MICRO 13.

What pathogen is the most important

contributor to biofilms in plaque?
1. Which of the following may be used to
B. Streptococcus mutans
demonstrate bacterial capsule?
C. Mucicarmine 14. Anticoagulants acceptable for blood, BM,
synovial fluid for culture include
2. pathogens which may cause serious
B. SPS, heparin
disease in animals and man however effective
treatment as well as preventive measures are 15. The bacterium isolated from a stool
available sample gave the following results/reaction:
C. Risk Group 3 TSI: K/A + gas, + H2S LDC: (+) Indole (-)
3. How is B. anthracis differentiated from B. A. Salmonella
cereus and B. subtilis?
16. A college student attended a beach party
A. hemolysis and motility where raw oysters and shellfish were
4. Nocardia spp. Are classified as ___ consumed. The next day she had septicemia.
Blood cultures grew gram (-) bacilli with the
A. gram (+) aerobic bacilli following characteristics:
5. In nitrate reduction test, a red color had Oxidase test (+) Pink colonies on Mac Conkey
developed following addition of zinc powder, agar O/129 (150 ug): Susceptible
how is this interpreted?
C. V. vulnificus
C. negative
17. Escherichia coli colonies are pink-purple on
6. A fermentative, oxidase (+) gram (-) rod that mac Conkey agar because
may produce growth on CIN indistinguishable
C. lactose is fermented
to those produced by Y. enterocolitica?
B. Aeromonas spp. 18. a red slant and a yellow butt on TSI
indicates fermentation of ___
7. May be carried out as differential tests for
A. glucose
Campylobacter jejuni and Helicobacter pylori?
19. Which of the following indicates the ability
D. Urease and Hippurate hydrolysis test
of organism to utilize citrate as the sole source
8. Which of the following tests may be carried of carbon
out as screening test for Legionella? C. both A and B
C. Urine antigen Test
20. which of the following statements is correct
9. The following bacteria produce pigment regarding coagulase negative Staphylococci?
except
B. they commonly infect indwelling prostheses
D. S. pneumoniae
21. An organism will appear more resistant on
10. Which of the following is ionizing radiation a disk diffusion test susceptibility test if the
C. Gamma rays B. inoculum is too concentrated
11. Mycoplasma are bacterial cell that 22. recommended quality control surveillance
C. is resistant to penicillin of commonly used microbiology equipment
includes
12. The microorganisms that grow at high
salinity are A. incubator: temperature recording on a daily
basis
C. Halophiles
 23. A characteristic that is helpful in separating A. irregular staining barrel shaped arthrospores
Pseudomonas aeruginosa from other members 33. Which of the following is unable to produce
of the Pseudomonadaceae family is microconidia?
D. growth at 42 degC B. E. floccosum
24. Which of the following is the most reliable 34. Which of the following dermatophytes can
test to differentiate Neisseria lactamica from be identified with its clavate or peg shaped
Neisseria meningitidis? microconidia that resemble birds on a wire?
C. rapid ONPG D. T. rubrum
[Link] of the following specimens is 35. The function of N-acetyl-L-cysteine in the
cultured using a quantitative isolation technique? reagent for acid fast digestion-
a. Urine decontamination procedure is to
26. Which of the following procedures will D. liquefy the mucus
detect carbapenemase producing organisms? 36. The best method to process specimens for
b. Modified Hodge mycobacterial culture contaminated with
Pseudomonas is
27. The organism used as “control organism”
in the performance of Modified Hodge test is D. oxalic acid
b. E. coli 37. When grown in the dark, yellow to orange
pigmentation of the colonies is usually
28. Which of the following antimicrobial agents
demonstrated by
can act against bacterial cell membrane?
D. M. scrofulaceum
b. polymyxin
38. Which of the following is acceptable for
29. A 3-year-old girl from a family that does not
anaerobic culture?
believe in immunization presents to the ER with
sore throat, fever and malaise and difficulty B. pleural fluid, brain abscess fluid
breathing. A gray membrane covering the 39. The growth phase in which microorganisms
pharynx is observed on physical exam. C. are most susceptible to antimicrobial agent is
diphtheriae is confirmed as the etiologic agent.
Which of the following is required to prove that C. exponential phase
C. diphtheriae is the etiologic agent in the 40. CLAP is an STD caused by:
child’s infection?
C. N. gonorrhoeae
D. toxigenicity demonstrated by ELEK’s procedure
41. Which of the following is INCORRECT
30. Many fungal infections are transmitted to about the characteristics of E. faecalis?
man via inhalation of infectious structures.
Which of the following is usually contracted in b. Bile soluble
this manner? 42. 1% aqueous solution of dimethyl-p-
D. H. capsulatum phenylenediamine is a presumptive diagnosis
for
31. Laboratory workers should always work
under a biological safety hood when working D. Neisseria
with cultures of 43. Brucella are commonly differentiated by
D. C. immitis which series of test?
32. Structures important in the microscopic C. CO2 requirement, basic thionine and fuchsin
identification of C. immitis are
 44. Specimens for mycobacterial culture that 54. The gram (-) anaerobic bacilli that shows
routinely undergo the digestion and resistance to kanamycin, vancomycin, colistin
decontamination process include used in Potency disk test is
C. bronchial washings and sputum B. B. fragilis
45. The genus of virus associated with 55. Partial acid fastness is exhibited by which
anogenital warts, cervical dysplasia and of the following genera?
neoplasia is 1. Tsukamurella 2. Gordonia 3 . Nocardia
B. HPV
4. Shewanella
46. C. trachomatis infections have been
C. 1,2 and 3
implicated in
A. LGV and conjunctivitis 56. A fecal smear showed “E. histolytica like
forms” during microscopy. Stool antigen test
47. Which of the following statements gave a positive result. How is this reported?
regarding antigenic shift or drift in influenza is
A. positive for E. histolytica
correct
A. antigenic drift is due to point mutation in the H 57. Most ideal to be used for mass fecal
and N genes examination?
48. All of the following can be seen in blood b. Kato Katz
smear except: 58. A patient suspected with an otitis media
D. S. stercoralis infection should be tested with:
49. Campylobacter species in general grows a. Optochin disk
optimally at
C. 42 degC 59. Motile larvae from freshly collected stool
50. Which of the following is NOT appropriate specimen was noted from fecal smear during
specimen for VZV detection? microscopy. This finding may be diagnostic of
D. none of these A. S. stercoralis infection

51. A non-operculated egg with terminal spine 60. Which parasite does not require an
and a distinct equatorial bulge characterize intermediate host to complete its life cycle?
which of the following d. H. nana
D. S. intercalatum 61. Man is intermediate host in which of the
52. COPT- circum oval precipitin test that following parasites?
showed bleb formation around lyophilized 1. E. granulosus 2. [Link]
eggs may be diagnostic of
3. [Link] 4 T. saginata
E. S. japonicum
C. 1,2 and 3
53. Parasitic infection which may be acquired
thru entry of larval forms to human skin 62. Patient presents with diarrhea and
complain of gurgling stomach. On Microscopy
1. Hookworm infection 2. Capillariasis stool showed peanut shaped eggs with striated
3. Bilharziasis 4. Echinococcosis shell and flat polar plugs.
A. 1 and 3 only D. C. philippinensis
63. Cerebral angistrongyliasis may develop as
a result of
 C. consumption of raw snails 75. The feces of a child suffering from
64. Observation of first stage larva from open intestinal ascariasis can have all of the
skin blister after placing a drop of cold water following except
may be diagnostic of D. embryonated ova
C. Dracunculus 76. Which of the following organisms causes
65. Which of the following malarial stages ocular larva migrans?
develops in the definitive host? C. T. canis
C. gametocytes 77. Which of the following stages in the life
A. sporozoite cycle of Ascaris will distinguish it from Trichuris?
66. Paroxysmal attacks that happens every 24 D. larval migration to the lungs
hrs interval may be due to what Plasmodium 78. A zoonotic filarial worm that produces
infection? granulomatous nodules which appear as a coin
D. P. knowlesi lesion on a chest radiograph
67. Non-nutrient agar seeded with E. coli may A. D. immitis
be useful for which of the following protozoan 79. Which condition may be confirmed by the
parasite? recovery of an intact worm through gastroscopy
A. Acanthamoeba spp. or by the presence of an eosinophilic
granuloma containing an identifiable nematode
68. Which of the following is both infective and about 2 cm in length in a surgical specimen?
diagnostic stage of C. parvum?
C. Anisakiasis
C. oocyst
80. What is the characteristic tail morphology
69. Sheather’s flotation which is a of Mansonella streptocerca?
concentration technique may be carried out to
recover diagnostic forms of C. unsheathed; nuclei do not extend to the tip of
hooked tail
D. C. parvum
81. The incorrect match between organism and
70. Clinical specimen for Norovirus detection the method of acquiring the infection is
B. stool B. whipworm – ingestion of fertilized ova
71. PRAS media is a commercially prepared 82. Which of the following statements is true
media intended for regarding onchocerciasis?
C. anaerobes D. The tail tip of microfilariae does not have nuclei.
72. A selective media in which no pH indicator
83. Which pair of helminths cannot be reliably
is added
differentiated by the appearance of their eggs?
d. Bismuth sulfite agar
D. A. duodenale and N. americanus
73. The xenodiagnostic test for Trichinosis is
called 84. Examination of Wright-stained blood smear
collected at 11:00 pm showed unsheathed
B. Beck’s microfilariae whose nuclei do not extend to the
74. Which of the following may be mistaken for tip of the tail. What is the identity of the parasite?
a nematode during macroscopic examination? B. M. ozzardi
D. all of these 85. Which of the following species of amoeba
are quadrinucleated in their mature cystic stage?
1. E. coli 2. E. histolytica 3. I. butschlii 4. E. B. Salmonella
nana
96. All of the following virus group generally
B. 2 and 4 include arthropod-borne viruses except:
86. The possession of cytostome with a fibril on C. Filoviridae
each side referred to as “shepherd’s crook”
characterizes which of the following luminal 97. The ability to cause latent infections is
flagellates? unique to which of the following virus family?

B. C. mesnilii D. Herpesviridae

87. Which malarial parasite is characterized by 98. The causative agent of the so-called gas
ring form trophozoites that have double gangrene is__
chromatin dots and appliqué forms? E. all of these
C. P. falciparum 99. aside from members of the genus Proteus,
88. Which of the following are the swarming activity is likewise demonstrated by
morphological features of Giardia which of the following gram (+) spore forming
lamblia trophozoite? bacilli?
[Link] axostyle, four pairs of flagella, and two 1. C. tetani 2. B. anthracis
nuclei 3. C. septicum 4. B. cereus
89. What happens to Plasmodium sporozoites A 1 and 3
after entering unaffected liver cells?
100. brick red fluorescing colonies under UV
C. Develop into schizonts but may appear black on ordinary light
90. What is the causative agent of East African characterize__
Sleeping Sickness? A. Prevotella
B. T. rhodesiense
91. Which of the following coccidians is
capable of autofluorescence under UV light?
B. C. cayetanensis
92. Which of the following protozoa has been
reported in medical literature as a component of
the gay bowel syndrome and that can be
acquired by homosexual men through anal-oral
transmission?
A. G. lamblia
93. The bacterial species that requires
cholesterol for growth is ___
D. M. hominis
94. The so-called GASPAK jar may be useful
when dealing with which of the following
organisms?
A. B. fragilis
95. Which of the following is classified as a
BSL-2 pathogen?