17-05-2026

6001CMD30303125APTS19 MD

PHYSICS

1) A bead can slide on a smooth straight wire and a particle of mass m attached to the bead by a
light string of length ℓ. The particle is held in contact with the wire and with the string taut and is
then let fall. If the bead has mass m then when the string makes an angle θ with the wire, the bead

will have slipped a distance :

(1) ℓ(1 – cos θ)

(2) (ℓ/2) (1 – cos θ)
(3) (ℓ/3) (1 – cos θ)
(4) (ℓ/6) (1 – cos θ)

2) In the given circuit find the magnitude of current flowing through arm 'AB' :

(1) 4.5A
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 3.5A
(4) 4 A

3) Five conducting plates each having area A are arranged as shown in the figure. The outer plates
are connected by a wire. Find out equivalent capacitance between A and B is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A particle starts from rest and performing circular motion of constant radius with speed given by
where a is a constant and x is the distance covered. The correct graph of magnitude of its
tangential acceleration (at) and centripetal acceleration (ac) versus t will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
5) The following four wires of length L and radius r are made of the same material. Which of these
will have the largest extension, when the same tension is applied?

(1) L = 100 cm, r = 0.2 mm

(2) L = 200 cm, r = 0.4 mm
(3) L = 300 cm, r = 0.6 mm
(4) L = 400 cm, r = 0.8 mm

6) In a series LCR circuit R = 400Ω and the voltage & frequency of the main supply is 220 V and 50
Hz respectively. On taking out the capacitance from the circuit the current lags behind the voltage
by 45°. On taking out inductor from the circuit the current leads voltage by 45°. Power dissipated in
LCR circuit is :

(1) 72 W
(2) 121 W
(3) 425 W
(4) 0 W

7) The core of a transformer is laminated so that

(1) energy loss due to eddy currents may be reduced

(2) rusting of the core may be prevented
(3) change in flux may be increased
(4) ratio of voltage in the primary to that in the secondary may be increased

8) A small bar magnet is moved through a coil at constant speed from one end to the other. Which of
the following series of observations wil be seen on the galvanometer G attached across the coil ?

Three positions shown describe : (a) the magnet's entry (b) magnet is completely inside and (c)
magnet's exit.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) Graph of position of image vs position of point object from a convex lens is shown. Then, focal

length of the lens is

(1) 0.50 ± 0.05 cm

(2) 0.50 ± 0.10 cm
(3) 5.00 ± 0.05 cm
(4) 5.00 ± 0.10 cm

10) Match List-I with List-II.

List - I List - II
(Number) (Significant figure)

(a) 1001 (I) 3

(b) 010.1 (II) 4

(c) 100.100 (III) 5

(d) 0.0010010 (IV) 6

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)-(III), (b)-(IV), (c)-(II), (d)-(I)
(2) (a)-(IV), (b)-(III), (c)-(I), (d)-(II)
(3) (a)-(II), (b)-(I), (c)-(IV), (d)-(III)
(4) (a)-(I), (b)-(II), (c)-(III), (d)-(IV)

11) The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = – x2 y – xz3 + 4. The electric field at
that point is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Three charges Q, + q and + q are placed at the vertices of a right – angled isosceles triangle as
shown. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero if Q is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3) –2q
(4) +q

13) One requires 11eV of energy to dissociate a carbon monoxide molecule into carbon and oxygen
atoms. The minimum frequency of the appropriate electromagnetic radiation to achieve the
dissociation lies in :-

(1) visible region

(2) infrared region
(3) ultraviolet region
(4) microwave region

14) If two tuning forks A and B are sounded together, they produce 4 beats per second. A is then
slightly loaded with wax, they produce same beats when sounded again. The frequency of A is 256
Hz. The frequency of A is 256 Hz. The frequency of B will be :-

(1) 250 Hz
(2) 252 Hz
(3) 260 Hz
(4) 262 Hz

15) The work done in increasing the size of a rectangular soap film with dimensions 8 cm × 3.75 cm
to 10 cm × 6 cm is 2 × 10–4 J. The surface tension of the film in N/m is:

(1) 1.65 × 10–2

(2) 3.3 × 10–2
(3) 6.6 × 10–2
(4) 8.25 × 10–2
16) Water flows through the tube shown. Area of cross-section of wide and narrow part are 5 cm2 &
2 cm2. The rate of flow is 500 cm3/sec. Find difference in mercury level of U-tube :- (Specific gravity

of mercury is 13.6)

(1) 2.9 cm
(2) 2.1 cm
(3) 0.9 cm
(4) None of these

17) A rod of length L lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length f. The near end of the rod
is at a distance L > f from the mirror. Its image will have a length :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) An air bubble in a glass slab (µ = 1.5) is 6 cm deep as viewed from one face and 4 cm deep as
viewed from the other face. The thickness of the glass slab is

(1) 6.67 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) Data is incomplete

19)

Masses of 1 kg each are placed 1m, 2m, 4m, 8m,.... from a point P. The gravitational field intensity
at P due to these masses is

(1) G
(2) 2G
(3) 4G

(4)

20) The pressure and volume of an ideal gas are related as , where 'a' and 'b' are
constant. The translational kinetic energy due to the thermal motion of the gas sample at volume V
= b, given that ab = 12 kJ is n kJ. Find n.
(1) 0
(2) 3
(3) 9
(4) 12

21) Statement I : A particle is rotated in a vertical circle with the help of a string. Power produced
by tension in the string on the particle is zero.
Statement II : Tension is always perpendicular to instantaneous velocity.

(1) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true ; Statement–II is correct explanation for Statement–I.
Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true ; Statement–II is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
statement–I
(3) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is false
(4) Statement–I is false, Statement–II is true

22) An observer on ground sees a boat crossing a river of width 800 m perpendicular to its stream in
200 seconds. He also finds a man on a raft floating at speed of 3 m/s with river. The distance
travelled by boat as seen by man on the raft in crossing the river is :-

(1) 800 m
(2) 1000 m
(3) 1200 m
(4) 1600 m

23) Two long and parallel straight wires A and B carrying currents of 8.0 A and 5.0 A in the same
direction are separated by a distance of 4.0 cm. Estimate the force on a 10 cm section of wire A.

(1) 2 × 10–5 N ; attractive force normal to B towards A.

(2) 2 × 10–5 N ; attractive force normal to A towards B.
(3) 5 × 10–5 N ; attractive force normal to A towards B.
(4) 5 × 10–5 N ; attractive force normal to B towards A.

24) The distance of the closest approach of an alpha particle fired at a fixed nucleus with momentum
p is r0. The distance of the closest approach when the alpha particle is fired at the same nucleus with
momentum 2p will be

(1) 2r0
(2) 4r0

(3)

(4)

25) A free neutron decays into a proton, an electron and :

(1) A beta particle.

(2) An alpha particle.
(3) An antineutrino.
(4) A neutrino.

26) In hydrogen atom electron in nth excited state comes to ground state by emitting six different
wavelengths. The maximum energy of emitted photon will be

(1) 12.09 eV
(2) 10.2 eV
(3) 1.51 eV
(4) 12.75 eV

27) A monkey of mass 20 kg is holding a vertical rope. The rope will not break when a mass of 25 kg
is suspended from it but will break if the mass exceeds 25 kg. What is the maximum acceleration
with which the monkey can climb up along the rope ? (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 5 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 25 m/s2
(4) 2.5 m/s2

28) The engine delivers 150 kW power at an angular speed of 600 rev/min. How much torque does
the engine provide?

(1) 125 Nm

(2)

(3)

(4) 7500 Nm

29) A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity V making an angle of 45° with the horizontal.
The magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile about point of projection when the particle is
at maximum height h is :-

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The following configuration of gates is equivalent to :–

(1) NAND
(2) OR
(3) XOR
(4) NOR

31) Assertion (A) :- A P-N photodiode is made from a semiconductor for which Eg = 2.8 eV. This
photo diode will not detect the wavelength 600 nm. Reason (R) :- A PN photodiode detect

wavelength λ if

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

32) For a particle executing SHM along a straight line, match the statements in column I with
statement in column II. (Note that displacement given is column I is to be measured from mean
position)

Column I Column II

i. Velocity-displacement graph may be a. Straight line

ii. Acceleration-velocity graph may be b. Circle

iii. Acceleration-displacement graph will be c. Ellipse

iv. Acceleration-time graph will be d. Sinusoidal curve

(1) i → a; ii → c, b; iii → b; iv → a
(2) i → b, c ; ii → b, c; iii → a; iv → d
(3) i → d, c ; ii → a, c; iii → d; iv → c
(4) i → a ; ii → d; iii → b; iv → c

33) The loudness level due to two waves of the same frequency in a given medium respectively are
50 dB and 100 dB. Then the ratio of their intensities is :

(1) 101
(2) 105
(3) 103
(4) 1010

34) An organ pipe filled with a gas at 27°C resonates at 400 Hz in its fundamental mode. If it is filled
with the same gas at 90°C, the resonance frequency at the same mode will be :-

(1) 420 Hz
(2) 440 Hz
(3) 484 Hz
(4) 512 Hz
35) In Young's double slit experiment, the wavelength of red light is 7800 Å and that of blue light is
5200 Å. The value of n for which nth bright band due to red light coincides with (n + 1)th bright band
due to blue light, is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) A slit of width 12 × 10–7 m is illuminated by light of wavelength 6000 Å. The angular width of the
central maximum is approximately -

(1) 30º
(2) 60º
(3) 90º
(4) 0º

37) A plane polarized wave is incident on a boundary separating two media at brewster’s angle. The
plane of vibration of electric field is same as the plane of incidence. Then :-

(1) There is no refracted ray

(2) There no reflected ray.
(3) Reflected ray and refracted ray are both partially polarized.
(4) Reflected ray and refracted ray are polarized in a plane perpendicular to the plane of incidence.

38) The axes of the polarizer and analyzer are inclined to each other at an angle of 60o. If the
amplitude of polarized light emerging through the analyzer is A, the amplitude of unpolarized light
incident on the polarizer is

(1)

(2) A
(3) 2A
(4)

39) A small cube with mass M starts at rest point 1 at a height 4R, where R is the radius of the
circular part of the track. The cube slides down the frictionless track and around the loop. The force
that the track exerts on the cube at point 2 is nearly____ times the cube's weight Mg.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) The following observation are taken from a travelling microscope to determine the refractive
index of a liquid Reading of the bottom of an empty beaker = 12.324 cm
Reading of the bottom of the beaker when partially filled with liquid = 12.802 cm
Reading of liquid surface = 13.895 cm
What will be the refractive index of the liquid

(1) 0.437
(2) 1.437
(3) 2.4
(4) 3.4

41) Escape velocity for a projectile at earth's surface is ve. A body is projected form earth's surface
with velocity 2ve. The velocity of the body when it is at infinite distance from the centre of the earth
is :–

(1) ve
(2) 2ve
(3) ve
(4) ve

42) An observer can see through a pin-hole the top end of a thin rod of height h, placed as shown in
the figure. The beaker height is 3h and its radius h. When the beaker is filled with a liquid up to a
height 2h, he can see the lower end of the rod. Then the refractive index of the liquid is
(1) 5/2
(2)
(3)
(4) 3/2

43) Find average value of current in 0 to T time interval

(1)
amp
(2) amp
(3) 4 amp
(4) π amp

44) The resistance of a semi-conductors :-

(1) increases with increase of temperature

(2) decreases with increase of temperature
(3) does not change with change of temperature
(4) first decreases and then increases with increase of temperature

45) Two ideal electric dipoles A and B, having their dipole moment p1 and p2 respectively are placed
on a plane with their centres at O as shown in the figure. At point C on the axis of dipole A, the
resultant electric field is making an angle of 37° with the axis. The ratio of the dipole moment of A

and B, is : (take sin 37° = )

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which among the following molecules have sp3d hybridisation with one lone pair of electrons on
the central atom ?
(i) SF4 (ii) [PCl4]+
(iii) XeO2F2 (iv) ClOF3

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(2) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) (iii) and (iv) only.

2) The bond angle of NH3 and NH4+ and NH2– are in the order

+
(1) NH2¯ > NH3 > NH4
+
(2) NH4 > NH3 > NH2¯
+
(3) NH3 > NH2¯ > NH4
+
(4) NH3 > NH4 > NH2¯

3) In the molecule of C2H4 which type of overlapping is not present ?

(1) sp2–sp2
(2) sp2–s
(3) Pure p & pure p
(4) sp2–p

4) During change of O2 to ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals ?

(1) π* orbital
(2) π orbital
(3) σ* orbital
(4) σ orbital

5) Which of the following is CORRECT order :-

(1) → Basic strength

(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI → Acidic strength
(3) NaOH < KOH < RbOH < CsOH→ Basic strength
(4) All of these

6) Following statements regarding the periodic trends of chemical reactivity of the alkali metals and
the halogens are given. Which of these statements gives the correct picture ?

Chemical reactivity increases with increase in atomic number down the group in both the alkali
(1)
metals and halogens
In alkali metals the reactivity increases but in the halogens it decreases with increase in atomic
(2)
number down the group
The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals but increases in the halogens with increase in
(3)
atomic number down the group
In both the alkali metals and the halogens the chemical reactivity decreases with increase in
(4)
atomic number down the group

7) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Cr2+ is oxidising and Mn3+ is reducing in nature.
Statement II : Sc compounds are repelled by the applied magnetic field.
3+

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

8) Match the catalyst with the process :

Catalyst Process

The oxidation of ethyne to

(i) V2O5 (a)
ethanal

TiCl4 +
(ii) (b) Polymerisation of alkynes
Al(CH3)3

Oxidation of SO2 in the

(iii) PdCl2 (c)
manufacture of H2SO4

Nickel
(iv) (d) Polymerisation of ethylene
complexes
Which of the following is the correct option ?
(1) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
(2) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d
(3) i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv - d
(4) i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b

9) In which of the following complex ion, the metal ion will have configuration according to
CFT?

3–
(1) [FeF6]
3–
(2) [Fe(CN)6]
4–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]
+2
(4) [Fe(NH3)6]

10) In the isoelectronic series of metal carbonyl, the CO bond strength is expected to increase in the
order :

+ –
(1) [Mn(CO)6] < [Cr(CO)6] < [V(CO)6]
– +
(2) [V(CO)6] < [Cr(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6]
– +
(3) [V(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6] < [Cr(CO)6]
+ –
(4) [Cr(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6] < [V(CO)6]

11) Which of the following complexes have lowest molar conductance ?

(1) CoCl3.3NH3
(2) CoCl3.4NH3
(3) CoCl3.5NH3
(4) CoCl3.6NH3

12) Which of the following statements is correct ?

3– 3+
(1) [CoF6] and [Co(NH3)6] both are paramagnetic complexes
3– 3+
(2) [CoF6] and [Co(NH3)6] both are high spin complexes
3– 3+
(3) [CoF6] is octahedral while [Co(NH3)6] has a pentagonal pyramid shape
3– 3+
(4) [CoF6] is outer orbital complex while [Co(NH3)6] is inner orbital complex

13) A compound (X) on decomposition gives a colourless gas. The residue is dissolved in water to
obtain (Y). Excess CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of (Y) and (Z) is formed. (Z) upon gentle
heating gives back (X). The (X) is :

(1) CaCO3
(2) Ca(HCO3)2
(3) NaHCO3
(4) Na2CO3

14) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : PH3 has lower boiling point than NH3.
Reason (R) : In liquid state NH3 molecules are associated through vander waal’s forces, but PH3
molecules are associated through hydrogen bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

15) Arrange the following alkanols A, B and C in order of their reactivity towards acid catalysed
dehydration:

(1) A > B > C

(2) B > A > C
(3) B > C > A
(4) C > B > A

16) Which is correct about y :-

(1) It gives fehling solution

(2) It gives tollens test
(3) It gives 2,4 D.N.P test
(4) It does not give lodoform test

17)

Identify the correct order of reactivity in electrophilic substitution reactions of the following
compounds

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) D > C > B > A
(3) B > A > C > D
(4) B > C > A > D
18) Find the product in following reaction :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Match the compounds given in List–I with their characteristic reactions given in List–II. Select
the correct option.

List–I (Compounds) List–II (Reactions)

(a) CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2 (i) Alkaline hydrolysis

With KOH (alcohol) and CHCl3

(b) CH3C≡CH (ii)
produces bad smell

Gives white ppt. with ammonical

(c) CH3CH2COOCH3 (iii)
AgNO3

With Lucas reagent cloudiness appears

(d) CH3CH(OH)CH3 (iv)
after 5 minutes

Options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
20) Identify the number of carbon atoms in the product formed by the complete hydrolysis of
Propanenitrile.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

21) Following compound contains how many chiral centres :-

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

22) D (+) glucose reacts with hydroxylamine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would
be :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23) Identify x and y in the following sequence

C2H5Br product C3H7NH2

(1) x = KCN , y = LiAlH4

+
(2) x = KCN, y = H3O
(3) x = CH3Cl, y = AlCl3/HCl
(4) x = CH3–NH2, y = HNO2

24) P, in the reaction product 'P' is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25)

In which of the following reaction aldehyde will form?

(a) Stephen's reduction
R–C N+SnCl2+HCl
(b) Etard reaction

(c) Gattermain's formylation

 +CO+HCl

(d) Ph–CH=N–CH3
(1) Only a & b
(2) Only a & c
(3) Only a, c & d
(4) All of these

26)

Stability of carbanion follows the order.

(1) Q > P > S > R

(2) Q > P > R > S
(3) P > Q > R > S
(4) P > Q > S > R

27)

Order of acidic strength is :-

(1) R > S > P > Q

(2) R > S > Q > P
(3) S > P > Q > R
(4) S > Q > P > R

28) Which among the following statement is wrong regarding Mohr's salt :-

(1) It has five ions per molecule

(2) It is a double salt.
(3) It does not give test of Fe+2 ions.
(4) It contains two type of cations.

29) P2 should be

(1) CH3CH – O – CH3

(2) CH2 = CH2
(3) CH3 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3
(4) none of these

30) The hybrid state of C-atoms which are attached to a single bond with each other in the
following structure are :
CH2=CH—C≡CH

(1) sp2, sp
(2) sp3, sp
(3) sp2, sp2
(4) sp2, sp3

31)

Atomic mass of Ne is 20.2. Ne is a mixture of Ne20 and Ne22. Relative abundance of heavier isotope is

(1) 90
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 10

32)

What is the ratio of time periods (T1/T2) in second orbit of hydrogen atom to third orbit of He+ ion?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

33) For the synthesis of ammonia by the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 in the Haber's process, the
attainment of equilibrium is correctly predicted by the curve :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

34) Consider the following statement

(i) Strong acids have very weak conjugated base
(ii) Conjugated acid base pair has differs only one proton
(iii) Arrhenius concept explained basic nature of ammonia
(iv) Acidic nature of BF3 is explained by bronsted lowry concept
The incorrect statement is

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

35) The pKa of a weak acid, HA, is 4.80 The pKb of a weak base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous
solution of the corresponding salt, BA, will be :

(1) 8.58
(2) 4.79
(3) 7.01
(4) 9.22

36) How many grams of CaC2O4 will dissolve in one liter of saturated solution ? Ksp of CaC2O4 is 2.5 ×
10–9 and its molecular weight is 128

(1) 0.0064 g
(2) 0.0128 g
(3) 0.0032 g
(4) 0.0640 g

37) Which is a buffer solution -

(1) CH3COOH + CH3COONa

(2) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
(3) CH3COOH + NH4Cl
(4) NaOH + NaCl
38) The favourable conditions for a spontaneous reaction are:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3(g) is –81.9 kJ/mol. The amount of heat required to
decompose 26 gm NH3(g) into it's elements. is

(1) 125.24 kJ
(2) 143.8 kJ
(3) 164.7 kJ
(4) 105.6 kJ

40) For a binary ideal liquid solution, the total pressure of the solution is given as :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

41) A 0.1 M solution of monobasic acid HA has pH equal to one unit at 27°C. The osmotic pressure of
acid solution at 27°C will be–

(1) 4.926 atm

(2) 0.2463 atm
(3) 2.463 atm
(4) 0.4926 atm

42) For the reaction xA + yB → zC

then x, y and z are respectively :-

(1) 1, 1, 1
(2) 3, 2, 3
(3) 3, 3, 2
(4) 2, 2, 3

43) In a first order reaction the reacting substance has half-life period of ten minutes. What fraction
of the substances will be left after an hour the reaction has occurred ?

(1) 1/6 of initial concentration

(2) 1/64 of initial concentration
(3) 1/12 of initial concentration
(4) 1/32 of initial concentration

44)

Choose incorrect statement :-

(1) One Farraday (1F) electric charge will deposite one gram equivalent of any substance
Conductivity decreases with the decrease in concentration for both weak and strong
(2)
electrolytes.
(3) Equivalent conductivity increases with dilution whether weak or strong electrolyte
When the same quantity of charge is passed through different electrolytes, then the masses of
(4)
different substances deposited at respective electrodes will be same

45)

Which of the following statement is correct :

If = 0.34V
= 0.0V
= –0.136V

(1) Cu can be oxidised by H+ ion.

2+
(2) Sn ion can be reduced by H2
(3) Sn can be oxidised by Cu2+
(4) Cu can be oxidised by Sn2+

BOTANY

1) Refer to the given figure and identify the labelled parts P, Q, R and S.

(1) P-Seed, Q-Thalamus, R-Mesocarp, S-Endocarp

(2) P-Thalamus, Q-Seed, R-Endocarp, S-Mesocarp
(3) P-Seed, Q-Thalamus, R-Endocarp, S-Mesocarp
(4) P-Pericarp, Q-Seed, R-Mesocarp, S-Endocarp

2) The total number of nuclei involved in double fertilisation in angiosperms are

(1) two
(2) three
(3) four
(4) five

3) The most common type of ovule found in 82% of angiosperm are

(1) Orthotropous
(2) Anatropous
(3) Amphitropous
(4) Hemi-anatropous

4) The given plant shows all adaptations for pollination, except

(1) Light and non-sticky pollen

(2) Well exposed stamens
(3) Presence of nectaries
(4) Flowers packed into inflorescence

5) Find out the number of meiosis to form 50 seeds in a typical flowering plant

(1) 200
(2) 100
(3) 63
(4) 13

6) Read the following statements:

(i) As we go higher from species to Kingdom, the number of common characteristics goes on
decreasing
(ii) Lower the taxa, less are the characteristics that the members within the taxon share
(iii) Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other taxa at the
same level

(1) Only (i) is correct

(2) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(3) (i) and (ii) are correct
(4) (i) and (iii) are correct

7) Biological concept of species given by Ernst Mayr is applicable for

(1) Mangifera indica

(2) Pisum sativum
(3) Homo sapiens
(4) More than one option is correct

8) How many phenotypes are possible for a polygenic trait controlled by 4 genes

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 9

9) If the distance between two genes increases, then:

(1) Crossing over frequency increases

(2) Linkage strength increases
(3) Recombination decreases
(4) More than one option is correct

10) The linkage map of X-chromosome of fruit fly has 72 map units, with yellow body gene (y) at one
end and bobbed hair (b) at the other end. The recombination frequency between these two genes
should be:

(1) 72 %
(2) more than 50%
(3) ≤ 50%
(4) Zero

11) In the given genotypes for skin color which shows intermediate phenotype?

(1) AaBBcc
(2) AaBbCc
(3) aaBbCC
(4) All of these

12) In a population unrestricted reproductive capacity is called as:

(1) Biotic potential

(2) Fertility
(3) Carrying capacity
(4) Birth rate
13) The vectors used in the methodologies of HGP usually are

(1) DNA and RNA of protozoan

(2) BAC and YAC of bacteria and yeast
(3) Protein elements of viruses
(4) Phospholipids of bacterial cell wall

14) Single membrane bounded, minute vesicle which participate in photorespiration process is

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Sphaerosome

15) The substitution of amino acid in the globin protein results due to the single base substitution at
the sixth codon of the beta globin gene from

(1) GAG to GGG

(2) CAG to GAG
(3) GAG to GUG
(4) GGC to GGA

16) Which of the following have independent gametophytes

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

17) Genotype of blood group ‘A’ will be

(1) IAIA only

(2) IBIB
(3) IAIA or IAI°
(4) IAIB
18) How many of the following are related to mesophyll cells in C4 plants?
(A) Absence of RuBisCo enzyme
(B) Release of CO2
(C) Regeneration of PEP
(D) Formation of OAA

(1) A, C and D
(2) A and B only
(3) A and C only
(4) D and C only

19)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Consider the following pie chart of different plants, fungi and lichens diversity-

Select the statement which is incorrect regarding the sectors of given pie chart

(1) Sector C belongs to the heterotrophic organisms

(2) Sector B belongs to thallophytes
(3) Sector A includes all the green plants only
(4) Organisms belong to sectors A and B show autotrophic modes of nutrition
22) Match the Column-

Column I Column II
A. Habitat loss 1. Fragmentation
B. Overexploitation 2. Excess hunting
C. Alien species 3. Competition with natives
D. Co-extinction 4. Loss of dependent species
(1) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(4) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

23) The relationship between species richness and area was given by ______.

(1) Darwin
(2) Alexander von Humboldt
(3) Mendel
(4) Wallace

24) Select the correct match w.r.t. algal class and its flagellation :

(1) Rhodophyceae – Flagella absent

(2) Phaeophyceae – 2, unequal length, lateral
(3) Chlorophyceae – 2-8, equal length, apical
(4) All are correct

25) Assertion:– The DNA replication is semiconservative in nature.

Reason:– As a result of replication two copies are produced, each copy contains one of the original
strands and one new strand.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

26) Which symbol of pedigree is correctly matched?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

27)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) The number of time(s) decarboxylation of citrate occurs during single TCA cycle is :

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

30) In mRNA, UTRs are present

(1) At 3′ end after start codon

(2) At 5′ end before stop codon
(3) At 3′ end before start codon only
(4) Both at 5′ end and 3′ end before start codon and after stop codons respectively

31) Pleiotropic gene is

(1) Gene controlling phenylketonuria in human

(2) Gene controlling sickle cell anaemia in human
(3) Gene controlling flower colour in pea plant
(4) More than one option is correct

32) Find out the correct option from the following

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Assertion:- A son may be haemophilic, if his mother is a carrier.

Reason:- The father can pass X-linked gene to his sons.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

34) Identify the correct option :

(1) A - Perigynous, B - Epigynous, C – Hypogynous

(2) A - Hypogynous, B - Epigynous, C - Perigynous
(3) A - Epigynous, B - Hypogynous, C - Perigynous
(4) A - Perigynous, B - Hypogynous, C - Epigynous

35) Mendel published his work on inheritance of characters in __A__ but for several reasons, it
remained unrecognised till __B__.

(1) A-1865, B-1900

(2) A-1900, B-1965
(3) A-1856, B-1900
(4) A-1863, B-1900

36) Select the option that correctly identifies A, B and C in the give figure of female thallus of

Marchantia :

A–Gemmacup, B–Antheridiophore,
(1)
C–Rhizoids
 A–Antheridiophore, B–Rhizoids,
(2)
C–Gemmacup
A–Archegoniophore, B–Gemmacup,
(3)
C–Rhizoids
A–Antheridiophore, B–Gemmacup,
(4)
C–Rhizoids

37) Statement-I :- In racemose inflorescence the main axis continues to grow, the flowers are
borne laterally in an acropetal succession.
Statement-II :- Cymose inflorescence is found in solanum

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct

(2) Only statement-I is correct
(3) Only statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I and II both are incorrect

38) The modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified allele if it produces __.

(1) The normal/less efficient enzyme

(2) A non-functional enzyme
(3) No enzyme at all
(4) Abnormal enzyme

39) Which type of interaction is shown by below graph between species A and B?

(1) Mutualism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Competition
(4) Ammensalism

40)

Select the incorrect match from the following:

Composition Phytohormones

(1) Terpenes Gibberellins

(2) Adenine derivative Kinetin

Derivative of
(3) Auxins
carotenoids

(4) Indole compounds IBA

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41)
Identify A, B and C.

(1) A – RuBP; B – 3PGAL; C – ATP

(2) A – 3PGA; B – ATP; C – Sugar
(3) A – RuBP; B – 3PGA; C – ATP
(4) A – Sugar; B – RuBP; C – NADPH

42) While planning for an artificial hybridisation programme involving dioecious plants, which of the
following steps would not be relevant?

(1) Bagging of female flower

(2) Dusting of pollen on stigma
(3) Emasculation
(4) Collection of pollen

43) In an ecosystem, energy flow and population interactions maintain ecological balance. Which of
the following statements are correct?
A. In a stable ecosystem, energy decreases at successive trophic levels
B. A food web provides alternative pathways for energy flow
C. Removal of decomposers stops energy flow in the ecosystem
D. All ecosystems have the same number of trophic levels

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) A, B, C and D

44) Assertion (A): Food chains in ecosystems are generally short.

Reason (R): A large amount of energy is lost at each trophic level as heat.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

45) Which combined statement is correct?

(1) Biodiversity is higher in tropics and threatened by human activities

(2) Biodiversity is absent in rainforests and highest at poles
(3) Species loss always improves ecosystem balance
(4) Over-exploitation increases species richness permanently

ZOOLOGY

1) Match the Column: Respiratory Organs

Different animals have evolved different mechanisms for gas exchange based on their habitats.
Match the following:

Column I Column II
(Animal) (Respiratory Organ)
A. Prawn I. Tracheal tubes
B. Scorpion II. Gills (Branchial)
C. Cockroach III. Moist Cuticle
D. Earthworm IV. Book lungs
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

2) Statement I : Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate.

Statement II : Echinoderms show radial symmetry in larvae.

(1) Only I correct

(2) Only II correct
(3) Both correct
(4) Both incorrect

3)

Column I (Phylum) Column II (Feature)

A. Porifera 1. Comb plates

B. Ctenophora 2. Canal system

C. Echinodermata 3. Water vascular system

D. Annelida 4. Metamerism
(1) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(2) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(3) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

4) Flame cells are excretory structures in

(1) Annelida
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Echinodermata

5) Correct features of Cnidaria:

1. Radial symmetry
2. Tissue level
3. Cnidoblasts
4. Complete digestive tract

(1) 1,2,3
(2) 1,2,4
(3) 2,3,4
(4) 1,3,4

6) Frogs perform cutaneous respiration primarily because:

(1) Their skin is thick and keratinized

(2) Their gills are absent
(3) Their lungs are non-functional
(4) Their skin is thin, moist, and richly vascularized

7) How many of the following are absent in male frog :-

Hepatic portal system, Bidder's canal, 4 Chambered heart, Omnivorous nature, Ureotelic, direct
development

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 7

8) Which of the following set of ribs are bicephalic?

(1) All ribs

(2) Vertebro-chondral ribs only
(3) Vertebro-sternal ribs only
(4) Vertebro-sternal ribs only

9) Assertion (A):- Acquired immunity is non specific type of defence characterised by memory.
Reason (R):- Acquired immunity is provided by B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true

10) FRC is the total of _____.

(1) TV+IRV + ERV

(2) ERV + RV
(3) TV+ ERV
(4) TV+ RV

11) Match List-I with List-II:

(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

12) Which of the following statements are correct?

a. PCR is used for amplification of DNA.
b. Taq polymerase is thermostable.
c. Denaturation occurs at very low temperature.
d. Primers are required in PCR

(1) 1, 2 and 4
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 3
(4) All are correct
13) Statement-I :- ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction.
Statement-II :- In 1997, the first transgenic cow Rosie, produced human protein-enriched milk.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

14) To keep the osmolarity, small amount of urea moves into medullary interstitium from

(1) PCT
(2) Thin segment of loop of Henle
(3) Thick segment of loop of Henle
(4) Collecting duct

15) Reabsorption and secretion of major substances at different parts of the Nephron are shown in

the given figure. In this figure A, B, C, D are? (Respectively)

(1) , Nutrients, Urea, NaCl

(2) NaCl, Urea, K+,
(3) NaCl, Urea, , Ammonia
(4) H2O, Urea, NaCl,

16) Main objective of producing herbicide resistant GM crops is to;

(1) encourage loss of crops.

(2) reduce herbicide accumulation in food articles for health safety.
(3) eliminate weeds from fields without the use of manual labour.
(4) eliminate weeds from the fields without the use of herbicides.

17) In the following diagram A,B and C are restriction sites and same DNA molecule is cut by
restriction endonucleases

If both samples are loaded in a single well of gel after restriction digestion then find out correct
band pattern in gel electrophoresis :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Which of the following pairs are the examples of divergent evolution?

(1) All vertebrate brain, eye of the octopus and mammals.

(2) Forelimbs of mammals, wings of butterfly and birds.
(3) All vertebrate heart sweet potato and potato
(4) Forelimbs of mammals, all vertebrate heart.

19) In a large population the frequency of allele A is 0.6 and allele a is 0.4. After several generation.
Genotype frequencies remain unchanged.
Which condition is most likely satisfied?

(1) Natural selection is acting strongly.

(2) Population is not in Hard-Weinberg equilibrium.
(3) No mutation, migration, selection or genetic drift is occuring.
(4) Random mating is absent

20) Column fill in the blanks :

The following table represents scientists and their contributions in evolution :

Scientist Contribution

.........(i).......... Theory of natural selection

.........(ii).......... Chemical evolution theory

 Hugo-de vries .........(iii)..........
(1) (i)-Lamarck (ii)-[Link] (iii)-Mutation theory
(2) (i)-Darwin (ii)-Haldane (iii)-Panspermia theory
(3) (i)-Oparin (ii)-Darwin (iii)-Mutation theory
(4) (i)-Darwin (ii)-Oparin (iii)-Mutation theory

21) Before industrialization, light - coloured moths were common on tree trunks. After
industrialization, soot deposition darkened the tree bark. As a result, dark-coloured moths survived
better and increased in number.
The above observation is an example of :

(1) Artificial selection

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Natural selection
(4) Mutation pressure

22) Assertion (A) : According to Darwinism, organisms with favourable variations survive and
reproductive more successfully in nature.
Reason (R) : Natural selection acts on existing variations and increases the frequency of
advantageous traits in a population over generations.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

23) Match Column I with Column II :

Column-I Column-II

Yellow fluid secreted by mother

A. Haemozoin p.
during initial days of lactation

B. Interferon q. Release from RBCs

C. Colostrum r. Release from basophils

D. Histamine s. Release from mast cells

t. Toxic substance release by rupture of RBC

u. Virus infected host cell secrete proteins

(1) A-t, B-u, C-s, D-p
(2) A-u, B-t, C-p, D-r
(3) A-t, B-p, C-u, D-r,s
(4) A-t, B-u, C-p, D-r,s

24) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with its mode of transmission ?

(1) AIDS – Air borne

(2) Malaria – Contaminated water
(3) Dengue – Aedes mosquito
(4) Ameobiasis-Anopheles mosquito

25) Match column-I & II

Column-I Column-II

(i) Papaver somniferum

(ii) CNS depressant
(a) Opioids
(iii) Cannabis sativa
(b) Cannabinoids
(iv) Cocaine
(c) Coca alkaloids
(v) Euphoria
(vi) Erythroxylum coca
Choose the correct option :
(1) a-(i), (ii); b-(iii), (v); c-(iv), (vi)
(2) a-(iii), (ii); b-(i), (v); c-(iv)
(3) a-(i), (v); b-(iii), (ii); c-(vi)
(4) a-(ii), (iv); b-(iii); c-(i), (vi)

26) A protozoan parasite completes its life cycle in two hosts. Fever is associated with rupture of
RBCs due to release of a toxic substance. Identify the correct sequence of events in human host :
(A) Entry of sporozoits
(B) Multiplication in liver cells
(C) Rupture of RBCs
(D) Release of haemozoin

(1) A → B → C → D
(2) B → A → C → D
(3) A → C → B → D
(4) B → C → A → D

27) Assertion (A): Pars intermedia of pituitary gland secretes only hormone called Thyroxine.
Reason (R): TSH plays a very important role in the regulation of a 24-hour (diurnal) rhythm of our
body

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

28) Hormone that functions through secondary messenger is

(1) Glucagon
(2) Estrogen
(3) Cortisol
(4) Iodothyronines
29) Which of the following is an example of a purine base?

(1) Thymine
(2) Cytosine
(3) Adenine
(4) Uracil

30) At rest, in each 100 ml of oxygenated blood, amount of oxygen delivered to tissues is

(1) 5 ml
(2) 15 ml
(3) 50 ml
(4) 4 ml

31) Identify the set of bacterial diseases

(1) Rabies, cholera, dengue

(2) Dysentery, plague, diphtheria
(3) Measles, mumps, leprosy
(4) Malaria, ascariasis, typhoid

32) Identify the following set of two hormones is having different source of gland?

(1) Adrenaline and Nor-adrenaline

(2) GH and ACTH
(3) Insulin and glucogen
(4) Calcitonin and parathormone

33) Match the following column I with column II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Mons pubis (i) Cushion of fatty tissue

(b) labia minora (ii) Fleshy folds of tissue

(c) Labia majora (iii) Tiny finger like structure

(d) Clitoris (iv) Lie at the upper junction of two labia minora

(v) Paired fold of tissue

(vi) Surround the vaginal opening

(1) A-(i) ; B-(ii),(iii) ; C-(iv), (v) ; D-(vi)
(2) A-(i) ; B-(v),(vi) ; C-(ii) ; D-(iii), (iv)
(3) A-(i) ; B-(ii) ; C-(v), (vi) ; D-(iii), (iv)
(4) A-(i) ; B-(ii),(vi) ; C-(v), (v) ; D-(iii), (iv)

34) Which of the following is haploid structures?

(1) Primary Oocyte, Secondary Oocyte
(2) Oogonia, Primary Oocyte
(3) Secondary Oocyte, second polar body
(4) Primary Oocyte, First polar body

35) Persons with _____ and ______ blood group are called universal recipient and universal donors
respectively :-

(1) AB–, O+
(2) O+, AB–
(3) O–, AB+
(4) AB+, O–

36) Mechanism of action of Condom is :-

(1) Prevents ovulation

(2) Increases cervical mucous thickening
(3) Acts as a spermicidal agent
(4) It prevents physically meeting of sperm & ovum

37) Match the following :

(1) A – b, B – c, C – d, D – a
(2) A – c, B – a, C – b, D – d
(3) A – c, B – a, C – d, D – b
(4) A – a, B – c, C – d, D – b

38) The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for

(1) Detecting any genetic abnormality in foetus

(2) Detecting sex of the unborn foetus
(3) Artificial insemination
(4) Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother

39) Match the following – Joints in human body

(1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(2) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
(3) A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4
(4) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4

40) Identify (a), (b), (c), (d) respectively.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) (a) = Comma shaped bacteria, (b) = Bacterial colony, (c) = Fungal colony, (d) = Bacteriophage
(2) (a) = Rod - shaped bacteria, (b) = Fungal colony, (c) = Bacterial colony, (d) = Bacteriophage
(3) (a) = Rod - shaped bacteria, (b) = Fungal colony, (c) = Bacterial colony, (d) = Adenovirus
(a) = Spherical shaped bacteria, (b) Bacterial colony, (c) = Fungal colony, (d) = Tobacco Mosaic
(4)
Virus

41) The Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action Plan has initiated to save these rivers from pollution
by the efforts of
(1) The Ministry of Water Resources
(2) The Ministry of River Development
(3) The Ministry of Environment and Forests
(4) None of the above

42) Assertion :- Large holes are present in 'swiss cheese'.

Reason :- Large amount of CO2​ is produced by Propionibacterium sharmanii.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

43)

List-I List-II

A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae I. Citric acid

B. Aspergillus niger II. Butyric acid

C. Trichoderma polysporum III. Ethanol

D. Clostridium butylicum IV. Cyclosporin-A

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

44) Enzymes accelerate the rate of a biochemical reaction by:

(1) Increasing the activation energy barrier for the reaction.

(2) Supplying energy to the substrate to reach the transition state.
(3) Lowering the activation energy required for the reaction.
(4) Changing the equilibrium concentration of the product.

45) Select the type of enzyme involved in the following reaction.

S − G + S′ → S + S′ − G

(1) Dehydrogenase
(2) Transferase
(3) Hydrolase
(4) Lyase
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 1 4 1 2 1 3 3 3 4 2 3 2 2 2 1 3 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 4 3 4 4 3 2 3 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 4 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 3 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 4 1 4 2 4 1 3 2 1 4 1 4 3 3 3 2 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 1 2 4 1 2 3 1 1 4 2 1 4 3 1 1 1 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 2 4 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 2 3 3 4 4 4 1 3 4 1 2 3 3 2 3 1 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 2 4 1 4 2 3 2 4 4 4 3 1 1 3 1 1 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 3 1 1 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 1 2 3 1 4 3 1 4 2 4 1 1 4 2 3 1 4 3 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 1 4 3 1 1 4 1 3 1 2 4 2 3 4 4 3 1 1 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 4 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
mx – my = 0
x=y
also x + y = ℓ (1 – cos θ)

2)

Current in branch AB 4 A

3) C = ε0A/d
4)

v= ⇒ ⇒x=

at = v = . = constant

aC =
aC ∝ t2

5)

L = 100 cm, r = 0.2 mm

6) XL = XC
Z=R

7)

Question Explanation: The question asks to find the purpose of laminating a transformer
core.

Concept: Eddy Currents and Energy Loss.

Solution: Alternating magnetic flux induces circulating currents, known as eddy currents, in a
solid transformer core. Laminating the core with thin, insulated sheets breaks these current
paths and increases electrical resistance, which minimizes energy lost as heat.

Calculation: Total heat loss . Lamination divides the core, significantly reducing the
magnitude of the circulating current Ieddy and thus the power loss.

Final Answer: Option (1)

8)

When bar magnet is entering with constant speed, flux will change and an e.m.f. is induced, so
galvanometer will deflect in positive direction.
When magnet is completely inside, flux will not change, so reading of galvanometer will be
zero.
When bar magnet is making on exit, again flux will change and on e.m.f. is induced in opposite
direction to not of (a), so galvanometer will deflect in negative direction.
Looking at options, option (3) is correct.
 9)

5.00 ± 0.05 cm

10) Question Explanation: We have to match each number given in list-1 with its significant
figures given in list-2
Concept: This question is based on significant figures
Solution :
Rules of significant figures:
1. Leading zeros are not counted.
2. Zeros between non- zero digits are counted.
3. Trailing zeros after decimal are counted
(a) 1001
Digits = 1,0,0,1 → middle zeros count → 4 significant figures → (ii)
(b) 010.1
Leading zero not counted → digits : 1,0,1 → 3 significant figures → (i)
(c) 100.100
Trailing zeros after decimal are counted → 6 significant figures → (iv)
(d) 0.0010010
Leading zeros not counted. Zeros between 1 and 1 counts, last zero after decimal also counts
→ 5 significant figures → (iii)

Final Answer: (a)-(II), (b)-(I), (c)-(IV), (d)-(III).

11)

The electric potential at a point,

V = – x2y – xz3 + 4

The field

12)
13)

ultraviolet region

14) nA = 256
As tuning fork A when sounded with tuning fork B gives four beats, therefore the frequency
nB of tuning fork B is,
nB = 256 ± 4 = 252 or 260
When the tuning fork A is slightly loaded with wax, the frequency of A decreases and the
difference between two frequencies decreases if
nB = 252
As on sounding beats decrease, hence
nB = 252 Hz.

15) Change in surface energy = 2 × 10–4 J

ΔA = 10 × 6 – 8 × 3.75 = 30 cm2
= 30 × 10–4 m2
Work done W = T × 2 × (Change in area)
Now, Change in surface energy = Work done
2 × 10–4 = T × 2 × 30 × 10–4
∴ T = 3.3 × 10–2 N/m

16)

P1 – P2 = ρ

h × 13600 × g = × 1000

A1V1 = A2V2 =

17)
m is magnification of point A distance of image from pole = m1x
 =
Distance of image of point B from poll
= m2 × 2λ

image length =

= =

18) dAP =

∴ d1 = 6µ
d2 = 4µ
d = d1 + d2 = 10µ = 10 × 1.5 = 15 cm

19)

20) Translation kinetic energy =

21) As tension force is always perpendicular to

instantaneous velocity, power produced by
tension in the string is zero.
22)
vraft = vriver = 3m/s

vB = = 4 m/s
vBR = 5 m/s
With respect to raft the velocity of boat is vBR,sBR = 5 m/s × 200 s = 1000 m

23) Force an unit length of wire

24)

25)

An antineutrino.

26)
ΔE4→ = – 0.85 + 13.6 = 12.75 eV.

27)

T = m(g + a)
25q = 2q (10 + a) ⇒ a = 12.5 – 10 = 2.5 m/s2

28) Question Explanation: Find torque provided by an engine given power and angular
speed.

Concept: Rotational motion

Solution:

Power P and torque are related:

P= .ω
 Angular speed in rad/s:

Given :

Final Answer: Option (3)

29) Explain Question:

Calculate the angular momentum of a projectile at its maximum height about the point of
projection.

Concept:
Angular momentum L = mνr⊥.

Solution:

At maximum height, velocity is horizontal: .

The perpendicular distance from the point of projection is the maximum height h.

.
L = m × νx × h.

Final Answer: Option(2)

30)

Y= =
Y= (XOR Gate)

31)

Question Explanation:
We need to verify the truth of both statements and whether the reason correctly explains the
assertion

Concept: Photodetection principle in photodiodes

Solution:
λ = 600 nm
Energy of photon

E < Eg

So, it will not detect the light

Since 2.067 eV < 2.8 eV, the photon energy is insufficient to excite an electron across the
band gap. Therefore, the photodiode will not detect 600 nm light.

Hence, Assertion (A) is true

Thus Reason (R) is also true and it correctly explains why the photodiode cannot detect 600
nm light.

A photodiode detects wavelength λ if

Final answer: option (4)

32) The velocity-displacement relation is

which may be a circle if . and ellipse of .
The acceleration-velocity relation is

which may be a circle if and ellipse of .

Acceleration-displacement graph is straight and acceleration time graph is sinusoidal.

33) L2 – L1 = 10 log10

100 – 50 = 10 log10

5 = log10

34)

V = fλ
for same node λ = constant v ∝ f

, also V ∝

⇒
⇒ f2 = f 1
⇒ f2 = 440 Hz

35) Explanation the Question: To find the value of n for which nth red bright coincide with (n
+ 1)th bright

Concept: This question is based on Standard YDSE

Solution:

From a bright fringe in YDSE , y =

now from the given condition in question
yn(Red) = yn+1(Blue)

λRn = λB(n+1) ∵ = same for both

7800n = 5200(n+1)
n=2

Final Answer : Option(2)

36)
⇒ θ = 30º
Angular width = 2θ = 60º

37) In reflected ray polarization becomes perpendicular to the plane of incident. Here in the
incident ray there is no component perpendicular to the plane hence there will not be any
reflected ray.

38)

39) 2MgR = Mv2

⇒ =V

= mg + N
⇒ N = 3mg

40)

Question Explanation: The question asks to calculate the refractive index using real and
apparent depth readings.
Concept: This question is based on apparent depth and refractive index of a liquid.
Solution:
Real depth of liquid = Reading of liquid surface − Reading of bottom of empty beaker
= 13.895 − 12.324
= 1.571 cm
Apparent depth of liquid = Reading of liquid surface − Reading of bottom when filled
= 13.895 − 12.802
= 1.093 cm
Refractive index,
μ = Real depth / Apparent depth

μ=
μ ≈ 1.437

Final Answer: Option (2)

41) Energy Required to escape is

If velocity given to the particle is 2ve

then its initial energy = =4

Energy remain at Infinity = 3

Velocity at Infinity is =
2
v =
v= Ans. (4)

42)

43)

CONCEPTUAL

44) (Resistance of semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature)

 45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

(i), (iii) and (iv) only

47)

conceptual

48)

conceptual

49)

Electronic configuration of O2 is :
σ(1s)2, σ*(1s)2, σ(2s)2, σ*(2s)2, σ(2pz)2, π(2px)2, π(2py)2, π*(2px)1 = π*(2py)1
So, incoming e– will enter in

50)

conceptual

51)

conceptual

52)

conceptual
53)

i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b

54)

[Fe(CN)6]4–

55) CO bond strength is reciprocal to the extent of back donation involved in synergic bonding
i.e., M⇌CO

56)

Molar conductance ∝ no. of particles ions. In CoCl3.3NH3 ie.

[Co(NH3)3Cl3] → No. ion.
Hence, lowest molar conductance among these.

57) Co+3 with F– forms high spin, while with NH3 pairing takes place, so, becomes low spin
complex.

58) Question Explanation

Question is asking about the X compound
Concept Precipitate , residue , colourless compound
Explanation
CaCO3​(s)Δ​CaO(s) + CO2​(g)CaO (s)+H2​O (l)→Ca(OH)2​ (aq or s)Ca(OH)2​(aq) + 2CO2​(g)→Ca(HCO3
)2​(aq)Ca(OH)2 ​ +CO2 ​→ CaCO3​(s)↓+ H2​CaCO3​(s) + CO2 ​+ H2​O → Ca(HCO3​)2​(aq)Ca(HCO3​)2
​gentle heating​CaCO3​(s)↓+CO2​(g)+H2​O(l)
Final Answer(1)

59) Unlike NH3, PH3 molecules are not associated through hydrogen bonding in liquid state.
That is why the boiling point of PH3 is lower than NH3.

60)

Explaining the Question: Question is asking reactivity order of given alcohols towards
dehydration reaction.

Concept: This question is based on Dehydration of alcohol (E-1) reaction.

Solution: Rate of dehydration of alcohol α stability of carbocation

Rate of dehydration α steric Roding

Reactivity order 3° > 2° > 1° >

Final Answer : 3

61)

Explain Question:

Determine the correct characteristic of the unknown organic compound 'y' in given reaction.

Concept :
Oxidation of cumene, Qualitative analysis, functional group identification.

Solution:

The compound 'y' is the ketone (CH3COCH3).

It does not given fehling solution test, and tollen's test.

It contain group, so easily give iodoform test and also give 2, 4 -DNP test. Which is
conformative test of carbonyl group.
So, option (3) is correct about product 'y'.

Final answer: option (3)

62)

B>A>C>D

63) Explain the question : major product

Concept : This question is based on nitration (ESR) of activated ring (ESR)

Solution : Benzene ring attached to 'N' of amide is activated due to its +M and hence is
introduced in it at its para position.
 Final answer : 2

64)

conceptual

65)

Question Explanation: Carbon count in the product of Propanenitrile's complete hydrolysis.

Concept: Nitrile Hydrolysis to Carboxylic Acids.

Solution:

Reaction Logic: Propanenitrile (CH3CH2CN) contains 3 carbon atoms. Complete hydrolysis converts
the cyano group (-CN) into a carboxylic acid group (-COOH).
Equation: CH3CH2CN + 2H2O + H+ → CH3CH2COOH + NH4+
Product Analysis: The resulting Propanoic acid (CH3CH2COOH) retains all 3 carbons from the
reactant. The carbon chain length does not change during this transformation.

Final Answer: Option (2).

66)

67) Question Explanation: The question asks for the correct chemical structure of the oxime
formed when D-(+) glucose reacts with hydroxylamine (NH2OН).

Concept: D-glucose, Hydroxylamine, Nucleophilic addition-elimination, Oxime formation,

Fischer projection.

Solution:
D-glucose exists in an open-chain form containing a free aldehyde group (–CHO) at C1. When
treated with hydroxylamine (NH2OH), the carbonyl oxygen is replaced by the = N – OH group
through a condensation reaction, yielding glucose oxime. The configuration of chiral centers
from C2 to C5 remains unchanged (Right-Left-Right-Right for -OH groups).
Final Answer : Option (4)

68) Question Explanation: Identify x and y in the given sequence reaction.

Concept: NSR , Reduction

Solution:

So x ⇒ KCN
y ⇒ LiAlH4

Final Answer - Option (1)

69)

CONCEPTUAL

70)

Question Explanation : Identify reaction in which aldehyde will form.

Concept : Preparation of carbonyl compound.

Solution :

(i)

(ii)

(iii) + CO + HCl

(iv)

Final Answer : Option (4)

71)
 Explain Question: Stability order of given carbanion is.

Concept: This question is based on Stability of carbanion

Solution

Given compounds Remark

6πe–; Aromatic 5 unequivalent resonating structure

6πe–; Aromatic 5 equivalent resonating structure.

4πe–; Anti- Aromatic

Non-planar, Non-Aromatic

∴ Overall stability of carbanion = Q > P > S > R

Final answer: 1

72) Question Explanation : Order of acidic strength is.

Concept : Acidic strength.
Solution :

+H +I only Ortho effect

*
Final Answer : Option (2)

73) Question Explanation: Identify the incorrect statement regarding Mohr's salt.

Concept Used: Double Salt Properties, Ionization

Solution :

Formula :
Statement Validity Reason

(1) 5 lons True Dissociates into 1Fe2+ + 2NH4 + 2SO42–

(2) Double Salt True It is a lattice addition compound.

Double salts ionize completely and give

(3) No Fe2+ Test False
cation tests.

(4) 2 Cations True Contains Fe2+ and NH4+.

Final Answer : Option (3)

74)

CH3CH – O – CH3

75)
So, Hybridisation of C–atoms which are attached to a single bond with each other is
→ sp2, sp

76)

Ne20 = x
Ne22 = 100 – x

2020 = 20x + 2200 – 22x

2x = 180
x = 90%
Ne22 = 100 – x = 10%

77)

78)

CONCEPTUAL
79)

(iii) and (iv)

80)

CONCEPTUAL

81)

0.0064 g

82)

CH3COOH + CH3COONa

83)
if (given )

then

84)

CONCEPTUAL

85)

86)
Cα = 10–1 α = 1
i = 1+ (2 – 1) = 2
π = iCRT & i = 1+ (n – 1) α
π = 2 × 0.1 × 0.0821 × 300
= 4.926 atm

87) Question Explanation: We must find the stoichiometric coefficients z, y, z that satisfy the
given rate relation for the reaction xA + yB → zC

Concept: This question is based on (relation between reaction rate and stoichiometry).

Solution: From Also,

Rate equality:
 Taking smallest integers: z = 2 ⇒ x = 3, y = 3.
so, x = 3, y = 3, z = 2

Final Answer : Option (3)

88)

89)

CONCEPTUAL

90)

Sn can be oxidised by Cu2+

BOTANY

91) Conceptual

92) Conceptual

93) Conceptual

94) Conceptual

95) Conceptual

96) Conceptual

97) Conceptual

98) Allen module page no

No of phenotypes possible for polygenic traits =
2n + 1 (where n is no of genes)

99) New NCERT page 67-68

Allen Module page no 32
 100) Allen module page no 32
Maximum recombination is 50%

101) New NCERT page 69

All genotypes have same number of dominant alleles
so pigment quantity will be same in all 3

102) Conceptual

103) BAC and YAC of bacteria and yeast

104) Peroxisome

105) GAG to GUG

106) B and C

107) IAIA or IAI°

108) A, C and D

109) Ans. (3)

(3) is the correct answer.

110) Ans. (3)

(3) is the correct answer.

111) Sector A includes all the green plants

112) Solution : A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Column I Column II
A. Habitat loss 1. Alien species invasion
B. Overexploitation 2. Excess hunting
C. Alien species 3. Competition with natives
D. Co-extinction 4. Loss of dependent species
Final Answer : (3)

113) Solution- The relationship between species richness and area was given by Alexander
von Humboldt.
Final Answer : (2)
114) All are correct

115) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion

116)

117) Ans. (2)

(2) is the correct answer.

118) Ans. (3)

(3) is the correct answer.

119) NCERT Pg. # 231

120) Both at 5′ end and 3′ end before start codon and after stop codons respectively

121) More than one option is correct

122) 4

123) If assertion is true but reason is false

124) A - Perigynous, B - Epigynous, C – Hypogynous

125) A-1865, B-1900

126) A–Archegoniophore, B–Gemmacup, C–Rhizoids

127) Statement-I and II both are correct

128) The normal/less efficient enzyme

129) Ammensalism

130)

NCERT Page no. 174

 131) NCERT Page no. 144

132) Conceptual

133)
Question explanation- Asking about energy flow and population interactions
Concept- energy flow and population interactions
Solution:

A is correct – energy decreases at higher trophic levels due to loss as heat

B is correct – food webs increase stability by providing multiple feeding links
C is incorrect – decomposers affect nutrient cycling, not energy flow directly
D is incorrect – trophic levels vary in different ecosystems

Correct Answer: Option 1 (A and B only)

134)

Question explanation- asking about Food chains in ecosystems

Concept- Food chains in ecosystems

Solution:

Assertion is correct: Food chains are usually short (3–5 trophic levels) because energy
availability decreases at higher levels.

Reason is correct: At each trophic level, most energy is lost as heat due to metabolic
activities.

Reason correctly explains the assertion.

Correct Answer: Option 1 (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A)

135) Question Explanation: The question is asking for a correct summary from patterns and
losses.

Concept: Biodiversity Overview

Solution: Tropical regions are rich in biodiversity. Human activities like habitat loss and
overuse threaten it greatly.

Final Answer: Option 1 — Biodiversity is higher in tropics and threatened by human activities

ZOOLOGY

136) Solution : A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Prawns (Crustaceans): Use gills.
Scorpions/Spiders (Arachnids): Use book lungs.
Cockroaches (Insects): Use a tracheal system.
Earthworms (Annelids): Use their skin (cutaneous respiration).
Final Answer : (1)

137) Solution : Statement 2 is wrong (larvae are bilateral; adults radial).

Final Answer : (1)

138) Solution : Each feature is unique to the listed phylum.

Final Answer : (2)

139) Solution : These specialised cells help flatworms in osmoregulation and excretion.
Final Answer : (3)

140) Solution : Gut is incomplete.

Final Answer : (1)

141)

ncert page no.

142) Solution :
Absent structures in frog are
(1) 4 Chambered heart
(2) Omnivorous nature
(3) Direct development

143) All ribs

144) (A) is false and (R) is true

145) ERV + RV

146) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

147) 1, 2 and 4

148) NCERT-XII, Pg # 212, 213

149) Collecting duct

150) NaCl, Urea, K+,

151) (NEW NCERT 12th Page No. 179)

152) correct band pattern in gel electrophoresis would be:

40kb band
20kb band

153) NCERT Pg. # 114, 115

154) NCERT Pg. # 121

155) NCERT Pg. # 118-119

156) NCERT Pg. No. 116

157) NCERT Pg. # 118-119

Natural selection favours organisms with advantageous traits.

158) NCERT Pg. # 131, 135, 136, 137

159)

NCERT Pg. # 132-135

160)

NCERT Pg. # 142

161) NCERT Pg. # 132

162) Both (A) and (R) are false

163) Glucagon

164) Adenine

165) 5 ml

166) Dysentery, plague, diphtheria

167) Calcitonin and parathormone

168) NCERT, Pg. # 30

169) NCERT, Pg. # 33

170) AB+, O–

171) It prevents physically meeting of sperm & ovum

172) A – c, B – a, C – d, D – b

173) Detecting any genetic abnormality

174) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4

175) Ncert Pg No: 150, Edition-2022

Diagram Based

176) Allen module exercise (PYQ)

177) NCERT Page No. 151

178) NCERT-XII Page #153

179) Lowering the activation energy required for the reaction.

180) NCERT Page-158 / N-117