks A, B and C are placed as shown in figure. Block A has mass m and moving with
velocity v. Block B of mass m and block C of mass 4 m are initially at rest. Neglect friction. Assuming
all collisions are elastic the final velocity of block A is :-

(1)
to the left
(2) zero
(3) v to the left
(4)
to the right

14)

A particle of mass (m) revolving in horizontal circle of radius (R) with uniform speed v. When
particle goes from one end to other end of diameter, then:-

(1)
K.E. changes by
(2) K.E. change by mv2
(3) no change in momentum
(4) change in momentum is 2 mv

15) A circular platform is free to rotate in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis passing through its
centre. A tortoise is sitting at the edge of the platform. Now the platform is given an angular velocity
ω0. When the tortoise move along a diametre of the platform with a constant velocity (with respect to
the platform) the angular velocity of the platform ω(t) will vary with time t as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A particle of mass m has been thrown up with initial speed u making an angle θ with the
horizontal. Find the torque of its weight about the point of projection when it just reached the
highest point.

(1) mu sinθ·cosθ
(2) m u2 sin θ cos θ

(3)
(4)

17) Match the following

Current r.m.s values

(A) x0 sinωt (i) x0

(B) x0 sinωt cosωt (ii)

(C) x0 sinωt + x0 cosωt (iii)

(1) (A → i), (B → ii), (C → iii)

(2) (A → ii), (B → iii), (C → i)
(3) (A → i), (B → iii), (C → ii)
(4) None of these

18) The ratio of isothermal and adiabatic cofficients of elasticites for a gas is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) If time taken by water to get empty from a cylinder is 't' s, where the water is filled upto height
h, then what is the time taken by water to get empty if it is filled upto height 4h ? The cylinder has a
small hole at the bottom of the side wall.

(1) t
(2) 4t
(3) 2t
(4) t/4

20) A soap bubble in vacuum has radius r1 and another soap bubble in vacuum has radius r2. If the
bubbles coalesce under isothermal condition, then the radius of the new bubble is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Sixty four spherical rain drops of equal size are falling vertically through air with a terminal
velocity 1.5 ms–1. If these drops coalesce to form a big spherical drop, then terminal velocity of big
drop is :-

(1) 8 ms–1
(2) 16 ms–1
(3) 24 ms–1
(4) 32 ms–1

22) A bimetallic strip consists of metals A and B. It is mounted rigidly at the base as shown. The
metal A has a higher coefficient of expansion to that for metal B. When bimetallic strip is placed in a

cold bath it will :-

(1) Bend towards the right

(2) Bend towards the left
(3) Not bend but shrink
(4) Neither bend nor shrink

23) A solid sphere is supplied heat at a constant rate. The temp. of material is charging with heat

input as shown in figure. what does slope BC represent :

(1) Latent heat of fusion

(2) Latent heat of vaporization
(3) Heat Capacity of vapour
(4) Inverse of heat capacity of liquid

24) Three rods of the same dimension have thermal conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged
as shown in figure given below, with their ends at 100oC, 50oC and 20oC. The temperature of their

junction is

(1) 60oC
(2) 70oC
(3) 50oC
(4) 35oC
25) A thermodynamic process is carried out from an original state D to an intermediate state E by
the linear process shown in figure. The total work is done by the gas from D to E to F is :-

(1) 100 J
(2) 800 J
(3) 300 J
(4) 250 J

26) A simple pendulum has time period T1. The point of suspension is now moved upward according
to the relation y = kt2 (k = 1 m/s2), where y is the vertical displacement. The time period now

becomes T2. The ratio of is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 6/5
(2) 5/6
(3) 1
(4) 4/5

27) A tube closed at one end and containing air produces, when excited, the fundamental note of
frequency 512 Hz. If the tube is open at both ends, the fundamental frequency that can be excited
is (in Hz)

(1) 1024
(2) 512
(3) 256
(4) 128

28) Figure shows three circular arcs, each of radius R and total charge as indicated. The net electric

potential at the centre of curvature is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Figure shows two equipotential lines in xy-plane for an electric field. The x-component Ex and y-
component Ey of the field in the electric space between these equipotential lines are, respectively -

(1) + 100 V/m, –200 V/m

(2) –100 V/m, + 200 V/m
(3) + 200 V/m, 100 V/m
(4) –200 V/m, –100 V/m

30) Equivalent capacitance between X and Y points in the given figure is :-

(1) 2 μF
(2) 4 μF
(3) 3 μF
(4) 1 μF

31) The magnetic induction at center O (Figure) is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

32) A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires 3J of work to turn it through
60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be :

(1)
(2) 3 Nm
(3) 6 Nm
(4)

33) A metallic rod with negligible resistance and length approximately equal to 0.5 m completes its
circuit as shown in the figure. The circuit is normal to a magnetic field of B = 0.15 tesla. If the
resistance is 3Ω the force required to move the rod with a constant velocity of 2 m/sec is-

(1) 3.75 × 10–3 N

(2) 3.75 × 10–2 N
(3) 3.75 × 102 N
(4) 3.75 × 10–4 N

34)

The electromagnetic wave having the shortest wavelength is :-

(1) X-rays
(2) microwaves
(3) infrared rays
(4) γ-rays

35) A fish rising vertically up towards the surface of water with speed 3 ms–1 observes a bird diving
vertically down towards it with speed 9 ms–1. The actual velocity of bird and velocity of fish with

respect to bird will be : (μwater = )

(1) 4.5 ms–1, 6.75 ms–1
(2) 4 ms–1, 6.75 ms–1
(3) 4.5 ms–1, 6 ms–1
(4) 4 ms–1, 6 ms–1

36) White light is incident on the interface of glass and air as shown in the figure. If green light is

just totally internally reflected then the emerging ray in air contains :-

(1) Yellow, orange, red

(2) Violet, indigo, blue
(3) All colours
(4) All colours except green

37) A planet moving around sun sweeps area A1 in 2 days, A2 in 3 days and A3 in 6 days. Then the

relation between A1, A2 and A3 is :

(1) 3A1 = 2A2 = A3

(2) 2A1 = 3A2 = 6A3
(3) 3A1 = 2A2 = 6A3
(4) 6A1 = 3A2 = 2A3

38) In a certain double slit experimental arrangement interference fringes of width 1.0 mm each are
observed when light of wavelength 5000 Å is used. Keeping the set up unaltered, if the source is
replaced by another source of wavelength 6000 Å, the fringe width will be :-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 1.0 mm
(3) 1.2 mm
(4) 1.5 mm

39) White light is used to illuminate the two slits in Young's double slit experiment. The separation
between the slits is d and the distance between the screen and the slit is D(d<<D). At a point on the
screen directly infornt of one of the slits, certain wavelengths are missing. The missing wavelengths
are :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Maximum intensity is young's double slit experiment is 'I0'. If one of the slit is closed, then
intensity will be.

(1) I0

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) In photo electric emission experiment, maximum K.E. of photo electrons is K1. If incident
frequency & work function both are doubled then maximum K.E. is :-

(1) > 2K1

(2) 2K1
(3) < 2K1
(4) K1

42) The stopping potential for the photo electrons emitted from a metal surface of work function 1.7
eV is 10.4 V. Identify the energy levels corresponding to the transitions in hydrogen atom which will
result in emission of wavelength equal to that of incident radiation for the above photoelectric effect-

(1) n = 3 to n = 1
(2) n = 3 to n = 2
(3) n = 2 to n = 1
(4) n = 4 to n = 1

43) How much energy will be released when 10 kg of U235 is completely converts into energy :-

(1) 5 × 1027 MeV

(2) 5 × 1025 MeV
(3) 9 × 1017 J
(4) All of these

44) A photon and an electron have equal energy E. λphoton /λelectron is proportional to

(1)
(2)

(3) 1/E
(4) Does not depend upon E

45) If λe and λp denote the de–Broglie wavelength of electron and proton after they are accelerated
from rest through potential difference V0 then find the relation between λe and λp.:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

CHEMISTRY

1)

Which of the following statements does not form part of Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom -

(1) Energy of the electron in the orbit is quantized.

(2) The electron in the orbit closest to the nucleus has the lowest energy.
(3) Electrons revolve in different orbits around the nucleus.
(4) The position and velocity of the electron in the orbit cannot be determined simultaneously.

2) The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l :

(1) n = 4, l = 1
(2) n = 4, l = 0
(3) n = 3, l = 2
(4) n = 3, l = 1
Can be placed in order of increasing energy is :

(1) (4) < (2) < (3) < (1)

(2) (2) < (4) < (1) < (3)
(3) (1) < (3) < (2) < (4)
(4) (3) < (4) < (2) < (1)

3) The quantum number not obtained from the schrodinger wave equation is :-

(1) n
(2)
(3) m
(4) s

4) If 2/9 of 1 mol of HI is dissociates, the equlibrium constant of disintegration of acid at same

temperature will be

(1) 64

(2)

(3) 49

(4)

5) For the reaction CO(g) + Cl2(g) COCl2(g) the value of is equal to :

(1)
(2) RT

(3)

(4) 1.0

6) The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) at 2000 K is 4 × 10 . In
4

presence of catalyst the equilibrium is established ten times faster at the same temperature. What is
the value of equilibrium constant in presence of catalyst:

(1) 40 × 10–4
(2) 4 × 10–4
(3) 4 × 104
(4) None

7) Which of following salt will have maximum pH : -

(1) NaNO2
(2) CH3COONH4
(3) NaClO4
(4) MgCl2

8) Among the given compounds the correct order of decreasing reactivity towards electrophilic
aromatic substitution is :

(1) II > I > III > IV

(2) III > I > II > IV
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) I > II > III > IV

9) For the reaction xA + yB → zC

then x, y and z are respectively :-

(1) 1, 1, 1
(2) 3, 2, 3
(3) 3, 3, 2
(4) 2, 2, 3

10) From the gaseous reaction,

2A + B2 → 2AB,
the following rate data were obtained at 300 K.

Rate of
disappearance Concentration
of B2 [A] [B2]
–3
(i) 1.8 × 10 0.015 0.15
–2
(ii) 1.08 × 10 0.090 0.15
–3
(iii) 5.4 × 10 0.015 0.45
Calculate the rate constant for the reaction
(1) 1.8 × 10–3
(2) 2.3 × 10–2
(3) 0.8
(4) 0.225

11) The moles of electrons required to deposit 1 gm equivalent aluminium (at. wt. = 27) from a
solution of aluminium chloride will be

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 2

12) What will be the EMF for the given cell ?

Pt|H2(g,P1)|H+(aq.)(1M)||H+(aq.)(1M)|H2(g,P2)|Pt

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
13) The electrolytic decomposition of dilute sulphuric acid with platinum electrode, cathodic
reaction is:-

+
(1) Reduction of H2O / H
(2) Oxidation of
Reduction of
(3)

(4) Oxidation of H2O

14) To a 50 ml of 0.05 M formic acid how much volume of 0.10 M sodium formate must be added to
get a buffer solution of pH = 4.1 (pKa of acid = 3.8)

(1) 50 ml
(2) 4 ml
(3) 45 ml
(4) 100 ml

15) Which of the following is a true statement :

(1) The ionisation constant and ionic product of water are same.
(2) Water is a strong electrolyte.
(3) The value of ionic product of water is less than that of its ionisation constant.
(4) At 298K, the number of H+ ions in a litre of water is 6.023 × 1016.

16)

Calculate the pH of a solution necessary to just begin the precipitation of Mg(OH)2 when

[Mg2+]= 0.001 M. (Ksp for Mg(OH)2=1.2 × 10–11)

(1) 11
(2) 10
(3) 9
(4) 8

17) Given at 350 K, = 300 torr and = 800 torr, the composition of the mixture having a boiling
point of 350 K is

(1) XA = 0.08
(2) XA = 0.06
(3) XA = 0.04
(4) XA = 0.02

18) What is the solution that is not a lyophilic colloid :

(1) Milk
(2) Gum
(3) Fog
(4) Blood

19) Assertion : KMnO4 is a self Indicator.

Reason : KMnO4 does not show charge transfer spectra.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true

20) Equal volume of 1M solution each of KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7 are used to oxidise Fe(II) solution in
acidic medium. The amount of Fe oxidised will be :-

(1) More with KMnO4

(2) More with K2Cr2O7
(3) Equal with both oxidising agent
(4) Cannot be determined

21)

Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 JK–1mol–1. For the reaction, ,
If ΔH = –30 KJ, to be at equilibrium the temperature will be :-

(1) 1250 K
(2) 500 K
(3) 750 K
(4) 1000 K

22) Match the column

Column-II
Column-I
(Central
(Coordination compound)
metal atom)

A. Chlorophyll p. Rhodium

B. Blood pigment q. Cobalt

C. Wilkinson catalysts r. Calcium

D. Vitamin B12 s. Iron

t. Magnesium
(1) A – t; B – s; C – p; D – q
(2) A – s; B – q; C – p; D – r
(3) A – p; B – q; C – r; D – s
(4) A – r; B – t; C – p; D – q
23) Assertion : [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is coloured while [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless.
Reason : d-d transition is not possible in [Sc(H2O)6]3+

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False statements

24) The complex, [Pt(Py) (NH3) BrCl] will have how many geometrical isomers?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 0

25) Which oxide of Mn is acidic in nature ?

(1) MnO
(2) Mn2O7
(3) Mn2O3
(4) MnO2

26) Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution ? (At. No. Ti = 22, V = 23,
Cr = 24, Mn=25)

(1) Mn3+
(2) Cr3+
(3) V3+
(4) Ti3+

27) Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with their
catalytic activity :-

(1) High enthalpy of atomization

(2) Paramagnetic behavior
(3) Colour of hydrated ions
(4) Variable oxidation states

28) Match the column :

Element (outer most Successive value

shell e– configuration) of I.E. (eV/atom)

(A) 3s1 (P) 22, 25, 36, 42, 250

(B) 3s2 (Q) 18, 26, 32, 240, 260

 (C) 3s23p1 (R) 20, 24, 210, 230

(D) 3s23p2 (S) 15, 180, 200, 220

Match the type of element, with the corresponding successive value of I.E :
(1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(2) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
(3) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(4) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q

29) Which of the following have positive electron gain enthalpy ?

(1) Cl
(2) N
(3) O
(4) S

30) N–N bond not present in :-

(1) N2O4
(2) N2O5
(3) N2O3
(4) N2O

31) Correct order of strength of π-bond(s) are :-

(I) BO3–3 > CO3–2 > NO3– (II) ClO4– > SO4–2 > PO4–3
(III) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 (IV) AlCl3 > BCl3​

(1) I, III, IV
(2) II, III
(3) I, II, III
(4) I, II, III, IV

32) Which of the following order of boiling point is correct?

(1) H3PO4 > H2SO4

(2) H2O > H2O2
(3) H2O < NH3
(4) NH3 > HF

33) The correct order of increasing thermal stability of K2CO3, MgCO3 CaCO3 and BeCO3 is

(1) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3

(2) MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3
(3) K2CO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BeCO3
(4) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < K2CO3 < CaCO3

34) [A]
A is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

35) In the reaction

the product(s) formed is (are)

(1) (CH3)3C–OH and CH3CH2I

(2) (CH3)3C–I and CH3CH2OH
(3) (CH3)3C–I and CH3CH2I

(4)

36)
Number of functional group reduced by NaBH4 and LiAlH4 respectively are :-

(1) 2, 2
(2) 2, 3
(3) 3, 3
(4) 1, 3

37) What is the decreasing order of rate of reaction with HBr for the following benzyl alcohol and its
derivative :

(1) A > C > D > B

(2) A > B > D > C
(3) D > C > B > A
(4) A > B > C > D

38)

Scurvy may cause due to deficiency of which vitamin?

(1) Vitamin C
(2) Vitamin B
(3) Vitamin A
(4) Vitamin K

39) Which of the following will give white crystalline product with NaHSO3 :-

(1) Acetophenone
(2) Benzophenone
(3) Acetone
(4) Pentan-3-one

40) Identify x and y in the following sequence

C2H5Br product C3H7NH2

(1) x = KCN , y = LiAlH4

+
(2) x = KCN, y = H3O
(3) x = CH3Cl, y = AlCl3/HCl
(4) x = CH3–NH2, y = HNO2

41) Diethyl ether acts as a -

(1) Lewis acid

(2) Lewis base
(3) Reducing agent
(4) Oxidising agent

42) In esterification which of the following is the best combination for maximum rate of reaction.

(1) CH3–OH, (CH3)3C–COOH

(2) (CH3)3C–OH, HCOOH
(3) CH3–OH, H–COOH
(4) (CH3)3C–OH, (CH3)3C–COOH

43) Which of the following reaction will not produce 1° amine ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
CH3–CH2–C≡N

44) In Lassaigne’s test the organic compound is fused with Na followed by extraction with distilled
water. Which of the following is not the product of this fusion reaction?

(1) NaX
(2) NaCN
(3) NaNC
(4) Na2S

45) The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with conc HNO3 while testing for the halogens. By doing so it :-

(1) decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed

(2) helps in the precipitation of AgCl
(3) increases the solubility product of AgCl
–
(4) increases the concentration of NO3 ions

BIOLOGY

1) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(Process) (Site)
 Primary Fixation by
(a) i Cytoplasm
PEPcase in C4 Plants

Inner membrane of
(b) Kreb’s Cycle ii
Mitochondria

(c) Glycolysis iii Mitochondrial Matrix

Cytoplasm of
(d) ETC iv
Mesophyll Cell
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

2) ATP is a _____ ?

(1) High Energy Nucleotide TriPhosphate

(2) Adenine Tri Phosphate
(3) High Energy Nucleoside TriPhosphate
(4) All are correct

3) Match the column – I with Column – II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

A Grana of chloroplast i Light reaction

B Mitochondrial matrix ii Dark reaction

C Cytoplasm of cell iii Krebs cycle

D Stroma of chloroplast iv EMP pathway

Options :
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-i, B-iv, C- iii, D- ii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C- iv, D- ii

4) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) C4 plants show response to high light intensity
(b) Bundle sheath cells always form single layer around vascular bundle
(c) 12 NADP+ and 16 ADP come out of calvin cycle
(d) The continued oxidation of acetyl–CoA via TCA cycle requires the continued replenishment of
oxaloacetic acid
Option :-

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a) and (b)
(3) Statements (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a) and (d)

5) Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplast and mitochondria is based on :-

(1) Proton gradient

(2) Accumulation of K+ ion
(3) Accumulation of Na+ ion
(4) Membrane Potential

6) Phosphorylation in mitochondria and chloroplast differ on the basis of requirment of:-

(1) A membrane
(2) ATPase
(3) Proton gradient
(4) Light

7) Pappus is present in which of the following :-

(1) Sunflower
(2) Mustard
(3) Potato
(4) Onion

8) Monoadalphus and staminal tube are feature of.

(1) Chinarose
(2) Citrus
(3) Asparagus
(4) Tulip

9) Which of the following option is incorrect about racemose inflorescence?

(1) Floral axis never terminates in to flower

(2) Flowers are arranged in acropetal order
(3) Main axis terminates in to flower
(4) Both 1 and 2

10) Which floral structure forms the seed after fertilization :

(1) Ovary
(2) Ovule
(3) Placenta
(4) Fruit

11) Match the columns :

 Column-I Column-II

(a) Endoplasmic reticulum (i) Stack of cisternae

(b) Sphaerosomes (ii) Stored fat

(c) Dictyosomes (iii) Sythesis and storage of lipids

(d) Photorespiration (iv) Wasteful process

(e) Elaioplasts (v) Synthesis of protein

(Replica of Q.119)
(1) a-v, b-iii, c-i, d-iv, e-ii
(2) a-v, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-i
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv, e-v
(4) a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-iv, e-ii

12) Diplotene of meiosis-I is marked by :

(1) Formation of synaptonemal complex

(2) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(3) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(4) Crossing over take place

13) Followings are the important events for telophase, except

(1) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform

(2) Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters
(3) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles
(4) Chromosomes decondense and maintain their identity

14) Statement I : Generally in animals, mitotic division is only seen in the diploid somatic cells.
Statement II : Plants can show mitotic division in both haploid and diploid cells.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

15) Some characters/statements are given below. How many of them are found in M-phase of
somatic cell?
A. 95% of duration of cell cycle consume M-phase.
B. Starts with the nuclear division.
C. Known as resting phase.

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
16) Meiosis involves _____ sequential cycles of nuclear division but _____ cycle of DNA replication
respectively.

(1) One, One

(2) Two, Two
(3) One, Two
(4) Two, One

17) Which event is not associated with prophase I?

(1) Formation of chiasmata

(2) Synapsis
(3) Centromere division
(4) Terminalization

18) What will be the number of chromosome in a plant cell in S phase. If cell has 40 chromosome at
metaphase?

(1) 40
(2) 80
(3) 20
(4) 30

19) Yeast can progress through the cell cycle in only about :-

(1) 90 sec.
(2) 90 minutes
(3) 24 hrs
(4) 60 minutes

20) Assertion (A) : The decomposition rate is slower when detritus contains substances like lignin
and chitin.
Reason (R) : Lignin and chitin are highly resistant to microbial action and undergo very slow
decomposition.
Which of the following is correct?

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

21) Choose the correct match for food chain :-

A B C

% of
(i) energy Increases Decreases Constant
transfer
 Amount of
(ii) Increases Decreases Constant
energy

Respiratory
(iii) Increases Decreases Constant
cost

Intensity of Increases
(iv) Decreases Constant
competition
(1) (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-A, (iv)-B
(2) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-A, (iv)-C
(3) (i)-C, (ii)-B, (iii)-A, (iv)-A
(4) (i)-C, (ii)-B, (iii)-A, (iv)-B

22)

What does gross primary productivity minus respiration losses give ?

(1) Gross primary productivity

(2) Productivity
(3) Net primary productivity
(4) Secondary productivity

23) What is the approximate annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere?

(1) 55 billion tons

(2) 70 billion tons
(3) 170 billion tons
(4) 100 billion tons

24) Observe the given diagram and identify the correct labeling.

(1) a – Fungi, b – Algae, c – Angiosperms, d – Fern, e – Mosses, f – Lichens

(2) a – Fungi, b – Angiosperms, c – Mosses, d – Fern, e – Algae, f – Lichens
(3) a – Fungi, b – Mosses, c – Angiosperms, d – Lichens, e – Algae, f – Fern
(4) a – Angiosperms, b – Fungi, c – Mosses, d – Fern, e – Algae, f – Lichens

25) Which of the following links are correctly matched regarding biodiversity conservation?

Concept Match
 (A) Sacred groves In situ conservation

(B) Cryopreservation of gametes Ex situ conservation

(C) Ethical reason for conservation Intrinsic value of species

Promoted habitat fragmentation

(D) Earth Summit (1992)
for development
(1) A, B, and C only
(2) A and D only
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) B and C only

26) Which plant, initially introduced in India for its attractive appearance, later became an invasive
weed causing ecological problems?

(1) Parthenium hysterophorus

(2) Eichhornia crassipes
(3) Prosopis juliflora
(4) Trapa spinosa

27) In a double stranded DNA amount of cytosine is 30% then what will be the amount of Adenine?

(1) 30%
(2) 60%
(3) 20%
(4) 40%

28) For the formation of RNA from DNA how many are required –
A-DNA ploymease, RNA polymerase, Sigma factor
B- Rho factor, Helicase for DNA unwinding.
C-Ligase, Promoter, Terminator, Structural gene.
D-DNA, RNA polymerase.

(1) C and D are correct

(2) A,B,C and D are correct
(3) A and B are correct
(4) Only D is correct

29) Histone octamer consists of –

(1) H1, H2A, H2B, H3

(2) 2 molecules each of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
(3) Only H3 and H4
(4) Only H1

30) The site where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called –
(1) Terminator
(2) Promoter
(3) Operator
(4) Enhancer

31) Which of the following statements about transcription is correct?

(1) Both strands of DNA act as template during transcription

(2) RNA polymerase requires a primer to initiate transcription
(3) Transcription occurs in 5' → 3' direction
(4) Coding strand is used as template

32) Recognise the following flow diagram and the find correct option :

I-polymerisation, II-Hydrolysis, III-Nitrogen base,

(1)
IV- phosphote, V-Pentose sugar.
(2) I-polymerisation, II-Hydrolysis, III-phosphate, IV- Nitrogen base, V-Pentose sugar.
(3) I-depolymerisation, II-hydrolysis, III-Nitrogen base, IV-Phosphate, V-pentose sugar
I-polymerisation, II-hydrolysis, III-Nitrogen base,
(4)
IV-Pentose sugar, V-phosphate

33) Taylor conducted the experiments to prove semi-conservative mode of chromosome replication
on?

(1) Vinca rosea

(2) Vicia faba
(3) Drosophila melanogaster
(4) [Link]

34) Codon and anticodon are respectively found in :-

(1) tRNA and rRNA

(2) tRNA and mRNA
(3) mRNA and rRNA
(4) mRNA and tRNA

35) Assertion (A) : Turner's syndrome is caused due to absence of one X-chromosomes.
Reason (R) : Such females are sterile as ovaries rudimentary, short stature and underdeveloped
faminine character.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

36) Select the correct Match :

(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid

(2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(3) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
(4) G. Mendel - Transformation

37) Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Main plant body of angiosperm is a gametophyte.
(ii) Flower is a modified shoot.
(iii) Nodes and Internodes are absent on thalamus.
(iv) Wheat is an annual and monocarpic plant.

(1) i, iii
(2) Only ii
(3) ii, iv
(4) i, ii, iv

38) A typical embryosac in angiosperm are consists:

(1) 6 celled & 8 nucleated

(2) 5 celled & 8 nucleated
(3) 7 celled & 8 nucleated
(4) 8 celled & 8 nucleated

39) Parthenogensis occurs when :

(1) When embryo is formed without the fusion of egg and the sperm
(2) When embryo is formed by the fusion of egg and sperm
(3) When embryo is formed from another cell
(4) When sperm produces the embryo directly

40) A close relation between a flower and a pollinating agent is best exemplified by -

(1) Cocos
(2) Salvia
(3) Yucca
(4) Avena

41) Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts A, B, C and
D. Correctly identify -

A B C D

(1) Thalamus Seed Endocarp Mesocarp

(2) Thalamus Seed Mesocarp Endocarp

(3) Mesocarp Seed Endocarp Thalamus

(4) Endocarp Seed Thalamus Mesocarp

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Read the following statement and choose correct option :

(i) Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
(ii) Prothallus is a gametophytic, free living photosynthetic structure formed in homosporous
pteridophyte.
(iii) Mosses have vascular tissue.
(iv) Mosses are of great ecological importance.

(1) i, ii correct and iii, iv incorrect

(2) i, ii, iv correct and iii incorrect
(3) i, ii, iii correct and iv incorrect
(4) i, ii, iii, iv correct

43) Statement-I :- In chara upper oogonium and lower antheridium are present.
Statement-II :- Virus does not have central dogma of life outside the host body.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

44) Statement-I :- Sporophytes of moss is more elaborate than liver worts.

Statement-II :- Dikaryon stage present in both ascomycetes and phycomycetes.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
45) Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by :

(1) some bacteria, algae and green plant cells

(2) all bacteria, fungi and algae
(3) fungi, algae and green plant cells
(4) viruses, fungi and bacteria

46) Identify the correct match from following table:

Name of
Cranial
human Characteristics
capacity
ancestor
They probably did
(i) Homo habilis 650 – 800 cc
not eat meat
Probably ate
(ii) Homo erectus 900 cc
meat
Neanderthal First human like
(iii) 1400 cc
man being
(1) Only (i)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (ii)

47)

When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occured in an isolated geographical area,
one can call this ____________ :-

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Natural selection
(3) Adaptive divergence
(4) Convergent evolution

48) The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is :-

(1) Actin
(2) Myosin
(3) Troponin
(4) Tropomyosin

49) Identify the diagram shown below :-

(1) Cannabis Sativa
(2) Datura
(3) Opium poppy
(4) Erythroxylum

50) Consider the following three statements (A-C) and choose the correct answer to fill the blanks -
A. ........... are the most abundant of all the cells in blood
B. ........... secrete histamine and involved in inflammatory reaction
C. ........... are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organism

A B C
(1) Neutrophils Acidophils Monocyte
(2) Erythrocyte Basophils Monocyte
(3) Lymphocyte Basophils Neutrophils
(4) Leucocyte Acidophils Neutrophil
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51) Match column I and column II and choose correct option from followings :-

Column-I Column-II

Elastic structure in
A H-Zone i
I - Band

Sarcoplasmic Light central area

B ii
Reticulum of A-band.

Part of meromyosin
C Z-line iii
protein.

Store house of Ca+2

D Cross Arm iv
ions
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

52) PMNL neutrophils form_______ barrier of innate immunity :-

(1) Physical
(2) Physiological
(3) Cellular
(4) Cytokine

53) —→ X – Y + C = C
Enzyme of the above reaction is included in which class of enzymes ?

(1) Transferases
(2) Hydrolases
(3) Lyases
(4) Ligases

54) Fertilisation can only occur if the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to the ...........
Fill in the blank space with correct option:

(1) Isthmus part of fallopian tube

(2) Ampulla part of fallopian tube
(3) Uterus
(4) Vagina

55) Tendons and ligaments are specialized types of

(1) Nervous tissue

(2) Epithelial tissue
(3) Dense irregular white fibrous connective tissue
(4) Dense regular fibrous connective tissue

56) Given below are four statements A to D regarding frog. Choose the option in which all the
statements are correct :-
A. Tongue of the frog is bilobed.
B. Male frog has vocal sac.
C. Frog never drink water but absorb it through the skin.
D. Hind limbs of frog have five digits. They are webbed and help in swimming.

(1) A & B only

(2) A, B & C
(3) C & D only
(4) A, B, C & D

57) Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II
Pumping activity of
(a) Heart failure (i)
heart decreases
Heart muscles are
damaged due to
(b) Heart attack (ii)
inadequate blood
supply
(c) Cardiac arrest (iii) Heart stops beating
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii

58) Which of the following contraceptive devices makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation & the
cervix hostile to the sperms ?

(1) Progestasert
(2) Vault
(3) Condoms
(4) Cervical caps

59) Read the following (A - D) Statements :-

(A) Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid constituting 55 percent of the blood.
(B) 90-92 percent of plasma is water and proteins contribute 6-8 percent of it
(C) Globulins are needed for clotting or coagulation of Blood
(D) Fibrinogens are primarly involved in defence mechanism of the body.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) Only A and B are correct

(2) Only B and D are correct
(3) Only A, B and C are correct
(4) All statement are correct

60) Match the column–I with column–II ?

Column - I Column - II

(i) Golden rice (A) Increased shelf life

(ii) Flavr savr tomato (B) Insulin

(iii) [Link] (C) Vitamin A

(iv) Bt. brinjal (D) Insect resistant

(1) (i) – C, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – D
(2) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – C, (iv) – D
(3) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – D
(4) (i) – D, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – C

61) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is known as :-

(1) Natural genetic engineer of plant

(2) Natural genetic engineer of animal
(3) Symbiotic bacteria
(4) Symbiotic plant

62) Which junction help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue ?

(1) Interdigitation
(2) Gap junction
(3) Desmosome
(4) Tight junction

63) Number of malpighian tubules present at junction of midgut and hindgut in cockroach is :-

(1) 50–60
(2) 80–90
(3) 100–150
(4) 200–250

64) Consider the following statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only.
(a) Parturition is induced by a complex neuro- endocrine mechanism.
(b) During parturition, secretion of progesterone decreases but secretion of estrogen increases from
placenta.
(c) Progesterone, hCG, hPL and estrogens are produced in women only during pregnancy.
(d) The first movement of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during
the third month of pregnancy.

(1) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) All statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)

65) The bone which has 2 ends and 2 curvature and articulate with sternum and scapula is :-

(1) Ribs
(2) Humerus
(3) Clavicle
(4) Vertebral column

66) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Cyclosporin-A (i) Monascus perpureus

(b) Statins (ii) Clostridium butylicum

(c) Butyric acid (iii) Streptococcus

(d) Steptokinase (iv) Trichoderma polysporum

(1) a - (i), b - (iv), c - (iii), d - (ii)
(2) a - (iv), b - (i), c - (ii), d - (iii)
(3) a - (i), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (iii)
(4) a - (iv), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (ii)

67) Following statements are correct for which animal? (A) Circular mouth without jaw
(B) Body is devoid of scales and paired fins
(C) Cranium and vertebral column are cartilaginous
(D) Circulation is of closed type

(1) Pristis
(2) Exocoetus
(3) Petromyzon
(4) Scoliodon

68) After spermiogenesis, sperm heads become embedded in the sertoli cells, and are finally
released from the seminiferous tubules by the process called :-

(1) Spermiation
(2) Semination
(3) Spermatogenesis
(4) Ejaculation

69) What is true for Bt-toxin:-

(1) Bt-toxin protein exist as active toxin in bacterium

(2) Bt-toxin is converted into an active toxin due to acidic pH in gut of insect
(3) Bt-toxin is converted into an active toxin due to alkaline pH in gut of insects
(4) Bt-toxin is formed by Biotechnology

70) Which of the following structure attaches testes to the kidney in Frog?

(1) Mesorchium
(2) Mesovarium
(3) Tendon
(4) Copulatory pad

71) Assertion :- Coelenteron cavity in cnidarian also known as gastrovascular cavity.

Reason :- In cnidarians gastrovascular cavity involve in digestion of food as well as distribution of
nutrients.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

72)
The correct names of these amino acid are :
 AA1 AA2 AA3

(1) Glycine Serine Alanine

(2) Alanine Glycine Serine

(3) Serine Glycine Alanine

(4) Serine Alanine Glycine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) Who disproved the 'good humor hypothesis' very first time by using thermometer ?

(1) Hippocrates
(2) Charak
(3) William Harvey
(4) Edward Jenner

74)

Radial symmetry is found in :-

(a) Coelenterates
(b) Ctenophores
(c) Echinodermates (Adults)

(1) only a
(2) only b
(3) only a and b
(4) All a, b and c

75) Match the column-I to Column-II and select the correct option ?

Column-I Column-II

(A) Glucagon (i) Tetraiodothyronine hormone

(B) Adrenaline (ii) Anti diuretic hormone

(C) Vasopressin (iii) Emergency hormone

(D) Thyroxine (iv) Hyperglycemic hormone

Option :-
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
76) Hormone(s) secreted by part 'A' in given diagram.

(1) Oxytocin
(2) ADH
(3) (1) and (2) both
(4) Growth hormone

77) Represented below is the effect of change in pH on enzyme activity. Which one of the following

conclusions can be made by this diagram ?

Enzyme show its highest activity at a particular pH, both below and above this pH, activity
(1)
declines
(2) With increasing pH, activity increases upto a limit then it become constant
(3) At a particular pH, activity is minimum, both below and above this pH activity increases
(4) Enzyme activity is affected by temperature not by pH so it is completely a hypothetical graph

78) Cancer patients are given biological response modifiers such as ____ which activates their
immune system and help in destroying the tumour:

(1) α-interferons
(2) Cannabinoids
(3) Sedative
(4) Opiate

79) What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide and oxygen in atmospheric air ?

(1) pCO2 159 mm Hg, pO2 40 mm Hg

(2) pCO2 0.3 mm Hg, pO2 159 mm Hg
(3) pCO2 40 mm Hg, pO2 45 mm Hg
(4) pCO2 45 mm Hg, pO2 116 mm Hg

80) Cells of malignant tumors are invading and damaging the surrounding normal tissue the most
feared property of malignant tumor is:
(1) Oncogenic transformation
(2) Metachrosis
(3) Contact inhibition
(4) Metastasis

81) When neuron in resting, the axonal membrane is comparatively more permeable to ___A___ ions
and nearly impermeable to ____B___ ions. Similarly, the membrane is impermeable to negatively
charged ___C___ present in ___D___.

A B C D

(1) K+ Na+ Lipids Axoplasm

(2) K+ Na+ Proteins Extra Cellular fluid

(3) K+ Na+ Lipids Extra Cellular fluid

(4) K+ Na+ Proteins Axoplasm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) In interstitial fluid of kidney an increasing osmolarity from cortex to the inner medulla. This
gradient is mainly caused by :-

(1) Na+, K
(2) NaCl, H2O, HCO3
(3) NaCl and Urea
(4) Urea, HCO3

83) The Indian parliament has recently cleared which amendment of the Indian patents bill :-

(1) 1st
(2) 2nd
(3) 3rd
(4) 4th

84) Assertion: The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit
difference in partial pressure is much higher compared to that of oxygen.
Reason : As the solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times higher than that of O2.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

85) Disease that spreads due to conscious behaviour pattern is ?

(1) Cancer
(2) Common Cold
(3) AIDS
(4) Pneumonia

86) Protein encoded by a gene cryII Ab control :-

(1) Corn borer

(2) Cotton boll worm
(3) Beetles
(4) Mosquitoes

87) Some symptoms of a disorder are given read them and identify the disorder :-
(a) Alveolar walls are damaged
(b) Respiratory surface is decreased
(c) Smoking is major cause

(1) Asthma
(2) Emphysema
(3) Silicosis
(4) Pneumonia

88) Match the following list of animals with their level of organisation.

Level of Organisation Animal

A Organ level 1 Pheretima

B Cellular aggregate level 2 Fasciola

C Tissue level 3 Spongilla

D Organ system level 4 Obelia

A B C D

(1) 1 3 4 2

(2) 2 4 3 1

(3) 4 1 2 3

(4) 2 3 4 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

89) "Hormones are chemicals which act as messengers and are produced in
amounts".
Choose the correct option -

A B C

(1) Non-nutrient Intra cellular Trace

(2) Nutrient Intercellular Large

(3) Non-nutrient Intercellular Trace

(4) Nutrient Extra cellular Large

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Assertion: By counting the number of QRS Complex that occur in a given time period one can
determine the heart beat rate of an individual.
Reason: QRS complex represents the depolarisation of Atria.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 1 3 1 4 4 1 4 1 3 2 1 4 3 2 2 2 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 4 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 4 1 4 1 1 1 3 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 3 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 4 4 2 3 1 2 3 3 2 2 1 1 4 2 1 3 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 1 2 2 2 4 3 2 2 2 1 1 3 2 2 4 1 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 4 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 4 4 1 4 1 1 3 2 1 3 4 1 2 4 3 1 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 3 2 1 2 3 4 2 2 3 2 2 4 2 1 3 3 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 1 4 1 4 4 2 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 4 1 1 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 3 3 3 2 3 1 3 1 2 2 3 4 4 3 1 1 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 2 1 3 2 2 4 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

R= = = 975Ω (in series)

2)

Zero

3)

2Rr/(R + r)

4) 1. Question Explanation
The circuit is a Wheatstone bridge, and we need to determine the value of resistance X for
which the potential difference between B and D is zero.

2. Concept:
Balanced wheatstone bridge

Visual-aid :
Concept Diagram :

3. Formula Used

4. Calculation:
From the given circuit and the Balanced bridge Diagram
R1 = 15 + 6 = 21 Ω

R2 =

R3 = 15 + = 18 Ω

R4 = 4 + =6Ω
 Applying the Wheatstone bridge condition:

Solving for X:
168 - 72 = 12x
96 = 12x
then x = 8Ω

Answer is option (3)

5) We know that for a doped semiconductor in thermal equilibrium, we have

nenh = ni2
As per given data,
ni = 1.5 × 1016 m–3
nh = 4.5 × 1022 m–3

Thus

6) width of D.L ∝

7)

A B Y

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 0

NOR gate

8) Explaining : We are to determine powers a,b,c using dimensional analysis.

Concept : This question is based on dimensional analysis of proportionality relations.
Solution :
Time period T = PadbEc
Taking dimensions of each physical quantity,
[T] = [ML–1T–2]a [ML–3]b [ML2T–2|]c
Equating the exponents of M, L and T on both the sides,
Ma+b+cL–a–3b+2cT–2a–2c = T
a+b+c=0
–a –3b + 2c = 0
–2a – 2c = 1
Solving these equations for a, b and c, we get
a=– and
Final Answer : (1)

9) since =
0 0 0

While = [M L T ]

⇒ ≠
Hence option (4) is incorrect

10)

11)

12)

For equilibrium
F=0

13)
After collision between A and B
and

After collision between B and C

Again after collision between A and B

and

14) Explain question: The question asks how kinetic energy and momentum change when a
particle moves from one end of a diameter to the opposite end on a circular path.

Concept: Uniform circular motion; speed constant → KE constant; momentum changes due to
change in direction.

Solution:

The particle moves with constant speed v, so its kinetic energy remains the same at
every point on the circle. Hence, no change in KE.
Momentum magnitude is P = mv but its direction reverses when the particle moves to the
opposite end of the diameter.
Initial momentum = ; final momentum = – .
Thus change in momentum:
Δp = | – mv – mv | = 2mv.

Final answer: Option (4)

15) Explain the question :

If the tortoise moves along A ⊂ B on this rotating circular platform. Then what effect will be
there on the angular speed of the platform with time.
Concept : This question is based on conservation of angular momentum.
Formula : L = Iω = constant
Solution :
For the motion of tortoise from point A to C →
Isystem ↓ ⇒ ωsystem ↑
For the motion of tortoise from point C to B →
Isystem ↑ ⇒ ωsystem ↓
So, we can say that angular velocity of the disc first increases, then becomes maximum & then
decreases.
So, out of all the "ω vs t" graphs given in the options, the best suited graph will be -

Final answer : Option(3)

16) Explain question:

Calculate the torque exerted by gravity on a projectile about the point of projection when it
reaches its maximum height.

Concept:

Torque formula
Torque magnitude

Solution:
At the highest point, the weight of the particle is mg acting vertically downward.
The horizontal distance from the point projection to the point under the highest point is half
the range (R/2).

Final answer: Option (2)

17)

(1) Equation x = x0 sinωt

rms value
(2) Equation x = x0 sinωt cosωt
 rms value
(3) x = x0 sinωt + x0 cosωt
=

rms value =

18) 1. Question Explanation:

The question asks about the ratio of isothermal and adiabatic coefficients of elasticity for a
gas. These coefficients are related to the behavior of gases under different processes. In
particular, the adiabatic coefficient is related to the ratio of specific heats ( ), and we need to
find the relationship between the isothermal and adiabatic elasticities.

2. Concept Based:
It is based on ratio of isothermal & adiabatic bulk modules
3. Formula Used:
The relationship between the isothermal and adiabatic bulk moduli (coefficients of elasticity) is
given by:

Isothermal coefficient of elasticity =

Adiabatic coefficient of elasticity =

where P is pressure, V is volume, and is the adiabatic index (ratio of specific heats Cp / Cv ).

4. Calculation:
The ratio of the isothermal to the adiabatic coefficient of elasticity is:

Thus, the correct answer is Option 2:

19)

Time to empty a vessel

so ....(1)
....(2)

20) When bubbles coalesce under isothermal conditions

P1V1 + P2V2 = PfVf
 r12 + r22 = r2
r = (r12 + r22)1/2

21)

Explain Question :
Multiple identical rain drops merge to form a larger drop, changing its radius and hence its
terminal velocity.

Concept :
This question is based on terminal velocity.

Solution :
For small spherical drops falling through air (under Stokes’ law conditions), the terminal
velocity v is proportional to the square of the radius:
v ∝ r2
If 64 identical spherical drops coalesce, volumes add:

R3 = 64r3 ⇒ R = 4r
Use the proportionality of terminal velocity

vsmall = 1.5 = 24 ms–1

vbig = 16 × 1.5 = 24 ms–1

Final Answer : Option (3)

22)

Explain Question : Asking about the bending direction of the bimetallic strip, placed in the
cold bath.

Concept : This question is based on Thermal expiation in Bimetallic strip.

Solution :

As αA > αB so contraction in metal A is more than metal B.

that, means if A contracts more, So that strip will be bend towards A or lift side.

Final Answer: option (2)

23)
dQ - msdT
24)
H1 + H2 + H3 = 0

x = 70oC

25) Question Explanation:

We have to calculate work done by using given 'P-V' graph.

Concept:
Work done in thermodynamic process is equal to area under the curve of P-V graph.

Solution:

Work done = Area of triangle DEP

Final Answer: Option(2)

26)

y = kt2

⇒ = 2kt ⇒ = 2k
a = 2m/s2

27) For closed pipe

For open pipe

n = 1024 Hz.

28)

29) Explain Question:

As shown in figure find component of electric flied Ex and Ey.

Concept:
Equipotential surface.

Solution:

Final answer: option (2)

30)

⇒
CT = 4μF

31)

B=
 32)

33)

Question Explanation:
A metallic rod of negligible resistance and length ℓ = 0.5 m moves with constant velocity v = 2
m/s, completing a circuit placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B = 0.15 T. The
resistance of the circuit is 3 Ω, and we have to find the external force required to keep the rod
moving uniformly.

Concept:
Motional emf and magnetic force on a current-carrying conductor.

Solution:

Induced emf in the rod:

ε = B ℓ v = 0.15 × 0.5 × 2 = 0.15 V
Current in the circuit:
I = ε / R = 0.15 / 3 = 0.05 A
Magnetic force opposing motion:
Fext = BIℓ
Fext = 0.15 × 0.5 × 0.05
Fext = 3.75 × 10–3 N

Final Answer: Option (1)

34)

γ-rays

35)

4.5 ms–1, 6.75 ms–1

36)

QUESTION EXPLANATION:
As shown in figure green light reflected asking about which color will emerge.
CONCEPT:
This question is based on Total internal reflection and wavelength dependence of critical angle
FORMULA:
Critical angle ∝ 1 / refractive index ∝ wavelength
SOLUTION:
Green light is just totally internally reflected, so colors with longer wavelength (red, orange,
yellow) have smaller refractive indices have higher critical angles. These colors refract out
into air. Colors with shorter wavelength (blue, violet) have higher refractive indices and are
totally internally reflected like green.

FINAL ANSWER: Option (1)

37) 3A1 = 2A2 = A3​

38)

β2 = 1.2 × 10–3m = 1.2 mm

39)

40)

41)

2K1

42)

Explain the Question : The question asks which electronic transition in a hydrogen atom
emits light of the same energy as the incident radiation that caused photoelectrons to be
emitted from a metal with a given work function and stopping potential.
Concept : This question is based on photoelectric effect.
Solution :
E = KE + ϕ
E = 10.4 + 1.7 = 12.1 eV
for hydrogen atom
E1 = –13.6 eV
E2 = –3.4 eV
E3 = –1.5 eV
and E3 – E1 = 12.1 eV
so answer is n = 3 to 1
Final answer : 1

43) Question Explanation : Find energy related to 10 kg of U235.

Concept : Mass energy equilence .

Solution :
Energy released in 10 kg of Uranium
E = mc2 = 10 × (3 × 108)2 = 9 × 1017 J

Final Answer : Option (3)

44)

45)

Question Explanation : A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same
potential difference.

Electron : Mass = me

Charge = qe = –e

Potential difference= V0

Proton (+1H1) : Mass = mp

Charge = qp = + e

Potential difference= V0

Ratio of the de – Broglie Wavelengths :

Concept : de-Broglie Wavelength of moving charged particles accelerated through some

potential difference

Formula :

Solution : Since both the particles are accelerated through the same potential difference (V)
Planck’s Constant (h) is a universal constant. So,

Final Answer : Option (1)

CHEMISTRY

46)

The position and velocity of the electron in the orbit cannot be determined simultaneously.

47)

(4) < (2) < (3) < (1)

48)

49)

50)

RT

51)

4 × 104

52)

Explain Question :- Question ask, which of the following salts have a maximum pH
Concept :-This question is based on Salt Hydrolysis
Solution :-
The pH of a salt solution depends on the nature of the parent acid and parent base from which
the salt is formed.
1. NaNO2 : Formed from the strong base and the weak acid. This will form a basic solution
2. CH3COONH4 : formed from the weak acid and the weak base. This will form a nearly neutral
solution.
3. NaClO4 : Formed from the strong base and the strong acid. This will form a neutral solution
4. MgCl2 : Formed from the weak base and the strong acid. This will form a slightly colution
NaNO2, CH3COONH4, NaClO4, MgCl2
WASB WAWB SASB SAWB
MgCl2 < NaClO4 ≈ CH3COONH4 < NaNO2
Final answer :- (1)

53) Rate of E.S.R

54) Question Explanation: We must find the stoichiometric coefficients z, y, z that satisfy the
given rate relation for the reaction xA + yB → zC

Concept: This question is based on (relation between reaction rate and stoichiometry).

Solution: From Also,

Rate equality:

Taking smallest integers: z = 2 ⇒ x = 3, y = 3.

so, x = 3, y = 3, z = 2

Final Answer : Option (3)

55)

Question Explanation: Using given rate data for reaction

2A + B₂ → 2AB, find the rate constant k at 300 K.

Concept: Rate law: Rate = k[A]ᵐ[B₂]ⁿ

Orders are obtained by comparing experiments.

Solution:
Compare (i) & (ii):
[A] increases 6 times, rate increases 6 times ⇒ order in A = 1

Compare (i) & (iii):

[B₂] increases 3 times, rate increases 3 times ⇒ order in B₂ = 1

So, Rate = k[A][B₂]

Using experiment (i):

k = (1.8×10⁻³) / (0.015 × 0.15)
k = (1.8×10⁻³) / 0.00225
k = 0.8

Final Answer: Option 3

56)

57) H2(P1) + 2H+(aq) → 2H+(aq) + H2(P2)

Q=
E = 0–

E=

58)

Explain the question: Identify which process occurs at the cathode during electrolysis of
dilute H2SO4 using platinum electrodes.
Concept: This question is based on electrolysis
Solution:
In electrolysis, reduction occurs at the cathode and oxidation at the anode. In dilute H2SO4, H+
ions (from H2O) are reduced to H2 gas.
At cathode: 2H2O + 2e– → H2 + 2OH–
Hence, reduction of H2O takes place at cathode.
Final Answer: 1

59)

Explain question:
The question asks us to calculate the volume of sodium formate (a salt of a weak acid) that
must be added to a solution of formic acid (a weak acid)

Concept:
pH of acidic buffer solution.

Solution:
Given Data:
• Volume of formic acid (HCOOH) = 50 mL
• Concentration of formic acid = 0.05 M
• Concentration of sodium formate (HCOONa) = 0.10 M
• Desired pH of buffer = 4.1
• pKa of formic acid = 3.8
Mathematical Calculation:

1. Apply Henderson-Hasselbalch equation: 4.1 = 3.8 + log

2. Solve for the ratio of concentrations: 0.3 = log

3. = 10 – 0.3 ≈ 2
4. Calculate moles of formic acid: Moles of HCOOH = (0.05 mol/L) = (0.050 L) = 0.0025 moles
5. Let 'x' be the volume (in Liters) of 0.10 M sodium formate added: Moles of HCOO– = (0.10
mol/L)x

6. Substitute into the ratio equation: = 2 (Note the volumes cancel out)

= 2 0.10x = 0.005 x = 0.05 L = 50 mL

Final Answer: Option (1)

60)

At 298K, the number of H+ ions in a litre of water is 6.023 × 1016.

61)

10

62)

XA = 0.08

63)

Fog

64)

Assertion is true but Reason is false

65)

More with K2Cr2O7

66) Question Asking: Need to find temperature at equilibrium.

Concept : At equilibrium ΔG = 0
Formula : ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
Solution/Explanation:
at equilibrium ΔG = 0
ΔH = –30kJ = –30 × 103 J
ΔS = ?
We know that, for chemical reaction

Now, 0 = – 30 × 103 J – (T × (–40))

0 = – 30000 J + 40 T
40T = – 30000J

T=
Correct Answer is Option (3).

67) Explanation :
The question asks to match the given coordination compounds (like chlorophyll and
hemoglobin) with their respective central metal atoms from the provided list.

Concept :
Application of coordination compounds

Solution :
Chlorophyll's central atom is Magnesium (Mg), matching A - t. Hemoglobin, the blood pigment,
contains Iron (Fe), matching B - s. Wilkinson's catalyst has Rhodium (Rh) as its central metal,
matching C - p. Vitamin B₁₂ (Cobalamin) features Cobalt (Co) at its core, matching D - q.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

68)

Both Assertion & Reason are True and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

69)

70) Question Explanation : Identify which manganese oxide behaves as an acidic oxide.

Concept : Higher oxidation states of metals form acidic oxides due to strong covalency.

Solution : The acidic nature of metal oxides increases with oxidation state. Manganese in
Mn₂O₇ has the highest oxidation state of +7, leading to strong covalent bonding with oxygen.
Such highly oxidized oxides react with water to form acids. Therefore, Mn₂O₇ behaves as an
acidic oxide, unlike lower oxidation state oxides.

Final Answer: OPTION (2)

71) Cr3+ ion is a most stable in aqueous solution due to. t2g half filled configuration.

72)

Variable oxidation states

73) Explain the Question :

Match valence configurations to their corresponding successive ionization energies.
Concept : This question is based on ionization energy.
Solution :
A-S : The 3s1 configuration has one valence electron, matching the large energy jump after the
first ionization in set (S).
B-R : The 3s2 configuration has two valence electrons, matching the large energy jump after
the second ionization in set (R).
C-Q : The 3s23p1 configuration has three valence electrons, matching the large energy jump
after the third ionization in set (Q).
D-P : The 3s23p2 configuration has four valence electrons, matching the large energy jump
after the fourth ionization in set (P).
Final Answer : 3

74) ∵ stable e– conf.

3
7N = 2p

75)

N2O5

76)
Band = (1.75) = (1.5) = (1.25) order

77)

H3PO4 > H2SO4

78)

BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3

79)

80) Question Explanation:

The question asks to predict the products formed when an ether reacts with one mole of HI.
 Concept: This question is based on Ether Cleavage by Hydrogen Halides

Ethers are cleaved by strong hydrogen halides (HI > HBr > HCl) after protonation of the
ether oxygen.
The reaction pathway depends on the nature of the alkyl groups attached to oxygen.

Solution:

A. If the ether contains a tertiary alkyl group, cleavage occurs via an SN1 mechanism.

B. Protonation of the ether oxygen makes the C–O bond weak.

C. The bond breaks to form a stable tertiary carbocation.

D. The carbocation is then attacked by iodide ion (I⁻).

Final Answer: Option (2)

81) NaBH4 can not reduced ester.

82) Given reaction is an example of SN1.

So rate of SN1 ∝ stability of Ist formed carbocation.
Stability of carbocation will be-

83)

Vitamin C

84) Explaination: Identify the compound which will give white crystalline product with
NaHSO3.
Concept: NAR of carbonyl compound.
Solution:
The reaction of carbonyl compounds with NaHSO3 is steric sensitive since attacking
nucleophile is bulky so only following carbonyl compounds give white ppt with NaHSO3.
(A) All aldehydes
(B) Aliphatic methyl Ketone.
So we will check all options.
(1) Acetophenone

Not give reaction

(2) Benzophenone

Not give reaction

(3) Acetone

Give white ppt.

(4) Pentan-3-one

Not give reaction

Final Answer: Option (3)

85) Question Explanation: Identify x and y in the given sequence reaction.

Concept: NSR , Reduction

Solution:

So x ⇒ KCN
y ⇒ LiAlH4

Final Answer - Option (1)

86)
Reaction is known as KOCH reaction

87)

rate of R–OH is

88)

Question Explanation: Identifying the reaction that does not yield a primary amine.
Concept: Preparation of Amines and Reduction of Nitriles.
Solution: Primary amines are produced by the reduction of amides, nitro compounds, and the
ammonolysis of alkyl halides. However, the reaction of nitriles with DIBAL-H followed by
hydrolysis is a specialized reduction that stops at the aldehyde stage rather than proceeding to
an amine.
Solution :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
Final Answer :- (4)

CH3–CH2–C≡N

89)

A) Question Explanation: Identify the compound that is not formed when an organic compound
is fused with sodium metal during the Lassaigne's test.

B) Concept Used: Qualitative Analysis, Lassaigne's Test, Sodium Fusion, Conversion of

Elements.

C) Answer Explanation:- Lassaigne's test converts covalently bonded elements (N, S, X) into
water-soluble ionic salts upon fusion with metallic sodium (Na).
 The standard products recovered in the sodium fusion extract (SFE) are:

A. Nitrogen (N) —--- Sodium cyanide (NaCN) (Option 2 is a product).

B. Halogens (X) —--- Sodium halide (NaX) (Option 1 is a product).

C. Sulfur (S) —------Sodium sulfide (Na2S) (Option 4 is a product).

Sodium isocyanide (NaNC) (Option 3) is a structural isomer of NaCN but is not the product
formed during the high-temperature fusion process. The primary, stable product for nitrogen
detection is NaCN.

Therefore, NaNC is the compound that is not the product of this specific fusion reaction.D)
Final Answer: Option (3).

90)

While testing for halogens, lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 to decompose Na2S
and NaCN if formed.

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT 11th Class (Chapter-3) on Different Pages

92) NCERT 11th Class (Chapter-5) First Page.

93)

NCERT XI Pg. # 209, 231, 228

94) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 218,232

95) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 233

96) NCERT XI, Pg # 215

97) NCERT Pg. # 61

98) Correct option (1)

 99) NCERT-XI Pg. No. # 61

100) NCERT-XI Pg. No. # 66

101) NCERT XII Pg # 133,135,220

102) NCERT XI_Page No.168

103) Correct option 4

104) Both statements are correct

105) Correct option 2

106) NCERT XII Pg. # 125

107)

Question Explanation
The question is asking about the event that does not occur during prophase I of meiosis.

Concept
Prophase I of meiosis

Solution
Prophase I includes synapsis of homologous chromosomes, formation of chiasmata due to
crossing over, and terminalization of chiasmata. Division of centromeres does not occur in
prophase I; centromeres divide during anaphase II (or anaphase of mitosis).

Final answer: Option 3

108) New NCERT Class-XII, Page No. 121

109) New NCERT Pg. # 121

110) NCERT pg. # 208

111) The correct answer is: 4. (i)-C, (ii)-B, (iii)-A, (iv)-B

Explanation : In a food chain:

A. (i) % of energy transfer: Constant at each trophic level (C).

B. (ii) Amount of energy: Decreases as you move up the food chain (B).
C. (iii) Respiratory cost: Increases at higher trophic levels as organisms
 need more energy for maintenance (A).
D. (iv) Intensity of competition: Decreases at higher trophic levels, as fewer
organisms exist at higher levels (B).

112)

ने ट ाथिमक उपादकता
Net primary productivity

113)

170 िबिलयन टन
170 billion tons

114)

a – कवक, b – आवृ बीजीय, c – माॅ सेस, d – फन, e – शै वाल, f – लाइकेस

a – Fungi, b – Angiosperms, c – Mosses, d – Fern, e – Algae, f – Lichens

115) NCERT Pg. # 223, 224, 225 ; Hindi Pg. # 244, 245, 246

116) NCERT Pg. # 223, Hindi Pg. # 243

117) Option (3)

118) NCERT Page No. # XII-93,94

119) 2 molecules each of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4

120) Correct Answer

As marked in the image, the correct answer is:
B. Promoter

121) Transcription occurs in 5' → 3' direction

122) NCERT page No. # XII, 80

123) The correct answer is (2) Vicia faba

124) The correct answer is (4)

125) NCERT-XII Pg # 92

126)

In this question we have to select the correct match.

Ribozyme - Nucleic acid: A ribozyme is an RNA molecule that can catalyze chemical reactions,
similar to the action of protein enzymes. This is the correct match.
F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross: A dihybrid cross involves two traits, typically in the F1
generation, and would not directly involve an F2 × recessive parent cross. This is not the
correct match.
T.H. Morgan - Transduction: T.H. Morgan is known for his work with fruit flies and for
developing the chromosomal theory of inheritance, not for transduction (which is the process
of transferring genetic material via a virus). This is incorrect.
G. Mendel - Transformation: Gregor Mendel is known for his work on the inheritance of traits
in pea plants, not for transformation (the process by which genetic material is introduced into
a cell). This is incorrect.
The correct answer is 1

127) Correct option 3

128) 7 celled & 8 nucleated

129) When embryo is formed without the fusion of egg and the sperm

130) Correct option 3

131) Correct option 1

132)

Explain Question : The question has provided four statements about different plant groups
and wants to know which of them are correct.
Concept : This question is based on Gymnosperms, Pteridophytes (ferns), and Bryophytes
(mosses).
Explanation :
(i) Gymnosperms are heterosporous. - Correct
Gymnosperms produce two types of spores: microspores (male) and megaspores (female), so
they are heterosporous.
(ii) Prothallus is a gametophytic, free living photosynthetic structure formed in homosporous
pteridophytes.
- Correct
In homosporous pteridophytes (e.g., ferns like Dryopteris), the prothallus is the free-living,
photosynthetic gametophyte.
(iii) Mosses have vascular tissue. - Incorrect
Mosses are non-vascular plants; they lack true vascular tissue (xylem and phloem).
(iv)Mosses are of great ecological importance. - Correct
Mosses help in soil formation, water retention, and as pioneer species in ecosystems.
Final answer : 2

133) NCERT-XI, Pg # 26,32

134) NCERT-XI, Pg # 23,35

135)

Carbohydrates, particularly in the form of glucose and other sugars, are primarily produced
through the process of photosynthesis. This is carried out by :
• Green plant cells (such as in plants and trees),
• Algae, which are photosynthetic organisms found in aquatic environments,
• Some bacteria, specifically those that are photosynthetic, like cyanobacteria
(often called "blue-green algae")

136)

Question explanation: Identify the correctly matched human ancestors with their cranial
capacity and characteristics.
Concept: Human evolution

Solution:

A. (i) Homo habilis → Cranial capacity 650–800 cc and probably did not eat meat →
Correct

B. (ii) Homo erectus → Cranial capacity about 900 cc and probably ate meat →
Correct

C. (iii) Neanderthal man → Cranial capacity ~1400 cc is correct, but “first human-like
being” is incorrect (they were advanced humans, not the first) → Incorrect

So, only statements (i) and (ii) are correct.

Final answer: Option 4

137) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 133

138)

Explain Question : The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is –
 Concept : Structure of contractile protein

Solution : only myosin has ATPase activity that hydrolyzes ATP during contraction.

Final Answer : Option (2) Myosin

139)

Explain Question : TO IDENTIFY THE GIVEN DIAGRAM

Concept : This question is based on DRUG ABUSE
Explanation : THE GIVEN DIAGRAM SHOWS THE PART OF PLANT, DHATURA
Final answer : 2

140) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 279, para-2,3

141)

Explanation :
The question asking about match Column I and Column II and choose the correct option.

Concept :
The question based on Structural organisation of muscle fibre.

Solution :

A. A. H-Zone — ii. Light central area of A-band

B. B. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum — iv. Store house of Ca²⁺ ions

C. C. Z-line — i. Elastic fibre in I-band

D. D. Cross Arm — iii. Part of meromyosin protein

Final Answer : (3)

142)

Cellular

143) Lyases

144)

Question Explanation : The question asks to identify the specific location where the ovum
 and sperm must meet for fertilization to occur.

Concept : Female reproductive system - accessory ducts

Solution : The correct option is 2 : Ampulla part of the fallopian tube .

A. Fertilization in humans is an internal process. For it to be successful, the ovum and sperm
must be present at the same time in the ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.
The ampulla is the most common site of fertilization.

Final Answer : Option (2)

145)

The correct answer is 4. Dense regular fibrous connective tissue.

Here's why:Tendons and ligaments are primarily composed of dense regular connective tissue.
This type of tissue is characterized by tightly packed, parallel collagen fibers, which provide
strength and flexibility in one direction.

146)

A, B, C & D

147)

a-i, b-ii, c-iii

148)

Question explanation : The question is asking which contraceptive device changes the
uterine and cervical conditions to prevent implantation and sperm entry.

Concept : Birth control temporary contraceptive methods.

Solution :
Progestasert is a hormone-releasing IUD that releases progesterone, making the uterus
unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.

Final answer : Option (1) Progestasert.

149)

Option (1)

150)

Solution:
(i) Golden rice is known for its high (C) Vitamin A content.
 (ii) Flavr Savr tomato was developed for (A) Increased shelf life.
(iii) E. coli is used for producing (B) Insulin through genetic engineering.
(iv) Bt. brinjal is genetically modified to be (D) insect resistant.

Hence,
Correct option: (1) (i) – C, (ii) – A, (iii) – B, (iv) – D

151) Question Explanation: The question asks what Agrobacterium tumefaciens is commonly
known as.

Concept: The question is based on biotechnology and genetic engineering in plants.

Solution: The correct answer is option 1.

A. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a soil bacterium that causes crown gall disease in plants.
B. It naturally transfers a segment of its Ti plasmid (T-DNA) into the plant genome. Because of
this ability, it is called the natural genetic engineer of plants.

Final Answer: Option 1

152)

Tight junction

153)

Question Explanation: The question asks the number of Malpighian tubules present at the
junction of the midgut and hindgut in a cockroach.

Concept: Cockroach- Excretion

Solution: Malpighian tubules are excretory organs in [Link] cockroach, about 100–150
Malpighian tubules are present at the junction of the midgut and hindgut.

Final answer: Option – 3

154)

Question explanation: Identify the correct statements about pregnancy and parturition.
Concept: Reproduction – Pregnancy & Parturition
Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

A. (a) Correct. Parturition is controlled by a complex neuro-endocrine mechanism.

B. (b) Correct. At the onset of labor, progesterone secretion decreases and estrogen
secretion increases from the placenta, which promotes uterine contractions.

C. (c) Incorrect. Relaxin, hCG, hPL, are produced in women only during
 pregnancy. progesterone and estrogen produced in normal conditions.

D. (d) Incorrect. The first fetal movements (quickening) are usually felt around 4–5
months, and hair on the head appears much later, not in the third month.

So , Only (a) and (b) are correct .

Final answer: Option 3

155)

Question explanation: Identify the bone having two ends, two curvatures, and articulating
with the sternum and scapula.
Concept: Skeletal system

Solution:

A. The clavicle (collar bone) is an S-shaped bone with two curvatures.

B. It has two ends:

A. Medial end articulates with the sternum.

B. Lateral end articulates with the scapula.

C. Other options do not match all these features.

Final answer: Option 3

156)

a - (iv), b - (i), c - (ii), d - (iii)

157) Petromyzon

158) NCERT Pg.# 47

159)

Explaining the Question: This question asks which statement correctly describes the
activation of Bt-toxin produced by Bacillus thuringiensis.

Concept: Bt Cotton and Bt Toxin (Microbial Bio-Control Agents).

Solution : Correct. - Bt-protoxin becomes an active toxin only in the alkaline pH of the insect
midgut, where it gets solubilised and cleaved.

Final Answer: Option (3)

160) NCERT Pg # 83

161)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

162)

Option (2)

163) NCERT XII Pg. # 145

164)

Explain Question : Radial symmetry is found in ?

Concept : This question is based on Animal Kingdom.

Solution : Radial symmetry is found in Coelenterates, Ctenophores and Echinodermates

(Adults)

Final Answer : option (4)

165) NCERT XI Pg. # 334

166)

Question Explanation : The question asks which hormones are secreted by part "A"
(posterior pituitary) in the diagram.

Concept : The question is based on pituitary gland hormones.

Solution : The correct answer is option 3 — Oxytocin and ADH both.

A. Oxytocin → Secreted by posterior pituitary, plays role in uterine contraction and milk
ejection.

B. ADH (Antidiuretic hormone / Vasopressin) → Secreted by posterior pituitary,

regulates water balance by increasing reabsorption in kidneys.
 C. Growth hormone → Secreted by anterior pituitary, not posterior → Incorrect.

Final Answer : Option 3.

167)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 118

168) NCERT XII Pg. # 158

169) Explain the Question : What is the partial pressure of CO2 and O2 in atmospheric air ?
Concept : This question is based on exchange of gases.
Solution : In atmospheric air
pCO2 = 0.3 mm Hg
pO2 = 159 mm Hg
Final Answer : 2

170)

Metastasis

171) Explain Question:

The question asks which ions the axonal membrane is more permeable or impermeable to at
rest, and what negatively charged molecules are trapped inside the neuron

Concept:
Resting membrane potential and ion distribution

Solution:
At resting state:
• Axonal membrane is more permeable to K+ and less permeable to NA+
• Negatively charged proteins are trapped inside the axoplasm, contributing to the negative
resting potential.

Final answer: Option (4)

172)

Explain Question : In interstitial fluid of kidney, an increasing osmolarity from cortex to the
inner medulla. This gradient is mainly caused by ?

Concept : This question is based on Counter - Current Mechanism

Solution : This gradient is mainly caused by NaCl and Urea

Final Answer : option (3)

 173) Question Explanation: Identify which amendment of the Indian Patents Bill was
recently cleared by the Indian Parliament.
Concept: The question is based on biopiracy.
Solution: The correct answer is option 2.

A. 2nd Amendment → Correct. The Patents (Second Amendment) Rules were introduced to
streamline patent procedures, reduce examination timelines, and improve efficiency.

Final answer: Option 2

174)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 274

175)

Explain Question: Which disease spreads mainly due to conscious human behavior patterns.
•
Concept:
AIDS
AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome) spreads through sexual contact,
Solution: sharing of needles, and transfusion of infected blood — all linked to human
behavioral choices, unlike cold, pneumonia, or cancer.
Final answer: AIDS

176)

Question Explanation – The question is asking which insect pest is controlled by the protein
encoded by the gene cryIIAb.

Concept – Bt toxin genes (cry genes) in genetically modified crops

Solution –cryIIAb specifically targets cotton bollworm.

Final Answer – Option 2 (Cotton boll worm)

177) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 275; para-5

178)

179) NCERT-(E) Pg# 330

180)

Explain Question: To evaluate assertion and reason

Concept: This question is based on ECG

Solution:

Assertion: By counting the number of QRS Complexes that occur in a given time period one
can determine the heart beat rate of an individual. ( correct )

Reason: QRS complex represents the depolarisation of Atria. (incorrect)

Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

Final answer: 3