BIOTECH

Type: Custom Test Questions: 90 Total Marks: 360 Difficulty: Easy, Medium, Hard

Topics covered

Biology
Biotechnology and its Principles - Principles of Biotechnology, Tools of Biotechnology, Cloning Vector,
Competent Host, Isolation of Genetic Material, PCR, Obtaining Foreign Gene Product, Downstreaming Processing

1. In gel electrophoresis, the separated bands of 5. Which of the following contributed in

DNA are cut out and extracted from the gel piece. popularising the PCR (polymerase chain
The step is called reactions) technique?
(1) Elution (1) Easy availability of DNA template
(2) Sieve effect (2) Availability of synthetic primers
(3) Spooling (3) Availability of cheapdeoxyribonucleotides
(4) Transformation (4) Availability of 'Thermostable' DNA
polymerase
2. Many copies of DNA molecule in a test tube is
produced by 6. Find the incorrect statements from the following:
(1) Polymerase chain reaction (I) If any protein-encoding gene is expressed in a
homologous host, it is called a recombinant
(2) Molecular chain Reaction
protein.
(3) Ephemeral chain reaction
(II) In elution, the separated bands of DNA are
(4) All the above cut out from agarose gel and extracted from the
gel piece.
3. Virus free plants can be formed by
(III) Competent bacterial cells cannot take up the
(1) meristem culture plasmid.
(2) callus culture (IV) Downstream processing and quality control
(3) somatic cell culture testing vary from product to product.
(4) protoplast fusion (V) Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic
engineering for ligating two DNA molecules.
4. When an foreign DNA is ligated in tetracycline (VI) The E. coli cloning vector pBR322 has Ori,
resistant gene, the recombinant antibiotic resistance genes, rop, and several
(1) Become tetracyclic resistant restriction sites.
(2) Will loose tetracyclic resistant (1) I, III, V, VI
(3) Become ampicillin resistant (2) II, III, IV
(4) None of these (3) I, II, III
(4) I, III, V
7. Which of the following is not corretly matched for 10. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of
the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Select the
? option giving correct identification together with
what it represents?
(1) Plant cells- Cellulase
(2) Algae-Methylase
(3) Fungi - Chitinase
(4) Bacteria-Lysozyme

8. Assertion: PCR technique is helpful in detecting

bacterial and viral diseases even when symptoms
of disease are not yet visible

Reason: Very low concentrations of bacteria and

viruses in human body can be detected by
amplification of the nucleic acids using PCR
technique. (1) A-Denaturation at a temperature of about
∘

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and 50 C

Reason is the correct explanation of the (2) B-Denaturation at a temperature of about

Assertion. 98 C separating the two DNA strands
∘

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but (3) A-Annealing with two sets of primers
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(4) C- Extension in the presence of heat stable
Assertion. DNA polymerase
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect 11. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the
Southern hybridization technique does not use:
9. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) Blotting
(1) pBR322 is a lab constructed plasmid (2) PCR
(2) If a foreign DNA ligates at the Bam HI site of (3) Electrophoresis
tetracycline resistance gene in the vector
(4) Autoradiography
pBR322 , the recombinant plasmid loses the
tetracycline resistance due to insertion of 12. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a
foreign DNA radioactive molecule is called
(3) Copy number refers to the number of copies (1) Probe
of plasmid present in a cell (2) Selectable marker
(4) Copy number of plasmid varies from 501000 (3) Vector
per cell (4) Plasmid
13. Select the correct answer 17.
i. Agrobacterium tumifaciens, a pathogen of Origin of The vector requires
several monocot plants. replication is an a selectable
ii. Presence of insert results into insertional essential part of a marker, which
inactivation of the β-galactosidase gene vector and is helps in identifying
(1) Only i is correct responsible for and eliminating
initiating nontransformants
(2) Only ii is correct
replication and selectively
(3) Both are correct
permitting the
(4) None are correct growth of the
transformants.
14. An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually
helps in the selection of
(1) Statement A is correct but Statement B is
(1) Non-competent cells
incorrect.
(2) Competent cells
(2) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is
(3) Non-recombinant cells correct.
(4) Transformed cells (3) Both statements are correct.
15. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the (4) Both Statements are incorrect.
following enzymes is not required?
18. Insertional inactivation is related to
(1) Lysozyme
(1) Gene gun
(2) Ribonuclease
(2) Microinjection
(3) Deoxyribonuclease
(3) Selection of recombinants
(4) Protease
(4) Gel electrophoresis
16. Restriction endonucleases are
19. Rapid antigen test and RT-PCR are the two
(1) Present in mammalian cells for degradation diagnosis test for Covid-19 virus, PCR, a
of DNA when a cell dies. molecular diagnostic tool, stands for
(2) Used in genetic engineering for ligating two (1) Polymerase chain reaction
molecules
(2) Polymerase chain reagent
(3) Synthesized by bacteria as a part of their
(3) Physiological chain reaction
defense mechanism
(4) Physiological chain reagent
(4) Used in in vitro DNA synthesis
20. Read the statements
I. When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the
resultant DNA fragments have the same kind of
sticky ends and these can be join together using
DNA ligases.
II. The bacterial/plant, animal cell is broken with
RNA, proteins, polysaccharides and lipids
(1) I is true, but II is false
(2) I is false, but II is true
(3) I and II are true
(4) I and II are false
21. Which of the following is not correctly matched 24. The restriction endonuclease recognises a
for the organism and its cell wall degrading specific ____in the DNA.
enzyme? (1) Replication nucleotide sequence
(2) Palindromic nucleotide sequence
(1) Algae-Methylase (3) ORI
(2) Bacteria-Lysozyme (4) None of the above
(3) Plant cells- Cellulase
25. A bacterial cell was transformed with a
(4) Fungi - Chitinase
recombinant DNA molecule that was generated
22. All the following statements about Stanley Cohen using a human gene. However, the transformed
and Herbert Boyer are correct but one is wrong. cells did not produce the desired protein.
Which one is wrong? Reasons could be:
(1) They first discovered the technique of gel (1) Human gene may have intron which bacteria
electrophoresis . cannot process
(2) They discovered recombinant DNA (rDNA) (2) Amino acid codons for humans and bacteria
technology, and this marks the birth of are different
modern biotechnology. (3) Human protein is formed but degraded by
(3) They isolated the antibiotic resistance gene bacteria
by cutting out a piece of DNA from the (4) All of the above
plasmid which was responsible for conferring
antibiotic resistance. 26. Which of the following are correct about EcoRI?
(4) They invented genetic engineering by A. Cut the DNA with blunt end
combining a piece of foreign DNA containing
a gene from a bacterium with a bacterial B. Cut the DNA with sticky end
plasmid using the enzyme restriction
C. Recognise a specific palindromic sequence
endonuclease.
D. Cut the DNA between the base G and A when
23. Given below are two statements:
encounters the DNA sequence 'GAATTC'
Statement I : The Indian Government has set up
E. Exonuclease
GEAC, which will make decisions regarding the
validity of GM research. Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
Statement II : Biopiracy is the term used to refer
to the use of bio-resources by native people. (1) B, C, E only
In the light of the above statements, choose the (2) A, D, E only
correct answer from the options given below : (3) A, C, D only
(4) B, C, D only
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 27. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true following the equation
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (1) N
2

(2) 2N
2

(3) 2
n

(4) 2n + 1
28. Match the columns I and II. 32. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium
bromide when viewed under UV radiation,
A. PCR P P. Desired protein appear as:
B. Bioreactors Q. Separation and (1) Yellow bands
C. Recombinant purification (2) Bright orange bands
protein R. Huge culturing
(3) Dark red bands
D. Downstreaming of organisms
(4) Bright blue bands
process S. Amplification of
DNA 33. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
Restriction Enzymes.
(1) A − R, B − P, C − Q, D − S (1) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
(2) A − S, B − R, C − P, D − Q sites.
(2) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(3) A − P, B − R, C − Q, D − S

(3) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA

(4) A − Q, B − P, C − R, D − S
ligases.
29. To isolate DNA form fungal cells, bacterial cells (4) Each restriction enzyme functions by
and plant cells, the enzymes required are inspection of the DNA sequence.
respectively
34. Which one of the following statement is not true
(1) Cellulase, Protease and Lysozyme regarding gel electrophoresis technique?
(2) Lysozyme, Cellulase and Chitinase (1) The process of extraction of separated DNA
(3) Lysozyme, Proteases and Ribonuclease strands from gel is called elution.
(4) Chitinase, Lysozyme and Cellulase (2) The separated DNA fragments are stained by
using ethidium bromide.
30. Identify the incorrect statement related to gel
(3) The presence of chromogenic substrate gives
electrophoresis.
blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.
(1) Separated DNA fragments can be directly
(4) Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be
seen under UV radiation
observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.
(2) Separated DNA can be extracted from gel
piece 35.
(3) Fragment of DNA moves toward anode Coronavirus are Ligase acts by
(4) Sieving effect of agarose gel helps in also now used as forming
separation of DNA fragments cloning vectors in phosphodiester
animal because of bonds.
31. What does the sample of given base sequence their ability to
represent? transform normal
5' - GAATTC - 3' cells into cancerous
5' - CTTAAG- 5' cell
(1) Completion of replication
(2) Initiator codon at 5' end (1) Statement A is correct but Statement B is
(3) Palindromic sequence incorrect.
(4) Deletion mutation (2) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is
correct.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) Both Statements are incorrect.
36. A gene whose expression helps to identify 39. Fill in the blanks with appropriate answer:
transformed cell is known as : (A) The vector needs to have very few, preferably
(1) Vector single, ____ for the commonly used restriction
enzymes.
(2) Plasmid
(B) Disruption of the cell wall can be achieved by
(3) Structural gene
treating the bacterial cells, plant or animal tissue
(4) Selectable marker with enzymes such as ____ (bacteria), ____ (plant
cells) and ____ (fungus).
37. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
(C) If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a
moleculer is called –
heterologous host, it is called as ____
(1) Clone (D) In gel electrophoresis, the separated DNA
(2) Probe fragments can be seen only after staining the
(3) Plasmid DNA with a compound known as ____ followed by
(4) Vector exposure to UV radiation.
(1) A - sticky ends;
38. Which of the following bacteria are known as B - lysozyme, cellulase, chitinase;
natural genetic engineers of plants? C - recombinant protein;
(1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens D - ethidium bromide
(2) Azotobacter (2) A - sticky ends;
(3) Rhizobium B - exonuclease, cellulase, chitinase;
C - recombinant protein;
(4) Escherichia coli
D - ethidium bromide
(3) A - cut ends;
B - hemicellulose, cellulase, chitinase;
C - native glycoprotein;
D - CsCl
(4) A - Recognition sites;
B - lysozyme, cellulase, chitinase;
C - recombinant protein;
D - ethidium bromide

40.
In chemical Microinjection
mediated gene method is used
transfer method, inplant cells.
certain chemicals
such as Ca

phosphate help
foreign DNA to
enter the host cell

(1) Statement A is correct but Statement B is

incorrect.
(2) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is
correct.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) Both Statements are incorrect.
41. DNA fragments generated by the restriction 46. Which is the palindromic nucleotide sequence?
endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be (I) GAATTC
separated by CTTAAG
(1) Polymerase chain reaction (II) AGGCCT
TCCGGA
(2) Centrifugation
(III) CAGTCG
(3) Restriction mapping
GTCAGC
(4) Electrophoresis
(1) I, II, III
42. Recombinant DNA is forced to enter the host (2) I, II
cells by incubating the cells with rDNA is? (3) I only
(1) On ice followed by heat shock and then again (4) I, III
on ice
47. Identify the processes labelled a,b,c in the
(2) In Ethidium bromide followed by calcium salts
following diagram.
(3) Into chilled ethanol followed by ice and then
into CsCl
(4) Heat followed by ice and then again on ice

43. Which one of the following bacteria has found

extensive use in genetic engineering work in
plants ?
(1) Xanthomonas citri
(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(3) Bacillus coagulens
(4) Clostridium septicum
(1) a - annealing, b-denaturation, c - extension
44. During the purification process for recombinant
(2) a-extension b-denaturation, c - annealing
DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol
(3) a - denaturation, b - extension, c - annealing
precipitates out :
(1) Polysaccharides (4) a - annealing, b-extension, c - denaturation

(2) RNA 48. The French philosopher, mathematician and

(3) DNA biologist of seventeenth century is
(4) Histones (1) Rene Descartes
(2) Stanley Cohen
45. Which of the following is not a component of
downstream processing? (3) Herbert Boyer
(1) Separation (4) Smith
(2) Preservation 49. Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular
(3) Purification point called recognition sequence and it consists
(4) Expression of:
(1) 8 bp
(2) 6 bp
(3) 4 bp
(4) 10 bp
50. Select the correct answer 55. Maximum number of bases in plasmids
A. Restriction enzyme digestions are performed discovered so far : -
by incubating purified DNA molecules with the (1) 500 kilo base
restriction enzyme, at the optimal conditions for
(2) 5 kilo base
that specific enzyme.
(3) 50 kilo base
B. Agarose gel electrophoresis is employed to
check the progression of a restriction enzyme (4) 5000 kilo base
digestion.
56. A. tumefaciens delivers a piece of DNA into dicot
(1) Only A is correct plant. The piece of DNA is called as
(2) Only B is correct (1) r-DNA
(3) Both are correct (2) T-DNA
(4) None are correct (3) A-DNA
51. The function of a selectable marker is: (4) D-DNA
(1) Identify ori site 57. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(2) To destroy recognition sites as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(3) Eliminating transformants and permitting Reason (R).
non-transformants
Assertion (A) : Polymerase chain reaction is used
(4) Elimination of non-transformants and in DNA amplification.
permitting transformants
Reason (R) : The ampicillin resistant gene is used
52. The normal E. coli cells do not carry resistance as a selectable marker to check transformation.
against any of these antibiotics. Which are these
antibiotics? In the light of the above statements, choose the
i. Ampicillin ii. Chloramphenicol, correct answer from the options given below :
iii. Tetracycline iv. Kanamycin
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) i, ii
correct explanation of (A)
(2) i, ii, iii
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(3) i, ii, iii, iv correct explanation of (A)
(4) None of them (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
53. Gel electrophoresis is used for:
(1) cutting of DNA into fragments 58. If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for ampicillin
(2) separation of DNA fragments according to resistance is transferred into E. coli cells and the
their size host cells are spread on agar plates containing
ampicillin, then
(3) construction of recombinant DNA by joining
with cloning vectors (1) both transformed and untransformed
(4) isolation of DNA molecule recipient cells will die
(2) both transformed and untransformed
54. Ti plasmid is useful in genetic engineering by recipient cells will grow
(1) Bringing new genes into animal cells (3) transformed recipient cells will grow and
(2) Bringing tumor cells into plant cells untransformed recipient cells will die
(3) Bringing useful and required genes into (4) transformed recipient cells will die and
plants untransformed recipient cells will grow
(4) All of the above
59. 64. Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic
Restriction When fragments engineering are-
endonucleases are generated by (1) Diplococcus [Link] Pseudomonas sp.
also called as restriction (2) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
"molecular endonuclease are
(3) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis
scissors" mixed they join
elegans
together due to
(4) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium
sticky ends by
tumefaciens
addition of DNA
ligase 65. There is a restriction endonuclease called Eco RI.
What does ' co ' part in it stand for?
(1) Statement A is correct but Statement B is
(1) Colon
incorrect.
(2) Coli
(2) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is
correct. (3) Coelom

(3) Both statements are correct. (4) Coenzyme

(4) Both Statements are incorrect. 66. Identify X and Y.

60. The Bt toxin in genetically engineered Bt cotton

kills the pest by:
(1) Creating pores in the midgut
(2) Damaging the respiratory system
(3) Degenerating the nervous system
(4) Altering the pH of body fluids

61. Which one of the following is considered as

molecular scissors in modern biotechnology?
(1) Reverse transcriptase
(2) Taq polymerases (1) X − BamH, Y − PstI

(3) Alkaline phosphatases (2) X − PstI, Y − BamH

(4) Restriction endonucleases

(3) X − PstI Y − EcoRI

62. Genes which help in the selection of the (4) X − BamH Y − EcoRI

transformants and selectively permitting the

growth of the transformants. are generally called 67. Number of H -bonds in the recognition site of
as EcoRI is
(1) Antibiotic resistant gene (1) 6
(2) Selectable marker (2) 4
(3) Origin of replication (3) 14
(4) Cloning site (4) 12

63. The enzyme used in PCR is ____ obtained from ____

(1) RNA polymerase, archaebacteria
(2) Taq polymerase, archaebacteria
(3) Taq polymerase, eubacteria
(4) Taq polymerase, BGA
68. Consider the following statements with respect 72. What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only
to gel electrophoresis and find the incorrect gene of interest which is transferred into an alien
ones. organism?
(I) DNA fragments are separated according to A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply
their charge only; their sizes do not affect the itself independently in the progeny cells of the
process. organism.
(II) DNA fragments move towards the cathode on B. It may get integrated into the genome of the
the basis of their charges. recipient.
(III) Separation of DNA fragments is according to C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the
their sizes as they move through sieves in the host DNA.
agarose gel. D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part
(IV) The gel used for isolation of DNA fragments of chromosome.
is made of agarose. E. It shows ability to replicate.
(1) I, III, Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(2) IV only
(1) A and B only
(3) I, II
(2) D and E only
(4) II, III, IV
(3) B and C only
69. Pathogenic bacteria gain resistance to antibiotics (4) A and E only
due to changes in their :
(1) Nucleoid 73. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for
the
(2) Cosmids
(1) Purification of the product
(3) Plasmids
(2) Addition of preservatives to the product
(4) Nucleus
(3) Availability of oxygen throughout the
70. Proteins are removed by treatment with bioreactor
(1) Ribonuclease (4) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture
(2) Chitinase vessel
(3) Cellulase
74. Which statement is correct?
(4) Protease I. Genes encoding resistance to antibiotics like
ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline or
71. Plasmids are suitable vectors for genetic cloning
kanamycin, are useful selectable markers for
as
[Link].
(1) They are indispensable II. Selectable markers helps to select the host
(2) They are self replicating units cells which contain the vector and eliminate the
(3) They are essential for bacterial reproduction. non-transformants.
(4) None of the above III. Large amount of recombinant protein can be
produced by gene cloning.
IV. In the process of recombinant DNA
technology, after several treatment the purified
DNA is precipitated by adding chilled acetone.
(1) I, II and III
(2) Only IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) All of these
75. Rising of dough is due to: 81. The DNA of interest obtained from the donor for
(1) Multiplication of yeast recombinant DNA technology is called as

(2) Production of CO (1) Foreign DNA

2

(2) Alien DNA

(3) Emulsification
(3) Gene of interest
(4) Hydrolysis of wheat flour starch into sugars.
(4) All of them
76. Plasmids are suitable vectors for genetic cloning
as 82. Figure below is the diagrammatic representation
of the [Link] vector pBR 322. Which one of the
(1) They are indispensable
given options correctly identifies its certain
(2) They are self replicating units
component?
(3) They are essential for bacterial reproduction
(4) None of the above

77. Specific DNA sequence GAATTC is cut by which of

the following restriction endonuclease
(1) Hind II
(2) Hind III
(3) Eco RII
(4) Eco RI

78. Significance of 'heat shock' method in bacterial (1) Ori-original restriction enzyme
transformation is to facilitate: (2) Rop- reduced osmotic pressure
(1) Binding of DNA to the cell wall (3) Amp
R
, tet antibiotic resistance genes
R

(2) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport

(4) Hind III, EcoRI- selectable markers
proteins
(3) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the 83. Normally, the gene encoding resistance to
bacterial cell wall antibiotics are considered useful selectable
(4) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene marker for E. coli
(1) Because the normal [Link] cells do not carry
79. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for - resistance against any of these antibiotics
(1) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture (2) As it makes [Link] identifiable because of
vessel insertional inactivation
(2) addition of preservatives to the product (3) Because it makes [Link] identification through
(3) purification of product insertional activation
(4) availability of oxygen throughout the process (4) Both (1) and (2)

80. During the process of gene amplification using 84. Which of the following restriction enzymes
PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained produces blunt ends ?
in the beginning, then which of the following (1) Eco RV
steps of PCR will be affected first?
(2) Hind III
(1) Ligation
(3) Xho I
(2) Annealing
(4) Sal I
(3) Extension
(4) Denaturation
85. Following are the steps involved in the process of 88. Select the correct statement from the following
PCR. (1) There are no risk factors associated with
rDNA technology
A. Annealing
(2) The first step in PCR is heating which is used
B. Amplification (~1 billion times) to separate both the strands of gene of
interest
C. Denaturation
(3) DNA from one organism will not blend to
D. Treatment with Taq polymerase and DNA from other organism
deoxynucleotides (4) Genetic engineering works only on animals
E. Extension and not yet successfully used on plants

Choose the correct sequence of steps of PCR 89. Consider the following statements and select the
from the options given below : correct option.
(1) DNA being a hydrophilic molecule cannot
(1) C → A → D → E → B
pass through cell membranes
(2) A → B → E → D → C (2) The T-DNA causes tumours
(3) A → C → E → D → B (3) Tumour formation is induced by Ti plasmid
(4) D → B → E → C → A (4) All of the above

86. The enzyme (a) is needed for isolating genetic 90. Palindrome sequences
material from plant cells and enzyme (b) for (1) Read same on two strands when orientation
isolating genetic material from fungus. Choose of reading is different
the correct pair of options from the following : (2) Read different on two strands when
(1) (a) Cellulase (b) Lipase orientation of reading is same
(2) (a) Cellulase (b) Protease (3) Read same on two strands when orientation
(3) (a) Cellulase (b) Chitinase of reading is same
(4) (a) Chitinase (b) Lipase (4) Read opposite on two strands when
orientation of reading is same
87. Read the following four statements (I-IV) and
select the incorrect ones.
I. Downstream processing is one of the steps of
rDNA technology.
II. Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in
transfer of rDNA into the host.
III. In genetic engineering, DNA from different
sources are cut with the same restriction
enzymes so that both DNA fragments have same
kind of sticky ends
IV. Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of
DNA from other macromolecules.
Which of the two statements have mistakes?
(1) II and III
(2) IV only
(3) I and III
(4) I and II
 Answer Key

Biology
1) 1 2) 1 3) 1 4) 2 5) 4 6) 4 7) 2 8) 1 9) 4 10) 4

11) 2 12) 1 13) 2 14) 4 15) 3 16) 3 17) 3 18) 3 19) 1 20) 3

21) 1 22) 1 23) 1 24) 2 25) 1 26) 4 27) 3 28) 2 29) 4 30) 1

31) 3 32) 2 33) 3 34) 3 35) 2 36) 4 37) 2 38) 1 39) 4 40) 1

41) 4 42) 1 43) 2 44) 3 45) 4 46) 2 47) 4 48) 1 49) 2 50) 3

51) 4 52) 3 53) 2 54) 3 55) 1 56) 2 57) 2 58) 3 59) 3 60) 1

61) 4 62) 2 63) 2 64) 4 65) 2 66) 2 67) 3 68) 3 69) 3 70) 4

71) 2 72) 3 73) 3 74) 1 75) 2 76) 2 77) 4 78) 3 79) 4 80) 4

81) 4 82) 3 83) 4 84) 1 85) 1 86) 3 87) 2 88) 2 89) 4 90) 3

EXPLANATIONS

Q1. => Correct Option: 1

In gel electrophoresis, the separated bands of DNA are cut out and extracted from the gel piece. The step is called
Elution.

Q2. => Correct Option: 1

PCR-polymerase chain reaction is a technique used in r-DNA technology to generate many copies of DNA.

Q3. => Correct Option: 1

Virus free plants can be formed by meristem culture. The reason behind this is that virus can not propagate in
rapidly dividing cells, so meristematic zone of plant always remain virus free. Protoplast fusion technique is
used for making somatic hybrids. Somatic cell culture technique is used to propagate plants from somatic cells
using nutrient medium and combination of hormones. Callus culture Callus is undifferentiated mass of tissues.
Growing callus from plant organs is callus culture.

Q4. => Correct Option: 2

When an foreign DNA is ligated in tetracycline resistant gene, the recombinant loose tetracyclic resistant.

Q5. => Correct Option: 4

Thermostable DNA polymerase is isolated from a bacterium Thermus aquaticus popularises PCR, because this
enzyme remains active during high temperature.
Q6. => Correct Option: 4
I, III, V are [Link] incorrect statements can be corrected as If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a
heterologous host is called recombinant protein, Competent bacterial cells can take up the plasmid. Restriction
endonucleases are used in genetic engineering for breaking phosphodiester bonds in DNA molecules.

Q7. => Correct Option: 2

Algae is a plant and so its cell wall is made up of cellulose. Cellulase enzyme is needed for degradation of its cell
wall.

Q8. => Correct Option: 1

The technique of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been applied to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients and
to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients.

Q9. => Correct Option: 4

Copy number of plasmid varies from 50-1000 per cell is incorrect statement.

Q10. => Correct Option: 4

C-Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase.

Q11. => Correct Option: 2

PCR is used only for amplification of DNA. It is not directly involved in Southern hybridisation technique.

Q12. => Correct Option: 1

A single strand DNA or RNA tagged with radioactive molecule that is used in hybridization of DNA or RNA is
called probe.

Q13. => Correct Option: 2

ii. Presence of insert results into insertional inactivation of the β-galactosidase gene.

Q14. => Correct Option: 4

An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of transformed cell.

Q15. => Correct Option: 3

Deoxyribonuclease is not required because this enzyme catalyses the hydrolytic cleavage of phosphodiester
linkages in the DNA backbone, thus it degrades DNA.

Q16. => Correct Option: 3

Restriction endonucleases are molecular scissors that cleave DNA segments. They are synthesized by bacteria as
a part of their defense mechanism against bacteriophages. While they are used in genetic engineering, their
primary origin and function in nature is bacterial defense. They are also used in in vitro DNA synthesis, but
option 3 describes their origin and natural role.
Q17. => Correct Option: 3
Origin of replication is a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of foreign DNA is linked to this
sequence. The replication occurs inside the host cells. This new sequence is also responsible for controlling copy
number of linked DNA. Therefore, if any person wants to produce many copies of the target DNA he/ she should
clone in a vector whose origin gives support to high copy number.
Selectable markers are essential to identify and eliminate non-transformants (no recombinant DNA), and
selectively permitting the growth of the transformants (host cells bearing recombinant DNA).
So, both statements are correct.

Q18. => Correct Option: 3

Insertional inactivation is related to selection of recombinants

Q19. => Correct Option: 1

PCR stands for polymerase chain reaction.

Q20. => Correct Option: 3

I and II are true.

Q21. => Correct Option: 1

Methylase is a type of transferase enzyme that transfers a methyl group from a donor to an acceptor. Cell wall of
algae are made up of cellulose, pectin and mucilage. These substances cannot be degraded by methylase.

Q22. => Correct Option: 1

The recombinant DNA technology by which DNA fragments from different organisms are joined together to
produce new genetic combinations was discovered by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer.
They first discovered the technique of Gel electrophoresis is wrong statement.

Q23. => Correct Option: 1

Let's analyze each statement separately to determine its validity: Statement I: The Indian Government has set
up GEAC, which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Committee (GEAC) is indeed an authority established by the Indian Government under the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Its role is to evaluate and make decisions regarding the research,
development, and commercialization of genetically modified (GM) organisms and products. Therefore,
Statement I is true. Statement II: Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by native people.
Biopiracy refers to the unethical or unauthorized exploitation of biological resources, typically involving
indigenous knowledge, by entities (often corporations or researchers from developed countries) without fair
compensation to the native people or countries from which these resources originate. Therefore, this statement
is incorrect as it should mention the exploitation by external entities rather than the use by native people
themselves. Therefore, Statement II is false. Based on the analysis, the correct answer is: Option A: Statement I is
true but Statement II is false

Q24. => Correct Option: 2

Each restriction endonuclease recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
Q25. => Correct Option: 1
Any nucleotide sequence in a gene that is removed by RNA splicing during maturation of final RNA product is
called intron. Intron can be different in different organisms.

Q26. => Correct Option: 4

The correct answer is option (D) as EcoRI does not cut the DNA with blunt ends. Instead, it cuts the DNA with
sticky / cohesive / staggered ends on each strand. EcoRI is a restriction endonuclease that recognises a specific
palindromic sequence and cuts at a specific site within the DNA, known as the restriction site. It is not an
exonuclease as exonucleases remove nucleotides from the free ends of the DNA. The recognition sequence for
′ ↓ ′
5 − G − A − A − T − T − C − 3
EcoRI is ′ ′
and it cuts the DNA between bases G and A only when the
3 − C − T − T − A − A↑ − G − 5
sequence GAATTC is present in the DNA. Therefore, ‘A’ and ‘E’ represent incorrect features about EcoRI, whereas
‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’ are correct features of EcoRI. The other options, i.e., (A), (B) and (C) are incorrect as they
represent incorrect combinations of features w.r.t. EcoRI.

Q27. => Correct Option: 3

The correct answer is option 3.
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) amplifies DNA exponentially.
After n cycles, the number of DNA copies = 2n. For example, after 3 cycles → 23 = 8 copies → Option (3)

Q28. => Correct Option: 2

A − S, B − R, C − P , D − Q

Q29. => Correct Option: 4

To isolate DNA from different cells, specific enzymes are used to break their cell walls:
Fungal cells → Chitinase (breaks chitin)
Bacterial cells → Lysozyme (breaks peptidoglycan)
Plant cells → Cellulase (breaks cellulose)

Q30. => Correct Option: 1

The incorrect statement related to gel electrophoresis is Option A: Separated DNA fragments can be directly
seen under UV radiation. Here's why: DNA itself is not fluorescent. To visualize DNA fragments after
separation, a dye that binds to DNA and fluoresces under UV light is used. This dye, often ethidium bromide or
SYBR Safe, intercalates between the DNA bases, making the DNA visible under UV light. Let's look at the other
options: Option B: Separated DNA can be extracted from gel piece is correct. DNA fragments can be extracted
from the gel by cutting out the desired band and using a method called gel extraction. This allows for further
analysis or cloning of the extracted DNA. Option C: Fragment of DNA moves toward anode is also correct. DNA
molecules carry a negative charge due to the phosphate groups in their backbone. In gel electrophoresis, the
DNA is loaded into wells at the negative end of the gel. When an electric current is applied, the negatively
charged DNA fragments migrate towards the positive electrode (anode). Option D: Sieving effect of agarose gel
helps in separation of DNA fragments is correct. Agarose gel acts as a sieve, with pores that allow smaller
fragments to travel through more easily than larger fragments. This difference in mobility, based on size, allows
for separation of DNA fragments.
Q31. => Correct Option: 3
It is representation of palindromiv sequence fro the restriction endonuclease EcoR-I

Q32. => Correct Option: 2

Ethidium Bromide is a dark red, crystalline, non-volatile, odorless powder that is moderately soluble in water.
This material fluoresces a red-orange color under ultraviolet (UV) light and with increased fluorescence when
bound to double-stranded DNA.

Q33. => Correct Option: 3

Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases. The following statement is with regards to ligase and not
endonuclease.

Q34. => Correct Option: 3

Option (c) is the incorrect statement, as bright coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when EtBr
(Ethidium bromide) treated DNA is exposed to UV light.

Q35. => Correct Option: 2

The mechanism of DNA ligase is to form two covalent phosphodiester bonds between 3' hydroxyl ends of one
nucleotide ("acceptor"), with the 5' phosphate end of another ("donor"). Two ATP molecules are consumed for
each phosphodiester bond formed.
Only statement B is correct.

Q36. => Correct Option: 4

Selectable markers are helpful in identifying and eliminating nontransformantsand selectively permitting the
growth of the transformants in recombinant DNA technology.

Q37. => Correct Option: 2

DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called Probe. They are used to detect the presence of
complementary sequences in nucleic acid samples. Probes are used for identification and isolation of DNA and
RNA.

Q38. => Correct Option: 1

Agrobacterium tumefaciens is called the Natural genetic engineers of plants.

Q39. => Correct Option: 4

A-Recognition sites; B-lysozyme, cellulase, chitinase; C-recombinant protein; D-ethidium bromide is correct.

Q40. => Correct Option: 1

Micro-injection is a method used to Inject a recombinant DNA into the nucleus of an animal cell. This is the only
way to introduce alien DNA into host cells.
B is incorrect statement.
Q41. => Correct Option: 4
Electrophoresis is a technique used to separate macromolecules based on their size, this technique will apply a
negative charge so that proteins move towards positive charge.

Q42. => Correct Option: 1

A bacterial cell can be made competent to receive recombinant DNA by incubating on ice along with rDNA
followed by heat (42 shock and then again on ice.
∘
C)

Q43. => Correct Option: 2

Agrobacterium tumefaciens has been extensively used in genetic engineering experiments. It is the causative
agent of crown gall, an important disease of many commercial crops. This disease has come to be recognized in
recent years as being caused by a DNA plasmid (Ti plasmid) carried by bacterium and transferred to the plant
cells. Following the discovery of the relationship between crown gall and the Ti plasmid, this plasmid has come
to be widely used in plant genetic engineering as a vector in order to inject a novel gene in host plant to form a
transgenic plant.

Q44. => Correct Option: 3

Various enzymes like protease, RNase, etc. are added to break down substances like proteins, RNA, etc. Once all
these substances are broken down, DNA is left which is precipitated out by adding chilled ethanol.

Ethanol has a lower dielectric constant than water, making it to promote ionic bond formation the Na+ (from the
salt) and the PO−3 (from the DNA backbone), further, causing the DNA to precipitate.

Q45. => Correct Option: 4

Downstream processing includes separation and purification process. The product obtained is subjected to
quality control, testing and kept in suitable preservatives.

Q46. => Correct Option: 2

A palindromic sequence is a nucleic acid sequence on a double-stranded DNA or RNA molecule whereby reading
in a certain direction (e.g., 5' to 3') on one strand matches the sequence in the same direction (e.g., 5' to 3') on
the complementary strand. For example, the sequence 5'-GAATTC-3' has the complementary strand 3'-CTTAAG-
5'. If we read the complementary strand from 5' to 3', it is 5'-GAATTC-3', which is the same as the original strand.
Thus, GAATTC is a palindromic sequence.

(I) GAATTC is a palindromic sequence because its complementary strand read in the same direction (5' to 3') is
also GAATTC.
(II) AGGCCT is a palindromic sequence because its complementary strand read in the same direction (5' to 3') is
also AGGCCT.
(III) CAGTCG is NOT a palindromic sequence because its complementary strand read in the same direction (5' to
3') is GACTGC, which is different from CAGTCG.

Therefore, I and II are palindromic nucleotide sequences.

Q47. => Correct Option: 4
a - annealing, b - extension, c - denaturation

Q48. => Correct Option: 1

Rene Descartes, the French philosopher, mathematician and biologist of seventeenth century. Above line are
present in Introduction to unit IX.

Q49. => Correct Option: 2

The correct answer is option (2). The first restriction endonuclease - Hind II, whose functioning depends on a
specific DNA nucleotide sequence was isolated. It was found that Hind II always cut DNA molecules at a
particular point by recognising sequence of six base pairs. Option (1), (3) and (4) are incorrect because they have
either more than 6 or less than 6 bp.

Q50. => Correct Option: 3

A. Restriction enzyme digestions are performed by incubating purified DNA molecules with the restriction
enzyme, At the optimal conditions for that specific enzyme.
B. Agarose gel electrophoresis is employed to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion.

Q51. => Correct Option: 4

A selectable marker is a gene introduced into a cell, especially a bacterium or to cells in culture, that confers a
trait suitable for artificial selection. Under the selective conditions, only cells that contain plasmids with the
appropriate selectable marker can survive. Commonly, genes that confer resistance to various antibiotics are
used as selective markers in cloning vectors.

Q52. => Correct Option: 3

A. Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections such as eye infections. B. Ampicillin is an
antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections such as ear infections.
C. Tetracycline is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections such as cholera, acne etc.
All these antibiotics are used to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. Normal E. coli cells do not carry resistance
against any of the given antibiotics.

Q53. => Correct Option: 2

Gel electrophoresis is a technique to separation of DNA fragments according to their size. DNA is negatively
charged so in gel tank when electricity is passed, DNA move towards positive electrode.

Q54. => Correct Option: 3

Ti plasmid is used as a vector. So it can be used to introduce new genes into the plants

Q55. => Correct Option: 1

A plasmid is a DNA molecule separate from the chromosomal DNA and capable of autonomous replication. In
many cases, it is typically circular and double-stranded. It usually occurs in bacteria and is sometimes found in
eukaryotic organisms. The size of plasmids varies from 1 to over 400 kilobase pairs (kbp). There may be one
copy, for large plasmids, to hundreds of copies of the same plasmid in a single cell. The term plasmid was first
introduced by the American molecular biologist Joshua Lederberg in 1952.
Q56. => Correct Option: 2
Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a pathogen of several dicot plants is able to deliver a piece of DNA known as T-DNA
to transform normal plant cells into tumour cells.

Q57. => Correct Option: 2

Both the statements are correct but the given reason is not the correct explanation. Polymerase chain reaction is
used in DNA amplification. Ampicillin resistance gene is a selectable marker that helps to check transformation
by selection of transformants.

Q58. => Correct Option: 3

Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium. DNA bearing
ampicillin resistance gene (transformed recipient cells) when introduced into the plate containing ampicillin will
grow while DNA not bearing ampicillin resistance gene (untransformed recipient cells) will die. The genes
encoding resistance to antibiotics such as ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline or kanamycin, etc., are
considered useful selectable markers for [Link]. The normal E. coli does not carry resistance against any of these
antibiotics.

Q59. => Correct Option: 3

Statement-A : Restriction endonucleases are also called as "molecular scissors"
Statement-B : When fragments generated by Restriction endonuclease are mixed they join together due to sticky
ends by addition of DNA ligase .Both are correct statement.
Q60. => Correct Option: 1
The correct answer is Option A: Creating pores in the midgut. Here's why: Bt toxin, short for Bacillus
thuringiensis toxin, is a naturally occurring insecticide produced by the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis. When
ingested by certain insect pests, it acts specifically on their digestive system. Here's how it works:

Ingestion: Insect pests consume Bt toxin along with plant material.

Activation: The alkaline environment of the insect's midgut (the middle part of its digestive tract)
activates the Bt toxin.
Binding: The activated toxin binds to specific receptor proteins on the epithelial cells lining the insect's
midgut.
Pore Formation: This binding causes the toxin to insert itself into the cell membrane of the midgut cells,
forming pores or holes.
Cell Disruption: The formation of these pores disrupts the cell's ability to maintain its structure and
function. The cell leaks nutrients and fluids, ultimately leading to cell death.
Death: The widespread damage to the midgut cells results in the insect's death due to starvation and/or
internal organ failure.

Let's look at why the other options are incorrect:

Option B: Damaging the respiratory system: Bt toxin primarily targets the digestive system of insects,
not their respiratory system.
Option C: Degenerating the nervous system: While some insecticides do affect the nervous system, Bt
toxin's primary mode of action is through the digestive system.
Option D: Altering the pH of body fluids: While Bt toxin's activation is influenced by pH, its primary
effect is not on altering the overall pH of the insect's body fluids.

In summary, Bt toxin works by creating pores in the midgut of susceptible insect pests, leading to their death.

Q61. => Correct Option: 4

Option D: Restriction endonucleases Explanation (NCERT style):

Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that can cut DNA at specific sequences.
They are called "molecular scissors" because they recognise specific base pair sequences in DNA and
cut the DNA at these sites.
These enzymes are widely used in genetic engineering to cut and join DNA molecules.

Other options:

Reverse transcriptase: Synthesizes DNA from RNA.

Taq polymerase: Used in PCR to synthesize DNA.
Alkaline phosphatase: Removes phosphate groups from the ends of DNA.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option D: Restriction endonucleases

Q62. => Correct Option: 2

Selectable marker genes or reporter genes helps us to identify transformed cell from non transformed cells
during rDNA technology.
Q63. => Correct Option: 2
Taq polymerase is an enzyme that copies DNA It is isolated from a archaebacterium that is naturally found in hot
springs, so the enzyme doesn't break down at a high temperature necessary for copying DNA using a PCR.

Q64. => Correct Option: 4

Escherichia coli is a bacterium found in human colon. On this bacterium scientists have made extensive genetic
experiments to make some vital chemicals like insulin. Another bacterium is Agrobacterium tumefaciens which
causes crown gall in plants is extensively used for genetic experiments.

Q65. => Correct Option: 2

The convention of naming restriction enzymes is the first letter comes from the genus, second two letters come
from the species of prokaryotic cell from which it is isolated.
Ex: Eco RI, R is derived from name of the strain. Roman numbers following the names indicate the order in
which enzymes were isolated from the strain of bacteria.

Q66. => Correct Option: 2

X - Pst I, Y - BamH

Q67. => Correct Option: 3

Number of H-bonds in the recognition site of EcoRI is 14.

Total H-bonds is 14 .

Q68. => Correct Option: 3

Statements I and II are incorrect. The incorrect statements can be corrected as follows:
DNA fragments are separated according to their charge and their sizes.
DNA fragments move towards the anode on the basis of their charges.

Q69. => Correct Option: 3

Plasmid is small circular DNA outside the genomic DNA. The plasmid DNA confers certain unique phenotypic
characters to the bacteria such as resistance to antibiotics.

Q70. => Correct Option: 4

Proteins are removed by treatment with Protease.

Q71. => Correct Option: 2

Plasmids are suitable vectors for genetic cloning because they are self replicating units
Q72. => Correct Option: 3
The fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism are:
(B) It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient
(C) It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA
→ This piece of DNA would not be able to multiply itself in the progeny cells of the organism but when gets
integrated into the genome of the recipient, it may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA.

Q73. => Correct Option: 3

Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for the Availability of oxygen throughout the bioreactor.

Q74. => Correct Option: 1

Correct statements are
I. Genes encoding resistance to antibiotics like ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline or kanamycin, are useful
selectable markers for [Link].
II. Selectable markers helps to select the host cells which contain the vector and eliminate the non-transformants.
III. Large amount of recombinant protein can be produced by gene cloning.

Q75. => Correct Option: 2

Rising of dough is due to the production of CO2 and this leads to create bubbles in the dough.

Q76. => Correct Option: 2

Plasmids are suitable vectors for genetic cloning because they are self replicating units

Q77. => Correct Option: 4

EcoRI is the restriction enzyme, derived from Escherichia coli, strain R and is the first to be isolated. EcoRI
recognizes and cuts at the specific restriction site 5'-GAATTC-3' and produces sticky ends. This is the common
enzyme that is used as a tool for the restriction of the bacterial plasmid and desired genes in molecular biology
techniques.

Q78. => Correct Option: 3

Heat shock transformation alters membrane fluidity creating pores, in the plasma membrane of bacteria and
allows for plasmid DNA to enter the bacterial cell

Q79. => Correct Option: 4

A stirred-tank reactor is usually cylindrical or with a curved base to facilitate the mixing of the reactor contents.
The stirrer facilitates, even mixing and oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor.
Q80. => Correct Option: 4
∙ Option (d) is correct. Denaturation is first step of PCR that involves seperation of double-stranded DNA. The
DNA is subjected to heating at high temperature (95∘C). This leads to breaking of hydrogen bonds between
nucleotides and formation of single-stranded DNA. Thus, if high temperature is not maintained, denaturation
will be affected.

∙ Ligation of DNA fragments is performed with the help of an enzyme called DNA ligase.

Annealing is performed at 50 -60 C which is the second step that can get affected.
∘ ∘
∙

∙ Addition of nucleotides to the primer, synthesizing a new DNA strand using only the template sequences with
the help of enzyme DNA polymerase is called primer extension/polymerisation.

Q81. => Correct Option: 4

The DNA of interest obtained from the donor for recombinant DNA technology is called as Foreign DNA (foreign
DNA and gene of interest.)

Q82. => Correct Option: 3

In pBR 322, ori represents site of origin of replication, rop represents proteins which participate in replication of
plasmid, Hind III, EcoRI are recognition sites of restriction endonucleases while ampR, tet R represents antibiotic
resistance genes.

Q83. => Correct Option: 4

Normally, the gene encoding resistance to antibiotics are considered useful selectable marker for E. coli
(1) Because the normal [Link] cells do not carry resistance against any of these antibiotics
(2) As it makes [Link] identifiable because of insertional inactivation.

Q84. => Correct Option: 1

EcoRV is a type II restriction endonuclease isolated from certain strains of [Link]. It creates blunt ends. It
recognises the palindromic sequence of 6 bases. SalI, XhoI and HindIII restriction enzymes produce sticky ends.
Q85. => Correct Option: 1
The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is a method used to amplify DNA. The correct sequence of steps involved
in the process of PCR is:

1. Denaturation: The double-stranded DNA is heated to separate it into two single strands.
2. Annealing: The temperature is lowered to allow primers to attach to the single-stranded DNA.
3. Extension: Taq polymerase extends the primers to form a new DNA strand.
4. Amplification: This cycle of heating and cooling is repeated multiple times (~1 billion times) to amplify
the DNA.

Therefore, the correct sequence of steps of PCR from the options given is: Option A: C → A → D → E → B

This option correctly represents the sequence of steps in PCR where:

1. C represents Denaturation.
2. A represents Annealing.
3. D represents Treatment with Taq polymerase and deoxynucleotides (which occurs during the Extension
step).
4. E represents Extension.
5. B represents Amplification (~1 billion times).

Hence, Option A is the correct sequence.

Q86. => Correct Option: 3

Option (3) is the correct answer because cellulase is used to isolate genetic material from plant cells and
chitinase is used to isolate genetic material from fungal cells. Option (2) is incorrect because protease is used for
digestion of proteins. Option (1) and (4) are incorrect because lipase is used for the breakdown of lipids.

Q87. => Correct Option: 2

Restriction enzymes are used to break DNA molecule.

Q88. => Correct Option: 2

Statement (2) is correct. The first step in PCR is heating, which is used to separate both strands of the gene of
interest. This process is called denaturation.

Q89. => Correct Option: 4

Correct statements are-
(1) DNA being a hydrophilic molecule cannot pass through cell membranes
(2) The T-DNA causes tumours
(3) Tumour formation is induced by Ti plasmid

Q90. => Correct Option: 3

The palindrome in DNA is a sequence of base pairs that reads same on the two strands when orientation of
reading is kept the same.

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