Chapter 1: Chemical Reactions and
Equations
10 High-Probability CBSE Pattern Questions
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MCQs — 1 Mark Each
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Q1. NCERT Core
When magnesium ribbon burns in air, a white powder is formed. The reaction is mainly an
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example of:
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(A) Decomposition reaction
(B) Combination reaction
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(C) Double displacement reaction
(D) Neutralisation reaction
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Answer: (B) Combination reaction
Explanation: Magnesium combines with oxygen to form magnesium oxide.
Equation:
2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
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Q2. PYQ Pattern
Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mass ratio of hydrogen and oxygen
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gases liberated is:
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 8
(D) 8 : 1
Answer: (C) 1 : 8
Explanation: Water is H₂O. By mass, hydrogen = 2 and oxygen = 16, so ratio = 2 : 16 =
1 : 8.
Q3. Assertion-Reason
Assertion (A): The reaction of quicklime with water is an exothermic reaction.
Reason (R): A large amount of heat is released when quicklime reacts with water.
Choose the correct option:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
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Answer: (A)
Equation:
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CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + Heat
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Q4. Competency MCQ
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Which of the following reactions will form a white precipitate?
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(A) Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂
(B) Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl
(C) 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
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(D) 2AgBr → 2Ag + Br₂
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Barium sulphate, BaSO₄, is an insoluble white precipitate.
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2 Marks Questions
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Q5. PYQ-Inspired
Silver bromide is kept in sunlight.
(a) What change is observed?
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation and name the type of reaction.
Answer:
(a) Pale yellow silver bromide turns grey due to the formation of silver.
(b)
2AgBr(s) → 2Ag(s) + Br₂(g)
Type: Photochemical decomposition reaction.
Q6. NCERT Core
Why should chemical equations be balanced? Balance the following equation:
Fe + H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + H₂
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Answer:
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Chemical equations must be balanced because mass can neither be created nor destroyed
in a chemical reaction. The number of atoms of each element should remain the same on
both sides.
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Balanced equation:
3Fe + 4H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂
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3 Marks Questions
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Q7. Observation-Based
When lead nitrate is heated strongly:
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(a) Name the brown gas evolved.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation.
(c) Identify the type of reaction.
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Answer:
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(a) Brown gas: Nitrogen dioxide, NO₂
(b)
2Pb(NO₃)₂ → 2PbO + 4NO₂ + O₂
(c) It is a thermal decomposition reaction because one compound breaks into simpler
substances on heating.
Q8. Redox-Based
In the reaction:
CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O
(a) Which substance is oxidised?
(b) Which substance is reduced?
(c) Identify the oxidising agent and reducing agent.
Answer:
(a) H₂ is oxidised because it gains oxygen to form H₂O.
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(b) CuO is reduced because it loses oxygen to form Cu.
(c)
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Oxidising agent: CuO
Reducing agent: H₂
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5 Marks Questions
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Q9. High-Probability Structured Question
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An iron nail is dipped in blue copper sulphate solution. After some time, the blue colour of
the solution fades and a brown coating is seen on the iron nail.
(a) Write the balanced chemical equation.
(b) Name the type of reaction.
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(c) Why does the blue colour of copper sulphate solution fade?
(d) Why is brown coating formed on the iron nail?
(e) Which metal is more reactive: iron or copper?
Answer:
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(a)
Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu
(b) It is a displacement reaction.
(c) The blue colour fades because copper sulphate is converted into iron sulphate.
(d) The brown coating is copper deposited on the iron nail.
(e) Iron is more reactive than copper because it displaces copper from copper sulphate
solution.
Q10. Competency / Everyday Chemistry
Oxidation reactions are important in daily life. Answer the following:
(a) What is corrosion? Give one example.
(b) Why is corrosion harmful?
(c) What is rancidity?
(d) Mention two methods to prevent rancidity.
(e) Why are chips packets flushed with nitrogen gas?
Answer:
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(a) Corrosion is the slow damage of metals due to reaction with substances like air, moisture
or acids.
Example: Rusting of iron.
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(b) Corrosion weakens metal objects such as bridges, machines, vehicles and iron railings.
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(c) Rancidity is the oxidation of fats and oils due to which food develops an unpleasant smell
and taste. PYI
(d) Rancidity can be prevented by:
● keeping food in airtight containers
● adding antioxidants
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● refrigeration
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● flushing food packets with nitrogen gas
(e) Nitrogen is unreactive. It prevents the oxidation of oils and fats in chips, so the chips do
not become rancid quickly.
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Chapter 5: Life Processes
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10 High-Probability CBSE Pattern Questions
MCQs — 1 Mark Each
Q1. NCERT Core
Which of the following correctly represents anaerobic respiration in human muscles?
(A) Glucose → Pyruvate → Ethanol + CO₂ + Energy
(B) Glucose → Pyruvate → Lactic acid + Energy
(C) Glucose → Pyruvate → CO₂ + Water + Energy
(D) Glucose → Pyruvate → Oxygen + Energy
Answer: (B) Glucose → Pyruvate → Lactic acid + Energy
Explanation: In oxygen-deficient muscle cells, pyruvate is converted into lactic acid with the
release of energy.
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Q2. PYQ Pattern
The breakdown of glucose first takes place in the cytoplasm and forms pyruvate. In
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oxygen-deficient muscle cells, pyruvate is further converted into:
(A) Ethanol
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(B) Carbon dioxide and water
(C) Lactic acid
(D) OxygenYI
Answer: (C) Lactic acid
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Explanation: CBSE has directly used this pathway-style glucose breakdown question. The
key pattern is site + product: cytoplasm forms pyruvate; oxygen-deficient muscle cells form
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lactic acid.
Q3. Assertion-Reason
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Assertion (A): Peristaltic movement occurs throughout the alimentary canal.
Reason (R): The wall of the alimentary canal has muscles that contract rhythmically to push
food forward.
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Choose the correct option:
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(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Peristalsis is the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of muscles of the
alimentary canal. It pushes food in a regulated manner.
Q4. Diagram/Concept MCQ
Which part controls the opening and closing of stomatal pores in leaves?
(A) Epidermal cells
(B) Guard cells
(C) Xylem vessels
(D) Phloem cells
Answer: (B) Guard cells
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Explanation: Guard cells change their shape to open and close the stomatal pore.
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2 Marks Questions
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Q5. PYQ-Inspired
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What is the role of ATP in cellular processes?
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Answer:
ATP acts as the energy currency of the cell. When ATP breaks down, it releases a fixed
amount of energy that can be used to drive various cellular processes such as movement,
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synthesis of molecules, transport of substances and other maintenance activities.
Q6. NCERT Core
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Mention the functions of the following in digestion:
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Bile juice
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Answer:
(a) Hydrochloric acid: It makes the medium acidic in the stomach and helps pepsin work
properly. It also kills many harmful microbes present in food.
(b) Bile juice: It makes the acidic food from the stomach alkaline and emulsifies fats into
smaller droplets, making fat digestion easier.
3 Marks Questions
Q7. Photosynthesis-Based
Answer the following:
(a) Name the process by which green plants prepare food.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for this process.
(c) Why is chlorophyll necessary for this process?
Answer:
(a) The process is photosynthesis.
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(b)
6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂
Condition: Sunlight and chlorophyll.
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(c) Chlorophyll is necessary because it absorbs light energy from the Sun. This energy is
used to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose.
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Q8. Transportation-Based
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Explain double circulation in human beings. Why is it necessary?
Answer:
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Double circulation means blood passes through the heart twice during one complete cycle.
1. Pulmonary circulation: Deoxygenated blood goes from the right side of the heart to
the lungs for oxygenation and returns to the left side of the heart.
2. Systemic circulation: Oxygenated blood goes from the left side of the heart to the
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body and returns as deoxygenated blood to the right side.
It is necessary because it keeps oxygenated and deoxygenated blood separate and ensures
efficient supply of oxygen to body cells.
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5 Marks Questions
Q9. High-Probability Structured Question
Kidneys help in removing nitrogenous wastes and maintaining water balance in the body.
(a) Name the basic filtration unit of the kidney.
(b) Mention the function of Bowman’s capsule.
(c) Why is only about 1–2 L of urine excreted when nearly 180 L of filtrate is formed daily?
(d) Define excretion.
(e) Why is excretion necessary for living organisms?
Answer:
(a) The basic filtration unit of the kidney is the nephron.
(b) Bowman’s capsule collects the filtrate formed by filtration of blood from the glomerulus.
(c) Most of the filtrate is reabsorbed by the tubules. Useful substances such as glucose,
amino acids, salts and most of the water are reabsorbed back into the blood. Therefore, only
about 1–2 L of urine is finally excreted.
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(d) Excretion is the biological process of removing harmful metabolic wastes from the body.
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(e) Excretion is necessary because accumulation of wastes such as urea can become toxic
and disturb normal body functions.
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Q10. Competency / Case-Based
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The maintenance functions of living organisms continue even when the organism is resting
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or sleeping. These processes require energy, which is obtained from food. Green plants
prepare food through photosynthesis, and animals obtain energy by breaking down food
during respiration.
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Answer the following:
(a) Why do living organisms need energy even when they are not doing visible work?
(b) Name the process by which plants prepare food.
(c) Write the equation for the breakdown of glucose in the presence of oxygen.
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(d) What happens to the rate of photosynthesis on a cloudy day? Give reason.
(e) How do desert plants perform photosynthesis even when stomata remain closed during
the day?
Answer:
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(a) Living organisms need energy for maintenance processes such as repair of cells,
transport of substances, synthesis of molecules, growth and other internal activities.
(b) Plants prepare food by photosynthesis.
(c)
Glucose + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy
or
C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Energy
(d) The rate of photosynthesis decreases on a cloudy day because less sunlight is available.
Since light energy is required for photosynthesis, reduced light lowers the rate of food
formation.
(e) Desert plants take in carbon dioxide at night when their stomata open. This carbon
dioxide is stored as an intermediate compound and is used during the day for
photosynthesis when sunlight is available.
Light — Reflection and Refraction
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10 High-Probability CBSE Pattern Questions
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MCQs — 1 Mark Each
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Q1. NCERT Core
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A mirror is used to concentrate sunlight in a solar furnace. Which type of mirror is used?
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(A) Plane mirror
(B) Convex mirror
(C) Concave mirror
(D) Cylindrical mirror
Answer: (C) Concave mirror
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Explanation: A concave mirror converges parallel rays of sunlight at its focus, producing
intense heat.
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Q2. PYQ Pattern
Mirror X is used in a solar furnace and mirror Y is used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles.
Which statement is correct?
(A) X forms virtual, erect and diminished image; Y forms real image.
(B) X is concave mirror; Y is convex mirror.
(C) X is convex mirror; Y is concave mirror.
(D) Both X and Y are plane mirrors.
Answer: (B) X is concave mirror; Y is convex mirror.
Explanation: A solar furnace uses a concave mirror to concentrate sunlight. A vehicle
rear-view mirror is convex because it gives a wider field of view and forms a virtual, erect
and diminished image. This mirror-use pattern appeared in the 2025 paper.
Q3. Assertion-Reason
Assertion (A): A concave lens always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image of a real
object.
Reason (R): A concave lens diverges light rays and the image appears to form on the same
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side as the object.
Choose the correct option:
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(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
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(C) A is true, but R is false.
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(D) A is false, but R is true.
Answer: (A)YI
Explanation: A concave lens is a diverging lens and forms a virtual, erect, diminished image
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for all positions of a real object.
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Q4. Competency MCQ
Rays from the Sun converge at a point 25 cm behind a convex lens. To get a virtual image
using this lens, the object should be placed:
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(A) At 25 cm from the lens
(B) Less than 25 cm from the lens
(C) At 50 cm from the lens
(D) More than 50 cm from the lens
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Answer: (B) Less than 25 cm from the lens
Explanation: Sun rays are parallel, so they converge at the focus. Therefore, focal length =
25 cm. A convex lens forms a virtual image when the object is placed between the optical
centre and focus, so object distance should be less than 25 cm. This same concept appears
in the 2026-style paper.
2 Marks Questions
Q5. PYQ-Inspired Numerical
An object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a concave lens of focal length 30 cm. Find
the position of the image.
Answer:
Given:
u = -60 cm
f = -30 cm
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Using lens formula:
1/f = 1/v - 1/u
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1/-30 = 1/v - 1/-60
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-1/30 = 1/v + 1/60
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1/v = -1/30 - 1/60
1/v = -2/60 - 1/60 = -3/60 = -1/20
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v = -20 cm
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Image position: 20 cm in front of the lens, on the same side as the object.
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Q6. NCERT Core
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State Snell’s law of refraction. Write the meaning of refractive index in terms of speed of
light.
Answer:
Snell’s law states that for a given pair of media, the ratio of sine of angle of incidence to sine
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of angle of refraction is constant.
sin i / sin r = constant
This constant is called refractive index of the second medium with respect to the first.
Absolute refractive index of a medium:
n = speed of light in vacuum / speed of light in medium
n = c/v
3 Marks Questions
Q7. Power of Lens
The power of a lens is -2.5 D.
(a) Name the type of lens.
(b) Find its focal length in cm.
(c) For which defect of vision is this lens used?
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Answer:
(a) Since power is negative, the lens is a concave lens.
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(b)
P = 1/f where f is in metre.
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f = 1/P = 1/-2.5 = -0.4 m
f = -40 cm
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(c) A concave lens is used to correct myopia.
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Q8. Refractive Index-Based
The refractive indices of four media are given below:
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Medium Refractive Index
A 1.60
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B 1.48
C 1.81
D 1.77
(a) In which medium is the speed of light maximum?
(b) In which medium is the speed of light minimum?
(c) Arrange the media in increasing order of speed of light.
Answer:
Speed of light is inversely proportional to refractive index.
(a) Maximum speed: Medium B, because it has the lowest refractive index, 1.48.
(b) Minimum speed: Medium C, because it has the highest refractive index, 1.81.
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(c) Increasing order of speed:
C < D < A < B
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This table-style refractive index question appears in the 2026-style paper.
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5 Marks Questions
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Q9. High-Probability Structured Question
An object is placed 30 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 18 cm.
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(a) Write the lens formula.
(b) Find the position of the image.
(c) Find the magnification.
(d) State the nature of the image.
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(e) State whether the image is enlarged or diminished.
Answer:
Given:
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u = -30 cm
f = +18 cm
(a) Lens formula:
1/f = 1/v - 1/u
(b)
1/18 = 1/v - 1/-30
1/18 = 1/v + 1/30
1/v = 1/18 - 1/30
1/v = 5/90 - 3/90 = 2/90 = 1/45
v = +45 cm
Image position: 45 cm on the other side of the lens.
(c) Magnification:
m = v/u = 45/-30 = -1.5
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(d) Since magnification is negative, the image is real and inverted.
(e) Since |m| = 1.5, the image is enlarged.
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Q10. Competency / Ray Diagram-Based
A student studies the refraction of light through a rectangular glass slab.
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Answer the following:
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(a) Draw a ray diagram to show the path of a light ray passing obliquely through a
rectangular glass slab.
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(b) What happens to the ray when it enters glass from air?
(c) What happens to the ray when it emerges from glass into air?
(d) What is lateral displacement?
(e) Why is the emergent ray parallel to the incident ray?
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Answer:
(a) The ray diagram should show:
Incident ray → Refracted ray inside glass slab → Emergent ray
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Also mark:
● angle of incidence i
● angle of refraction r
● angle of emergence e
● lateral displacement
(b) When light enters glass from air, it bends towards the normal because glass is optically
denser than air.
(c) When light emerges from glass into air, it bends away from the normal.
(d) Lateral displacement is the perpendicular shift between the original path of the incident
ray and the emergent ray.
(e) The opposite faces of a rectangular glass slab are parallel. Therefore, the emergent ray
becomes parallel to the incident ray, though it is laterally displaced.
Electricity
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10 High-Probability CBSE Pattern Questions
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MCQs — 1 Mark Each
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Q1. NCERT Core
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The SI unit of electric resistance is:
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(A) Ampere
(B) Volt
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(C) Ohm
(D) Coulomb
Answer: (C) Ohm
Explanation: Resistance is measured in ohm, represented by the symbol Ω.
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Q2. PYQ Pattern
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Three resistors of 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance is:
(A) 1 Ω
(B) 2 Ω
(C) 6 Ω
(D) 11 Ω
Answer: (A) 1 Ω
Explanation:
1/R = 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/6
1/R = 3/6 + 2/6 + 1/6 = 6/6 = 1
So, R = 1 Ω.
Q3. Assertion-Reason
Assertion (A): Electrical appliances in household circuits are connected in parallel.
Reason (R): In parallel connection, each appliance gets the same potential difference and
can be operated independently.
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Choose the correct option:
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(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
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(D) A is false, but R is true.
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Answer: (A)
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Explanation: Parallel circuits allow each device to work independently and receive the same
supply voltage. NCERT specifically highlights parallel connection as useful because
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appliances need different currents and a failure of one does not break the entire circuit.
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Q4. Competency MCQ
A wire of resistance R is cut into two equal halves. The resistance of each half will be:
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(A) R
(B) 2R
(C) R/2
(D) R/4
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Answer: (C) R/2
Explanation: Resistance is directly proportional to length. If length becomes half, resistance
also becomes half.
2 Marks Questions
Q5. PYQ-Inspired Numerical
A current of 0.5 A flows through a resistor of resistance 20 Ω. Find the potential difference
across the resistor.
Answer:
Given:
I = 0.5 A
R = 20 Ω
Using Ohm’s law:
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V = IR
V = 0.5 × 20 = 10 V
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Potential difference = 10 V
Q6. NCERT Core
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What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel instead of series?
Answer:
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Electrical devices are connected in parallel because:
1. Each device gets the same potential difference as the supply voltage.
2. Each device can be switched on or off independently.
3. If one device stops working, the other devices continue to work.
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4. Devices of different resistance can draw different currents according to their
requirement.
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3 Marks Questions
Q7. Resistance/Resistivity-Based
A wire of length l and area of cross-section A has resistance R.
(a) What happens to resistance if the length is doubled?
(b) What happens to resistance if area of cross-section is doubled?
(c) Write the relation between resistance, resistivity, length and area.
Answer:
(a) If length is doubled, resistance becomes 2R.
(b) If area of cross-section is doubled, resistance becomes R/2.
(c) Relation:
R = ρl/A
where ρ is resistivity, l is length and A is area of cross-section.
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Q8. Heating Effect-Based
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State Joule’s law of heating. Mention two applications of the heating effect of electric current.
Answer:
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Joule’s law of heating states that heat produced in a resistor is directly proportional to:
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1. square of current,
2. resistance, and
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3. time for which current flows.
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Formula:
H = I²Rt
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Two applications:
1. Electric heater
2. Electric iron
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It is also used in devices like electric fuse and toaster.
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5 Marks Questions
Q9. High-Probability Numerical
Three resistors 5 Ω, 10 Ω and 30 Ω are connected in parallel with a 12 V battery.
(a) Find the current through each resistor.
(b) Find the total current in the circuit.
(c) Find the equivalent resistance.
(d) Why is the potential difference same across each resistor?
(e) Which resistor draws maximum current and why?
Answer:
Given:
R₁ = 5 Ω, R₂ = 10 Ω, R₃ = 30 Ω
V = 12 V
(a) Current through each resistor:
I₁ = V/R₁ = 12/5 = 2.4 A
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I₂ = V/R₂ = 12/10 = 1.2 A
I₃ = V/R₃ = 12/30 = 0.4 A
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(b) Total current:
I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
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I = 2.4 + 1.2 + 0.4 = 4.0 A
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(c) Equivalent resistance:
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1/Rp = 1/5 + 1/10 + 1/30
1/Rp = 6/30 + 3/30 + 1/30 = 10/30 = 1/3
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Rp = 3 Ω
(d) In a parallel combination, each resistor is connected directly across the same two
terminals of the battery. Therefore, the potential difference across each resistor is the same.
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(e) The 5 Ω resistor draws maximum current because current is inversely proportional to
resistance when voltage is constant.
This numerical pattern is directly aligned with NCERT’s parallel-resistor example.
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Q10. Competency / Case-Based
An electric iron is connected to a 220 V supply. It consumes power at the rate of 880 W
when heating is maximum.
Answer the following:
(a) Write the relation between power, voltage and current.
(b) Calculate the current drawn by the electric iron.
(c) Calculate the resistance of the electric iron.
(d) Write the formula for heat produced in time t.
(e) Why does an electric iron become hot when current passes through it?
Answer:
(a) Relation:
P = VI
(b) Current:
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I = P/V = 880/220 = 4 A
(c) Resistance:
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Using V = IR
R = V/I = 220/4 = 55 Ω
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(d) Heat produced:
H = I²Rt
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or
H = VIt
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(e) An electric iron becomes hot due to the heating effect of electric current. Electrical energy
is converted into heat energy in the high-resistance heating element.
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