Histology Study Guide Copy
Histology Study Guide Copy
Topics Covered:
• Cell Organelles & Cytoskeleton
• Epithelial Tissue
• Connective Tissue
• Muscular Tissue
• NUMS Proff & Pre-Proff MCQs — Block 1 Histology
Cell Organelles & Their Functions
Nucleus Double membrane, nuclear pores Stores DNA, controls cell activities
Plasma Membrane Lipid bilayer with proteins Selective permeability, cell signaling
Cytoskeleton
Definition: A network of protein filaments that maintains cell shape, structure, and movement.
B. Intermediate Filaments
Fig 3. Cytoskeletal Filament Types: Microfilaments (~6nm), Intermediate Filaments (~10nm), Microtubules (~25nm)
Fig 4. Desmosome Structure — Anchoring Junction with Intermediate Filaments (Keratin)
• Structure: Thickness ≈10 nm; Made of fibrous proteins (keratin, vimentin, desmin, neurofilaments)
• Functions:
◦ Provide tensile strength
◦ Maintain cell integrity
◦ Anchor to desmosomes and hemidesmosomes
C. Microtubules
Practice MCQ
Q1. Which organelle is responsible for ATP production via oxidative phosphorylation?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) Nucleus
C) Mitochondria
D) Lysosome
Answer: C
Q2. Protein synthesis for secretion occurs on:
A) Free ribosomes
B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) Golgi apparatus
Answer: C
Q3. Which cytoskeletal component is composed of actin and is involved in cell movement and microvilli support?
A) Microtubules
B) Intermediate filaments
C) Microfilaments
D) Centrioles
Answer: C
Q4. The 9+2 arrangement of microtubules is characteristic of:
A) Microvilli
B) Cilia and flagella
C) Centrioles
D) Mitotic spindle
Answer: B
Q5. Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes and is involved in intracellular digestion?
A) Peroxisome
B) Lysosome
C) Ribosome
D) Smooth ER
Answer: B
Case-Based Questions
Q6. A patient presents with recurrent bacterial infections. Genetic analysis reveals a defect in microtubule
polymerization affecting neutrophil migration. Which cytoskeletal component is dysfunctional?
A) Actin filaments
B) Intermediate filaments
C) Microtubules
D) Septins
Answer: C
Q7. A liver biopsy from a chronic alcoholic shows enlargement of an organelle involved in detoxification. Which
organelle is most likely hypertrophied?
A) Rough ER
B) Smooth ER
C) Golgi apparatus
D) Lysosome
Answer: B
Q8. A child with I-cell disease has accumulation of undigested substrates due to defective targeting of lysosomal
enzymes. Which organelle is primarily affected?
A) Mitochondria
B) Peroxisome
C) Lysosome
D) Nucleus
Answer: C
Q9. A muscle biopsy from a patient with muscular dystrophy shows loss of structural integrity at the sarcolemma.
Which cytoskeletal component linking desmosomes is likely defective?
A) Actin
B) Microtubules
C) Intermediate filaments
D) Myosin
Answer: C
Q10. A newborn presents with severe hypotonia, seizures, and lactic acidosis. Muscle biopsy shows ragged red fibers.
Which organelle is dysfunctional?
A) Lysosome
B) Peroxisome
C) Mitochondria
D) Golgi apparatus
Answer: C
Epithelial Tissue
Definition: Epithelium is a sheet of closely packed cells that covers body surfaces, lines cavities, and forms
glands. It is avascular, rests on a basement membrane, and shows cell polarity.
I. Classification of Epithelium
Simple Epithelium (Single Layer)
Fig 1. Simple Columnar Epithelium (H&E) — Small Intestine, showing goblet cells
Simple squamous Flat cells, scale-like; single layer Alveoli, endothelium, mesothelium
Simple cuboidal Cube-shaped; round central nucleus Kidney tubules, thyroid follicles
Simple columnar Tall cells; oval/basal nuclei; may have Intestine, stomach, gallbladder
microvilli or goblet cells
Type Features Example
Pseudostratified columnar Appears multilayered; all cells touch Trachea, bronchi (with cilia + goblet cells)
basement membrane
Fig 2. Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar Epithelium (H&E) — Trachea with goblet cells and cilia
Stratified squamous keratinized Surface dead (anucleate) cells filled with Skin (epidermis)
keratin; basal cells divide
Stratified squamous non- Surface cells alive (nucleated); moist Esophagus, oral cavity, vagina
keratinized surface
Transitional (Urothelium) Stretchable; cells change shape with Urinary bladder, ureter, renal pelvis
distension; dome-shaped umbrella cells
Based on Duct
• Exocrine glands: Have ducts → secretion onto epithelial surface (e.g., sweat glands, salivary glands)
• Endocrine glands: No ducts → secrete hormones directly into bloodstream (e.g., thyroid, adrenal)
Merocrine (Eccrine) Exocytosis — cell intact Most glands (sweat, parotid, pancreas)
Apocrine Apical portion of cell lost with product Mammary gland, apocrine sweat glands
Microvilli Non-motile Actin filaments (core) ↑ absorptive surface area Intestine (brush border),
kidney tubules
Stereocilia Non-motile Actin filaments Absorption, mechanosensation Epididymis, inner ear hair ce
Structure Motility Cytoskeleton Function Example
Cilia Motile Microtubules 9+2 Move substances across surface Trachea (mucus), fallopian
(axoneme) tube (ova)
Fig 7. Sperm Flagellum Structure — showing Axoneme (9+2), Outer Dense Fibers, Mitochondrial Sheath (mid piece)
Barrier (seals Tight junction (Zonula Most apical Claudin, Occludin, ZO-1, JAM
intercellular space) Occludens)
Adhesion (belt-like) Adherens junction (Zonula Below tight junction E-cadherin, α/β-catenin, Actin
Adherens)
Communication (gap) Gap junction (Nexus) Lateral domain Connexins (form connexons)
Hemidesmosome Structure
Fig 9. Hemidesmosome — Anchors Epithelium to Basement Membrane via Integrin α6β4 and Anchoring Fibrils (Collagen VII)
VII. Metaplasia
Definition: Reversible change where one differentiated cell type is replaced by another differentiated cell
type.
Practice MCQ
Q1. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of epithelial tissue?
A) Highly vascular
B) Abundant extracellular matrix
C) Rests on basement membrane
D) Derived from mesoderm only
Answer: C
Q2. The epithelium lining the urinary bladder that allows distension is:
A) Stratified squamous keratinized
B) Pseudostratified columnar
C) Transitional epithelium
D) Simple cuboidal
Answer: C
Q3. Which apical modification is supported by a core of microtubules in a 9+2 pattern?
A) Microvilli
B) Stereocilia
C) Cilia
D) Basal infoldings
Answer: C
Q4. Goblet cells are an example of:
A) Multicellular exocrine gland
B) Unicellular exocrine gland
C) Endocrine gland
D) Compound gland
Answer: B
Q5. Which cell junction provides direct intercellular communication by allowing passage of ions and small molecules?
A) Tight junction
B) Desmosome
C) Gap junction
D) Hemidesmosome
Answer: C
Case-Based Questions
Q6. A 55-year-old chronic smoker develops a white patch in his oral cavity. Biopsy shows replacement of normal
columnar epithelium by stratified squamous epithelium. This change is best described as:
A) Dysplasia
B) Anaplasia
C) Metaplasia
D) Hyperplasia
Answer: C
Q7. A patient with intestinal malabsorption shows shortening and blunting of apical projections on enterocytes
(electron microscopy). Which structure is most likely affected?
A) Cilia
B) Microvilli
C) Stereocilia
D) Desmosomes
Answer: B
Q8. A researcher observes that a fluorescent dye injected into one cell rapidly appears in adjacent cells. This indicates
functional:
A) Tight junctions
B) Gap junctions
C) Adherens junctions
D) Hemidesmosomes
Answer: B
Q9. A skin biopsy from a patient with blistering disease shows separation of the epidermis from the underlying dermis.
Which structure is most likely targeted?
A) Desmosomes
B) Gap junctions
C) Hemidesmosomes
D) Tight junctions
Answer: C
Q10. A newborn presents with recurrent respiratory infections and male infertility. Bronchial biopsy shows immotile
cilia. Which cytoskeletal component is likely defective?
A) Actin filaments
B) Microtubules (dynein arms)
C) Intermediate filaments
D) Septins
Answer: B
Connective Tissue
Concept: Cells are embedded in an extracellular matrix (ECM) → provides support & function. CT is the most
abundant tissue in the body.
Cell Function
Fibroblasts (most important) Synthesize all components of ECM (collagen, elastic, ground substance); key in
wound healing
Mast cells Release histamine, heparin, serotonin; mediate allergic/inflammatory reactions (IgE
bound to surface)
Macrophages (Histiocytes) Phagocytosis, antigen presentation, cytokine secretion (IL-1, TNF-α); derived from
monocytes
Fig 2. Connective Tissue Fibres — Collagen fibres (pink), Reticular fibres (black, silver stain), Elastic fibres (wavy)
Collagen fibers (Type I) Thick, strong, eosinophilic; Pink (H&E); green Tensile strength —
most abundant fiber (Masson trichrome) tendons, ligaments,
dermis
Elastic fibers Thin, branching; made of Black (Weigert); pink Elasticity & recoil —
elastin + fibrillin microfibrils wavy (H&E) aorta, elastic ligaments,
lung
Fiber Type Features Staining Function
Reticular fibers (Type III Fine network; thin; Black with silver stain Support framework —
collagen) argyrophilic lymph nodes, liver,
spleen, BM
Fig 3. Areolar (Loose) Connective Tissue — Diagram and H&E showing fibroblasts, collagen, elastic and reticular fibres, macrophages,
mast cells
Fig 4. Loose Connective Tissue (H&E) — Labelled: elastic fibres, collagen fibres, fibroblast nuclei, ground substance
Areolar CT Loose arrangement of all fiber types; many Under epithelia, around blood
cells; lots of ground substance vessels, lamina propria
Reticular CT Fine reticular fiber network; reticular cells Lymph nodes, spleen, bone
marrow, liver
Fig 6. Dense Irregular Connective Tissue (H&E) — Dermis with randomly oriented collagen fibres
Dense regular Parallel collagen fibers; few fibroblasts; high Tendons (muscle→bone),
tensile strength ligaments (bone→bone)
Subtype Features Location
Dense irregular Randomly arranged collagen fibers; withstands Dermis, joint capsules, organ
forces in multiple directions capsules
Elastic CT Abundant elastic fibers; yellow appearance Ligamentum flavum, vocal cords,
grossly aortic wall
C. Cartilage
Fig 7. Elastic Cartilage (H&E) — Perichondrium (fibrous + chondrogenic layers), chondroblasts, chondrocytes in lacunae, matrix with
elastic fibres
Practice MCQ
Q1. Which cell is the primary producer of extracellular matrix in connective tissue?
A) Macrophage
B) Mast cell
C) Fibroblast
D) Plasma cell
Answer: C
Q2. Which fiber type provides tensile strength and is composed of type I collagen?
A) Elastic fibers
B) Reticular fibers
C) Collagen fibers
D) Oxytalan fibers
Answer: C
Q3. Which connective tissue cell is responsible for releasing histamine during allergic reactions?
A) Macrophage
B) Plasma cell
C) Mast cell
D) Adipocyte
Answer: C
Q4. Tendons are composed of which type of connective tissue?
A) Loose irregular
B) Dense regular
C) Dense irregular
D) Reticular
Answer: B
Q5. Which of the following is avascular?
A) Bone
B) Dense regular CT
C) Hyaline cartilage
D) Blood
Answer: C
Case-Based Questions
Q6. A 40-year-old man presents with skin hyperextensibility and joint hypermobility. Genetic testing reveals a defect in
collagen synthesis. Which fiber type is primarily affected?
A) Elastic fibers
B) Reticular fibers
C) Collagen fibers
D) Microfibrils
Answer: C
Q7. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has joint inflammation. Synovial fluid analysis shows numerous cells with
phagocytic activity. These cells are most likely:
A) Fibroblasts
B) Macrophages
C) Mast cells
D) Plasma cells
Answer: B
Q8. During wound healing, fibroblasts transform into contractile cells that pull wound edges together. These cells are
called:
A) Myoblasts
B) Myofibroblasts
C) Fibrocytes
D) Chondroblasts
Answer: B
Q9. A lymph node biopsy shows a fine supportive network stained black with silver stain. Which fibers are being
visualized?
A) Collagen fibers
B) Elastic fibers
C) Reticular fibers
D) Oxytalan fibers
Answer: C
Q10. A premature infant develops respiratory distress. Surfactant deficiency is suspected. Which cell type is most likely
defective?
A) Type I pneumocyte
B) Type II pneumocyte
C) Alveolar macrophage
D) Fibroblast
Answer: B
Muscular Tissue
Overview: Muscle tissue is specialized for contraction. There are 3 types: Skeletal (voluntary), Cardiac
(involuntary), Smooth (involuntary).
Fig 1. Three Types of Muscle (H&E): (a) Skeletal — cylindrical, peripheral nuclei, striations; (b) Cardiac — branched, central nucleus,
intercalated discs; (c) Smooth — spindle-shaped, central nucleus, no striations
A. Skeletal Muscle
Fig 2. Skeletal Muscle (High Power H&E) — A bands (dark), I bands (light), peripheral nuclei, muscle fibre
B. Cardiac Muscle
Fig 3. Cardiac Muscle (H&E, 10×) — showing intercalated discs, central nucleus, capillary
Fig 4. Cardiac Muscle Fiber — Intercalated Discs with Desmosomes and Gap Junctions; A and I bands visible
C. Smooth Muscle
Fig 5. Smooth Muscle (H&E) showing spindle-shaped cells with single central nucleus, no striations; above — stratified epithelium of
urethra
Branching No YES No
Practice MCQ
Q1. Which muscle type is characterized by long, cylindrical, multinucleated fibers with peripheral nuclei?
A) Cardiac muscle
B) Skeletal muscle
C) Smooth muscle
D) Visceral muscle
Answer: B
Q2. Intercalated discs are a hallmark of:
A) Skeletal muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C) Smooth muscle
D) All muscle types
Answer: B
Q3. Which muscle type is non-striated and spindle-shaped with a single central nucleus?
A) Skeletal muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C) Smooth muscle
D) Branching muscle
Answer: C
Q4. Which muscle type is under voluntary control?
A) Cardiac muscle
B) Smooth muscle
C) Skeletal muscle
D) Both A and B
Answer: C
Q5. Which structure in skeletal muscle stores calcium and is highly developed in fast-twitch fibers?
A) T-tubules
B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) Intercalated discs
D) Dense bodies
Answer: B
Case-Based Questions
Q6. A 60-year-old man develops heart failure. Endomyocardial biopsy shows branching fibers with central nuclei and
intercalated discs. Which muscle type is this?
A) Skeletal
B) Cardiac
C) Smooth
D) Regenerating skeletal
Answer: B
Q7. A patient with intestinal obstruction undergoes resection. Histology shows sheets of spindle-shaped cells with no
striations and single central nuclei. These are:
A) Skeletal muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C) Smooth muscle
D) Fibroblasts
Answer: C
Q8. A newborn with esophageal atresia — the surgeon notes the esophageal muscle is under involuntary control and
lacks striations. This muscle is:
A) Skeletal
B) Cardiac
C) Smooth
D) Mixed
Answer: C
Q9. A marathon runner develops rhabdomyolysis. Muscle biopsy shows necrotic fibers with peripheral nuclei and
striations. Which muscle type is affected?
A) Cardiac
B) Smooth
C) Skeletal
D) Both A and C
Answer: C
Q10. A 45-year-old woman with systemic sclerosis has esophageal dysmotility. Histology shows fibrosis replacing
normally arranged non-striated muscle with single central nuclei. Which muscle type is involved?
A) Skeletal
B) Cardiac
C) Smooth
D) Striated voluntary
Answer: C
NUMS Proff & Pre-Proff MCQ — Block 1 Histology
Cells Pyramidal with round basal nuclei Columnar with flattened basal nuclei