12-07-2026

1015CMD303361260025 MD

PHYSICS

1) Consider six wires coming into or out of the page, all with the same current. Rank the line integral
of the magnetic field (from most positive to most negative) taken counterclockwise around each loop

shown :-

(1) B > C > D > A

(2) B > C = D > A
(3) B > A > C = D
(4) C > B = D > A

2) A particle of mass m and charge q enters a region of magnetic field (as shown) with speed v.
There is a region in which the magnetic field is absent, as shown. The particle after entering the
region collides elastically with a rigid wall. Time after which the velocity of particle becomes anti

parallel to its initial velocity is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A straight conductor carrying current i splits into two parts as shown in the figure. The radius of
the circular loop is R. The total magnetic field at the centre P of the loop is :
(Circular loop is made of a conducting wire which has same area of cross section, every where)
(1) Zero
(2) 3μ0i/32 R, outward
(3) 3μ0i/32R, inward
(4) μ0i/2R, inward

4) Two particles A and B of masses mA and mB respectively and having the same charge are moving
in a plane. A uniform magnetic field exists perpendicular to this plane. The speeds of the particles
are vA and vB respectively and the trajectories are as shown in the figure. Then

(1) mAvA < mBvB

(2) mAvA > mBvB
(3) mA < mB and vA < vB
(4) mA = mB and vA = vB

5) Three wires are carrying same current i in direction as shown. Four loops enclosing the wires in
different manners are shown. The direction of is shown in the figure :

List-I List-II

(P) Along closed Loop-1 (1)

 (Q) Along closed Loop-2 (2)

(R) Along closed Loop-3 (3)

(S) Along closed Loop-4 (4)

(1) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 2;S → 1

(2) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 1;S → 2
(3) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 3;S → 4
(4) P → 4;Q → 4;R → 3;S → 3

6) A proton carrying 1MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of radius R in uniform
magnetic field. What should be the energy of an α-particle to describe a circle of same radius in the
same field

(1) 2 MeV
(2) 1 MeV
(3) 0.5 MeV
(4) 4 MeV

7) A straight wire carrying current I is made into a circular loop. If M is the magnetic moment
associated with the loop, then the straight length of the wire is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)

(1)
VA – VO =

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) If then find (VB – VA) at a certain instant when current is 5A.

(1) 5V
(2) –5V
(3) 15V
(4) –15V

10) What is increased in step down transformer ?

(1) Voltage
(2) Current
(3) Power
(4) Frequency

11) A transformer connected to 220 volt line shows an output of 2A at 11000 volt. The efficiency is
100%. The current drawn from the line is :

(1) 100A
(2) 200A
(3) 22A
(4) 11A

12) In a L–R decay circuit, the initial current at t = 0 is I. The total charge that has flown through the
resistor till the energy in the inductor has reduced to (1/9th) its initial value, is :-

(1) LI / R
(2) 2LI / 3R
(3) LI / R
(4) LI/2R

13) A point object approaches a plane mirror with a speed of 10 ms–1, while the image recedes away
from the mirror with a speed of 6 ms–1. The direction and magnitude of the velocity of mirror is :-

(1) towards the object, 8 ms–1

(2) towards the image, 6 ms–1
(3) away from the object, 8 ms–1
(4) away from the object, 2 ms–1

14) Two plane mirrors are arranged at right angles to each other as shown in figure. A ray of light is
incident on the horizontal mirror at an angle θ. For what value of θ the ray emerges parallel to the
incoming ray after reflection from the vertical mirror:

(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) all of the above

15) A ray gets succesively reflected from two mirrors Inclined at an angle 40°. If the angle of
Incidence on the first mirror is 30° then the net deviation of this ray is :-

(1) 40°
(2) 280°
(3) 80°
(4) 240°

16) A boy stands straight infront of a mirror at a distance of 30 cm away from it. He sees his erect
image whose height is twice of his real height. The mirror he is using is -

(1) Plane mirror

(2) Convex mirror
(3) Concave mirror
(4) None

17) An object is placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length f. A virtual image is formed with a
magnification of 2. To obtain a real image of same magnification, the object has to be moved by a
distance :-

(1) f
(2) f/2
(3) 3f/2
(4) 2f/3

18) A thin rod of length f/2 is placed along the optic axis of a concave mirror of focal length f such
that it's image which is real and elongated just touches the rod, the longitudinal magnification
produced by mirror is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3/2
(3) 5/2
(4) 3

19) A square wire of side 1 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror of
focal length 15 cm at a distance of 20 cm. The area enclosed by the image of the wire is :-
(1) 4 cm2
(2) 6 cm2
(3) 9 cm2
(4) 8 cm2

20) Figure shows a plane mirror onto which a light ray is incidenting. If the incident ray is turned by

5° and the mirror by 10°, as shown, the angle turned by the reflected ray is:

(1) 15°, clockwise

(2) 25°, clockwise
(3) 30°, clockwise
(4) 25°, anticlockwise

21) In the figure shown the angle made by the light ray with the normal in the medium of refractive

index is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) none of these

22)

A light ray incident on interface of two media, a and b. If angle of incidence in a is θa = 45° & angle

of refraction in medium b is θb = 60°. If velocity of light in medium b is then find velocity of light in
medium a :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

23) A ray of light is incident on a surface of glass slab at an angle of 45°. If the lateral shift produced
per unit thickness is m, the angle of refraction is :-

(1)
tan
–1

(2)
tan–1

(3)
sin–1

(4)
tan–1

24) A, B and C are three optical media of respective critical angles C1, C2 and C3. Total internal
reflection of light can occur from A and B and also from B to C but not from C to A. Then the correct
relation between critical angles is

(1) C1 > C2 > C3

(2) C1 = C2 = C3
(3) C3 > C1 > C2
(4) C1 < C2 < C3

25) Variation of angle of deviation (δ) versus angle of incident (i) for a prism is given in the figure.

The value of refractive index of prism material.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45°. The angle of
prism is 60°. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum
deviation and refractive index to the material of the prism respectively, are :

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

27) The refractive index of a particular material is 1.67 for blue light, 1.65 for yellow light and 1.63
for red light, Dispersive power of the material is :-

(1) 0.024
(2) 0.031
(3) 0.0615
(4) 0.6015

28) The velocity of light in a transparent liquid medium is 1.8 × 108 m/sec, while that in vaccum is 3
× 108 m/sec. Find by how much the bottom of the vessel containing the liquid appears to be raised if
the depth of the liquid is 0.25m :-

(1) 0.1 m
(2) 0.15 m
(3) 0.416 m
(4) 0.20 m

29) A point object is moving towards a concave mirror of focal length 25 cm. When it is at a distance
of 20 cm from the mirror, its velocity is 5 cm/sec. Find velocity of image at that instant :-

(1) 10 cm/sec
(2) 125 cm/sec
(3) 25 cm/sec
(4) 5 cm/sec

30)

A plane glass sheet is kept over various coloured pictures. The least raised picture is–

(1) Green
(2) Yellow
(3) Violet
(4) Red

31) A microscope is focused on a mark, then a glass slab of refractive index 1.5 and thickness of 6
cm is placed on the mark to get the mark again in focus, the microscope should be moved

(1) 4 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 8 cm

32) A green light is incident from the water to the air - water interface at the critical angle (θ).
Select the correct statement.
 The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is more than that of green light will come out to
(1)
the air medium.
(2) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of the water at various angles to the normal
(3) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of the water at an angle of 90° to the normal.
The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is less than that of green light will come out to
(4)
the air medium.

33)

A bird is flying at the height of 12 cm from the surface of a lake and a fish is swimming at a depth of
24 cm from the surface.
(Take is μ = 4/3)

Column-A Column-B

(A) Distance of fish from the surface as seen by bird (P) 16 cm

(B) Distance of bird from the surface as seen by fish (Q) 40 cm

(C) Distance between fish and bird as seen by bird (R) 18 cm

(D) Distance between fish and bird as seen by fish (S) 30 cm

(1) A → P, B → R, C → S, D → Q
(2) A → R, B → P, C → Q, D → S
(3) A → R, B → P, C → S, D → Q
(4) A → P, B → R, C → Q, D → S

34) In the figure a convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm is shown. An object O is placed in
front of this mirror. Its ray diagram is shown. How many mistakes are there in the diagram? (AB is

its principal axis)

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) O

35) A difference of temperature of 25° C is equivalent to a difference of :

(1) 45° F
(2) 72° F
(3) 32° F
(4) 25° F

36) Oxygen boils at –183°C. This temperature is approximately in Fahrenheit is :-

(1) –329°F
(2) –261°F
(3) –215°F
(4) –297°F

37) A steel rod of length 1m is heated from 25ºC to 75ºC keeping its length constant. The
longitudinal strain developed in the rod is (Given : Coefficient of linear expansion of steel = 12 ×
10-6/°C) :-

(1) 6 × 10–6
(2) 6 × 10–5
(3) 6 × 10–4
(4) Zero

38) If the volume of a block of metal changes by 0.12%, when it is heated through 20°C, then the
coefficient of linear expansion is :-

(1) 4 × 10–5 °C–1

(2) 2 × 10–5 °C–1

(3)
× 10–5 °C–1
(4) 4 × 10–4 °C–1

39) A plate composed of welded sheets of aluminum and iron is connected to an electrical circuit as
shown in the figure. What will happen if a fairly strong current be passed through the circuit? Given

that relation between linear coefficients of expansion is : (αFe < αAℓ)

(1) Strip bends upward

(2) Strip bends downward
(3) Strip remains in its initial condition
(4) None of the above

40) A square metal plate with a hole is at temperature θ is present on smooth horizontal surface.
Point P & C are marked on the plate, where C is centre of mass of the plate with the hole shown.

When temperature of the plate is increased then the point.

(1) P shifts towards left

(2) P shifts towards right
(3) C shifts towards left
(4) C shifts towards right

41) Match column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(A) Specific heat capacity (P) mass of matter

(B) Latent heat (Q) Nature of matter

(C) Heat capacity (R) Temperature does not change

Mass of water requiring same

(D) Water equivalent (S) heat for same temperature
change as system
(1) (A) → P, (B) → R, (C) → S, (D) → Q
(2) (A) → Q, (B) → Q,R, (C) → P,Q, (D) → S
(3) (A) → R, (B) → S, (C) → Q,S (D) → R
(4) (A) → Q, (B) → P, (C) → P, (D) → S

42) A tap supplies water at 10°C and another tap at 100°C. How much hot water must be taken so
that we get 20 kg water at 35°C ?

(1) 7.2 kg
(2) 10 kg
(3) 5.6 kg
(4) 14.4 kg

43) A block of ice at –10ºC is slowly heated and converted to steam at 100ºC. Which of the following
curves represents the phenomenon qualitatively :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
44) A beaker contains 200 g of water. The heat capacity of the beaker is equal to that of 20 g of
water. The initial temperature of water in the beaker is 20°C. If 440 g of hot water at 92°C is poured
in it, the final temperature (neglecting radiation loss) will be nearest to :

(1) 58°C
(2) 68°C
(3) 73°C
(4) 78°C

45) 0.1 m3 of water at 80°C is mixed with 0.3 m3 of water at 60°C. The final temperature of the
mixture is

(1) 65°C
(2) 70°C
(3) 60°C
(4) 75°C

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following is an unsymmetrical bidentate ligand :-

(1) Glycinato
(2) Ethylenediamine
(3) Aqua
(4) Oxalato

2) Smallest C–O bond length is present in :-

(1) [Co(CO)4]
–

(2) [Fe(CO)4]
–2

(3) [Mn(CO)6]
–

(4) [Ni(CO)4]

3) The correct formula of diammine dichlorodicyano chromate (III) ion is :-

(1) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
3+

(2) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
3–

(3) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
(4) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
–

4) Which gives only one mole of AgCl, when reacts with excess AgNO3 :-

(1) One mole PtCl4.4NH3

(2) One mole PtCl4.5NH3
(3) One mole PtCl4.2NH3
(4) One mole PtCl4.3NH3

5) Hybridisation of [Ni(CO)4] will be:-

(1) dsp2
(2) sp3d
(3) sp3d2
(4) sp3

6) Which of the following relation is correct.

(1) If Δ0 < P, confi. = = WFL & high spin complex

(2) If Δ0 > P, confi. = = SFL & Low spin complex

(3) If Δ0 > P, confi. = = SFL & high spin complex

(4) If Δ0 < P, confi. = = SFL & high spin complex

7) Match the following :–

The correct option is :-

(1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R

(2) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(3) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(4) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S

8) The total number of possible coordination isomers for the complex compound [Cu(NH3)4] [PtCl4]

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 4

9)

Isomers are classified as :

(1) (i) fac-Isomer, (ii) mer-Isomer
(2) (i) optical-Isomer, (ii) trans-Isomer
(3) (i) mer-Isomer, (ii) fac-Isomer
(4) (i) trans-Isomer, (ii) cis-Isomer

10)

The number of possible isomers of an octachedral complex [Co(C2O4)2(NH3)2]– is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is :

(1) Grignard's reagent

(2) Ferrocene
(3) Cobaltocene
(4) Ruthenocene

12)

The total no. of chelate rings in [Ni(dmg)2] are:

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) The ion of least magnetic moment (µspin only) among the following is :-

(1) Ti+3
(2) Ni+2
(3) Co+2
(4) Mn+2

14) Which of the following order of oxidising power is correct -

(1) VO2 > Cr2O7 > MnO4

+ 2– –

(2) Cr2O7 > MnO4 > VO2

2– – +
(3) MnO4 > Cr2O7 > VO2
– 2– +

(4) MnO4 > VO2 > Cr2O7

– + 2–

15)

Find the correct relation of pH from the below given reaction :-

(1) pH of x > 7 pH of y < 7

pH of x < 7
(2)
pH of y > 7
pH of x < 7
(3)
pH of y = 7
(4) All are incorrect

16) Which of the following species act as a reducing agent

(1) Ce+4
(2) Lu+3
(3) Eu+2
(4) Tb+4

17) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Ni in the presence of hydrogen (p) Vegetable oil to ghee

(b) V2O5 (q) Haber's process

(c) Finely divided iron (r) contact process

(d) PdCl2 (s) Wacker process

(1) a-p, b-r, c-q, d-s
(2) a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s
(3) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q
(4) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r

18) Find the product Z :-

3HC ≡ CH X Y Z

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

19) What is C :

A B C

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Find the product T :-

P Q R S T

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

21) Find the correct statement.

(1) C and D are homomers

(2) C and D are homologues
(3) A and B are position isomers
(4) C and D are functional group isomers

22) What is product R ?

P Q R

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Ph–Mg–Br I J

K+
Find the incorrect statement :-

(1) L give poisonous gas on oxidation in presence of sunlight and air.

(2) K will give biphenyl on kolbe's electrolysis
(3) J is acetophenone
(4) J is a symmetrical ketone

24) Cis-2-Butene Product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Find the product E :-

A B C D E

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Hinsberg reagent can be used to distinguish between :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

27) Benzaldehyde can't the prepared by which of the following reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Which of the following positive test will be given by both acetophenone and Acetone ?

(1) Sodium bisulphite test

(2) Tollen's test
(3) Iodoform test
(4) CAN test

29) What is Z :-

X Y Z

(1) (CH3)3 C–OH

(2) (CH3)2CHOH

(3)

(4) CH3–CH2–OH

30) Which of the following can not be prepared by Gabriel pthalimide synthesis ?

(1) N - Methyl ethanamine

(2) N, N - Dimethyle propan -2-amine
(3) Aniline
(4) All of these

31) Which of the following is most acidic ?

(1) o - Nitrophenol
(2) m - Nitrophenol
(3) p - Nitrophenol
(4) Phenol

32)

A B
Which is correct statement?

(1) C is more basic than aniline

(2) C is more basic than Benzyl amine
(3) C is less basic than m-Nitro aniline
(4) A is more basic than Aniline

33) Find the correct statement :-

(1) Fructose is Aldohexose

(2) Fructose is epimer of Galactose
(3) Fructose on hydrolysis gives 2 mono saccharides
(4) β-D-fructose will form on hydrolysis of Invert sugar

34) 0.35 gm of an organic compound was analysed by Kjeldhal's method. Ammonia evolved was

absorbed in 100 ml H2SO4. Unused acid required 30 ml NaOH for neutralisation calculate % of
N

(1) 28%
(2) 56%
(3) 56%
(4) 7%

35) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

Separation of
Fractional
(a) aniline-water (i)
distillation
mixture

Distillation
Separation of
under reduced
(b) aniline-chloroform (ii)
pressure
mixture

Separation of
(c) glycerol from (iii) Distillation
spent-lye
 Separation of
(d) different fractions (iv) Steam distillation
of crude oil
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

36) Which of the following name is correct for the major product B. CH4 A B

(1) Methyl cyanide

(2) Acetonitrile
(3) Ethanenitrile
(4) All of these

37) Which of the following is Aromatic Hydrocarbon ?

(1) Furan
(2) Pyrrole
(3) Acrolein
(4) Styrene

38) Which of the following has E-configuration :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) CH3CH2CH2CH2–S–CH2CH3 and (CH3)2CHCH2–S–C2H5 are related as :-

(1) Position Isomers

(2) Metamers
(3) Chain Isomers
(4) Homomers

40) Which amongst the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism ?

(1) Pent-1-ene
(2) 2,3-Dimethylbut-2-ene
(3) 2-Methylprop-1-ene
(4) 3,4-Dimethylhex-3-ene

41) The number of structural isomers possible from the molecular formula C4H11N are :

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 7

42) The most stable enolic form of 2,4-pentanedione is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which is not aromatic compound :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

44) In given reaction, which is non benzenoid structure :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All of these

45) What is relation between A and B.

(1) Functional group Isomer

(2) Metamers
(3) Position Isomers
(4) Not Isomers

BIOLOGY

1)

The ligation of align DNA is carried out at a restriction site present in one of the two antibiotic
resistance genes for example, you can ligate a foreign DNA at the BamH I site in the vector pBR322.
Statement-I : The recombinants will grow in Ampicilline containing medium but not on that
containing tetracycline.
Statement-II : The non-recombinants will grow on medium containing both antibiotics.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

2) RNA interference (RNAi) technique has been devised to protect the plants from nematode. In this
technique mRNA of nematode is silenced by ____ , produced by the host plant

(1) dsDNA
(2) dsRNA
(3) ssRNA
(4) ssDNA

3) The below diagram shows a diagrammatic sketch of maturation of insulin. Select the correct set

of the names labelled A, B, C and D.

(1) A-A-peptide, B-B-peptide, C-Proinsulin, D-Free C-Peptide

(2) A-Proinsulin, B-A-peptide, C-B-peptide, D-free C-Peptide
(3) A-Free C-Peptide, B-A-peptide, C-B-peptide, D-Proinsulin
(4) A-A-peptide, B-B-peptide, C-Free C-peptide, D-Proinsulin

4) In 1983, Eli Lilly an American company, first prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A
and B-chains of the human insulin and introduced them in the plasmids of Escherichia coli to
produce insulin chains. Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by
creating :

(1) Hydrogen bonds

(2) Disulphide bonds
(3) Covalent bonds
(4) Peptide bonds

5) Read the following statements and select the option which have correct statements :-
(A) Bt toxin gene has been cloned from bacteria.
(B) Genetic engineering works only as animals and has not yet been successfully used on plants.
(C) Strains of Bacillus thuringiensis are used in producing bioinsecticidal plants.
(D) Flavr savr tomato has been produced by somatic hybridization.

(1) Statements (A) and (B)

(2) Statements (C)and (D)
(3) Statements (B) and (D)
(4) Statements (A) and (C)

6) Consider the following statements. Which statement is wrong about RNAi ?

(1) RNAi takes place in all prokaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.
(2) This method involves silencing of a specific mRNA.
The source of complementary RNA could be from a mobile genetic element (transposons) that
(3)
replicate via RNA intermediate.
(4) Agrobacterium vectors can be used to transfer gene in host plant which induce RNAi.

7) Select the true statements from the following regarding insulin.

(A) Insulin from animal source, may develop allergy in some patients
(B) Recombinant insulin do not induce unwanted immunological response
(C) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin
(D) Insulin can be administered orally to diabetic patients

(1) A and C only

(2) A and B only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) B, C and D only

8) Select the correct statement :-

(a) Transgenic animals are used for study of complex factors involved in growth such as insulin like
growth factor.
(b) Transgenic animals are specially made to serve as models for human disease so that investigation
of new treatment for disease is made possible.
(c) First transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein-enriched milk containing the human α-1-
antitrypsin.
(d) Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are
used on humans.

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b, d
(3) a, c, d
(4) b, c, d

9) The genetic defect-Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by

(1) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
(2) administering adenosine deaminase activators
(3) introducing bone marrow genes producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages
(4) enzyme replacement therapy
10)

Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : The primary sludge is passed into large aeration tanks where it is constantly agitated
mechanically and air is pumped into it. This allows vigrous growth of useful anaerobic microbes into
flocs.
Statement-II : One the BOD of waster water is reduced significantly, the effluent is then passed
into a setting tank where the bacterial flacs are allowed to sediment this sediment is called activated
sludge.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

11) The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of

(1) Ligases
(2) Restriction enzymes
(3) Probes
(4) Selectable markers

12) Agrobacterium tumefaciens successfully transformed which plant group ?

(1) Monocots
(2) Dicots
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) Monocot & Dicot both

13) Downstream processing does not include :-

(1) Separation & purification of product

(2) Synthesis / formation of product in bioreactor
(3) Addition of preservatives
(4) Clinical trials, if required

14) Match the Column-I with Column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Primers (A) PCR

(ii) Recombinant protein (B) Chilled ethanol C2H5OH

(iii) Precipitation of DNA (C) Gene gun

(iv) Gene transfer (D) Heterologous host

(1) (i) - A, (ii) - D, (iii) - B, (iv) - C
(2) (i) - B, (ii) - A, (iii) - D, (iv) - C
(3) (i) - D, (ii) - A, (iii) - C, (iv) - B
(4) (i) - A, (ii) - B, (iii) - D, (iv) - C

15)

Given below are two statements :

Assertion (A) : The organic farmer holds the view that the eradication of the creatures (Pest) is not
only possible but also undesirable for without them the beneficial predatory and parasitic insects
which depends upon them as food or hosts would not able to survive.
Reason (R) : Trichoderma species are symbiotic fungi that are very common in the root ecosystem.
They are effective biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

16)

Arrange the steps of rDNA technology in correct order:-

I. Extraction of the desired gene product.
II. Amplification of gene of interest.
III. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
IV. Ligation of DNA fragment into vector.

V. Insertion of rDNA into host.

(1) I, II, III, IV, V
(2) V, IV, III, II, I
(3) III, II, IV, V, I
(4) III, IV, II, I, V

17) Which of the following is not a step of PCR :-

(1) Denaturation
(2) Annealing
(3) Extension
(4) Electroporation

18) Gel electrophoresis is used for :-

(1) Construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors

(2) Purification of product
(3) Cutting of DNA into fragments
(4) Separation of DNA fragments according to their size

19) The figure given below is the diagrammatic representation of the [Link] vector pBR322. Which
one of the given options correctly identifies its certain components ?

(1) A - cloning site, B - Ampr gene, C - Ori, D - ROP

(2) A - Selectable marker, B - Cloning site, C - Ori, D - ROP
(3) A - Tetr gene, B - Cloning site, C - ROP, D - Ori
(4) A - Restriction site, B - Ampr gene, C - ROP, D - Ori

20) The diagram below refers to recombinant DNA technology. Identify A to D:

A B C D
(1) EcoRI Hind II DNA ligase Transformation
(2) EcoRI EcoRI DNA ligase Transformation
(3) Hind II EcoRI DNA ligase Transformation
(4) EcoRI EcoRI Transformation DNA ligase
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21)

Match the following columns :-

Column I Column II
(Products) (Produced by)

A Citric Acid i Streptococcus

 Propionibacterium
B Streptokinase ii
sharmanii

Saccharomyces
C Swiss cheese iii
cerevisiae

D Ethanol iv Aspergillus niger

Option
A B C D

(1) iv iii ii i

(2) iv i ii iii

(3) i ii iii iv

(4) ii i iv iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

Ladybird Nitrogen
A. (i)
beetle fixation

B. Mycorrhiza (ii) Bio gas

C. Methanogens (iii) Aphids

D. Rhizobium (iv) Glomus

A B C D

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23)

Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-
 Column-I Column-II

a. 1. Adenovirus

b. 2. Bacteriophage

c. 3. TMV

(1) a—1, b—2, c—3

(2) a—2, b—3, c—1
(3) a—2, b—1, c—3
(4) a—3, b—1, c—2

24) Biogas is produced by anaerobic breakdown of biomass of agricultural waste by methanogenic

bacteria. Biogas is mixture of -

(1) Only CH4

(2) Only CH4 & H2
(3) CH4, CO2 & H2
(4) Only CO2 & O2

25)
A. Only PS-I is present
B. Both PS-I and PS-II are present
C. Enzymatic reactions synthesise sugar.
Choose the correct option for A, B and C :-

(1) only B is correct

(2) only A and B are correct
(3) only A and C are correct
(4) A, B and C are correct

26) To synthesize one molecule of glucose 12 NADPH2 are utilized. How much water molecules are
photolysed for it :-

(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 20
(4) 0

27)

Why T.W. engelmann use aerobic bacteria in his experiment ?

(1) To split light into its spectral components.

(2) To detect the sites of oxygen evolution.
(3) To detect the site of starch formation.
(4) To prove essentialty of sunlight.

28)

Who showed that is only the green part of the plants that could release oxygen ?

(1) Joseph priestley

(2) Jon ingenhousz
(3) Julius von Sachs
(4) Cornelius von Niel

29) Julius von sachs provided evidences for –

(A) Production of glucose when plant grow.
(B) Green substance in plants is located in special bodies.
(C) First action spectrum
(D) Light is essential for photosynthesis.
(E) Glucose is usually stored as starch.

(1) A, B, E
(2) A, C, E
(3) B, C, E
(4) A, B, D

30) When do you think the chloroplast will be aligned with their flat surfaces parallel to the lateral
walls of mesophyll cells?

(1) Under low light intensity

(2) Under high light intensity
(3) Under moderate light intensity
(4) Under very low light intensity

31) The membrane system of chloroplast is not directly involved in :

(1) Trapping the light energy

(2) Synthesis of ATP & NADPH
(3) Enzymatic reactions for synthesis of sugar
(4) Both (1) and (2)

32) Represented below is the graph showing action spectrum of photosynthesis superimposed on
absorption spectrum of chlorophyll 'a'. Which one of the following is correct for this ?

(1) There is a complete one to one overlap between these absorption and action spectrums
By this overlapping it can be concluded that chlorophyll 'a' is the chief pigment of
(2)
photosynthesis
(3) This overlapping shows that only chlorophyll 'a' absorb the entire light energy
(4) These graphs show that photosynthesis occurs only in the wavelengths of blue and red light

33) Assertion : In stroma lamellae, cyclic photophosphorylation is the only means for ATP synthesis.
Reason : In stroma lamellae both PS-II and NADP reductase enzyme are absent.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

34)
Choose the incorrect statement for given diagram

(1) Spiliting of water associated with X

(2) In this process ATP and NADPH both are formed
(3) Y functions in cyclic process.
(4) By this process H+ concentration increase in stroma

35) The common feature between cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation is

(1) Photosystems
(2) Source of electron
(3) Proton gradient
(4) Release of O2

36) ‘Which one of the following is true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through
chemiosmosis? It involves :

(1) Breakdown of electron gradient

(2) Movement of electrons across the membrane to the stroma
(3) Reduction of NADP to NADPH, on the lumen side of the membrane
(4) Breakdown of proton gradient

37) Arrange the following events occurring during chemiosmosis in ascending order.
i. Synthesis of several molecules of ATP by ATP synthase.
ii. Creation of a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane.
iii. Conformational change in the F1 of ATP synthase.
iv. Breakdown of the proton gradient releasing energy.

(1) ii, iii, i, iv

(2) iv, i, iii, ii
(3) i, ii, iii, iv
(4) ii, iv, iii, i

38)

The colour that we see in leaves is -

(1) Not due to single pigment

(2) Due to single pigment
(3) Due to only chlorophyll pigment
(4) Not due to many pigments

39)

In photosynthesis, Hydrogen from a suitable _______reduces carbon dioxide to carbohydrate.

(1) Oxidisable compound

(2) Reducible compound
(3) Sugar
(4) Organic compound
40)

How many of given pigments are included in antennae ?

Chlorphyll-a, chlorophyll-b, xanthophylls, carotenoids

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

41)

What is the location of primary electron acceptor of photosystem-II

(1) Inside lumen

(2) Present in transmembrane channel
(3) Inner side of thylakoid membrane
(4) Outer side of thylakoid membrane

42)

Which carries out facilitated diffusion across the thylakoid membrane ?

(1) Plastoquinone
(2) Cytochrome b6–f
(3) CF0 particle
(4) FNR

43)

Electrons from which of the following reduces NADP+ to NADPH + H+ during z-scheme of
photosynthesis

(1) Water
(2) Photosystem-I
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Photosystem-II

44)

Which energy is used to pump proton across thylakoid membrane to create a high concentration of
protons within the thylakoid lumen ?

(1) Breakdown of proton gradient

(2) Light energy
(3) ATP
(4) Diffusion
45)

Membrane bound vesicular structure packed by golgy apparatus and filled with Hydrolytic enzymes,
are called ?

(1) Contractile vacule

(2) Peroxisomes
(3) Lysosomes
(4) Food vacoules

46) Statement-I :- The relative rates of photosynthesis at different wavelengths of light is called
action spectrum.
Statement-II :- The action spectrum of photosynthesis resembles roughly the absorption spectra of
chlorophyll a and b.

(1) Statement I and statement II, both are correct

(2) Statement I and statement II, both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

47) German Botanist who examined a large number of plants and observed that all plants are
composed of different kind of cells, which form the tissue in the plants :-

(1) Schwann
(2) Mathias Schleiden
(3) Rudolf Virchow
(4) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek

48)

Cisternae are found in -

(1) Mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum and golgi bodies
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum and golgi bodies
(4) Golgi bodies and peroxisomes

49) Identify structure A,B,C and D in given diagram :-

A B C D
 Peripheral Central Radial Central
(1)
microtubule sheath spoke microtubule

Interdoublet Central Central Central

(2)
bridge microtubule sheath bridge

Interdoublet Central Radial Central

(3)
bridge sheath spoke microtubule

Interdoublet Radial Central Central

(4)
bridge spoke sheath microtubule
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

50) Which are found not only in the cytoplasm but also with in the two organelles ?

(1) Golgi bodies

(2) Ribosomes
(3) Centriole
(4) Mitochondria

51) Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the folloing cells in an ascending order of their size
and select the correct option :
(i) Mycoplasma (ii) Ostrich eggs (iii) Human RBCs (iv) Bacteria

(1) i → iv → iii → ii
(2) i → ii → iii → iv
(3) ii → i → iii → iv
(4) iii → ii → i → iv

52) Which one of the following does not differ in prokaryotic cell and Eukaryotic cell?

(1) Cell wall

(2) Cell membrane
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Chromosomal Organization

53) Phospholipids are arranged with in the cell membrane with the :-

(1) Polar head towards the inner sides and tail towards the outer sides
(2) Polar head towards the inner sides and tail towards the inner sides
(3) Polar head towards the outer sides and tail towards the inner sides
(4) Polar head towards the outer sides and tail towards the outer sides

54) How many statements of the following are true regarding the figure given below ?
 A. It forms network of reticulum of tiny tubular structures scattered in cytoplasm.
B. Ribosomes are attached on SER surface.
C. It divides intercellular compartment in two region
D. It is extensive and continuous with outer membrane of nucleolus.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two

55) Membrane proteins can be classified as integral or peripheral on the basis of?

(1) Configuration
(2) Function
(3) Ease of Extraction
(4) Diffusion

56) Read the following statements :-

(A) Presence of DNA
(B) Presence of cristae
(C) Presence of ribosomes
(D) Enzymes for carbohydrate synthesis
(E) Site for oxidative phosphorylation
How many of the above statements are common for both mitochondria and chloroplast ?

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

57)

Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Mitochondria divide by fission

(2) The concentration of ions in plant cells is higher in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm
(3) The vacuole is bound by a pair of membranes called tonoplast
(4) The enzymes of lysosome are active at acidic pH
58) Study the following diagram carefully and identify the correct match

(1) C = Stromal lamella

(2) E = Stroma
(3) C = Granum
(4) 2 & 3 Both

59) The stroma of chloroplast contains enzymes required for :-

(1) Oxidation of carbohydrates

(2) Synthesis of carbohydrates and protein
(3) Synthesis of protein only
(4) Aerobic respiration

60) Svedberg's unit stand for :

(1) indirectly measure of density only

(2) indirectly measure of size only
(3) indirectly measure of density and size
(4) indirectly measure of shape

61) Centriole arises :-

(1) From pre existing centriole during G2 phase

(2) From pre existing centriole during S phase
(3) De novo
(4) In vitro synthesis

62) Choose the incorrect pair.

(1) Cillium/flagellum–9+2 microtubular arrangement

(2) Axoneme–core of cilium/flagellum
(3) Basal body–centriole like structure
(4) Radial spoke – connect two central microtubules

63) Erythrocytes of many mammals are considered living cell because:-

(1) Nucleus is absent in these cells.

(2) Mitochondria is absent in these cells.
(3) Metabolism occurs in these cells.
(4) Only anaerobic respiration occur in these cells.

64) Assertion : The content of nucleolus is continuous with the rest of the nucleoplasm.
Reason : Nucleolus is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

65) Statement-I : The interphase nucleus has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibres
called chromatin.
Statement-II : During cell division, cells show structured chromosomes in place of the nucleus.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II are incorrect

66) Which of the following is true regarding secondary constriction present in chromosomes?

(1) This is darkly stained part of chromosome

(2) This is present on few chromosomes
(3) Position of it is highly variable
(4) Sometime kinetochore is present on it

67) The centriole undergoes dupication during....(i)...of cell cycle and begins to move towards
opposite pole of the cell during the...(ii)... of cell cycle. Choose the correct option :-

(1) (i) Interphase (ii) M phase

(2) (i) S phase (ii) Anaphase
(3) (i) G1 phase (ii) Prophase
(4) (i) Anaphase (ii) Prophase

68) How many chromosomes will the cell have at G1, after S and after G2 phase, if gamete formed by
it has 8 chromosome.

(1) 16, 16, 16

(2) 16, 16, 8
(3) 8, 8, 8
(4) 8, 16, 16

69) Incorrect about telophase of meiosis-I is -

(1) Nuclear membrane reappears

(2) Nucleolus reappears
(3) Reverse prophase-I
(4) In many cases chromosomes do undergo complete dispersion.

70) Which of the following event occur in given figure ?

(1) Disappearance of GB, ER and nuclear membrane

(2) Chromosomal material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes
(3) Division of centromere at the last of this phase
(4) Both (1) and (2)

71) A cell examined during prophase of cell cycle contained 100 chromatids and 50 chromosomes.
What would be the number of chromatids and chromosomes in anaphase of this cell cycle?
(including both poles)

(1) 200 chromatids & 100 chromosomes

(2) 100 chromatids & 50 chromosomes
(3) 100 chromatids & 100 chromosomes
(4) 50 chromatids & 25 chromosomes

72) Identify the given figure and find out correct event of the given phase.

(1) Anaphase - Chromosome moves towards opposite poles.

(2) Metaphase - Homologous chromosome separates
(3) Transition to metaphase - Chromosome moves towards equator plate
(4) Prophase - Chromatin decondense

73) Read the option carefully and find out the correct sequence :
(i) Synapsis is pairing of homologous chromosome.
(ii) Synthesis of RNA and Protein.
(iii) Action of enzyme Recombinase.
(iv) Centromeres do not separate but chromosomes move towards opposite poles.

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) iv, iii, i, ii
(3) iii, ii, iv, i
(4) ii, i, iii, iv

74) Select the incorrect statement regarding S-phase of interphase

(1) Occurs between G1 and G2.

(2) DNA replicates in the nucleus.
(3) Centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm.
(4) As DNA is doubled, number of chromosomes also doubles.

75) Statement-I : The stage between two meiotic divisions is called interkinesis & is short lived
generally.
Statement-II : Interkinesis is followed by prophase II, a much complex prophase than prophase-I.

(1) I is true; II is false

(2) Only II is true.
(3) Both statements are true.
(4) Both statements are false.

76)

Which of the following statement is incorrect for nucleus ?

(1) Outer membrane usually remains continuous with endoplasmic reticulum.

(2) Nuclear pores are formed by the fusion of its two membranes.
Movement of RNA and protein molecules takes place in one direction from nucleus to
(3)
cytoplasm.
(4) Material of nucleus stained by basic dye.

77) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
Filaments of
stamens
A. Polyadelphous I. united into
more than two
bundles
B. Syncarpous II. Sterile stamen
Stamens are
C. Staminode III. attached to
the petals
Carpels are
D. Epipetalous IV.
fused

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

78) Epitepalous and epipetalous conditions are respectively found in :-

(1) Pea and Tomato

(2) Lily and Tomato
(3) Tomato and Lily
(4) Gram and Groundnut

79) Variation in the length of filament within a flower occurs in.

(1) Salvia & Tomato

(2) Salvia & Mustard
(3) Mustard & Potato
(4) Mustard & Tomato

80) In Argemone, which of the following type of placentation is present ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

81) The gynoecium consists of many fused pistils in flowers of :-

(1) Rose
(2) Mustard
(3) Michelia
(4) Lotus
82) Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destined to form root when the seed

germinates.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

83) What would be correct floral formula for above structure.

(1) ⊕ K4C(4)A2+4G1
(2) ⊕ K2+2C4A6G2

(3) ⊕ K2+2C4A2+4G(2)

(4) % K4C4A6G(2)

84) List some of the plants is given below:

Tomato, Potato, Soyabean, Triticum, Atropa, Petunia, Mustard
Out of them, how many plants possesses swollen placenta, bicarpellary gynoecium, superior ovary
and axile placentation ?

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Two

85)

In which type of placentation, ovules are present on central axis ?

(1) Marginal
(2) Free central
(3) Axile
(4) Both (2) and (3)

86) Which of the following is not a floral character of the family solanaceae ?

(1) Calyx - Sepals five, gamosepalous; valvate aestivation

(2) Corolla - Petal five, gamopetalous; valvate aestivation
(3) Gynoecium - Bicarpellary syncarpous, Superior ovary
(4) Androecium - Ten, Monoadelphous, Epipetalous stamen

87) After meiosis-II, the resultant daughter cells have-

(1) Same amount of DNA as in the parent cell in S phase

(2) Twice the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete
(3) Half the amount of DNA is comparison to parent cell
(4) Same amount of DNA as in the parent cell.

88) How many given below structures commonly found in both cillia and centrioles ?
Radial spokes, Hub, Central sheath, Plasma membrane, Peripheral microtubules, Central
microtubules.

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Four

89) Statement-I: Modern solar energy research includes basic studies that are rooted in calvin's
established principles of photosynthesis.
Statement-II: Calvin proposed that plants change light energy to chemical energy by transferring
an electron in an organised array of pigment molecules and other substances.

(1) Only statement-I is correct

(2) Only statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

90) Statement-I: The excitation of electrons in the reaction centre of PS-I is completely dependent
upon and happens only after the physical arrival of electrons from PS-II through the cytochromes.
Statement-II: When only light of wavelengths beyond 680 nm is available, only cyclic
photophosphorylation occurs.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 1 2 1 2 1 3 3 2 1 2 3 4 2 3 1 1 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 2 4 1 2 3 1 2 4 2 4 3 1 1 4 3 2 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 1 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 4 4 4 1 3 4 1 3 1 4 1 3 1 3 1 2 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 4 2 4 4 2 3 1 4 3 3 4 1 3 4 4 4 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 2 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 2 2 4 1 3 2 3 3 2 2 2 1 3 3 4 4 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 3 4 2 2 2 1 2 3 2 1 4 3 4 4 1 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 2 2 3 1 2 3 3 2 1 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 3 2 1 2 1 1 4 4 3 3 4 4 1 3 4 2 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 3 3 4 4 3 2 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Take

For loop (A)

For loop (B)

For loop (C)

For loop (D)

B>A>C=D

2)
As shown, the time after which velocity of particle becomes antiparallel is :
T = 2t1 + 2t2

3)
⇒

B1 and B2 are in opposite directions, hence resultant field at centre is zero.

4)
rA > rB

So
mAvB > mBvB

5) loop = 1

loop = 2

loop = 3

loop = 4

6)

, but R = Rα then K = K' = 1 MeV.

7) Let L be the length of the wire. Then L = 2πr

where r is the radius of the circular loop or

Area of the loop,

Magnetic moment, or

8)
 By using e =

For part AO

For part OC

9)

By using KVL

VA – iR + E – ⇒ VB – VA = 15 volt

10)

We know that for step down transformer

VP > VS

But ∴ iS > iP

Current in secondary coil is greater than the primary.

11)

12)

Energy of inductor (i) of initial ⇒ Current i =

13)

14) Explain question:

For what angle emerges ray will be parallel to given incoming ray.
Concept : Combination of plane mirrors.
Solution: When two plane mirrors are placed perpendicular to each other then for any angles
of incidence between 0° to 90°, the incoming ray and emerges rays are parallel to each other.
Final answer: option (4)

15) Explain question: We have to find net deviation of the ray.

Concept: Deviation By plane mirror
Solution:​​

δ1 = 180 – 2 × 30 = 120° ............ (1)

δ2 = 180 – 2 × 10 = 160° ............ (2)
∴ δnet = 120 + 160 = 280°
Final answer: option (280°)

16) Erect enlarged image is formed by only concave mirror.

17)

In the first case. Let x be the distances of object from the mirror. Then
u = –x
v = +2x
f = –f

using

or or
In the second case, let y be the distance of object from the mirror. Then
u = –y, v = –2y
and f = –f

So

Therefore
So, object will have to be moved by a distance of y-x or f.
18)

Question Explanation: Asking about: Longitudinal magnification of a rod placed on the

principal axis of a concave mirror.
Concept: Mirror formula and longitudinal magnification.
Solution:

According to the given information as shown in the figure:

UA = , VA = ? , fconcave =
Now, Using mirror equation

So that, image length will be:

Li =
Li = 3f
Li = f

and as given , Lo =
∴ Longitudinal magnification will be,

mL = 2
Final answer : Option(1)

19) Here, u = –20 cm, f = –15 cm

⇒ v = –60 cm, u = –20 cm

∴ = –3cm
or |m| = 3cm
Each side of the square is now 3 cm,
area = 9 cm2
OR
AI = mT A0 = 9 × 1 = 9 cm
2 2

20)

Explain Question : Find angle turned by the reflected ray.

Concept : This question is based on Rotation of plane mirror.
Solution : Diagram:

When mirror turned by (θ) 10° reflected ray turned 20° (2θ) same as direction of mirror clock
wise.
when incident ray turned 5° (c. w.) than reflected turned 5° (a. c. w)
r = 20 – 5 = 15° c. w.
Final Answer : option (1)

21)

Explain the question : A light ray enters from air (n1 = 1) into three layers with refractive
indices n2 = √3, n3 = √2, n4 = 2, starting with an incident angle of 45°. The required angle
made with the normal inside the n3 = √2 medium is to be found.
Concept : This question is based on refraction (Snell’s Law and angle calculation).
Formula : n1sinθ1 = n3sinθ3
Solution :
Incident angle θ1 = 45°, n1 = 1, n3 = √2
So, 1 × sin(45°) = √2 × sinθ3
sin(45°) = 1/√2, thus 1/√2 = √2 × sinθ3
sinθ3 = 1/(√2 × √2) = 1/2
θ3 = 30°
Final answer : 1

22)

23) Question Explanation: We have to find angle of refraction.

Concept: Lateral shift from slab

Formula:
Solution: Given:
i = 45° ,

tan r =

r = tan–1
Final Answer: Option (2)

24)

QUESTION EXPLANATION
There are three optical media, A, B, and C, with critical angles C1, C2, and C3, respectively.
Total internal reflection occurs from A to B and from B to C, but not from C to A. We need to
determine the correct relation between the critical angles.
CONCEPT
Total internal reflection and the condition for critical angles
FORMULA
Total internal reflection occurs when the incident angle inside the denser medium is greater
than the critical angle.
SOLUTION
Total internal reflection occurs from A to B: This implies that the refractive index of A is
greater than that of B, so C2 > C1.
Total internal reflection occurs from B to C: This implies that the refractive index of B is
greater than that of C, so C3 > C2.
No total internal reflection occurs from C to A: This implies that the refractive index of C is
less than that of A, so C3 > C1.
Thus, C3 > C2 > C1.

FINAL ANSWER : Option (4)

25) Explain Question:

From the δ - i graph of a prism, the minimum deviation is given as 30°, and the corresponding
angle of incidence is 45°. We must find the refractive index of the prism.

Concept:
Prism at minimum deviation.

Formula:
μ = sin((A +δm)/2) / sin (A/2)
Solution:

From graph δmin = 30°; i = 45° & e = 45°

As δmin = i + e – A
⇒ A = 45 + 45 – 30 = 60°

Final answer: option (1)

26) A = 60° = 2r
i = 45
δm = 2i – A
= 90 – 60 = 30°
sin45° = μ sin30°

27) ω =

28)

μ=

29) Question Explanation:

to calculate the velocity of image if object is moving with 5m/s towards the mirror (concave)

Concept:
Velocity of image in spherical mirrors.

Solution:
Final Answer: (2).

30) Explain Question:

A plane glass sheet is placed over pictures of different colours.
Due to refraction, each picture appears raised by an amount depending on the refractive index
of glass for that colour.
We must find which colour appears least raised.

Concept:
Apparent depth and dispersion

FORMULA
Shift = t(1 - 1/µ)

Solution:
The apparent upward shift depends on refractive index µ.
smaller µ ⇒ smaller shift ⇒ picture appears least raised
For glass: µred < µyellow < µgreen < µviolet
.

Hence red light undergoes the least apparent shift.

Final answer: Option (4)

31) Shifting =
Shifting = 2 cm

32)
33)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

34) Correct Ray diagram is :

35) Explanation : The question asks what a temperature difference of 25°C is equivalent to in
other units of temperature.
Concept : A temperature difference (such as a change in temperature) is the same in both
Celsius (°C) and Kelvin (K) because the difference between two temperatures is independent
of the unit scale.
The difference in temperature in Celsius is numerically equivalent to the difference in
temperature in Kelvin.

Formula :

× 25= 45°F

36)
5[F–32] = –1647
F = – 329.4 + 32
297 °F

37)

Strain developed :

ε = αΔT = (12 × 10–6) (50) = 6 × 10–4

38) Explain the Question : Volume change for ΔT = 20 °C. Find α
(coefficient of linear expansion).
Concept : This question is based on relation between volume expansion coefficient γ and

linear expansion coefficient α : γ = 3α and .

Solution :

0.0012 = γ × 20
γ = 6 × 10–5

Final Answer : (2)

39)

Expansion of al is more than expansion of Fe (αAl > αFe)

40) Seperation between points on plate increases due to thermal expansion.

Centre of mass will not move without external force.

41) Specific heat & latent heat are only material dependent.
Also concept of latent heat is used during state change during which temperature remains
constant.
Heat capacity C = ms depends both on mass (m) & material (as & depends on it).

42) m × (100 – 35) × 1 = (20 – m) × (35 – 10) × 1

or 65m = 500 – 25m
or 90m = 500

∴ m= ≡ 5.6 kg.

43)

Question Explanation : Ice at -10°C is heated slowly till it becomes steam at 100°C. We
have to choose the correct temperature vs heat supplied graph.

Concept: This question is based on Temperature increases in one phase and stays constant
during phase change.

Solution:

Ice -10°C → 0°C Temperature increases → sloping line up

Melting at 0°C Temperature constant → horizontal line

Water 0°C → 100°C Temperature increases → sloping line up

 Boiling at 100°C Temperature constant → horizontal line

Most suitable graph is given in option (1)

Final Answer : Option (1)

44)

Heat lost = Heat gained

440 × 1 × [92 – x] = 200 × 1 [x – 20] + 20 × 1 [x – 20]
⇒ x = 68°C

45)

Qrel = Qab (m = vρ)

m1s1(T1 – Tm) = m2s2(Tm–T2)
0.1 × 1(80 – Tm) = 0.3 × 1 (Tm – 60)
80 – Tm = 3Tm = 180
4Tm = 260
Tm = 65ºC

CHEMISTRY

46)

Question Explanation:
The question asks to identify an unsymmetrical bidentate ligand among the given options.

Concept:
This question is based on Bidentate Ligands, Symmetry in Ligands.

Solution:
An unsymmetrical bidentate ligand has two different donor atoms;

(1) Glycinato
(2) Ethylenediamine

(3) Aqua H2O monodentate.

(4) Oxalato (C2O42–)

Final Answer: Option (1)

47) Minimum synergic bonding smallest C–O bond.

48)

NCERT, Pg # 243

49) Question Explanation: Only ionizable (free) Cl⁻ ions give AgCl with AgNO₃.
Coordinated Cl⁻ does not react. Concept: Werner's theory Solution: Number of AgCl formed
= number of free Cl⁻ ions outside coordination sphere. PtCl₄·nNH₃ forms complexes like:
PtCl₄·4NH₃ → [Pt(NH₃)₄Cl₂]1 Cl2 → 2 free Cl⁻ PtCl₄·5NH₃ → [Pt(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₃ → 3 free Cl⁻ → 3
AgCl PtCl₄·2NH₃ → [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl4] → 0 free Cl⁻ → 2 AgCl PtCl₄·3NH₃ → [Pt(NH₃)₃Cl₃]Cl → 1 free
Cl⁻ → 1 AgCl Final Answer: Option (4)

50)

NCERT, Pg # 248

51)

If Δ0 < P, confi. = = WFL & high spin complex

52)

NCERT, Pg # 249

53) Question Explain: Find number of coordination isomers for given complex.

Concept: Coordination isomerism

Solution: There are 4 possible coordination isomers.

 A. [Cu(NH₃)₄][PtCl₄]
B. [Cu(NH₃)₃Cl][Pt(NH₃)Cl₃]
C. [Pt(NH₃)₃Cl][Cu(NH₃)Cl₃]
D. [Pt(NH₃)₄][CuCl₄]

Final Answer: Option (4)

54)

Explanation Question : Classify the given coordination complex isomers as fac or mer

Concept : This question is based on Isomerism.

Solution :
(i) is fac - isomer (Three identical ligands (Cl in this Case) Occupy positions at the corners of
one face of octahedron – all 90°)
(ii) is meridional (mer) isomer (two Cl are frans to each other, and the third is 90° to both
forming a meridional plane.

Final Answer : option (1) (i) fac-Isomer, (ii) mer-Isomer

55)

[Co(C2O4)2(NH3)2]–
have 2 geometrical & 1 optical isomer.

56)

57)

2 due to chelation & 2 due to H-bond.

58) Question Explanation: Identifying the ion with the least spin-only magnetic moment.
Concept: Spin-Only Magnetic Moment and Unpaired Electrons.
Solution: The least magnetic moment (μs​) corresponds to the
minimum number of unpaired electrons (n).

A. Ti+3(3d1):n=1. (Least).
B. Ni+2(3d8):n=2.
C. Co+2(3d7):n=3.
D. Mn+2(d5):n=5. Final Answer: Ti+3
Ti
+3
has 3d configuration
1

It has 1 unpaired electrons

According to formula
[μ = magnetic moment, n = no. of unpaired electrons]
=
=
= 1.73 B.M.
and Ni+2 (3d8) has 2 unpaired electrons
Co+2 (3d7) has 3 unpaired electrons
and Mn+2 (3d5) has 5 unpaired electrons

59) Question Explanation: Identifying the correct order of oxidizing power.

Concept: Oxidizing Power and Oxidation State Trend.
Solution: Oxidizing power increases with the oxidation state of the central metal. V in VO2+​ is
+5.
Cr in Cr2​O7 ​ is +6.
2−

Mn in MnO4−​ is +7.
Final Answer: MnO4− ​> Cr2​O72−​>VO2+​.

60)

The equilibrium between the orange dichromate ion and the yellow chromate ion is:
Cr2​O72−​+ H2​O ⇌ 2CrO42−​ + 2H+
Reaction x (Cr2​O72−​→ CrO42−​) : To convert the orange dichromate to the yellow chromate, the
equilibrium must shift to the right, which is favored by reducing the concentration of H+
(Le Chatelier's principle). This requires an alkaline medium (addition of base). Thus, pH of
x>7.
Reaction y (CrO42−​→ Cr2​O72−​) : To convert the yellow chromate back to the orange
dichromate, the equilibrium must shift to the left, which is favored by increasing the
concentration of H+ (Le Chatelier's principle). This requires an acidic medium (addition of
acid). Thus, pH of y<7. The correct relation is pH of x>7 and pH of y<7.
Final Answer: pH of x>7 pH of y<7 (Option 1).

61)

NCERT, Pg. # 235

62) Explaining the question : The question asks you to match the catalysts listed in Column-
I with the industrial or named reactions in Column-II where they are primarily used.
Concept : Application of d block elements
Solution : (a) Ni with hydrogen catalyzes the hydrogenation of vegetable oils to ghee, so (a) -
(p).
(b) Vanadium(V) oxide (V2​O5​) is the catalyst in the Contact process for sulfuric acid production,
thus (b) - (r).
(c) PdCl2 is used in Wacker's process.
63)

3HC ≡ CH

64)

65)

66)

67)

68)

Ph Mg Br

69)

Cis Racemic mixture

70)

71)

Hinsberg reagent is used to distinguish between 1o, 2o, 3o amines.

72)

73) (Both have a-CH3 groups)

74)

75)

Gabriel pthalimide synthesis method is used to prepare aliphatic 1o amine only.

76)

Intramolecular H-boinding

77)
78)

Theoretical

79) W=0.35 gm → NH3

↓

100 ml H2SO4 (10 ml N H2SO4)

↓

30 ml NaOH (3 ml N NaOH)
Remaining acid 3ml N H2SO4
Consumed acid (10 ml N – 3ml N) = 7 ml N H2SO4

% of N = × NV = × 1 × 7 = 28 %

80)

Theoretical

81)

Theoretical

82)

Theoretical

83)

no solution

84)

Theoretical

85)

Explain the Question : The question asks which compound can exhibit geometrical
 (cis/trans) isomerism.
Concept : This question is based on geometrical isomerism, Restricted rotation of C = C,
Different groups on double bond carbons.
Solution : Restricted rotation of C = C, Different groups on double bond carbons

Geometrical
Compound Groups on C = C Reason
Isomerism ?

One C = C carbon has two Same groups → no

Pent-1-ene No
H isomerism

Each C = C carbon has Symmetry prevents

2, 3–Dimethylbut-2-ene No
identical groups (CH3) isomerism

One C = C carbon has two Same groups → no

2-Methylprop-1-ene No
H isomerism

Each C = C carbon has Different substituents → cis

3, 4-Dimethylhex-3-ene Yes
different groups /trans possible

Final answer : 4
OR
Theoretical

86)

Theoretical

87) Explanation: Identifying the most enolic form.

Concept: Tautomerism and Enolisation
Solution: The most enolic form of 2,4-pentanedione is the one that is stabilized by
intramolecular hydrogen bonding and resonance. The structure in option B, with a conjugated
double bond and a hydroxyl group, is the most stable enol.

88) Question Explanation: Identifying the non-aromatic compound.

Concept: Aromaticity
Solution: Aromatic compounds are cyclic, planar, fully conjugated, and
have 4n+2 π electrons. The compound in option C, with three fused rings, has 14 π electrons
(n=3), making it aromatic. The compound in option D, with a positive charge, has 6 π electrons
and is aromatic. The compound in option A, with 8 π electrons, is anti-aromatic. However, it is
non-planar to avoid anti-aromaticity, making it non-aromatic.
Calculation: N/A
Final Answer: 1

89)

Theoretical

90)
 Theoretical

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT, Pg. # 169

92) Question explanation:

To identify which molecule produced by the host plant silences nematode mRNA in RNA
interference.
Concept:
RNA interference (RNAi)
Solution:
In RNAi, the host plant produces double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) corresponding to nematode
genes. This dsRNA triggers degradation of nematode mRNA, thereby silencing gene
expression and protecting the plant.
Final Answer:
Option (2)

93) Question explanation:

The task is to identify the various stages and components involved in the maturation of insulin
from its precursor form as shown in the provided diagram.
Concept:
Maturation of Insulin.
Solution:
A represents Proinsulin: This is the immature, inactive form of the hormone. It contains three
chains: A-peptide, B-peptide, and an extra stretch called the C-peptide. B and C represent the
A-peptide and B-peptide: In mature insulin, these two chains are linked together by disulfide
bonds (S-S bonds). In the diagram, the shorter chain (B) and the longer chain (C) together
constitute the functional mature insulin.
D represents the Free C-Peptide: During maturation, the C-peptide is enzymatically removed.
This C-peptide is not present in mature, functional insulin that is secreted into the blood.
Following the labels in the diagram:
A is the whole molecule (Proinsulin).
B is the A-peptide.
C is the B-peptide.
D is the removed C-peptide (Free C-Peptide).
Final Answer:
Option (2)

94) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 179, 180

95) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 208,209

96)
The incorrect statement is 1.
RNAi takes place in all prokaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.
Explanation: RNAi is a mechanism found primarily in eukaryotic organisms (plants, animals,
fungi, etc.). It's a highly specific gene silencing process that plays a role in development,
defense against viruses, and regulation of gene expression. While prokaryotes have some
related systems, RNAi as it's typically understood is a eukaryotic system.

97) NCERT XII, Page # 211

98) NCERT-XII, Page # 213 (12.3)

99)

NCERT Pg. # 182

100)

NCERT Pg. # 154

101)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 195

102) Explaining the Question :- The question is asking about which group of plants can be
successfully transformed using Agrobacterium tumefaciens?
Concept:- Agrobacterium tumefaciens and Plant Transformation.
Solution :- Agrobacterium tumefaciens naturally infects and transforms dicot plants by
transferring part of its DNA (T-DNA) into the plant genome.
Final Answer :- (2) Dicots

103) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 204, 205

104) Question Explanation : Match molecular biology terms in Column I with their correct
application in Column II.
Concept : Biotechnology principle and process.
Solution : Primers → short DNA sequences used in PCR.
Seperation and purification of products → downstream processing.
Precipitation of DNA → done with chilled ethanol.
Gene transfer → gene gun method.
So correct Match is - (i) - A, (ii) - D, (iii) - B, (iv) - C
Final Answer : Option (1)

105)

NCERT Pg. # 157

106) Question explanation: Asks to arrange the steps of recombinant DNA technology.

Concept: Steps of recombinant DNA technology

Solution: The correct order of steps of RDT are –

(I) Isolation of DNA fragment
(II) Amplification of gene of interest.
(III) Ligation of DNA fragments into vector
(IV) Insertion of r-DNA into tied..
(V) Extraction of desired gene product.

Final Answer: III, II, IV, V, I

107)

In PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction), the steps involved are:

1. Denaturation: The DNA template is heated to separate the two strands.
2. Annealing: The temperature is lowered to allow primers to bind to the complementary
sequences of the DNA strands.
3. Extension: The DNA polymerase synthesizes the new DNA strand by adding nucleotides.
Electroporation is not a step in PCR.

108) Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to separate DNA fragments based on their
size. The DNA fragments are loaded into a gel matrix, and when an electric current is applied,
smaller fragments move faster, allowing for their separation and analysis.

109)

NCERT XII Pg # 169, Fig 9.4

110) NCERT Pg. # 197

111) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 183

112)

Explain the Question : This question asks about matching organisms with their correct roles
or associations.
Concept : This question is based on organisms and their ecological roles.
Solution :
A. Ladybird beetle → feeds on aphids → (iii)
B. Mycorrhiza → represented by Glomus → (iv)
C. Methanogens → involved in biogas production → (ii)
D. Rhizobium → involved in nitrogen fixation → (i)
Final answer : 2
113)

Explain Question : The question asks you to match viral images (Column I) with their correct
names (Column II). The correct pairing requires identifying the virus based on its structure.
Concept : This question is based on bacteriophage: Virus that infects bacteria, with a distinct
head, collar, sheath, base plate, and tail fibers.
Adenovirus: Icosahedral (polyhedral) capsid, infects animals (including humans, causes
respiratory diseases).
TMV (Tobacco Mosaic Virus): Rod-shaped virus that infects tobacco and other plants; capsid
made of protein subunits with helical arrangement around RNA.
Explanation : a : Has head, sheath, and tail fibers → Bacteriophage → (2)
b: Polyhedral shape (icosahedral) → Adenovirus → (1)
c: Rod-shaped with spiral arrangement → TMV → (3)
Final answer : 3

114)

NCERT XII Pg. # 185,186

115)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify which statements about the labeled parts of
the chloroplast (A, B, and C) are correct.
Concept : Where does Photosynthesis take place?
Solution:

A: Stroma lamellae: Only PS-I is present

B: Grana : Both PS-I and PS-II are present
C: Stroma : Site of enzymatic reactions synthesizing sugar (Calvin cycle)
So, the correct answer is: 4.
Final answer: option (4)

116)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 136

117)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 137

118)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 138

119)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the correct statements among the given
options that represent the key scientific contributions and evidence provided by the botanist
Julius von Sachs.

Concept : This question is based on Early Experiments.

Solution :
(A) Production of glucose when plant grows - Yes
Sachs showed that plants synthesize organic compounds like glucose during growth, which is
a result of photosynthesis.
(B) Green substance in plants is located in special bodies - Yes
He was the first to show that chlorophyll is located in specialized structures (chloroplasts) in
cells.
(E) Glucose is usually stored as starch - Yes
Sachs proved that starch is the storage form of photosynthetic products like glucose in leaves.

Final Answer : option (1)

120)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 136

121)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 136

122)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 137

123)

Explain Question – The question is about cyclic photophosphorylation in stroma lamellae and
whether the reason given correctly explains why ATP is synthesized there.

Concept – Photosynthesis in Higher Plants- Light reaction of photosynthesis

Solution –

A. Assertion: True → Only cyclic photophosphorylation occurs in stroma lamellae.

B. Reason: True → PS-II and NADP reductase are absent, which is why non-cyclic
photophosphorylation cannot occur here.

C. Absence of PS-II and NADP reductase is the reason only cyclic photophosphorylation
occurs.

Final answer – Option 1

124)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 139

125)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 140

126)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 142

127)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 141, 142

128)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 137

129)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 135

130)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 138

131)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 141

132)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 142

133)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 139

134)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 142

135)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

136) NCERT, Pg # 135,137

137)

Explain Question : The question asks about the German botanist who studied many plants
and concluded that all plants are made of different kinds of cells that form tissues.
Concept : This question is based on Cell Theory
Explanation : Matthias Schleiden – He was a German botanist who concluded that all plants
are composed of cells.
Final answer : 2

138)

NCERT Pg # 95

139) Explain the Question : to identify four labeled parts (A, B, C, D) in a typical 9+2
axoneme diagram of cilia/flagella.
Concept : This question based on cilia/flagella.
Explanation :
A usually points to the link between adjacent peripheral doublets → Interdoublet bridge
B points to the covering around the central pair → Central sheath
C points to the projections from doublets toward the center → Radial spoke
D points to one of the two central microtubules → Central microtubule
Final Answer : Option 3

140) NCERT Pg # 126 (E)

141)

Question Explanation: The question is asking to arrange different cells (Mycoplasma,

Ostrich egg, Human RBCs, Bacteria) in ascending order of their size.

Concept:– Cell Size and Shape

Solution:

A. Mycoplasma: Smallest cell (~0.1 µm).

B. Bacteria: Larger than Mycoplasma (~ 1-5 µm).

C. Human RBC: About 7 µm. In diameter

D. Ostrich egg: Largest single cell, visible to the naked eye.

 So, the ascending order is: Mycoplasma → Bacteria → Human RBC → Ostrich egg.

Final Answer: 1. i → iv → iii → ii

142)

NCERT XI Pg # 128

143) NCERT-XI Pg. # 131

144) Question Explanation : The question asks how many given statements are true
regarding the structure shown in the figure, which is the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
Concept : Endoplasmic Reticulum
Solution: ER divides the intracellular space into luminal (cisternal) and extraluminal
(cytosolic) compartments.
Final Answer: 3. One

145)

The correct answer is option 3. ease of extraction

A. Membrane proteins are classified as integral or peripheral based on how tightly they are
associated with the membrane and thus how easily they can be extracted:

A. Integral proteins are embedded within the lipid bilayer and often require detergents or
harsh treatments to be removed.

B. Peripheral proteins are loosely attached to the membrane surface and can be extracted
more easily, typically using mild conditions like salt solutions.

146)

Question Explanation: Comparing structural and functional features of two organelles.

Concept: Semiautonomous nature of mitochondria and chloroplast.

Solution: (A) Presence of DNA is Common. Both possess their own circular DNA (extranuclear
DNA).

(B) Presence of cristae is Not Common. Cristae are characteristic infoldings of the inner
membrane of mitochondria. Chloroplasts have thylakoids.

(C) Presence of ribosomes is Common. Both have 70S ribosomes for protein synthesis.

(D) Enzymes for carbohydrate synthesis is Not Common. This mainly occurs in the stroma of
the chloroplast (Calvin cycle).

(E) Site for oxidative phosphorylation is Not Common. This process is confined to the inner
membrane of mitochondria. Chloroplasts perform photophosphorylation.

Therefore, only (A) and (C) are common. The number of common statements is two.

Final Answer: Two

147)

Explaining the question : Identifying the incorrect statement regarding cellular organelles.

Concept : This question tests your knowledge of the characteristics and functions of
mitochondria, vacuoles, and lysosomes.

Solution: The statement about the vacuole being bound by a pair of membranes is incorrect.
It's bound by a single membrane, the tonoplast.

Final Answer: option (3)

The vacuole is bound by a pair of membranes called tonoplast

148)

Explain Question: to identify the correct labels in a diagram related to chloroplast structure.
Concept : This question based on chloroplast.
Explanation :
[Link] (plural: grana) is a stack of thylakoids.
E . Stroma is the fluid matrix surrounding the thylakoids inside the chloroplast.
Final answer : Option 4 2 & 3 Both

149) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 98

150) Explanation:The question asks what the Svedberg unit (S) represents
Concept :ribosome
Solution:Svedberg unit (S) is not a direct measure of weight or size.
It represents the sedimentation coefficient, which depends on density, size, and shape of the
particle.

Final answer : indirectly measure of density and size

151) Explain Question:

The question is asking how and when centrioles arise in the cell cycle.

Concept :
This question is based on Centrioles.
 Explanation

A. Centrioles duplicate in the S phase of the cell cycle.

B. New centrioles always arise from pre-existing centrioles (they cannot form entirely new
in normal conditions).

C. This duplication ensures that each daughter cell receives a pair of centrioles during cell
division.

Final answer : 2
​From a pre-existing centriole during the S phase.

152) NCERT PG No. 137

153) NCERT Pg#138

154) NCERT Page No. 138, 139

155) NCERT (XI) Pg # 138, 139

156)

Explain the Question : The question asks about the characteristics of the secondary
constriction in chromosomes.
Concept : This question based on chromosomes.
Explanation : Secondary constrictions are narrow regions of a chromosome apart from the
primary constriction (centromere).
They are associated with nucleolus organizer regions (NORs), which help form the nucleolus.
Present in only a few chromosomes, not all.
Final Answer : 2 – This is present on few chromosomes

157) NCERT Pg. # 164

158) NCERT XI, Page # 164-165

159) NCERT XI Pg # 169

160)

Question Explanation: Asking about event occur in given figure

Concept: prophase

Solution:
The events listed help identify the phase:

A. (1) Disappearance of Golgi bodies (GB), ER, and nuclear membrane → happens in
prophase

B. (2) Chromosomal material condenses into compact mitotic chromosomes → also

prophase

C. (3) Division of centromere → occurs in anaphase, not this phase

So, the figure must represent prophase, where both (1) and (2) occur.

Final answer: (4) Both (1) and (2)

161) Ncert Pg No: 123, 124

162) NCERT Pg # 165, fig. 10.2(b)

163) NCERT Pg. # 126

164) NCERT XITH- CHAPTER-CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION-PAGE NUMBER-121.S or

synthesis phase marks the period during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
During this time the amount of DNA per cell doubles. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted
as 2C then it increases to 4C. However, there is no increase in the chromosome number; if the
cell had diploid or 2n number of chromosomes at G1 , even after S phase the number of
chromosomes remains the same, i.e., 2n
Incorrect-As DNA is doubled, number of chromosomes also doubles.
Correct-As DNA is doubled, number of chromosomes remains the same.

165) NCERT PG. 169

166)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 100

167) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 64, 65

168) NCERT Page # 75

169) NCERT Pg # 75

170) NCERT Pg # 75

171) NCERT XIth Pg no. # 75

172) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 67

173) Explain Question:

The question asks about the correct floral formula corresponding to the given floral diagram.

Concept:
Brassicaceae

Solution:
Among the options, only one formula correctly shows K2+2, C4, A2+4, and G(2) along with
actinomorphy, which is characteristic of Brassicaceae.

Final answer: Option (3)

174) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 80

175)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 75

176) NCERT, Pg. # 79, 80

177)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 125

178) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 99, 100

179) NCERT, Pg. # 132

180) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 139, 145