RT0(R)-T003 (Corrected)
TOPFLYER PILOT TRAINING ACADEMY PVT LTD
PAPER SET 1
RADIO TELEPHONE OPERATOR’S(RESTRICTED)
MAX MARKS: 100
TIME: 90 MINS
QUESTIONS: 50
1. A VOR shows full-scale CDI deflection. The aircraft is most likely:
A. On an airway
B. Close to the station
C. Far from the station
D. In cone of confusion
2. The CDI on VOR fluctuates rhythmically. Likely cause:
A. Terrain scalloping
B. Doppler shift
C. Line-of-sight loss
D. Cone of silence
3. Glide path is created by the interference pattern of:
A. One UHF carrier + sidebands
B. One VHF and one UHF carrier
C. Two VHF carriers
D. One VHF + sidebands
4. ILS false glide slope generally appears at:
A. 3°
B. 6°
C. 9°
D. 1.5°
5. DME slant range error is maximum:
A. Far from the station
B. At station passage
C. During turns
D. Above 10,000 ft
6. When flying overhead an NDB, the ADF needle will momentarily:
A. Freeze
B. Reverse 180°
C. Point to 360°
D. Oscillate randomly
7. The VOR radial indicated is affected by aircraft bank because the sensing antenna:
A. Tilts with aircraft
B. Is shadowed by fuselage
C. Needs sky wave
D. Requires GPS sync
8. ILS back course LOC provides:
A. Correct sense guidance
B. Reverse sensing
C. No sensitivity
D. Only vertical guidance
9. Terminal VOR service volume typically extends to:
A. 25 NM
B. 40 NM
C. 130 NM
D. 200 NM
10. SELCAL will not trigger if:
A. Volume is muted
B. Incorrect code was programmed
C. On VHF instead of HF
D. Guard frequency active
11. Primary cause of GPS multipath error:
A. Atmospheric refraction
B. Weak signal modulation
C. Ground reflection
D. Space weather noise
12. RAIM excludes a failed satellite using:
A. Satellite redundancy
B. Cross-check geometry
C. SBAS corrections
D. Dual-frequency correlation
13. For FDE (Fault Detection & Exclusion), minimum satellites needed:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
14. GPS L1 frequency:
A. 1227.60 MHz
B. 1575.42 MHz
C. 1176.45 MHz
D. 2492 MHz
15. SBAS improves accuracy by correcting:
A. Propagation delay errors
B. Fuel imbalance
C. Instrument drift
D. IAS error
16. Ionospheric error is highest:
A. At night
B. Early morning
C. During solar storms
D. At equator only
17. Satellite clock errors mainly affect:
A. Altitude
B. Horizontal accuracy
C. Receiver noise
D. Terrain mapping
18. GPS dilution of precision is primarily influenced by:
A. PRF
B. Geometry
C. Satellite age
D. Rainfall
19. TCAS RA coordination between two aircraft occurs via:
A. ATC relay
B. ADS-B
C. Mode S data link
D. VHF digital link
20. SBAS vertical guidance is available only when system achieves:
A. VAL
B. VHF sync
C. VOR lock
D. WAAS-Mode
21. PSR range depends on:
A. Aircraft transponder
B. Radar cross-section & power
C. ADS-B settings
D. HF propagation
22. SSR Mode S uses:
A. Rotating antenna
B. Selective interrogation
C. Swept frequencies
D. HF bandwidth
23. Mode S “squitters” are:
A. Unsolicited broadcasts
B. Altitude replies
C. SSR azimuth tones
D. Datalink failures
24. TCAS sensitivity level increases mainly with:
A. Speed
B. Altitude
C. Distance
D. Transponder type
25. TCAS computes relative altitude using:
A. ATC radar mode
B. Mode C
C. Radio altimeter
D. GPS pressure altitude
26. GPWS Mode 2 provides warning for:
A. Excessive rate of descent
B. Excessive terrain closure
C. Landing gear not down
D. Windshear
27. Terrain database for EGPWS is referenced to:
A. Local QNH
B. GPS position
C. Radar altimeter only
D. Barometric altitude only
28. Weather radar attenuation occurs most strongly in:
A. Ice
B. Light rain
C. Wet hail
D. Dry snow
29. AWR tilt too high results in:
A. Ground returns
B. Overshooting storms
C. Attenuation
D. False targets
30. PAR final vectoring provides accurate guidance in:
A. Azimuth only
B. Elevation only
C. Both azimuth & elevation
D. Neither
31. HF propagation is most stable during:
A. Midday
B. Sunrise
C. Night
D. Solar storms
32. HF skip zone is:
A. Region of strong sky wave
B. Zone of no reception
C. Zone of overreach
D. Zone of ducting
33. SELCAL alert is triggered when:
A. Any HF call received
B. Tone pair matches aircraft code
C. VHF signal peaks
D. Pilot transmits
34. SELCAL uses:
A. Coded tone pairs
B. Digital packets
C. GPS sync
D. Microwave bursts
35. SATCOM uses:(Earth Orbits)
A. LEO
B. MEO
C. GEO
D. HEO
36. CPDLC is mainly used in:
A. Domestic VFR
B. Radar environment
C. Oceanic non-radar airspace
D. Taxi operations
37. ADS-B Out requires:
A. Mode A
B. Mode C transponder
C. Mode S transponder
D. HF radio
38. VHF range increases primarily with:
A. Frequency
B. Antenna height
C. QNH
D. Temperature
39. HF long-range communication is unreliable during:
A. Night
B. Low latitude
C. Sunspot activity
D. Winter
40. SATVOICE advantage over HF:
A. Lower cost
B. Globally stable quality
C. No delay
D. No need of satellite
41. Priority order: Distress > Urgency > ____
A. Routine
B. Security
C. Standard
D. Administrative
42. Mode S "selective interrogation" helps eliminate:
A. Slant range error
B. Garbling and fruiting
C. Multipath
D. Primary radar clutter
43. A weather radar shows an apparently empty corridor between two strong cells. This is most likely:
A. Shadow sector
B. Soft hail attenuation
C. Beam sharpening
D. Super-refraction
44. Phrase for immediate avoidance:
A. Mayday
B. Pan-Pan
C. Stop immediately
D. Stop squawk
45. GPS RAIM cannot function when:
A. DOP is low
B. Satellite geometry is clustered
C. Only 4 satellites in view
D. SBAS is available
46. ATC instruction becomes mandatory when:
A. Pilot reads back
B. ATC acknowledges
C. It is prefixed with “Cleared”
D. After 30 seconds
47. Class A airspace VFR flight is:
A. Allowed
B. Not allowed
C. Allowed with ATC
D. Allowed below FL100
48. Controller says “Report established”: you must:
A. Confirm on frequency
B. Report when on localizer/glide
C. Report when at MDA
D. Report overhead
49. Flight in IMC without ATC clearance is:
A. Allowed
B. Allowed in Class G
C. Not allowed
D. Allowed with caution
50. ICAO Annex 10 Volume II mainly covers:
A. Search & Rescue
B. Air Transport
C. Voice communication procedures
D. Aircraft Construction