18-05-2026

6001CMD30303125APTS20 MD

PHYSICS

1) In the s-t equation (s = 10 + 20t – 5t2) match the following :

Column I Column II

A. Distance travelled in 3s P. – 20 unit

B. Displacement in 1s Q. 15 unit

C. Initial acceleration R. 25 unit

D. Velocity at 4s S. –10 unit

(1) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P
(2) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
(3) A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R
(4) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S

2) A body is dropped from a height h. If it acquires a momentum p just before striking the ground,
then the mass of the body is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Two transparent elevator cars A and B are moving in front of each other. Car A is moving up and
retarding at a1, while car B is moving down and retarding at a2. Person in car A drops a coin inside
the car. What is the acceleration observed by person in car B.

(1) g + a2 downward
(2) g – a1 – a2 downward
(3) g – a1 + a2 downward
(4) None of these

4) A ball is hit by a batsman at an angle of 37°. The man standing at P should run at what minimum
velocity so that he catches the ball before it strikes the ground. Assume that height of man is
negligible in comparison to maximum height of projectile : [g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 3 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 9 m/s
(4) 12 m/s

5) The area of a rectangular field (in m2) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the
value for correct significant digits is :

(1) 1382
(2) 1382.5
(3) 14 × 102
(4) 138 × 101

6) Match List - I with List - II :

List - I List – II

(a) Gravitational constant (G) (i) [L2T–2]

(b) Gravitational potential energy (ii) [M–1L3T–2]

(c) Gravitational potential (iii) [LT–2]

(d) Gravitational intensity (iv) [ML2T–2]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)– (iii)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)– (i)
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)– (iii)
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)– (iii)

7) The least count of vernier callipers is 0.1 mm. The main scale reading is 10 before the zero of the
vernier scale. The zero of vernier scale coincides with the main scale division. Given that each main
scale division is 1 mm, the measured value should be experesed as :-

(1) 0.02 m
(2) 1 cm
(3) 2.0 cm
(4) 0.5 cm

8) A water pump lifts water at the rate of 5 litre per second through an average height of 8 m from a
well of depth 12 m. Its power will be :- (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(1) 1280 watt
(2) 980 watt
(3) 1180 watt
(4) 1080 watt

9) What is the value of linear velocity, if and ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) A ball is dropped on the ground from a height of 1 m the coefficient of restitution is 0.6. The
height to which the ball will rebound is

(1) 0.6 m
(2) 0.4 m
(3) 0.36 m
(4) 0.16 m

11) A stationary body of mass m gets exploded in 3 parts having mass in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 3. Its two
fractions having equal mass moving at right angle to each other with velocity of 15 m/sec. Then the
velocity of the third body is -

(1) 45 m/sec
(2) 5m/sec
(3) 5 m/sec
(4) none of these

12) Two small balls of masses m and 2m, moving along a straight line, collides inelastically as shown

in the figure. Speed of combined system formed after collision is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A uniform rod of mass M and length L is hinged about a point as shown in the fig. Initially the
rod is kept horizontal by a massless string as shown. Just After string is cut the angular acceleration
of the rod is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) On suspending a mass M from a spring the period of oscillations is T it is cut into n equal

segment on suspending the mass M from one of the segments the time period become then the
value of n will be :-

(1) 9
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None

15) Match the following

Current r.m.s values

(A) x0 sinωt (i) x0

(B) x0 sinωt cosωt (ii)

(C) x0 sinωt + x0 cosωt (iii)

(1) (A → i), (B → ii), (C → iii)

(2) (A → ii), (B → iii), (C → i)
(3) (A → i), (B → iii), (C → ii)
(4) None of these

16) The bulk modulus of rubber is 9.8 × 108 N/m2. To what depth a rubber ball should be taken in a
lake, so that its volume is decreased by 0.1 % ?

(1) 1 km
(2) 25 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 200 m

17) Water flows steadily through a horizontal pipe of variable cross-section. If the pressure of water
is P at a point where flow speed is v, the pressure at another point where the flow speed is 2v, is :-
(Take density of water as ρ)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) P – ρv2

18) The excess pressure inside one soap bubble is three times that inside a second soap bubble, then
the ratio of their surface areas is :-

(1) 1 : 9
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 27

19) A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C. Its density is :
(R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)

(1) 0.02 kg/m3

(2) 0.5 kg/m3
(3) 0.2 kg/m3
(4) 0.1 kg/m3

20) The mean free path (λ) for an ideal gas at constant pressure with molecular diameter d in terms
of absolute temperature T has relation

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) One mole of an ideal gas at temperature T1 expands according to the law . The
work done by the gas till temperature of gas becomes T2 is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

22) The angle of a prism is ‘A’. One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle
of incidence 2A on the first surface returns back through the same path after suffering reflection at
the silvered surface. The refractive index µ, of the prism is :-

(1) 2sinA
(2) 2cos A

(3)
cosA
(4) tanA

23) P, Q and R long parallel straight wires in air, carrying currents as shown. The direction of

resultant force on R is :-

(1) towards left

(2) towards right
(3) the same as that of current in Q
(4) perpendicular to plane of paper

24) In the figure, an air lens of radii of curvature 10 cm (R1 = R2 = 10 cm) is cut in a cylinder of
glass (µ = 1.5) . The focal length and the nature of the lens is :-

(1) 15 cm, concave

(2) 15 cm, convex
(3) ∞, neither concave nor convex
(4) 0, concave

25) In the given figure flux through surface S1 is ϕ1 & through S2 is ϕ2. Which is correct ?
(1) ϕ1 = ϕ2
(2) ϕ1 > ϕ2
(3) ϕ1 < ϕ2
(4) None of these

26) In the following graph, the magnitude of maximum electric field is :

(1) 5Vm–1
(2) 2.5 Vm–1
(3) 1.25 Vm–1
(4) 10 Vm–1

27) An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of intensity 2 × 105 N/C. It
experiences a torque equal to 4 Nm. Calculate the charge on the dipole if the dipole length is 2 cm :

(1) 8 mC
(2) 4 mC
(3) 2 mC
(4) 4 µC

28) The value of alternating emf E in the given circuit will be :

(1) 220 V
(2) 140 V
(3) 100 V
(4) 20 V

29) A parallel plate capacitor has plate area A and separation d. It is charged to a potential
difference V0. The charging battery is disconnected and the plates are pulled apart to 3 times the
initial separation. The work required to separate the plate is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A capacitor is connected to battery of emf 10V and capacitance of capacitor is 2 µF. If battery is

disconnected and metal slab of thickness is inserted in capacitor then find charge of capacitor:-

(1) 40 µC
(2) 20 µC
(3) 10 µC
(4) 5 µC

31) The speed of electromagnetic wave in a medium (whose dielectric constant is 2.25 and relative
permeability is 4) is equal to :-

(1) 0.5 × 108 m/s

(2) 0.25 × 108 m/s
(3) 0.75 × 108 m/s
(4) 1 × 108 m/s

32)

The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron at 27°C is λ. What will be its wavelength at 927°C :-

(1) λ/2
(2) λ/3
(3) λ/4
(4) λ/9

33) If r1 and r2 are the radii of the atomic nuclei of mass numbers 64 and 125 respectively, then the
ratio (r1/r2) is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The amount of U235 to be fissioned, to operate 10 kW nuclear reactor is (Approximately)

(1) 1.2 × 10–5 gm/s

(2) 1.2 × 10–7 gm/s
(3) 1.2 × 10–9 gm/s
(4) 1.2 × 10–13 gm/s

35) Three identical dipoles are arranged as shown below. What will be the net electric field at P

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

36) The radius of a circular coil is R and it carries a current of I ampere. The intensity of magnetic
field at a distance x on the axis from the centre (x >>R) will be :-

(1)
B=

(2)
B=
B=
(3)

B=
(4)
37) Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart. They carry steady equal currents flowing out
of the plane of the paper, as shown in figure. The variation of the magnetic field B along the line XX'
is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A particle with charge q, moving with a momentum p, enters a uniform magnetic field normally.

The magnetic field has magnitude B and is confined to a region of width d, where , The

particle is deflected by an angle θ in crossing the field:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

39) A constant current i is maintained in a solenoid. Which of the following quantities will not
increase if an iron rod is inserted in the solenoid along its axis ?

(1) Magnetic field at the centre

(2) Magnetic flux linked with the solenoid
(3) Self-inductance of the solenoid
(4) Rate of Joule heating

40) The output voltage of an ideal transformer, connected to a 240 V a.c. mains is 24 V. When this
transformer is used to light a bulb with rating 24V, 24W calculate the current in the primary coil of
the circuit.

(1) 1A
(2) 2A
(3) 0.2A
(4) 0.1 A

41) In a circuit inductance L and capacitance C are connected as shown in figure and A1 and A2 are
ammeters. When key k is pressed to complete the circuit, then just after closing key k, the readings

of A1 and A2 will be :

(1) Zero in both A1 and A2

(2) Maximum in both A1 and A2
(3) Zero in A1 and maximum in A2
(4) Maximum in A1 and zero in A2

42) In YDSE, the intensity of central bright fringe is 8 mW/m2. What will be the intensity at λ/6 path
difference ?

(1) 8 mW/m2
(2) 6 mW/m2
(3) 4 mW/m2
(4) 2 mW/m2

43) Energy required to move a body of mass m from an orbit of radius 4R to 6R is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

44) A rod of length L and mass M is bent to form a semicircular ring as shown in the adjoining

figure. The moment of inertia about XY is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) In the energy band diagram of a material shown below, the open circles and filled circles denote

holes and electrons respectively. The material is:-

(1) a n-type semiconductor

(2) a p-type semicoductor
(3) a insulator
(4) a metal

CHEMISTRY

1) In which of the following process the change in bond angle is maximum ?

– –
(1) BH3 + H → BH4
+ +
(2) NH3 + H → NH4
+ +
(3) PH3 + H → PH4
 + +
(4) H2O + H → H3O

2) Match the column :-

Compound Shape

(a) XeO2F2 (P) Trigonal-Bi-Pyramidal

(b) (Q) Linear

(c) XeO3F2 (R) See-Saw

(d) XeF2 (S) Pentagonal Planar

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) R S P Q

(2) R S Q P

(3) P S Q R

(4) S Q P R
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Bonds present in CuSO4.5H2O is :-

(1) Only electrovalent and covalent

(2) electrovalent and coordinate
(3) electrovalent, covalent and coordinate
(4) Only covalent and coordinate

4) Which of the following molecule has maximum dipole moment ?

(1) CCl4
(2) CH2Cl2
(3) C2Cl2
(4) C2Cl4

5) If P to T are second period p-block elements then which of the following graph show correct
relation between valence electrons in P2 to T2 (corresponding molecules) & their bond order is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
6) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) s-block metal oxides are basic in nature except BeO which is amphoteric.
(2) P-block non-metal oxides are acidic in nature except NO, N2O, CO.
(3) In d-block all elements are metals
(4) In p-block all elements are metals

7) Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solution, due to –

(1) d10 configuration

(2) disproportionation
(3) less charge
(4) pseudo inert gas configuration

8) Volatile metals are :-

(1) Cu, Ag, Au

(2) Zn, Cd, Hg
(3) C, Pb
(4) Fe, Co, Ni

9) Which of the following complex form maximum number of Rings ?

–3
(1) [Fe(ox)3]
(2) [Ni(dmg)2]
(3) [Ca(EDTA)]–2
(4) [Fe(dien)2]

10) Which is wrong statement about CoCl3.5NH3 :-

(1) It is cationic complex

(2) It is homoleptic complex
(3) Reacts with AgNO3 to give two mole of AgCl
(4) One Cl– satisfy, primary as well as secondary valency

11) Consider the following statements : According to the Werner's theory.

(1) Ligands are connected to the central metal ions by ionic bonds.
(2) Secondary valencies have directional properties
(3) Secondary valencies are non-ionisable
The correct statements are:

(1) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(2) 2 and 3 are correct
(3) 1 and 3 are correct
(4) 1 and 2 are correct
12) Consider the following Complex : [CO(NH3)5CO3]ClO4
The Coordination number, oxidation number, no: of d-electrons and number of unpaired d-electrons
on the metals are respectively.

(1) 6, 2, 7, 3
(2) 7, 2, 7, 1
(3) 5, 3, 6, 4
(4) 6, 3, 6, 0

13) Statement-I : The chlorides of Be2+ and Mg2+ do not impart any colour to the flame test.
Statement-II : The hydration energy of Be2+ is higher than that of Mg2+.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

14) The property of halogen acids, that indicated incorrect is :

(1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI............acidic strength

(2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF..........reducing strength
(3) HI > HBr > HCl > HF............bond length
(4) HF > HCl > HBr > HI..........thermal stability

15) Which of the nomenclature is correct according to IUPAC :

(1) Oxygen dichloride (OCl2)

(2) Chloride Iodine (ICl)
(3) Oxygen difluoride (OF2)
(4) All are correct

16) The order of reactivity of following alcohols with halogen acids is ………. .

(1) A > B > C

(2) C > B > A
(3) B > A > C
(4) A > C > B

17) , This ether is best prepared by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) In which of the following cases nitration will take place at m-position

(1) I only
(2) II, III and IV
(3) I, III and IV
(4) I, II and III

19) Which one of the following compounds will be most reactive for SN1 reaction:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Assertion: Total possible structure amine of C4H11N are eight.

Reason: Primary secondary and tertiary amine are functional isomer to each other.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
21) Which of the following statements is not true about glucose.

(1) It is an aldohexose
(2) On heating with HI it forms n-hexane
(3) It is present in furanose form
(4) It does not give 2,4-DNP test

22) A person has "bleeding gum" problem. Which of the following vitamin deficiency may be reason
for it:-

(1) Vitamin C
(2) Vitamin K
(3) Vitamin E
(4) Vitamin D

23) Among these acids which of the following order is correct for
ease of esterification with MeOH:-

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) I > III > II

24) Consider the following carbanions:- Correct

decreasing order of stability is :

(1) III > IV > I > II

(2) II > III > IV > I
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) I > II > III > IV

25) [Z]
Product [Z] of given reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) CH3CHO X Y
In the above sequence Y is :-

(1) Malonic acid

(2) Malic acid
(3) Lactic acid
(4) Mendalic acid

27) What is the major product of the following reaction ?

(excess) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) What is the structure of B :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Which of the following compound most reactive for dehydrohalogenation :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) IUPAC name of

(1) Di ethanal
(2) Ethanedial
(3) Dial
(4) Dicarbaldehyde

31) Maximum number of spectral lines in infrared region when electrons of a sample of hydrogen
atom in 5th excited state return to their ground state–

(1) 15
(2) 9
(3) 6
(4) 10

32) The number of orbitals in n = 4 are -

(1) 9
(2) 12
(3) 16
(4) 20

33) For the following three reactions (i) (ii) and (iii) equilibrium constants are given:

Which of the following relations is correct?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

34) For the reaction : , Kp/Kc is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3) 1
(4) RT2

35) Assertion (A) :- When the aqueous solution of CH3COONH4 is diluted, then its degree of
hydrolysis does not change. Reason (R) :- It is the salt of a weak acid and a weak base hence its
degree of hydrolysis does not depend on the concentration.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

36) If KW(H2O) = 1 × 10–10 at any temperature then a solution of pH = 5.5 under these conditions is
said to be :

(1) acidic
(2) basic
(3) neutral
(4) None of these
37) If 100 mL of pH = 3 and 400 mL of pH = 3 is mixed, what will be the pH of the mixture

(1) 3.2
(2) 3.0
(3) 3.5
(4) 2.8

38) Which one of the following is NOT a buffer solution :-

(1) 0.8M H2S + 0.8M KHS

+
(2) 2M C6H5NH2 + 2M C6H5N H3Br
(3) 3M H2CO3 + 3M KHCO3
(4) 0.05M KClO4 + 0.05M HClO4

39) Which of the following statements are not true for the reaction : 4Fe + 3O2 → 4Fe+3 + 6O–2
(a) It is a redox reaction
(b) Metallic iron is a reductant
(c) Fe+3 is a reductant
(d) Metallic iron is reduced to Fe+3
Correct option is :

(1) c, d
(2) a, b
(3) a, c
(4) a, b, d

40) Zero oxidation state of carbon exists in :-

(1) CH4
(2) CH2O
(3) CHCl3
(4) CO2

41) Consider the following reaction

C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + x kJ

CO(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + y kJ

The heat of formation of CO(g) is :

(1) –(x + y)kJ/mol

(2) (x – y)kJ/mol
(3) (y – x)kJ/mol
(4) None of these

42) Number of molecules in 1 litre of oxygen at NTP is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 32 × 22.4

(4)

43) On increasing the partial pressure of a gas above the surface of liquid at constant temperature:
(A) Solubility of gas in liquid increases.
(B) Number of moles of gas dissolved in liquid increases.
(C) Mass of gas dissolved in liquid increases.
(D) Volume of gas dissolved in liquid increases.
Total number of correct statements is equal to:

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44)

Calculate emf of given cell at 25ºC :

Given :
(1) 0.80 V
(2) 0.12
(3) 0.92 V
(4) 1.04 V

45) A first order reaction is 50% completed in 20 minutes at 27ºC and in 10 minutes at 47ºC. The
energy of activation of the reaction is :-

(1) 4.38 Kcal

(2) 3.43 Kcal
(3) 6.62 Kcal
(4) 1.32 Kcal

BOTANY
1) Mark the incorrect statement for the organelle which has cart wheel like organisation :
(A) They are surrounded by amorphous peri-centriolar material
(B) the organisation is typical 9 + 2
(C) Each peripheral fibril is a doublet
(D) They form basal body of cilia or flagella

(1) A and B
(2) C and D
(3) A and D
(4) B and C

2) In __A__ type of inflorescence the main axis terminates in a flower, hence is __B__ in growth. The
flowers are borne in a __C__ order. A, B & C respectively are _____.

(1) Racemose, unlimited, acropetal

(2) Cymose, limited, basipetal
(3) Cymose, unlimited, basipetal
(4) Cymose, limited, acropetal

3) Which of the following is true for sunflower?

(1) Hypodermis is made up of collenchyma

(2) Flowers are epigynous
(3) Two to four radial vascular bundles are present in root
(4) All of the above

4) How many mitotic division required for the development of female gametophyte from megaspore?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) The main cause for the extinction of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the Lake Victoria in
East Africa was :-

(1) Over-exploitation
(2) Co-extinction
(3) Alien-species invasion
(4) Habitat fragmentation

6) World Summit on sustainable developmentwas held in

(1) Johannesburg, South Africa, 2002

(2) Rio De Janeiro, 1992
(3) Rio De Janeiro, 2020
(4) Montreal, Canada, 1987

7) Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions ?

(1) Eubacteria
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Mycobacteria
(4) Archaebacteria

8) Which of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms.

(2) Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.
(3) Mycoplasma have DNA, Ribosome and cell wall
(4) Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.

9)

India has ____ genetically different strains of rice and ____ varieties of mango

(1) 1,000 and 50,000

(2) 50,000 and 20,000
(3) 50,000 and 1,000
(4) 3,000 and 1,000

10) The lowest comman taxonomic categories of Wheat and Mango is

(1) Division
(2) Class
(3) Family
(4) Order

11) An example of colonial alga is

(1) Volvox
(2) Ulothrix
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Chlorella

12) Ovary is one chambered but it became two chambered due to formation of false septum in:–

(1) Dianthus and Primrose

(2) Mustard and Argemone
(3) Sunflower and Marigold
(4) Pea and Lemon
13)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Roots have fungal association in the form of mycorrhiza in___(i)____ while in some others like
__(ii)___ small specialised roots called coralloid roots are associated with N2 fixing cyanobacteria.
The stem are unbranched in__(iii)__ and branched in__(iv)__.
In this question (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are respectively :

(1) (i) Pinus, (ii) Cycas, (iii) Cycas, (iv) Pinus

(2) (i) Cycas, (ii) Pinus, (iii) Pinus, (iv) Cycas
(3) (i) Pinus, (ii) Cycas, (iii) Pinus, (iv) Cycas
(4) (i) Cycas, (ii) Pinus, (iii) Cycas, (iv) Pinus

15) The principle of DNA fingerprinting is based on_____.

(1) Genetic recombination

(2) Polymorphism in DNA sequences
(3) Mutation in genes
(4) Gene duplication

16) Frameshift mutations occur due to_____

(1) Deletion or insertion of bases

(2) Base substitution
(3) Chromosomal breakage
(4) Change in tRNA structure

17) In an experiment, DNA was found to have 31% adenine. The quantity of cytosine shall be :-

(1) 38%
(2) 31%
(3) 19%
(4) 62%
18) Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine, uridine and cytidine all are ________but adenylic acid, guanylic
acid, uridylic acid and cytidylic acid are______.

(1) Nucleotides, Nucleosides

(2) Nucleosides, Nucleic acid
(3) Nucleosides, Nucleotides
(4) Nucleotides, Nucleic acid

19) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below :-

Column-I Column-II

Removal of stamens
a from the flower bud before (i) Polyembryony
the anther dehisces

Occurance of more than

b (ii) Embryogeny
one embryo in a seed

The residual and

c (iii) Emasculation
peristent nucellus

Early stage of embryo

d (iv) Perisperm
development

a b c d

(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) What is the frequency of pure round seeded pea plants in F2 generation of a dihybrid cross -

(1) 4/16
(2) 6/16
(3) 1/16
(4) 2/16

21) Predict from the following chart-

(1) Character is sex linked recessive
(2) Character is autosomal recessive only
(3) Character is recessive and may be x-linked or autosomal
(4) Character is holandric & carried by Y-chromosome.

22) If a distance between a+ and b+ is 15 cm, then what will be the proportion of recombinants?

(1) 30%
(2) 15%
(3) 70%
(4) 35%

23) Select the correct match

A. Pea I.

B. China rose II.

C. Mustard III.

D. Sunflower plant IV.

(1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(2) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(3) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
(4) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

24) Following is the absorption spectrum of photosynthesis. Identify X, Y and Z.

(1) X – Chlorophyll-b; Y – Carotenoids; Z – Chlorophyll-a

(2) X – Chlorophyll-a; Y – Carotenoids; Z – Chlorophyll-b
(3) X – Chlorophyll-b; Y – Phycobillins; Z – Carotenes
(4) X – Chlorophyll-a; Y – Carotenes; Z – Xanthophyll

25) In general, it is possible to calculate the net gain of ATP for every glucose molecule oxidized as
38. However, these calculations would be correct based on the assumptions given below, except that

(1) All the reactions in a pathway and all the pathways occur in a sequential manner
Only glucose is being used and no other alternate substrates enter the pathway at any of the
(2)
intermediate stages
(3) None of the coenzymes are reduced during aerobic respiration
The NADH synthesized in glycolysis is transferred to mitochondria and the same undergoes
(4)
oxidative phosphorylation

26) Assertion: The reduced ubiquinone (ubiquinol) is oxidised with the transfer of electron to
cytochrome-c via cytochrome-bc1 complex (complex III).
Reason: During electron transport, proton accumulates within inner membrane of mitochondria.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

27) The first event in photosynthesis is :-

(1) Synthesis of ATP

(2) Photoexcitation of chlorophyll and ejection of electrons
(3) Photolysis of water
(4) Release of oxygen

28) Which of the following statements about productivity is correct ?

(1) Primary productivity of all ecosystem is a constant

(2) NPP is the amount of biomasss available for consumption by carnivores only
(3) Primary productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular area
Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by
(4)
decomposers only

29) Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted as the biomass of fish far exceeds that of
(1)
phytoplanktons
(2) Pyramid of number and biomass may be either upright or inverted
(3) Pyramid of number is always upright in grassland and pond ecosystem
(4) Pyramid of energy is mostly upright but sometimes it may be inverted
30)

(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

31) Which of the following enzymes catalyse the conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA during the
link reaction?

(1) Hexokinase
(2) Phosphofructokinase
(3) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(4) Alcohol dehydrogenase

32) If glucose is labelled with 14C, what molecule will become radioactive as glycolysis and TCA cycle
are completed ?

(1) Water
(2) NADH
(3) ATP
(4) CO2

33)

Column-I Column-II

(a) Complex I (1) Cytochrome bc 1 complex

(b) Complex II (2) NADH dehydrogenase

(c) Complex III (3) Cytochrome c oxidase

(d) Complex IV (4) ATP synthase

(e) Complex V (5) FADH2

(1) a-3,b-4,c-2,d-5,e-1
(2) a-4,b-5,c-1,d-2,e-3
(3) a-2,b-4,c-3,d-1,e-5
(4) a-2,b-5,c-1, d-3,e-4

34)
 Column-I Column-II

(a) Glycolysis (1) Stroma

(b) Kerb's cycle (2) Grana

(c) Calvin cycle (3) Cytosol

(d) Photolysis of water (4) Mitochondrial matrix

(e) ETS (5) Inner mitochondria membrane

(1) a-3,b-4,c-5,d-1,e-2
(2) a-4,b-3,c-5,d-2,e-1
(3) a-3,b-4,c-1,d-2,e-5
(4) a-1,b-2,c-3, d-4,e-5

35) Statement-I:- The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell through
mitosis is called microsporogenesis.
Statement-II:- The pollen grain represents the male gametophyte.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

36) Match List-I with List-II:

(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

37) Match List I with List II

 List-I List-II

(A) Monoadelphous (I) Citrus

(B) Diadelphous (II) Pea

(C) Polyadelphous (III) Lily

(D) Epiphyllous (IV) China-rose

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III
(2) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
(3) A–I, B–II, C–IV, D–III
(4) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II

38)

Given figure represents which type of placentation ?

(1) Basal
(2) Axile
(3) Free central
(4) Marginal

39) During which stage of meiosis I, the four chromatids of each bivalent chromosome become
distinct and clearly appear as tetrad?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Pachytene

40) Select the correct sequence of wall layer of prokaryotic cell from outside to inside. [NCERT (XI)-I
-128]

(1) Cell wall → Glycocalyx → Plasma membrane

(2) Glycocalyx → Plasma membrane → Cell wall
(3) Plasma membrane → Cell wall → Glycocalyx
(4) Glycocalyx → Cell wall → Plasma membrane

41) First gap phase in cell cycle is :-

(1) interval between mitotic phase and DNA replication phase
(2) interval between G2 phase and S-phase
(3) interval between karyokinesis and cytokinesis
(4) interval between DNA replication phase and second gap phase

42)

Pollen intine is made of :

(1) Sporopollenin
(2) Cellulose and Pectin
(3) Ergosterol
(4) Phospholipids and cholesterol

43) During........of cell division the bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate.

(1) Metaphase I
(2) Metaphase of mitosis
(3) Anaphase I
(4) Metaphase II

44) Choose the correct option for given diagram :-

(1) Experiment used to demonstrate that tip of the coleoptile is the source of Gibbrellin.
(2) Experiment used to demonstrate that movement of Auxin is acropetal.
Experiment used to demonstrate that tip of the coleoptile was the site of transmittable influence
(3)
that cause the bending of entire coleoptile.
(4) Arrow indicates direction of Air.

45) Regarding factors affecting the development, PGR is the :-

(1) Intrinstic inter cellular control

(2) Intrinstic intra cellular control
(3) Intrinstic extra cellular control
(4) Extrinsic factor

ZOOLOGY

1) Which of the following statements are correct for hemichordates?

I. They are marine animals with a true notochord.
II. Body is divided into proboscis, collar, and trunk.
III. They have gill slits and dorsal tubular nerve cord.
IV. Their circulatory system is open and they are bilaterally symmetrical.
(1) II, III, IV only
(2) I, II, III only
(3) II, IV only
(4) I, III, IV only

2) Which of the following are natural contraceptive methods?

(A) Periodic abstinence
(B) Coitus interruptus
(C) Lactational amenorrhea
(D) M.T.P.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C
(3) A, B and C
(4) B, D

3) Observe the figure given below. Identify the marking ‘X’ and the nature of the tissue associated

with it. Select the correct option w.r.t ‘X’.

(1) Alveolar wall – Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Basement substance – Connective tissue
(3) Blood capillary – Endothelium
(4) Alveoli – Stratified squamous epithelium

4) Match column I (category) with column II (secondary metabolites) and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(Category) (Secondary metabolites)

A. Pigments I. Concanavalin A

B. Terpenoides II. Monoterpenes, Diterpenes

C. Alkaloids III. Morphine, Codeine

D. Lectins IV. Carotenoids, Anthocyanin

(1) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(2) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(3) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(4) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV

5) Statement I:- The osmolarity gradient in the renal medullary interstitium of human kidney is
mainly caused by NaCI and urea.
Statement II:- The ascending limb of loop of Henle allows active and passive transport of
electrolytes

(1) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statements I and II are correct
(4) Statements I and II are incorrect

6) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Thalamus is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling.
Statement-II : Three major regions make up the brain stem ; mid brain, cerebellum and medulla
oblongata.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

7) Read the following statements and select the correct option:

Statement I: As per the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, termination of pregnancy up
to 24 weeks requires the opinion of only one registered medical practitioner.
Statement II: Infertility is defined as the inability of a couple to conceive even after half a year of
unprotected sexual cohabitation.

(1) Both statements are true

(2) Both statements are false
(3) Statement I true, Statement II false
(4) Statement I false, Statement II true

8) Consider the following statements regarding the post-renal urinary tract :

Statement I: The oblique openings of the ureters into the urinary bladder prevent the backflow of
urine.
Statement II: The internal sphincter of the urinary bladder is made up of voluntary muscle.
Which of the following is correct?

(1) Both statements I and II are true

(2) Both statements I and II are false
(3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true

9) Identify the ‘X’?

(1) Spermatid
(2) Spermatozoa
(3) Undifferentiated spermatid
(4) None of these

10) How many of the following are absent in male frog :-

Hepatic portal system, Bidder's canal, 4 Chambered heart, Omnivorous nature, Ureotelic, direct
development

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 7

11) Assertion (A): Frogs are considered important for mankind.

Reason (R): They eat insects and protect the crops.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

12) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
I. In blue/white colony selection, presence of insert result into insertional inactivation of the -
galactosidase gene and the colonies do not produce any color they are identified as recombinant
colonies.
II. Transformants produced during genetic engineering include both recombinants and non-
recombinants

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Only statement I is incorrect
(3) Only statement II is incorrect
(4) Both statements are correct

13) Statement–I:- Degeneration of corpus luteum causes disintegration of endometrium leading to

menstruation.
Statement–II:- The levels of estrogen fall during proliferative phase.

(1) Statements I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(3) Statements I and II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect

14) Match the column I with column II and find the correct option.

(1) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1

(2) a–3, b–2, c–4, d–1
(3) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2
(4) a–4, b–1, c–2, d–3

15) Assertion: Goitre occurs due to the deficiency of iodine.

Reason: Enlargement of thyroid gland is known as goitre.

(1) the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) both the assertion and reason are false.

16) Which of the following correctly relates thyroid and parathyroid hormones in calcium regulation?

(1) Thyroxine increases blood calcium

(2) Calcitonin increases blood calcium
(3) Parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium
(4) Both hormones decrease calcium

17) Statement I: Thymosins provide immunity.

Statement II: Thymus degenerates in old age.

(1) Both statements are true

(2) Both statements are false
(3) statement I is true but II false
(4) statement II is true but I false

18) Match the protein given in column I with its function given in column II and choose the right
option
 Column I Column II
(Proteins) (Functions)

A. Collagen I. Glucose transport

B. Trypsin II. Hormone

C. Insulin III. Intercellular ground substance

D. GLUT-4 IV. Enzyme

(1) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(2) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(3) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(4) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II

19) Assertion (A):- Acquired immunity is non specific type of defence characterised by memory.
Reason (R):- Acquired immunity is provided by B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true

20) Regarding bioreactors

A. They provide optimal conditions for growth
B. They are used for large-scale production
C. They are only used for DNA extraction
D. They maintain pH, temperature, oxygen
Correct statements:-

(1) A, B, D
(2) A, C, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B, C

21) FRC is the total of _____.

(1) TV+IRV + ERV

(2) ERV + RV
(3) TV+ ERV
(4) TV+ RV

22) All are true except one, chose the incorrect statement:-

Atrium and ventricle of same side are separated by thick muscular tissue called the atrio-
(1)
ventricular septum
(2) Thin muscular wall called inter atrial septum, separates left and right atria
(3) Atria receives venous blood
(4) Systemic circulation takes CO2 and other harmful substances away from tissues for elimination

23) Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

Genetically engineered
A. I. Gene therapy
Human Insulin

B. GM Cotton II. E. coli

Antigen-antibody
C. ADA Deficiency III.
interaction

Bacillus
D. ELISA IV.
thuringiensis
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

24) Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) PCR is used for amplification of DNA.
(b) Taq polymerase is thermostable.
(c) Denaturation occurs at very low temperature.
(d) Primers are required in PCR.

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) All are correct

25) Specific Bt toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis and incorporated into several
crop plants such as cotton. Which of the following statements is correct about Bt toxin genes?

The toxin is coded by a gene named cry, and the proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and
(1) cryIIAb control the cotton bollworms, while that of cryIAb controls corn borer, as most Bt
toxins are insect-group specific
The toxin is coded by a gene named cry, and the proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and
(2) cryIIAb control the corn borer, while that of cryIAb controls cotton bollworms, as most Bt
toxins are species-specific
The toxin is coded by a gene named Bt, and the proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and
(3) cryIIAb control the nematode Meloidogyne incognitia, while that of cryIAb controls tobacco
pests
The toxin is coded by a gene named cry, and all the cry gene proteins control the same type of
(4)
pest as Bt toxins are not insect-group specific and work against all categories of insects equally

26) Match Column –I with Column–II and select the correct option using the codes given below

Column-I Column-II
(a) Citric acid (i) Trichoderma
(b) Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium
(c) Statins (iii) Aspergillus
(d) Butyric acid (iv) Monascus

Codes :-
a b c d

(1) i iv ii iii

(2) iii iv i ii

(3) iii i ii iv

(4) iii i iv ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Which of the statements are incorrect :

Computed Tomography uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to detect
(1)
physiological changes in living tissue
(2) Rhematoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease.
The vaccine also generates memory-B and T-cells that recognize the pathogen quickly on
(3)
subsequent exposure.
(4) Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin from the mast cells.

28) Assertion :- Large holes are present in 'swiss cheese'.

Reason :- Large amount of CO2​ is produced by Propionibacterium sharmanii.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

29) Select the total number of incorrect statement w.r.t. 'Baculoviruses'.

(i) Are pathogen that attack aphids and mosquitoes only.
(ii) Majority of Baculoviruses used as biological control agents are in the genus
Nucleopolyhedrovirus.
(iii) Are excellent candidates for species-specific, broad spectrum insecticidal application
(iv) Have negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds, fish or even on non-target insects

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) Arrange the below given ancestors of man in decreasing order of their cranial capacities.
A. Homo habilis
B. Homo erectus
C. Neanderthal man
Choose the correct option.

(1) C > B > A

(2) B > C > A
(3) A > C > B
(4) B > A > C

31) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion A: Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are homologous organs.
Reason R: Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of convergent evolution.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

32) Arrange the following events in the correct evolutionary order:

A. Formation of free atoms (C, H, O, N)
B. Formation of simple inorganic molecules (H2O, NH3, CH4)
C. Synthesis of simple organic compounds (Sugars, Amino acids)
D. Formation of complex organic compounds (Polysaccharides, Proteins)

(1) A → B → C → D
(2) B → A → C → D
(3) A → C → B → D
(4) D → C → B → A

33) Identify how many of the following statements are correct regarding evolutionary history:
I. The first mammals were like shrews.
II. Lobefins evolved into the first amphibians that lived on both land and water.
III. Giant ferns (pteridophytes) were present but later fell to form coal deposits.
IV. The first organisms that invaded land were plants.

(1) Only one statement

(2) Only two statements
(3) Only three statements
(4) All four statements

34) Match the following – Joints in human body

(1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(2) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
(3) A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4
(4) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4

35) Which form of natural selection has operated on a population resulting in following figure ?

(1) Stabilising selection

(2) Directional selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) Balancing selection

36) What is the value of pO2 in alveoli and tissues respectively?

(1) 104 mm Hg and 150 mm Hg

(2) 45 mm Hg and 0.3 mm Hg
(3) 104 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg
(4) 95 mm Hg and 159 mm Hg

37) According to sliding filament theory, muscle contraction occurs due to:

(1) Shortening of actin

(2) Shortening of myosin
(3) Sliding of actin over myosin
(4) Disappearance of A band

38) Gout occurs due to deposition of :

(1) Urea crystals
(2) Uric acid crystals
(3) Calcium carbonate
(4) Cholesterol

39) 1. Each myofibril has alternate dark and light bands.

2. A band contains actin filaments only.
3. Sarcomere is the functional unit of muscle contraction.
4. Sliding filament theory was proposed by Huxley and Hanson.
Select the correct statements:

(1) 1, 3 and 4 only

(2) 1 and 2 only
(3) 2, 3 and 4 only
(4) All four

40) Assertion (A): Calcium ions are essential for muscle contraction.
Reason (R): Calcium binds to troponin causing exposure of active sites on actin.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

41) Label the following diagram :-

(1) A-Mature graffian follicle, B-Corpus Luteum

(2) A-Secondary Follicle, B-Corpus luteum
(3) A-Tertiary follicle, B-Corpus luteum
(4) A-Tertiary follicle, B-Corpus albicans

42) Which of the given statement is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by agarosegel
electrophoresis?

(1) DNA can be seen in visible light

(2) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
(3) Ethidium bromide stained RNA can be seen in visible light.
(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light

43) Find out the incorrect one(s) with reference to the inspiration.
(1) If the intra-pulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure then inspiration.
(2) There is a negative pressure in the lungs with respect to atmospheric pressure.
(3) Ribs and sternum are raised.
(4) Diaphragm relaxes.

44) In the alveoli, CO2 dissociates from carbaminohaemoglobin, due to :

(1) Low pCO2 and high pO2

(2) High pCO2 and low pO2
(3) Low pCO2 and pO2 low
(4) High pCO2 and pO2 high

45) Assertion:– Inspiration occurs due to muscular relaxation.

Reason:– During inspiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscle relaxes simultaneously

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 1 2 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 4 2 3 2 3 1 1 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 1 1 1 1 3 3 4 2 4 1 4 2 3 2 2 1 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 1 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 3 2 1 4 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 1 3 2 2 4 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 1 2 4 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 4 2 4 2 2 4 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 3 1 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 4 3 3 1 4 4 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 1 3 3 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 4 3 4 3 1 3 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 2 1 3 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 3 1 1 3 2 2 3 2 3 1 4 4 1 2 3 1 1 4 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 1 4 1 1 4 1 1 3 1 4 1 4 1 3 3 3 2 1 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 4 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

3)

aCB → aCoin w. r. t. car B

aCB = aCa – aBa
= (–g) – (a2)
= – (g + a2) Or
(g + a2) downwords.

4)

∵ d = vm × t ∴ 9 = vm ×

∴ vm = = 5m/s

5)

Explain question : Calculate area of rectangle upto correct SF

Concept: This question is based on significant figures.

Solution:

Area = Length × Breadth

= 55.3 × 25
= 1382.5
= 14 × 102
Final Answer: (3)

6) Gravitational constant = [M–1L3T–2]

Gravitational potential energy = [ML2T–2]
Gravitational potential = [L2T–2]
Gravitational intensity = [LT–2]
7) Reading = MSR + LC × VSR
= 10 mm + 0 × 0.1 mm
= 10 mm = 1 cm

8) Explanation :
Power required to lift the water at a constant rate from well

Concept :
Power is rate at which work is done

Solution :
w = mgh

h = 12 + 8 = 20m

= 5 × 9.8 × 20
P = 980 W

Final Answer :
Option (2)

9)

Explain the Question : Find linear velocity using

Concept : This question is based on use cross product of angular velocity and position vector.

Solution :

Final Answer : Option (4)

10)
11)

12) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-I, Page No.

129

13) Explain question :

Concept :
This question is based on torque

Solution :
For this rod of mass "M" & length "L", w.r.t. hinge "O".

...(i)

& also ...(ii)

By equations (i) & (ii) :

Final answer :

14) 1. Explanation:

A spring is cut into equal parts; the spring constant changes and so does the time period.
2. Concept:

Time period . Cutting into n parts makes k'= nk.

3. Solution:
Original time period:

After cutting into n parts:

Given :

Thus:
n=3
4. Final answer: Option (3)

15)

(1) Equation x = x0 sinωt

rms value
(2) Equation x = x0 sinωt cosωt

rms value
(3) x = x0 sinωt + x0 cosωt
=

rms value =

16)

B=
ΔP = B (–ΔV/V)
hρg = B(–ΔV/V)
h × 103 × 9.8 = (9.8 × 108) × (0.1 × 10–2)
h = 100 m

17)

Using Bernoulli theorem,

⇒
⇒ P2 =

18) Explain Question:

The excess pressure inside one soap bubble is three that inside a second bubble. What is the
ratio of their surface areas?

Concept:
Excess pressure,
Formula :

Solution:

Pexcess ∝

Final answer: option (1)

19) For an ideal gas sample

ρ= =
= 0.199
ρ 0.2 kg/m3

20)

Mean free path is given by

PV=NkBT ∴ (number density)

As pressure is constant hence

21) Explain the Question : We have to calculate work done in given polytropic process.

Concept: This question is based on work done in polytropic process.

Solution :

Given PV–3 = constant

x = –3, n = 1 mole

Final Answer : Option (3)

22)

μ= = , μ = 2 cos A.

23) Both P and Q will attract R

24)
⇒ f = –15 cm, so behaves as concave lens.

25) Both cuts equal number of electric lines

26) Question Explanation :

Given
using the given diagram, we have to calculate the maximum magnitude of electric field.

Concept: Relation between electric field and potential.

Solution:

[slope of V-r curve]

From r = 0 to r = 2m

= 5 V/m
from r = 2m to r = 3m
θ= 0º (line parallel to x-axis)
for r = 3 m to r = 8m

= 2 V/m
So the maximum magnitude of E is 5 V/m

Final answer: option (1)

27)

Explain question :
We are asked to calculate the charge on a dipole given torque, electric field, angle, and dipole
length.

Concept:
Torque on dipole placed in uniform electric field.

Solution:

Final answer: option (3)

28)

Explain Question:
For given series LCR we need to find source voltage.

Concept:
Series LCR circuit

Formula:

Solution:

V = 100 volt

Final answer: option (3)

29) Work done W = Uf – Ui

Ui = and

So, W =

30) Question Explanation:

In this question, we are asked how charge changes when a metal slab is inserted after
disconnecting the battery.

Concept:
Circuit Analysis With Capacitors Having Dielectrics (Dielectric Insert/Out)

Solution:
Initial charge:
Q = CV = 2 μF × 10 V = 20 μC
When the battery is disconnected, the capacitor becomes an isolated system. No charge can
enter or leave. Therefore, the charge on the capacitor remains constant at even after the
metal slab is inserted.

Final Answer: Option (2)

31)

32)

33) r ∝ A1/3
A1 = 64 & A2 = 125

34) Explain Question:

Calculate the mass of U235 required per second to maintain a power output of 10 kW.

Concept:

Power where n is the number of nuclei and E ≈ 200 MeV per fission.
Solution:
Energy per fission: E = 200 MeV = 200 × 1.6 × 10–13 J = 3.2 × 10–11 J

Number of fissions per second:

m ≈ 1.21 × 100–7 gm/s

Final Answer: Option (2)

35) Point P lies at equatorial positions of dipole 1 and 2 and axial position of dipole 3.

Hence field at P
due to dipole 1

(towards left)
due to dipole 2

(towards left)

due to dipole 3 (towards right)

So net field at P will be zero.

36)

B= if x >> R

B
 37)

38)

Explain the Question : A particle of charge q and momentum p enters a uniform magnetic
field B normally. The magnetic field is confined to a region of width d, with d < p / (Bq). The
particle emerges from the field after being deflected through an angle θ. We have to find the
relation for sin θ.
Concept : This question is based on motion of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field.
Formula : Radius of circular path r = p / (qB)
Geometrical relation : sin θ = d / r
Solution :

From figure it is clear that

When the charged particle enters the magnetic field normally, it moves along a circular arc of
radius
r = p / (qB)
The magnetic field exists only over a width d, so the chord length inside the field gives
sin θ = d / r
Substituting r,
sin θ = d / (p / qB)
sin θ = Bqd / p
Final answer : 1

39)

Question Explanation: The question asks us to identify which physical quantity will not
increase when an iron rod (a ferromagnetic material) is inserted into a solenoid while the
current i is kept constant.

Concept : Self-induction and self-inductance of solenoid.

Solution :
When an iron rod is inserted into a solenoid, the medium inside changes from air/vacuum to iron.
Iron has a much higher Magnetic Permeability (μ) compared to vacuum (μ0).
Specifically, μ = μrμ0, where the relative permeability μr, for iron is very large (typically > 1000).
Analyzing each option
1. Magnetic field at the centre (B): The formula for the magnetic field inside a solenoid is B =
μni. Since μ increases significantly with the iron rod, the magnetic field increases. 2. Magnetic
flux linked with the solenoid (ϕ): Magnetic flux is given by ϕ = Li. Since the inductance (L)
increases, the flux increases. 3. Self-inductance of the solenoid (L): The self-inductance is
calculated as L = μn2 Al. As L is directly proportional to permeability (μ), the inductance increases.
4. Rate of Joule heating (P): The rate of heat dissipation (Joule heating) is given by the formula: P
= i2R Current I is constant
Resistance R remains same (iron core doesn’t affect wire resistance)
→ So heat produced does not increase

Final answer : Option (4)

40) EP = 240 V ES = 24 V, ES IS = 24 W

Current in primary coil IP =

41) At t = 0, Inductor behaves as open circuit & capacitor as short-circuit.

So A2 will have zero current & A1 will have maximum current.

0
42) I = 4I cos2

ϕ=

I = 8 cos2 = 6 mW/m2

43)

44) Explain Question :

To find out MOI of a semi-circular ring of radius 'R', made of wire of length 'L' and mass 'm'.

Concept:
Moment of Inertia

Solution:

MI of given ring =

Where πR = L ⇒ R =

So, I=
 Final answer: Option (1)

45) Explain Question:

We are given an energy bond diagram for a material. We need to identify the material on its
basis.

Concept:
Energy Bond Theory

Solution:

Nh >> Ne
So, p–type semiconductor

Final Answer: Option (2)

CHEMISTRY

47) Explain Question: Match xenon compounds with shapes.

Concept: VSEPR theory

Solution:
see-saw (R)
Pentagonal planner (S)
Trigonal-bi-pyramidal (P)
linear (Q)

Final Answer: Option (1)

48)

as per structure

52) Explanation:
The question asks why Cu+ is unstable in water, prompting consideration of its chemical
behavior and relavite stability compared to other copper species in solution.
Concept:
Thermodynamic stability of different oxidation states of an element in a specific environment
(aqueious solution in this case).
Solution:
Cu+ in unstable in aqueious solution due to its tendency to undergo disporportionation. It
spontaneously oxidized to Cu2+ and reduces to Cu(s) because Cu2+ is more stable in water due
to its higher hydration enthalpy.

Final Answer: Option (2)

53) Question Explanation : Identify which metals exist in volatile or easily vaporisable form.

Concept : Volatility increases for metals with low boiling points and weak metallic bonding.

Solution: Among the given options, Zn, Cd, and Hg belong to group 12 and have low melting
and boiling points due to completely filled d¹⁰ configuration causing weak metallic bonding.
Hence, they vaporize easily and are called volatile metals. Other options contain high-melting
transitions or nonmetals.

Final Answer : OPTION

2

54) EDTA → Hexadentate

No. of chelate ring = denticity – 1
=6–1
=5

55) Explaining the question : The question asks you to identify the incorrect statement
among the four given options regarding the coordination complex CoCl3​⋅5NH3​.
Concept : Werner's Coordination Theory.
Solution :

The complex is [Co(NH3​)5​Cl]Cl2​, a cationic and heteroleptic complex. It reacts with AgNO3​ to
yield two moles of AgCl. The Cl− inside satisfies both primary and secondary valencies.

Thus, "It is homoleptic complex" is the wrong statement.

56)

Question explanation : Question is asking about correct Werner theory statements for
complexes.
Concept : This question is based on Werner theory explains primary and secondary valency
behaviour in complexes.
Solution:
(1) Incorrect → Ligands attached by coordinate covalent bonds, not ionic.
(2) Correct → Secondary valencies (coordination number) are directional.
(3) Correct → Secondary valencies are non-ionisable; they remain inside the bracket.
Thus, only 2 and 3 are correct.
Final answer : Option 2
59)

60)

Oxygen difluoride (OF2)

61)

Explain Question : Identify correct order of reactivity of alcohol with halogen acid.

Concept : Reactivity of SN1 reaction ∝ stability of carbocation.

Solution :

Final answer : option (2)

62)

Explanation:
Identify best method to prepare given ether.

Concept:
Williamson Ether synthesis.

Solution:
Williamson synthesis follows SN2 mechanism.

Final answer: Option (2)

64)

Explain Question:

Identify the compound most reactive for SN1 reaction.

Concept:
 Rate of SN1 reaction

Solution:

Rate of reaction ∝ stability of carbocation.

∝ Leaving group tendency
I– > Br– > Cl– > F– {order of leaving group tendency}

Hence most reactive to wards SN1 reaction is

Final answer: Option (1)

65)

Conceptual

66) Asking about :

Statement not true about glucose.

Concept :
Glucose exist in six membered ring structure [Pyranose]

Solution/Explanation :
Glucose is aldohexose sugar which exist in pyranose form i.e. six membered ring and not in
furanose form.

67)

NCERT-XII, Part-II

68)

Earsterification ∝

69)

Explain the Question :- Determine the correct decreasing stability order of the four given
benzyl carbanions.
Concept :-This question is based on Carbanion Stability, Mesomeric Effect (+M, -M),
Hyperconjugation (+H), Inductive Effect
Solution :- Carbanion stability is increased by electron-withdrawing groups (-M, -I) and
decreased by electron-donating groups (+M, +H, +I).

Cation Group Dominant Effect Stability Rank

(I) -OCH₃ Strong +M (destabilizing) 4 (Least Stable)
(II) -NO₂ Strong -M (stabilizing) 1 (Most Stable)
(III) -H Reference (Resonance) 2
(IV) -CH₃ +H / +I (destabilizing) 3

The Correct decreasing order of stability is (II) > (III) > (IV) > (I).
Final answer :- (2).

70) Explaination: Find out the product (Z) in give multistep reaction starting with
cyclohexanol.
Concept: Oxidation, NAR, Reduction.
Solution:

Final Answer: Option (4)

72) Explain the question : major product is:

Concept : This question is based on addition of excess of alcohol on ketone gives ketal.
Solution :
Ketones on reaction with alcohol in acidic medium gives hemiketal, which on further reaction
with alcohol in acidic medium gives ketal.
Final answer : 3

73)

74)

75)
Ethane-1, 2-dial
or
Ethanedial

76)

77) Question Explanation: Determine the total number of atomic orbitals present in the
fourth principal energy level (n = 4).
Concept: Principal Shell Orbitals.
Solution: The total number of orbitals in any principal shell is calculated using the formula .
For n = 4, total orbitals = , representing one s orbital, three p orbitals, five d orbitals,
and seven f orbitals.
Final Answer: Option 3
80)

pH and h doesn't depend upon dilution for salt formed by WA-WB.

81) KW = 1 × 10–10
∴ [H+] = [OH–] = 10–5 N
pH = 5 for neutral solution
pH < 5 acidic, pH > 5 basic
thus, (b)

82) Explanation : pH is to be found of mixture of two acidic solution.

Given data : (pH) = 3, V1 = 100 mL
(pH)2 = 3, V2 = 400 mL
Concept : pH = –log (H+)mix.

For (Acid + Acid) ⇒

Calculation :
+ –3
(H )1 = 10 , V1 = 0.1 L
(H+)2 = 10–3, V2 = 0.4 L

Final Answer : 3.

83) Explanation : Example of solution of which is not buffer, is to be found.

Concept : Types of Buffer solution.
Types of Buffer solution
• Simple buffer solution (Aqueous solution of WAWB type salt).
• Acidic buffer solution (weak acid + WASB type salt).
• Basic buffer solution (weak base + WBSA type salt)
Final Answer : KClO4 + HClO4 (SASB + SA Type)

84)

Explanation Question:
To find the incorrect statement.

Concept:
Application of oxidation state.

Solution:

Fe is oxidised (R.A.)
O2 is reduced (O.A.)
(a) It is a redox reaction (correct)
(b) Fe is reductant (correct)
(c) Fe3+ is R.A. (incorrect)
(d) Metallic iron Fe is oxidised (incorrect)
To fe3+

Final answer: Option (1)

85)

Question Explanation:
To find a compound in which oxidation state of C is zero.

Concept:
Determination of oxidation state.

Solution:
Option (1): CH4 X + (+1)4 = 0; X = –4
Option (2): CH2O X + (+1)2 +(–2) = 0 ; X = 0
Option (3): CHCl3 X + (+1) +(–1)3 = 0 ; X = +2
Option (4): CO2 X + (–2) × 2 = 0 ; X = +4

Final answer: Option(2)

86) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)

ΔrH1 = –x kJ/mol ...(1)
CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO2(g)
ΔrH2 = –y kJ/mol ...(2)
Equation (1) – (2)

C(s) + O2(g) →CO(g)

ΔfH= (y – x)kJ/mol

87)

88) A, B and C are correct statements.

89) A : H2 → H+ + e–
EAO = 0.059 × 2 = 0.12V
C : Ag+ + e– → Ag

ECR = 0.8 – log = 0.68V

Ecell = 0.80 V

Ag → Ag+ + e–
 H+ + e– → H2
__________________________

Ag + H+ → Ag+ + H2

90)

Ea = 6624 calorie = 6.62 Kcal

BOTANY

91)

NCERT Pg. # 137

93) NCERT XI Pg. no. 73, 92,93

94)

95) The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa led eventually to the extinction
of an ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the lake. This
is an example of all Alien species invasion.

96) Explain the question : The question asks: Where and when was the World Summit on
Sustainable Development held ?
Concept : This question is based on International Summits.
Solution :
The World Summit on Sustainable Development (WSSD) was later held in Johannesburg, South
Africa, in 2002 to review progress and strengthen global commitment to sustainable
development.
Final Answer : (1)

97)
98) Solution/Explanation :
Cyanobacteria, also known as blue-green algae, are a group of photosynthetic bacteria.
Cyanobacteria can be unicellular or form covers and filaments in kingdom monera.

99)

100) NCERT Pg.# 11

101)

102)

103)

104)

NCERT XI, Pg # 38

105) Polymorphism in DNA sequences

106) Deletion or insertion of bases

107)

108)

109)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 9, 20, 23

110) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about What is the frequency of pure round seeded pea plants in F2
generation of a dihybrid cross

Solution:
A dihybrid cross involves two traits, and in this case, the traits are seed shape (round vs.
wrinkled) and color (yellow vs. green)
For the round seed shape, the round seed (R) is dominant over the wrinkled seer (r).
The pure round-seeded plants would have the genotype RR (homozygous round)
When performing the dihybrid cross (RrYy × RrYy). the F2 generation follows the 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
phenotypic ration. The frequency of pure round-seeded plants (RR) is obtained from the
genotypic ratio of 1/4 for RR in the dihybrid cross, which equal 4/16.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

111)

Question Explanation: The question asks to predict the mode of inheritance (autosomal
recessive, autosomal dominant, or sex-linked) based on a pedigree chart.

Concept: Human genetics : Pedigree

Solution:

Affected offspring from unaffected parents: This is the most prominent clue. Recessive traits
can "hide" in carriers (heterozygotes) and then reappear when two carriers have a child
together.

Trait often skips generations: This is related to the first point. The trait seems to disappear and
then reappear later in the pedigree.

So, the correct answer is: 2.

Final answer: 2.

112)

113)
114) NCERT Page no. 137

115) NCERT Page no. 161

116)

NCERT Page no. 159, 160, 161

118)

119)

120)

121)

122)

NCERT XI, Pg # 228 to 232

123)

124)

NCERT XI, Pg # 229 to 234

125) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

126) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

127)
 128) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 75

129)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No.168

130)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 128

134)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 174

135)

ZOOLOGY

137) A, B and C

138) Alveolar wall – Simple squamous epithelium

139) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I

140) Statements I and II are correct

141)

142)

Question Explanation: Check correctness of statements about MTP Act and infertility
definition.

Concept: The question is based on MTP and infertility.

Solution:
 A. Statement I: False → Up to 20 weeks, opinion of one doctor is sufficient, but for 20–24
weeks, opinion of two doctors is required; hence “up to 24 weeks only one doctor” is
incorrect.

B. Statement II: False →If couples are unable to produce children in spite of unprotected
sexual cohabitation up to 2 years this is called infertility , not 6 months.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Final Answer: Option 2

143)

Question Explanation: Evaluate correctness of statements about urinary bladder structure

and function.

Concept: The question is based on post renal urinary tract

Solution: The correct answer is option 3.

Statement I: Correct

A. Ureters pass obliquely through the bladder wall.

B. When bladder fills, pressure compresses ureters → prevents vesicoureteral reflux

(backflow).

Statement II: Incorrect

A. Internal sphincter is made of smooth muscle.

B. It is involuntary (controlled by autonomic nervous system).

C. The external sphincter is voluntary (skeletal muscle).

Final Answer: Option 3

144) Spermatozoa

145) Solution :
Absent structures in frog are
(1) 4 Chambered heart
(2) Omnivorous nature
(3) Direct development
146) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

147) Both statements are correct

148) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect

149) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1

150) NCERT Page No.27 to 30

151)

Question Explanation: The question links thyroid and parathyroid in Ca²⁺ balance.

Concept: Calcium homeostasis

Solution: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases blood calcium by bone resorption, while
calcitonin lowers it.

Final answer: Option - 3

152) Solution :Thymosins provide immunity and Thymus degenerates in old age
Final Answer : (1)

153) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I

154) (A) is false and (R) is true

155) A, B, D

156) ERV + RV

157) Atrium and ventricle of same side are separated by thick muscular tissue called the atrio-
ventricular septum

158) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

159) (a), (b) and (d)

160) Ans. (1)

1 is the correct answer
161) NCERT-XII Pg. # 153

162)

Correct option (1)

163) NCERT Page No. 151

164) NCERT Page no. 187

165) NEW NCERT 11th Page No. 224, 227

166) (NEW NCERT 12th Page No. 115)

167) Solution: Evolution started from the simplest state (atoms), which combined into small
inorganic molecules in the primitive atmosphere. These then reacted to form simple organic
monomers, which eventually polymerized into complex macromolecules.
Final Answer : (1)

168) Solution : Plants were the first to colonize land, followed much later by animals
(amphibians from lobefins).
Final Answer : (4)

169) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4

170) Disruptive selection

171) 104 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg

172) Explanation : Filaments slide; length unchanged.

Final Answer : (3)

173) Final Answer : (2)

174) Solution : Statement 2 is incorrect. A band contains thick myosin filaments (with overlap
of actin).
Others are correct as per NCERT.
Final Answer : (1)

175) Solution : Calcium binds to troponin, shifting tropomyosin and exposing active sites,
enabling cross-bridge formation.
Final Answer : (1)

176) A-Tertiary follicle, B-Corpus luteum

177) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light

178) Diaphragm relaxes.

179) Low pCO2 and high pO2

180) Both Assertion and Reason are false