19-07-2026

1001CMD303055260002 MD

PHYSICS

1) Approximate value of tan 4° is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) at P, Q, R respectively is:-

(1) , 1,

(2) , 0, –

(3) , 0,

(4) None of these

3) ?

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) None of these

4) Which of the following graph is correct for the relation y = x – 10 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The equation of a curve is given as y = x2 + 2 – 3x. The curve intersects the x-axis at

(1) (1, 0)
(2) (2, 0)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) No where

6) Given and . Which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The resultant of which pair cannot have a magnitude of 4N ?

(1) 2N and 3N
(2) 3N and 3N
(3) 2N and 6N
(4) 3N and 8N

8)

Two vector and are such that the component of perpendicular to

is zero. Then the value of x will be :-

(1) 8
(2) -4
(3) +4
(4) -8

9) is an unit vector what is the value of b

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3)
(4) 0.93

10) Which of the following physical quantities is not an axial vector?

(1) angular velocity

(2) angular momentum
(3) velocity
(4) torque

11) The vector makes 120° with the x-axis and the vector makes 30° with the y-axis. What is
their resultant ?

(1) P + Q
(2) P – Q

(3)

(4)

12) A vector of length ℓ is turned through the angle θ about its tail. What is the change in the
position vector of its head:

(1) ℓ cos(θ/2)
(2) 2ℓ sin(θ/2)
(3) 2ℓ cos(θ/2)
(4) ℓ sin(θ/2)

13) A boat is moving in direction of vector (– ) with a speed of 10 m/sec. Velocity vector of boat
can be expressed as :-
(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Vector which is perpendicular to is given by :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of the above

15) Out of the following set of forces, the resultant of which cannot be zero :-

(1) 10, 10, 10

(2) 10, 10, 20
(3) 10, 20, 20
(4) 10, 20, 40

16) If ,

Column-I Column-II

(a) (P) –2

(b) (Q)

(c) (R)

(d) (S)
(1) a-R; b-S; c-Q; d-P
(2) a-Q; b-R; c-S; d-P
(3) a-R; b-Q; c-S; d-P
(4) a-Q; b-S; c-R; d-P

17) If two sides of triangle is denoted by and , then area of triangle is :-

(1) 2 Units
(2) 4 Units
(3) 6 Units
(4) 8 Units

18)

Three forces and are represented as shown. Each of them is of equal magnitude.
 Column-I Column-II
(Combination) (Approximate Direction)

(i) (p)

(ii) (q)

(iii) (r)

(iv) (s)

Now match the given columns and select the correct option from the codes given below. (i)
(ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) p q r s
(2) s r q p
(3) q r p s
(4) r s p q
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) There are two force vectors, one of 3N and other of 4N. At what angle the two vectors be added
to get resultant vector of 7N, 1N and 5N respectively :-

(1) 0°, 180°, 90°

(2) 0°, 90°, 180°
(3) 0°, 90°, 90°
(4) 180°, 0°, 90°

20) Find the magnitude of resultant of shown forces:

(1)
(2) 10N
(3)
(4)
21) A car moves with a velocity 2.24 km/h in first minute, with 3.60 km/h in the second minute and
with 5.18 km/h in the third minute. Calculate the average velocity in these three minutes :

(1) 6.37 km/h

(2) 3.67 km/h
(3) 36.7 km/h
(4) 4.76 km/h

22) A particle moves on a straight line, with uniform acceleration –5 m/s2. Distance travelled by it in
three consecutive intervals of 1 sec. are in ratio of 3 : 1 : 1. Then the total distance travelled in three
seconds is :

(1) 25 m
(2) 12.5 m
(3) 22.5 m
(4) 20 m

23) Starting from rest, the acceleration of a particle is a = 2(t–1). The velocity of the particle at t=5
s is:-

(1) 15 m/s
(2) 25 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) None of these

24)

If the velocity of a particle is given by v = (180 – 16x)1/2 m/s, then its acceleration will be

(1) Zero
(2) 8 m/s2
(3) –8 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2

25) If position of a particle is given by x = 10 – 8t + t2 (where x in metre & t in sec) then distance
travelled in 5s is :-

(1) 15 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 17 m
(4) 21 m

26) A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by
s = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4
The velocity, when its acceleration is zero, is

(1) 3 ms–1
(2) –12 ms–1
(3) 42 ms–1
(4) –9 ms–1

1/2
27) The distance travelled by a particle is directly proportional to t , where t = time elapsed. What
is the nature of motion:-

(1) Increasing acceleration

(2) Decreasing acceleration
(3) Increasing retardation
(4) Decreasing retardation

28) The displacement ‘x’ and time of travel ‘t’ for a particle moving an a straight line are related as t
= . Its acceleration at a time t is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Let and be the velocity and acceleration respectively of a body in one dimensional motion.
Choose the correct option.

Speed must decrease when

(1)

(2) must increase when

(3) Speed will increase when both and are < 0

(4) Speed will decrease when and

30) Velocity of a moving particle is given as v = 3x2.

What will be its acceleration when it is at x = 1 m ?

(1) 3 m/s2
(2) 6 m/s2
(3) 12 m/s2
(4) 18 m/s2

31) The velocity time graph of a car moving along a straight road is shown in figure. The average
velocity of car in first 10 second is :-

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 8 m/s

32) A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of constant force. If the distance covered
in the first 10 sec is x and that covered in first 20 sec is y then :-

(1) y = 2x
(2) y = 3x
(3) y = 4x
(4) y = x

33)

Some informations are given for a body moving in a straight line. The body starts its motion at t=0.
Information I : The velocity of a body at the end of 4s is 16 m/s.
Information II : The velocity of a body at the end of 12s is 48 m/s.
Information III : The velocity of a body at the end of 22s is 88 m/s

The body is certainly moving with

(1) Uniform velocity
(2) Uniform speed
(3) Uniform acceleration
(4) Data insufficient for generalization

34) A car is moving with speed 'v' can be stopped by applying breakes after at least 'x' m. If same car
is moving speed of 4v then it can be stopped by applying same breakes after at least 'y' m. Find the
ratio of x and y :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 16

35) Initially body was at rest calculate the distance travelled by body in its 6th sec. if the acceleration
of body is 4 m/s2 :-

(1) 23 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 21 m
(4) 22 m

2
36) A particle starts from rest, accelerated at 2 m/s for 10s and then goes for constant speed for 30s
2
and then decelerates at 4 m/s till it stops. What is the distance travelled by it :-

(1) 750 m
(2) 800 m
(3) 700 m
(4) 850 m

–1
37) A body is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 10 ms . It reaches the maximum
vertical height h in time t. In time t/2, the height covered is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A person starts from origin and for his linear motion velocity is given as shown in figure. Find

displacement of the person from t = 15 sec to t = 35 sec :

(1) 75m
(2) 0
(3) –75m
(4) 150m

39) Consider a particle moving along a straight line, whose position as a function of time is given by
s(t) = αt2 – βt + γ, where α = 1 ms–2, β = 6 ms–1 and γ = 5 m. The average speed of the particle, in
ms–1, from t = 0 to t = 6 s is :

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 0
(4) 12

40) When a ruler falls vertically, 5 different persons catch it with different reactions times. (g = 9.8
ms–2)
A. Person A has reaction time of 0.20 s
B. Person B has reaction time of 0.22 s
C. Person C has reaction time of 0.18 s
D. Person D has reaction time of 0.19 s
E. Person E has reaction time of 0.21 s
What is the correct order of the distance travelled by the ruler for each person ?

(1) B > E > A > C > D

(2) C > D > A > E > B
(3) C > D > A > B > E
(4) B > E > A > D > C

41) From 18 m height above the ground a ball is dropped from rest. The height above the ground at
which the magnitude of velocity equal to the magnitude of acceleration (in the same set of units) due
2
to gravity is ____ m. (Take g = 10 m/s and neglect the air resistance)

(1) 5 m
(2) 13 m
(3) 8 m
(4) 10 m

42) The velocity(v) versus time (t) plot of a particle is shown in the figure, for a time interval of 40s.
The total distance travelled by the particle and the average velocity during this period are,

respectively _____

(1) 25 m and zero

(2) 50 m and zero
(3) 100 m and zero
(4) 100 m and 2.5 m/s

43) A gas balloon is going up with a constant velocity of 10 m/s. When this balloon reached a height
of 75 m, a stone is dropped from it and balloon keeps moving up with the same velocity. The height
of the balloon when the stone hits the ground is ______ m. (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 85
(2) 150
(3) 129
(4) 125

44) The velocity of a particle is given as

. The magnitude of acceleration at point (1, 2, 4) is ________ m/s2.

(1)
(2) 9
(3)
(4) 0

45) A body moves on a frictionless plane starting from rest. If Sn is distance moved between t = n –

1 and t = n and Sn – 1 is distance moved between t = n –2 and t = n – 1, then the ratio is

for n = 10. The value of x is ............

(1) 19
(2) 20
(3) 21
(4) 22

CHEMISTRY

1) 5 g urea is dissolved in 45 mL of water then % w/w of solution is:

(1) 11.11
(2) 20.22
(3) 5.06
(4) 10.0

2) If 10 moles of CH4 reacts with 21 mol O2 at STP. The sum of no. of moles of products that formed
after the completion of reaction will be :-
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

(1) 30 mole
(2) 20 mole
(3) 10 mole
(4) 40 mole

3) What weight of 95% CaCO3 will be required to produce 11.2 litre CO2 at STP :

(1) 50 g
(2) 100 g
(3) 52.6 g
(4) 25 g

4) The number of gram atoms of oxygen present in 0.3 gram mole of (COOH)2.2H2O is:

(1) 0.6
(2) 1.8
(3) 1.2
(4) 3.6
 21
5) From 280 mg of CO, 10 molecules are removed then number of g molecules of CO remained is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 5 × 1021
(4) 4 × 1021

6) In an experiment, 4g of M2Ox oxide was reduced to 2.8 g of the metal. If the atomic mass of the
–1
metal is 56 g mol , the number of oxygen atoms in the oxide is :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

7) Which of the following contains the least number of molecules?

(1) 4.4 g CO2

(2) 3.4 g NH3
(3) 1.6 g CH4
(4) 3.2 g SO2

8) 2.2 g of a compound of phosphorous and sulphur has 1.24 g of 'P' in it. Its emperial formula is -

(1) P2S3
(2) P3S2
(3) P3S4
(4) P4S3

9) In the reaction, 4A + 2B + 3C → A4B2C3, what will be the number of moles of product formed,
starting from 1 mole of A, 0.6 mole of B and 0.72 mole of C ?

(1) 0.30
(2) 0.24
(3) 0.72
(4) 0.50

10) An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gives
38.71% of C and 9.67% of H. The empirical formula of the compound would be :-

(1) CHO
(2) CH4O
(3) CH3O
(4) CH2O
11) The equivalent weight of divalent metal is W. The molecular weight of its chloride is :-

(1) W + 35.5
(2) W + 71
(3) 2W + 71
(4) 2W + 35.5

12) 5 mole SO2 and 5 mole O2 are reacting with each other to form SO3 determine excess reagent
and its percentage of amount which left after reaction?

(1) SO2, 10%

(2) O2, 50%
(3) SO2, 20%
(4) O2, 40%

13) At 40°C, the vapour pressure (in torr) of solution containing methyl alcohol (A) and ethyl alcohol
(B) is represented by the equation.
P = 119XA + 135 where XA is mole fraction of methyl alcohol, then find the molar ratio of A and B in
vapour phase when mole percentage of B in liquid becomes 40% :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) When 36 g of a solute having the empirical formula CH2O is dissolved in 1.2 Kg of water, the
solution freezes at –0.93°C. The molecular formula of the solute is (If Kf = 1.86 [Link]–1) :-

(1) CH2O
(2) CH4O2
(3) C3H8O
(4) C2H4O2

15) The vapour pressure of benzene and toluene in pure state are 42 mm and 36 mm respectively. A
solution contains benzene and toluene in the molar ratio of 1 : 2. The mole fraction of benzene in
vapour phase is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

16) Which characterises the strong intermolecular forces of attraction of liquid ?

(1) Low vapour pressure

(2) Low boiling point
(3) Low heat of vapourisation
(4) High kinetic energy of molecules

17) The molecular weight of methanoic acid in benzene as determined by depression in freezing
point method corresponds to :

(1) Ionization of methanoic acid

(2) Dimerization of methanoic acid
(3) Trimerization of methanoic acid
(4) Solvation of methanoic acid

18) Match the Column-I with Column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(Example of (Type of
solution) solution)

Solution of
Gaseous
(A) camphor in N2 (P)
solution
gas

Oxygen
Liquid
(B) dissolved in (Q)
solution
water

Solution of
(C) hydrogen in (R) Solid solution
palladium

Solution of
(D) (S) Lyophilic sol
starch in water
Correct match is :-
(1) A→R, B→S, C→P, D→Q
(2) A→P, B→Q, C→S, D→R
(3) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→S
(4) A→R, B→P, C→S, D→Q

19) Boiling point of water at 747 mm Hg is 99.48°C. How much KCl is to be added to 500 g of water
such that it boils at 100°C? Kb for water is 0.52 K kg mol–1.

(1) 74.5 g
(2) 37.25 g
(3) 18.625 g
(4) 14.625 g

3
20) 34.2 g/dm sucrose (aq.) solution is isotonic with 5% solution of non-volatile, non electrolyte
solute at 300 K, then molar mass of that solute is :

(1) 50 g mol–1
(2) 500 g mol–1
(3) 171 g mol–1
(4) 100 g mol–1

21) What mass of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) needs to be dissolved in 600 g water, so that solution
–1
freezes at 256.15 K. (Kf [H2O(ℓ)] = 1.86 K-kg mol )

(1) 51 g
(2) 62 g
(3) 170 g
(4) 340 g

22) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- When a non volatile solid is added to the solvent vapour pressure decreases and now
vapour pressure of solution become equal to the vapour pressure of solid solvent at lower
temperature.
Statement-II :- Due to association of ethanoic acid molecules in benzene, observed value of
depression in freezing point will be more than calculated value of depression in freezing point of
benzene.
In light of above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both statement I and statement II are true

(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true

23) What is the volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2?

(1) 4.8
(2) 8.4
(3) 3.0
(4) 8.0

24) Which is not anomalous pair of elements in the Medeleev's periodic table:-

(1) Ar and K
(2) Co and Ni
(3) Te and I
(4) Al and Si
25) Find out True (T) and False (F) statement.
+ 3+
(i) Zeff of Li > Zeff of B
(ii) σ of B < σ of C
(iii) Value of Zeff of mono electronic species is equal to number of protons. (iv) Zeff is fundamental
factor of period to explain properties of an element.

(1) F T F T
(2) F T T T
(3) F F T T
(4) T F F F

26) Select the incorrect order of given properties :-

(1) B > Tℓ > Ga > Aℓ > In : Ionisation energy

(2) B > Aℓ < Ga < In < Tℓ : Electronegativity
(3) P < C < Si < S : 'e' gain enthalpy
(4) B < Aℓ < Ga < In < Tℓ : Atomic size

27) Incorrect order of atomic/ionic radius is :-

(1) Ne > F– > Na+

(2) P–3 > S–2 > K+
(3) Br– > S–2 > Cl– > F–
(4) Ni > Cu > Zn

28) In which of the following pairs the radii of second species is greater than that of first ?

(1) K, Ca
(2) H, He
(3) Mg+, Mg2+
(4) H–, He

29) Select the correct order of I.E ?

(1) Cu > Zn
(2) Li+ > He > Be2+
(3) N < O > F
(4) K+ > Cu+ > Cu > K

30) Which of the following have max IE and EA respectively :-

(a) [He]2s2 (b) [He]2s22p3
(c) [He]2s22p5 (d) [He]2s22p6

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) d and a
(4) d and c

31) Which of following has highest EA :-

(1) F–
(2) Cl–
(3) Li+
(4) Na+

32) If EA of an element is 6 eV/atom and IP is 16.4 eV/atom then EN of element on pauling scale will
be ?

(1) 2.5
(2) 4.0
(3) 2.0
(4) 3.5

33) The IInd e– gain enthalpy of O and S are respectively:-

(1) –780, –590 KJ/Mole

(2) –590, +780 KJ/Mole
(3) +590, +780 KJ/Mole
(4) +780, +590 KJ/Mole

34)

Identify correct statement among following :-

(1) B2O3 is amphoteric while CO2 is acidic

(2) Ka value of HClO4 is maximum among HClO, HClO2 and HClO3
(3) It is necessary that if an element has high EA then its IE will be high
(4) EN of carbon is equal in all its compound

35) Which order according to property indicated is not correct :-

(1) Size Al+3 < Mg+2 < Na+ < F–

(2) IE B < C < N < O
(3) EA I < Br < F < Cl
(4) rmetallic, Be < Na < Ca < K

36) Which of the following statement is correct regarding following process?

(I) (II)
(III) (IV)

(1) |I.E. of process (II) = |E.A. of process(I)|

(2) |I.E. of process (III) = |E.A. of process(II)|
(3) |I.E. of process (IV) = |E.A. of process(I)|
(4) |I.E. of process (IV) = |E.A. of process(III)|

37) Which is correct :

(1) 1st IP of He is more than 2nd IP of Li

(2) 2nd IP of Mg is more than 2nd IP of Na
(3) 3rd IP of Al is more than 3rd IP of Mg
(4) 2nd IP of Li is more than 1st IP of He

38) According to Slater’s rule incorrect order of Zeff. on valence shell electron is :-

(1) Fe > Fe2+ > Fe3+

(2) N3– < O2– < F–
(3) Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+
(4) Ti2+ < V3+ < Mn5+

39) Which of the following radius order is not due to lanthanoid contraction?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) Correct order of negative electron gain enthalpy.

(1) Ne<O
(2) Be < B
(3) O < F
(4) All

41)

Column-I Column-II
A PbO i Neutral oxide
B N2O ii Acidic oxide
C Mn2O7 iii Basic oxide
D Bi2O3 iv Amphoteric oxide
Correct match is :-
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

42) Correct order of acidic strength :

(1) CO2 > N2O5 > B2O3
(2) Cl2O7 > SO3 > P4O10
(3) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3
(4) K2O > CaO > MgO

rd
43) How many given statements are wrong- i) 3 typical element is B.
ii) Eka Scandium is Boron.
iii) Be is a bridge element of Mg and Aℓ.
nd
iv) Highest IE2 is of Ne in 2 period.

(1) i, ii, iv
(2) i, iv
(3) ii, iii
(4) i, ii, iii, iv

44) Match the column

Column-I Column-II

(P) Hanny Smith formula (a) EA

(Q) Mulliken Scale (b) EN

Schomaker Stevenson
(R) (c) IE
formula

% Ionic
(S) Pauling Scale (d)
character

(e) Radius

P Q R S

(1) b, d b, e a, c b

(2) a, c b, d b c, d

(3) b, d a, b, c b, e b

(4) a, b, e b, d a, c b
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) Most electropositive element configuration will be -

(1) [He] 2s1

(2) [Xe] 6s1
(3) [Xe] 6s2
(4) [He] 2s2

BIOLOGY

1) A scientist prevented meiosis in megaspore mother cell experimentally. The resulting embryo sac
remained diploid and formed embryo without fertilisation. This directly mimics:

(1) Syngamy
(2) Apomixis
(3) Triple fusion
(4) Xenogamy

2) In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm that separates the embryo from
endosperm is a protein rich layer, called :

(1) Coleoptile
(2) Coleorhiza
(3) Integument
(4) Aleurone Layer

3) As the seed matures, its water content is reduced and seed becomes relatively dry. Moisture
content of such seed is

(1) 1 – 10%
(2) 15 – 30 %
(3) 50%
(4) 10 – 15 %

4) An old viable seed discovered during the archaeological excavation at King Herod's palace near
the Dead Sea is :-

(1) Lupinus arcticus

(2) Phoenix dactylifera
(3) Orchid
(4) Orobanchae

5)

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

A. Scutellum I. Persistent nucellus

B. Non-albuminous seed II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed

C. Epiblast III. Groundnut

D. Perisperm IV. Rudimentary cotyledon

Choose the option with all correct matches
(1) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(2) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(3) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
(4) A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I

6) The part marked as 'x' in the given figure is:

(1) Endosperm
(2) Thalamus
(3) Endocarp
(4) Mesocarp

7) The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of scutellum is -

(1) Hypocotyl
(2) Epicotyl
(3) Radical
(4) Coleorhiza

8) Hybrid seeds have to be produced every year because:

(1) Hybrid plants become sterile in coming year.

(2) They show more heterosis in coming years.
Hybrid vigour is not maintained beyond one generation as segregation of gene begins in the
(3)
second generation.
(4) Hybrid seed industry tends to increase cost of the seeds.

9) If in a diploid flowering plant chromosome number in leaf is 28. What shall be the number of
chromosomes in integuments, antipodal cells, embryo, endosperm and nucellus respectively ?

(1) 14, 28, 7, 42, 21

(2) 7, 14, 42, 28, 14
(3) 28, 14, 28, 42, 28
(4) 42, 28, 14, 28, 14

10) In double fertilisation, total number of male nuclei and total number of female nuclei involved
are -
(1) 3,2 respectively
(2) 2,3 respectively
(3) 2,2 respectively
(4) 3,3 respectively

11) Select the incorrect option with reference to post fertilization events :-

(1) Central cell develops into the endosperm

(2) Ovary develops into fruit
(3) Integuments develops into epicarp
(4) Zygote develops into embryo

12) Pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the -

(1) One male gamete in cytoplasm of synergids and other in cytoplasm of central cell
(2) Both in cytoplasm of central cell
(3) Cytoplasm of antipodal cell
(4) Both in cytoplasm of degenerating synergid

13) All of the following are features of angiosperms except :-

(1) A triploid endosperm

(2) An ovary that becomes a fruit
(3) A small reduced sporophyte
(4) Double fertilization

14) Assertion: Endosperm development precedes embryo development.

Reason: Embryo develops at micropylar end of the embryo sac where zygote is situated.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct Explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.

15) Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D in the given figure and select the correct option-
 (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) Scutellum Coleorhiza Plumule Coleoptile
(2) Scutellum Coleoptile Epiblast Coleorhiza
(3) Shoot apex Coleoptile Epiblast Radicle
(4) Scutellum Endosperm Epiblast Coleorhiza
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Identify the correct description about the given figure :

(1) Stages of embryo development.

(2) Fertilized embryo sac showing zygote and primary endosperm nucleus.
(3) Typical dicot embryo
(4) L.S. of embryo of grass

17) The figure below shows five steps (A, B, C, D, E) of embryo development.
Select the option giving correct identification together with what is represents ?
(1) C – Represents torpedo shaped embryo
(2) D – Formed by meiosis in zygote
(3) C – Represents globular embryo
(4) A – Formed by triple fusion

18) Perisperm differs from endosperm in :

(1) its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms

(2) Being a haploid tissue
(3) Having no reserve food
(4) Being a diploid tissue

19) Statement-1 : Apomicts have several advantages in horticulture and agriculture.

Statement-2 : In citrus and mango varieties some of the nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac
start dividing, protrude into the embryo sac and develop into the embryos.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement-1 is correct and statement-2 is incorrect
(3) Statement-2 is correct and statement-1 is incorrect
(4) Both statements are incorrect

20) Identify the correct statements from the following and select correct option:
(a) Removal of anthers from the flower bud is called emasculation.
(b) There is no need for emasculation if the female parent produces unisexual flowers.
(c) There is no need of covering the emasculated flower with a bag.
(d) The coconut water from tender coconut is cellular endosperm.
(e) Polyembryony is found in most of angiosperms.
Option :

(1) a, b only
(2) c, d, e only
(3) a, c, d only
(4) b, d, e only

21) Mark True(T)/False(F) statements regarding double fertilization

A. Fertilization of egg by two male gametes
B. Fertilization of two eggs in the same embryo sac by two male gamete brought by one pollen tube
C. Fertilization of the egg and the central cell by two male gamete brought by the same pollen tube
D. Fertilization of the egg and the central cell by two male gamete brought by two different pollen
tubes.

(1) T T F T
(2) F F T T
(3) F F T F
(4) T T F F

22) Identify the correct sequence of embryo development :-

(1) Proembryo → Heart shaped → Globular → Mature embryo

(2) Heart shaped → Proembryo → Globular → Mature embryo
(3) Globular → Heart shaped → Proembryo → Mature embryo
(4) Proembryo → Globular → Heart shaped → Mature embryo

23)

Column-I Column-II
(Embryo Type) (Structural Features & Examples)

a. Dicot Embryo i. Presence of Scutellum

b. Monocot Embryo ii. Two cotyledons

iii. Epicotyl ends in Plumule

iv. Presence of Coleoptile and Coleorhiza

v. Examples : Wheat and Maize

vi. Examples : Pea and Beans

vii. Single shield-shaped cotyledon

Select the correct answer from the option given below
(1) (a)-i,ii ; (b)-iii, iv,vi
(2) (a)-ii, iii, vi ; (b) i, iii, iv, v, vii
(3) (a) - ii, iii ; (b)-i, iv, v, vi
(4) (a)-ii, iii,vii ; (b)-iii, iv

24) Mature seeds may be non-albuminous or albuminous. Non-albuminous seeds have no residual
endosperm as it is completely consumed during embryo development. Albuminous seed retain a part
of endosperm as it is not completely used up during embryo development.
Statement-I : Pea and groundnut have no residual endosperm as it is completely used up during
embryo development.
Statement-II : Wheat maize, barley and castor retain a part of endosperm as it not completely used
up during embryo development.
In the light of above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

25)
What are A, B and C are

A B C
Definitive
(1) X-body Embryogeny
nucleus
Synergid
(2) Zygote Megasporogenesis
cell
Primary
(3) Synergid endosperm Syngamy
Nucleus
Primary
Secondary
(4) endosperm Embryogeny
nucleus
cell
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) The following characteristics are concerned about which of the given options?
(i) Clearly visible tetrad
(ii) Appearance of recombination nodules
(iii) Crossing over

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

27) Interkinesis is a period between :-

(1) Prophase-I and metaphase-I

(2) Anaphase-I and prophase-II
(3) Telophase-I and prophase-II
(4) Anaphase-II and telophase-II

28) A cell examined during prophase-I of meiosis contained 100 chromatids and 50 chromosomes.
What would be the number of chromatids and chromosomes in each daughter cell after meiosis-I ?
(1) 200 chromatids & 100 chromosomes
(2) 100 chromatids & 50 chromosomes
(3) 100 chromatids & 100 chromosomes
(4) 50 chromatids & 25 chromosomes

29) Events of cell cycle in cell is given in column-I and stage of cell cycle is given in column-II. Match
the column-I with column-II and select the correct option from options given below :

Column-II
Column-I (Events)
(Stage)

Chromosomes align at
(a) (p) Prophase
equator

Centrosome moves on
(b) (q) Telophase
opposite pole

Chromatids moves to
(c) (r) Metaphase
opposite pole

Nucleolus, golgi complex

(d) (s) Anaphase
reform
(1) a-p, b-s, c-q, d-r
(2) a-r, b-p, c-s, d-q
(3) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s
(4) a-p, b-s, c-r, d-q

30) Which one is correct about S-phase(synthetic phase)?

(I) It occurs between G1 and G2
(II) It marks the period during which DNA replicates
(III) At the end of this phase, DNA is doubled but the number of chromosomes remains unchanged
(IV) As the DNA is doubled in this phase, number of chromosomes is also doubled.
(V) Centrioles replicate in this phase
(VI) Amount of DNA changes from 2C to 4C
(VII) It is pre-G2 and post-G1 phase.

(1) I, II, IV, V, VI, VII are correct

(2) I, II, III, V, VI, VII are correct
(3) All are correct
(4) Only IV is correct

31) Consider the given two statements :

I. During G1 phase, the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its
DNA.
II. During G2 phase, proteins are synthesised in preparation for mitosis while cell growth is not seen.
Of the two statements ;

(1) Only I is correct

(2) Only II is correct
(3) Both I & II are correct
(4) Both I & II are incorrect

32) Following are the characteristics of which phase of cell division:

(i) Follows the S & G2 phases
(ii) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle, microtubules & Proteins
(iii) disappearance of golgi, E.R, nucleous & nuclear membrane
(iv) Chromosomal material becomes untangled

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

33) Statement-I : Recombination nodules are sites at which crossing over occurs.
Statement-II : Crossing over occurs between sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

(1) I is true; II is false

(2) Both are true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Both are false

34) Arrange the following events sequentially.

I. Homologous chromosomes move to the opposite poles.
II. Homologous chromosomes pair to form bivalents & undergo crossing over.
III. Bivalents arrange on the equatorial plate
IV. Nuclear membrane & Nucleolus reappear.

(1) I → II → III → IV
(2) IV → III → I → II
(3) II → III → I → IV
(4) IV → II → III → I

35) Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option :

Since the number of chromosomes in the parent and progeny cells is the same in mitosis, it is also
called as ……A……...

(1) Equational division

(2) Reductional division
(3) Meiosis
(4) Amitosis

36) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(A) Meiosis produces genetically different daughter cells
(B) Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them
(C) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis-I (D) Meiosis ensures the production of
haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms

(1) Only B and D

(2) A, B and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only C and D

37)

Identify the correct match from the column-I, II and III.

Column I Column II Column III

ER, Golgi
Late
1. a. i. complex
prophase
disappear

Chromosome
decondense
2. Anaphase b. ii. and loose
their
individuality

Longest
3. Telophase c. iii. phase
of meiosis-I

Splitting of
4. Prophase-I d. iv. centromere
occur

(1) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii

(2) 1-b-i, 2-a-iv, 3-d-ii, 4-c-iii
(3) 1-d-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii
(4) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-a-ii, 4-d-ii

38) The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called a bivalent or a
tetrad. However these are more clearly visible at the ________ stage :-

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

39) Liquid endosperm in coconut results due to :-

(1) Karyokinesis followed by cytokinesis

(2) Failure of karyokinessis followed by cytokinesis
(3) Karyokinesis twice followed by single cytokinesis
(4) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis

40) Events of mitosis is given in column-I and stages are given in column-II. Match the column-I and
column-II and select the correct option given below :-

Column-II
Column-I (Events) (Stages of
mitosis)

A Centriole duplication (i) G0

Most of cell organelles

B (ii) G2
duplicate

Tubulin protein
C (iii) S
synthesis

Cells do not appear

D (iv) G1
to exhibit division
(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

41) Which of the following is not correct for the anaphase in mitosis ?

(1) Centromeres split and chromatids separate.

(2) Daughter chromosomes move to opposite poles.
(3) Reformation of ER and Golgi apparatus.
(4) Number of chromosomes become double in cell.

42) In which stage of cell cycle protein synthesis takes place ?

(1) G1-Phase
(2) G2-Phase
(3) S-Phase
(4) All of these

43) Which one is the correct squence of cell cycle ?

(1) G2 → M → G1 → S
(2) S → G2 → M → G1
(3) G1 → S → G2 → M
(4) M → G1 → S → G2

44) Match the stages of meiosis in Column-I to their characteristic features in Column-II and
select the correct option using the codes given below :
 Column-I Column-II

Pairing of
A. Pachytene (i) homologous
chromosomes

Terminalization
B. Metaphase-I (ii)
of chiasmata

Crossing over
C. Diakinesis (iii)
takes place

Chromosomes align
D. Zygotene (iv)
at equatorial plate
(1) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(4) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)

45) Match column I with column II and select the correct option

Column-I Column-II

Terminalisation
(a) Zygotene (I)
of chiasmata

Dissolution of
(b) Pachytene (II) synaptonemal
complex

(c) Diakinesis (III) Crossing over

(d) Leptotene (IV) Synapsis

Condensation of
(e) Diplotene (V) chromosomal
material start
(1) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-V, e-IV
(2) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-V, e-II
(3) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-V, e-I
(4) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-V, e-I

46) Which stage of cell cycle is marked by initiation of condensation of chromosomal material ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) G2 phase
(4) S phase

47) A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct
identification of the stage with its characteristics.

(1) Anaphase-II → Chromosomes align at the equator

(2) Metaphase-I → The bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate.
Metaphase → Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator and get aligned along metaphase
(3)
plate through spindle fibres to both poles.
(4) Anaphase → Chromatids move to opposite poles

48) How many chromatid and chromosome are present in one bivalent during metaphase I :-

(1) One and two respectively

(2) Two and four respectively
(3) Two and two respectively
(4) Four and two respectively

49) If 16 bivalents are present in metaphase I stage of meiosis, than what would be number of
chromosome in daughter cell after meiosis I :-

(1) 8
(2) 32
(3) 16
(4) None of these

50) In animal cells, during the S phase, DNA replication begins in the ..A.. and the centriole
duplicates in the ..B.. :-
Here A and B are :-

(1) A - Nucleus B - Nucleus

(2) A - Cytoplasm B - Cytoplasm
(3) A - Nucleus B - Cytoplasm
(4) A - Cytoplasm B - Nucleus

51) All are the significance of mitosis, except :-

(1) Production of daughter cells with identical genetic complement

(2) Restoration of nucleocytoplasmic ratio
(3) Plays important role in evolution by inducing variations
(4) Responsible for growth of multicellular organisms

52) The interphase nucleus does not contains :-

(1) Highly extended nucleoprotein fibres
(2) Nucleoplasm
(3) Nucleoli
(4) Highy condensed nucleoprotein fibres

53) Which of the following is true ?

(1) Cell organelle synthesis occurs in M-phase

(2) Chromosome duplication occurs in S-phase
(3) Condensation of chromosomal material occurs during anaphase and telophase
(4) During M-phase only cytokinesis occurs

54) Given below are two statement :-

Statement-I : The M-phase starts with the nuclear division, corresponding to the separation of
daughter chromosome and usually ends with division of cytoplasm.
Statement-II : The interphase lasts for more than 95% of the total duration of cell cycle.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but and statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

55) Ist check point is found between :

(1) G1 and S phase

(2) G2 & M phase
(3) S and G2 phase
(4) Prophase & metaphase

56) Assertion : G1 phase is the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.
Reason : During G1 phase the cell is metabolically active and have 2C DNA content.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

57) The relation of Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae with Polymoniales is similar to the relation
occuring in :-

(1) Felidae and Canidae with Carnivora

(2) Primata and Carnivora with Mammalia
(3) Amphibia and Reptilia with Chordata
(4) Solanum and Petunia with Solanaceae
58) Classification of plants based on evolutionary relationship is called :

(1) Artificial system

(2) Natural system
(3) Phylogenetic system
(4) Numerical taxonomy

59) Assertion :- Genera are aggregates of closely related species. Reason :- Genus comprises a
group of related species which has more common characters in comparison to species of other
genera.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(3) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

60) In which of the following system of classification equal weightage was given to both vegetative
and sexual characteristies ?

(1) Natural system

(2) Artificial system
(3) Phylogenetic system
(4) All of these

61) Arrange the following taxa in ascending order according to their rank in taxonomic hierarchy
(A) Angiospermae (B) Anacardiaceae
(C) Mangifera (D) Dicotyledonae

(1) A → D → B → C
(2) C → D → B → A
(3) A → B → D → C
(4) C → B → D → A

62) Which of the following is the smallest basic unit of classification in animal classification ?

(1) Species
(2) Genus
(3) Kingdom
(4) Class

63) Identify the correct statements from the following and select the correct option from option
given below
A. One genus may have more than one specific epithet representing different species.
B. One specific epithet can be present in different genus.
C. Scientific term for convenient categories used in taxonomy is taxa/taxon
D. Cats, dogs, mammals and animals are different taxa.
(1) A and D only
(2) A, C and D only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) A, B, C and D

64) Genera of Petunia and Datura belongs to family :

(1) Solanaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) All of the above

65) _______ is the branch of science dealing with identification, nomenclature and classification of
organisms.

(1) Morphology
(2) Anatomy
(3) Ecology
(4) Taxonomy

66) Heterocysts are found in :-

(1) Anabaena and Nostoc

(2) Mucor and Chlorella
(3) Euglena and Paramoecium
(4) Lichens and Agaricus

67) Which one of the following structure not found on the outer surface of bacterial cell.

(1) Capsule
(2) Mesosomes
(3) Pili
(4) Flagella

68) Which option is not related to mycoplasma ?

(1) Penicillin resistant bacteria

(2) Faculative anaerobic, can survive without oxygen
(3) Lack cell membrane
(4) Pathogenic to plants and animals

69) Which of the following are responsible for the production of methane in the gut of several
ruminant animals :-

(1) Halophilis
(2) Thermoacidophiles
(3) Chemoautotrophic bacteria
(4) Methanogens

70) Which option is related with only monera and not related with other kingdom of R.H. Whittaker?

(1) Decomposer nature

(2) Presence of cell wall and cell membrene
(3) Well develop tissue system
(4) Nitrogen fixation ability

71) Which one was not the criteria used by R.H. whittaker in five kingdom classification?

(1) Cell strcuture

(2) Thallus organisation
(3) Mode of Nutrition
(4) Growth habit

72) Which one of the following is not the character feture of bacteria cell ?

(1) Mesesome
(2) Genomic DNA
(3) Nuclear membrane
(4) 70-s Ribosomes

73) Assertion (A) : In natural classification system, more weightage will be given to sexual
characteristics.
Reason (R) : Vegetative characters are more easily affected by environment as compared to sexual
characters.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

74) Given organisms belongs to how many families?

Wheat, Mango, Brinjal, Potato, Datura, Lion, Cat, Dog

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

75) Which of the following statement are true?

(a) Classification given by Bentham & Hooker was of non flowering plants
(b) Numbers and codes are assigned to floral characters only in numberical taxonomy
(c) Phylogenetic classification systems are based on evolutionary relationships between various
organisms
(d) The earliest system of classification used only gross superficial morphological characters

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only

76) Which of the following is a correct hierarchial order in taxonomy?

(1) Class < Order < Phylum < Kingdom

(2) Genus < Class < Order < Division
(3) Species < Genus < Family < Order
(4) Species < Class < Order < Phylum

77) Title "Systema Naturae" was used for his publication by which scientist-

(1) Whittaker
(2) Ernst Mayer
(3) Bantham and Hooker
(4) Linnaeus

78) Statement-I : Each scientific name has two components.

Statement-II : The first word in a biological name represents the specific epithet while second
word denotes the genus.

(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

79) As we go from species to kingdom, the number of common characteristic goes on-

(1) First increasing then decreasing

(2) Remain same
(3) Increasing
(4) Decreasing

80) Statement-I : Archaebacteria are oldest living organisms.

Statement-II : Archaebacteria can survive in most harsh habitats due to having structurally
complex cell wall

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

81) Identify the correct pairs for kingdom monera.

(A) Cell type — Eukaryotic
(B) Cell wall — Cellulosic
(C) Body organisation — Cellular
(D) Mode of Nutrition — Chemosynthesis

(1) C and D
(2) A and C
(3) A and D
(4) A and B

82) Among the following taxonomic categories, which have the members that possesses more
number of common characteristics?

(1) Family
(2) Class
(3) Order
(4) Division

83) Which statement is incorrect with respect to genus?

(1) Each genus may have one or more than one specific epithets
(2) It comprises a group of related species
(3) Species of one genera is more characters in common in comparison of other genera
(4) Dog and cat belong to same genus

84) Which of the following is not a correct statement ?

(1) The number and types of organisms present on earth refered as biodiversity
(2) The number of species that are known and described range between 1.7 to 1.8 billion
(3) Each different kind of plant animal or organism that you see represent a species
(4) As we explore new areas and even old ones new organism are continuously being identified

85) Assertion (A) : Anaphase-II begins with the simultaneous splitting of the centromere of each
chromosome allowing them to move toward opposite poles of the cell.
Reason (R) : The shortening of microtubules attached to kinetochore takes place during anaphse-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

86) Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence -

A - Terminalisation of chiasmata
B - Crossing over between chromatids
C - Pairing of homologous chromosomes
D - Complete separation of chromoatids
E - Lining up of paired chromosomes on equator
F - Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
The correct sequence is -

(1) A → E → C → F → D → B
(2) B → A → D → C → F → E
(3) C → B → F → A → E → D
(4) F → A → B → D → C → E

87) Which of the following present in chromatin ?

(1) DNA & RNA

(2) Histone protein
(3) Non histone protein
(4) All of these

88) Statement-I : The production of offspring by sexual reproduction includes the fusion of two
gametes, each with a complete haploid set of chromosomes.
Statement-II : Mitosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between
non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

89) Identify the correct statements

(I) The gap between meosis-I and meiosis-II is characterised with centriole duplication in animal
cells RNA synthesis and protein synthesis
(II) Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed by end of pachytene.
(III) Meiotic division occurs in meristematic cells
(IV) Interphase is the resting phase of cell cycle that lasts for more than 95% of the duration of cell
cycle.
(V) After meiosis I the resultant daughter cells have same amount of DNA as in the parent cells in S
phase

(1) I, II and IV
(2) II, III and V
(3) I, III and V
(4) III, IV and V

90) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(a) Homologous chromosomes separates (i) Anaphase-II

(b) Splitting of centromere (ii) Pachytene

(c) Recombination of genetic material (iii) Diplotene

(d) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex (iv) Anaphase-I

(1) a-iv ; b-i ; c-ii ; d-ii
(2) a-iv ; b-ii ; c-iii ; d-i
(3) a-ii ; b-iii ; c-i ; d-iv
(4) a-iii ; b-ii ; c-i ; d-iv
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 2 3 3 1 2 2 4 4 1 3 3 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 1 3 3 4 4 2 3 4 3 3 4 4 4 1 3 2 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 4 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 3 2 2 2 4 4 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 1 2 3 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 2 4 2 4 4 2 4 4 3 2 4 2 2 1 4 1 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 1 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 4 2 1 2 2 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 2 2 3 4 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 2 1 4 3 3 4 2 2 1 1 1 3 1 2 2 3 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 3 3 2 1 3 4 3 3 3 4 2 4 1 2 1 3 4 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 4 1 4 1 2 3 4 4 4 3 1 2 2 3 4 2 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 4 2 1 3 4 4 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Question Explanation: In this question we have to find the value of tan 4°.
Concept : Trigonometry (small angle approximation)
Solution :
If θ is very small
tan θ θ ('θ' must be in radian)

⇒ 4º = 4 × radian

⇒ 4º = radian

∴ tan
Final Answer: Option (3)

2)

3) = Area under y-x curve b/w x = 0 and x = 2

= 4 × 1 + (1) (4)
=4+2=6

4) y = x – 10
x = 0, y = –10
y = 0 x = 10

5) At x-axis , y = 0 so x2 + 2 –3x = 0 ⇒ x = 1 and 2

Therefore curve intersects the x-axis at (1, 0) and (2, 0).
 6)

Explanation Question: We have to choose the incorrect option

Concept: This question is based on vectors
Solution:

= 18 + 32 = 50

Final Answer: Option (4)

7) Explanation : resultant of which pair given in options cannot given the magnitude of 4N
Concept : Addition and subtraction
Solution : Max. Resultant = A + B
Mini. Resultant = |A – B|
(A + B)
A. 5 R 1
B. 6 R 0
C. 8 R 4
D. 11 R 5 4 cannot be resultant in this addition
Final answer: D

8) Explanation:
Two vectors are given. The component of vector b perpendicular to vector a is zero. We have
to find the value of x.

Concept:
This question is based on the condition of parallel vectors .

Solution:
Given vectors in vector form:
= 3 î + 8 ĵ − 2 k̂
= 6 î + 16 ĵ + x k̂

If the component of b perpendicular to a is zero, then

∥

So,
=λ

Comparing components:
6/3=2
16 / 8 = 2

Hence λ = 2

From k-component:
x / (−2) = 2
x = −4

Final Answer: Option (2)

9) Explain Question:
In this question, we have to find the value of 'b' if is a unit vector.

Concept:
Unit vector

Solution:
The magnitude of a unit vector is 1.

Squaring both side we get

b2 + 0.25 = 1
b2 = 1 – 0.25

Final Answer: Option (3)

10) Explain Question:

Asking about axial vector

Concept:
Types of vector

Solution:
⇒ Vector's having there direction along the axis is called axial vector.
⇒ Velocity is not axial vector

Final answer: Option (3)

11)
Angle between & is 0°

12) Explain Question: find how much the tip of vector shifts when the vector is rotated by
angle about its tail.

Concept: Subtraction of vectors.

Solution:

= 2ℓsinθ/2

Final Answer: option (2)

13) Direction ⇒

= 10 m/s
= m/s

14)
⇒

15) Question explain with given data

We are given four sets of three forces. We need to find the set for which the resultant cannot
be zero, i.e., the forces cannot form a closed triangle.
Concept based
Addition of vectors.

Formula used

then According to the condition of polygon.

Calculation:
Option(1) :
10 < (10 + 10) → Resultant should be zero.

Option(2) :
than, (20) = (10 + 10) → Resultant zero is possible.

Option(3) :
then, 20 < 20 + 10 → Resultant zero is possible.

Option(4) :
then, (40) 20 + 10 → So zero resultant is not possible.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

16) (a)

(b)
=
=

(c)
(d)

17)
So,

Area = × 2 × 6
= 6 Unit
18)

19)
at θ = 0° ⇒ R = A + B = 7N
at θ = 180° ⇒ R = B – A = 1N
at θ = 90° ⇒

20) After resolve

≡

21)

22) For backward journey

x=

So total distance 3x + x + x = 5x =

23)

24)

v = (180 – 16x)1/2

(180 – 16x)–1/2(–16)

a = –8 m/s2

25)

As x = 10 – 8t + t2
Step-i v = –8 + 2t
Put v=0
–8 + 2t = 0
t = 4s
Step-ii
 x1(t = 0) = 10
x2(t = 4) = –6

x3(t = 5) = –5
Distance = |10 – (–6)| + |–6 – (–5)|
= 16 + 1
= 17 m
3 2
26) s = t – 6t + 3t + 4

Velocity v =
2
= 3t – 12t + 3 …(i)

Acceleration a = = 3 × 2t – 12 × 1 + 0 = 6t – 12
Acceleration is zero at time t given by 6t – 12 = 0
⇒ t = 2 seconds
So, velocity v at t = 2 seconds is
v = (3t2 – 12t + 3)t = 2s
= 3 × (2)2 – 12 × 2 + 3 = –9 m/s

27)

28) t2 = x2 – 1
x2 = 1 + t2

29) Speed will increase when both and are < 0

30)

Velocity v = 3x2

Acceleration

= (3x2) (6x) = 18 x3
 at x = 1 m
3 2
a = 18 (1) = 18 m/s

31) Explain the question : To find the average velocity of car in first 10 seconds.
Concept : This question is based on graphical analysis of (v-t) graph.

Solution :
vavg = 6 m/s
Final answer : 3

32)

St : S2t = 1 : 4 ⇒ y = 4X

33)

Here average acceleration =

But we can't say certainly that body have uniform acceleration.

34)

S= ⇒ S ∝ V2
x : y = 1 : 16

35)

S6th = u + (2n – 1) (here u = 0, a = 4 m/s2, n = 6 sec)

S6th = (11) = 22 m

36)
V = 0 + 2 × 10 = 20 m/s
distance = Areal v-t graph (all +ve)

37)
∵

∵ sy = uyt + ayt2

1
∴ h = 10 × – × 10 ×

=5–

1
∴h =

38)

displacement =

39)

S = αt2 – βt + γ
S = t2 – 6t + 5

v= = (2t – 6) m/s
distance travelled = |A1| + |A2|

distance =
distance = 18 m

∴ Average speed ⇒ vavg =

vavg = = 3 m/s

40)

Distance travelled by Ruler :

Order of distance travelled for person is

41)
At any time t after it is released velocity V = gt
Acceleration of the ball remains constant = g
∴ Both will be equal at t = 1 sec
∴ Position of ball from ground will be (18 – 5) m

42)

Total distance travel

d=
d = 100 m

Average velocity =

<v> =

43)

–75 = 10 × t – × 10 × t2
t2 – 2t – 15 = 0
(t – 5) (t + 3) = 0 ⇒ t=5
Height = 75 + 10 × 5 = 125 m

44)

=
∴ at (1,2,4) =
∴
 45)

CHEMISTRY

–1
46) 1. Mass of solvent (H2O) : Masssolvent = Volume × Density = 45 mL × 1 g mL = 45 g
2. Total mass of solution: Masssolution = Masssolute + Masssolvent = 5g + 45 g = 50 g

3. Mass percentage: % w/w = = ×100 = 10.0%

47) Balanced reaction : CH4 + 202 → CO2 + 2H2O

Form stoichiometry :
1 mol CH4 requires 2 mol O2
10 mol CH4 requires 10 × 2 = 20 mol O2
Given :
CH4 = 10 mol
O2 = 21 mol
According to reaction
10 mole CO2 and 20 mole H2O produced so total moles
10 + 20 = 30 mole

48) 1.
2. Mass of pure CaCO3 :
Ratio is 1 : 1, so 0.5 mol of CaCO3 is needed.
Mass = 0.5 mol × 100 g/mol = 50 g
3. Weight of 95% sample (W) :
50 g is 95% of W.

49) • Moles of (COOH)2·2H2O = 0.3 mol

• Total O atoms = 0.3 × 6 = 1.8 gram atoms

50)

Total moles CO =

Moles removed =

Moles remain =
=

51)

Gram eq. of oxide = gram eq. of metal

E = eq. mass of metal

1.2 E = 22.4

E=

Vt = 3 (for metal)

52) 1. Moles of CO2 = = 0.1 mol

2. Moles of NH3 = = 0.2 mol

3. Moles of CH4 = = 0.1 mol

4. Moles of SO2 = = 0.05 mol

So, SO2 has the least number of moles, and thus the least number of molecules.
Final Answer: (4) 3.2 g SO2

53)

wt of S = 2.2 – 1.24 = 0.96

P: S

4 : 3
P4S3

54) 4A + 2B + 3C → A4B2C3
1 mole 0.6 0.72 mole
mole
In the above reaction, reactant "C" will be the limiting reactant and it will decide yield of
product.
∴ from 3 moles of C ; 1 mole product is formed

∴ from 0.72 mole of C = × 0.72

= 0.24 moles of product.

55) Calculate the Moles of Each Element (assuming 100g of compound):

Moles of C = 38.71 g / 12 g/mol ≈ 3.226 mol
Moles of H = 9.67 g / 1 g/mol = 9.67 mol
Moles of O = 51.62 g / 16 g/mol ≈ 3.226 mol
Find the Simplest Mole Ratio:
Divide each mole value by the smallest mole value (3.226 mol):
C: 3.226 mol / 3.226 mol = 1
H: 9.67 mol / 3.226 mol ≈ 3
O: 3.226 mol / 3.226 mol = 1
The empirical formula is CH3O

56)

MCl2 MW = 2 × W + 2 × 35.5

57) 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3

2SO2 → O2
2 mole → 1 mole O2
1 mole → ½ mole O2
5 mole → ½ × 5 = 2.5 mole react
remain = 5 – 2.5 = 2.5 mole
weight = 2.5 × 32 = 80g

58) αA = 1 P°A = 254

αB = 0 P°B = 135
when XB = 0.4 , XA = 0.6

59) ΔTf = 0.93°C, Kf = 1.86

Solvent = 1.2 kg
Moles of solute:

n = m × kg solvent = 0.5 × 1.2 = 0.6 mol Molar mass: Empirical

formula mass of CH2O :
12 + 2 + 16 =30 g mol–1

So molecular formula = 2 × CH2O = C2H4O2

60) • Mole fraction in liquid:

• Partial pressures:
• Total pressure = 14 + 24 = 38mm
• Mole fraction in vapour:

61) Strong intermolecular forces ⟶ molecules do not easily enter vapour phase
Hence vapour pressure becomes low
Strong forces also imply high boiling point and high heat of vaporisation, not low
Kinetic energy depends mainly on temperature, not intermolecular forces

62) NCERT XII Pg. # 56 # Part-I

All the molecules of methanoic acid undergo association (dimerise) in benzene and hence the
molar mass will be calculated on the basis of ΔTf.

63) (A) Solution of camphor in N₂ gas → solvent is gas → Gaseous solution (P)
(B) Oxygen dissolved in water → solvent is liquid → Liquid solution (Q)
(C) Hydrogen dissolved in palladium → solvent is solid metal → Solid solution (R)
(D) Starch in water → colloidal dispersion → Lyophilic sol (S)
Thus: A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→S

64) NCERT-XII, part-1, Pg.#49

ΔTb = 100°C – 99.48°C
= 0.52°C
ΔTb = Kb × m × i

65) For isotonic solutions having same volume and temperature

66) ΔTf = 273.15 K – 256.15K = 17.0 K

2. ΔTf = Kf × m

ΔTf = Kf ×
Given W1 = 600 g = 0.6 kg

67) Statement l: Adding a non-volatile solute lowers vapour pressure, so the solution's vapour
pressure equals the pure solvent's vapour pressure at a lower temperature. True.
Statement ll: Due to association, i < 1 Hence observed ΔTf is less, not more. Statement says
"more", so it is false.

68)

Volume strength = 5.6 × Normality of solution

= 5.6 × 1.5 = 8.4

69)

Fact Based

70) Question Explanation: Identify True/False statements based on effective nuclear charge
(Zeff).

Concept: Effective nuclear charge

Solution:
(i) Li⁺ and B³⁺ are isoelectronic (2 electrons); higher Z gives higher Zeff, so false.
(ii) Shielding σ increases from B to C, so B < C is true.
(iii) For mono-electronic species, Zeff = Z ( Zeff = Z - σ ; σ = 0), true.
(iv) Zeff explains periodic trends, true.

Final Answer: Option (2)

71)

B < Al ≥ Ga < In ≤ Tℓ (Atomic size)

72)

Ni < Cu < Zn

73)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer.
Order of radius :-
K > Ca
H < He
+ +2
Mg > Mg
–2 –
O >O

74)

Explain the Question : Identify the correct order of ionization energy among the choices.
Concept : This question is based on Ionization Energy.
+
Solution : K has the highest ionization energy because it requires breaking a very stable
noble gas configuration. Cations have higher IE than their neutral atoms, and Cu has a higher
IE than K.
Other corrected orders :-
(1) Zn > Cu > Ga ⇒ I.E.
(2) Be+2 > Li+ > He ⇒ I.E.
(3) F > N > O
Final answer : 4

75)

here (c) is F while (d) is Ne

76)

Small cation shows more EA

77)

78) EA2 of Bohr positive and oxygen has more positive

79)

positive oxidation stage ∝ Acidic nature

80)

Correct option is B < C < O < N

81)

Concept based

82)
 IP2 of Li > IP1 of He
+
(Li He) isoelectronic
Zeff↑
Al↑

83)

+2 +3
Zeff order Fe < Fe < Fe (Zeff if Z same)

84) Explanation the Question : Identify which pair's similar radii are not from lanthanide
contraction.
Concept: This question is based on Shielding Effect.
Solution: The similar radii of Aluminum (Al) and Gallium (Ga) are due to the poor shielding
effect of 3d-electrons (d-block contraction), not the 4f-electrons involved in lanthanide
contraction.
Final Answer: 2

85)

NCERT, Pg # 90, Table-3.7

ΔHeg order Ne < O
2p6 2p4
Ne having full filled p orbitals. So it's ΔHeg is less same for Be & B.
O<F
2p4 2p5

Zeff of F is greater than oxygen and 2p5 of F become full filled after gaining 1e–

86)

Fact Based

87) Answer-Option(2)
Explanation -
In this question We have to find the correct acidic strength.
Concept(i) Acidic character of non-metallic oxides increases along a period of periodic table.
Cl2O7 > SO2 > P4O10
(ii) Al2O3: Aluminium oxide is amphoteric, and Na2O and MgO are basic in nature

88) (i) 3rd Typical element → is Al

(ii) EKa boron is scandium
(iv) highest IE2 in 2nd period is of Li

89) Fact Based

 90)

Most electropositive element is Cs

BIOLOGY

th
91) NCERT-XII , Pg. # 22

92)
th
NCERT-XII , Pg. # 21

93)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 20

94)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 22

95)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 19, 20

96)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 21

97)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 20

98)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 23

99)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 9,11,18,19

100) NCERT-XII, [Link]. #18

101)
 th
NCERT-XII , Pg. # 18

102)
th
NCERT-XII , Pg. # 17

103)

Module

th
104) NCERT-XII , Pg. # 18

105)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 19

106) NCERT Pg. No. # 18

107) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 18

108)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 19, 20

109) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 22,23,24

110) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 17,19, 24

111)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 16,17

112) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 19

113) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 19

114) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 20

115) NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 18

116) Question explanation: The question is asking which stage of meiotic prophase I is
characterized by visible tetrads, recombination nodules, and crossing over.
Concept: Pachytene.
Solution: During pachytene, homologous chromosomes are fully paired to form tetrads,
recombination nodules appear, and crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids.
Final answer: Option 3

117)
th
NCERT-XI , Pg. # 127

118)

each bivalent with two chromosomes & 4 chromatids

119)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 122-124

120)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 121

121) NCERT PG. 163

122) NCERT 10.2.1 PG. 164

123) NCERT, Pg. # 126

124) NCERT PG. 168-169

125)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 121

126)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 126

127) Explain Question -The question asks to match stages of cell division (Column I),
corresponding images (Column II), and their descriptions (Column III).

Concept - Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Solution -
Late prophase shows spindle formation and disappearance of ER and Golgi matches image b
and description i.

Anaphase involves splitting of centromere and movement of chromatids matches image a and
description iv.

Telophase involves chromosome decondensation → matches image d and description ii.

Prophase-I is the longest phase of meiosis-l matches image c and description iii.

Final answer - 2. 1-b-i, 2-a-iv, 3-d-ii, 4-c-iii

128)
th
NCERT-XI , Pg. # 126

129)

Explain Question : This question asks about the cell division pattern that leads to the
formation of liquid endosperm in coconut.
Concept : This question is based on cytokinesis
Explanation : In coconut, the liquid part (coconut water) is the free-nuclear endosperm,
formed when karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis. This allows nuclei to remain in a
shared cytoplasm. Later, the outer part may become cellular (coconut meat).
Final answer : 4

130)

Explain Question : The question asks us to match events in the cell cycle (Column I) with the
correct stages of the cell cycle (Column II) during mitosis-related preparation.
Concept : This question is based on G0, INTERKINSIS (G1, S, G2).
Explanation :
Centriole duplication → occurs during the S phase.
Most organelles duplicate → occur in G1 phase.
Tubulin protein synthesis (needed for spindle formation) → occurs in G2 phase.
Cells not dividing → in G0 phase.
Final answer : 2

131) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 165, 166

132)

Question Explanation: Asking about S-Phase

Concept: S-Phase

Solution :

Protein synthesis occurs throughout interphase:

G1 phase → active protein synthesis for cell growth

S phase → proteins (like histones) are synthesized along with DNA replication

G2 phase → synthesis of proteins needed for mitosis

So, protein synthesis takes place in all these phases.

Final answer: 4

133)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 121

134)

NCERT XI Page No. # 167, 168

135) Question Explanation Matching stages of Prophase-I to events.

Concept Meiosis-I: Prophase-I stages.
Solution The correct match is:
a. Zygotene → (IV) Synapsis
b. Pachytene → (III) Crossing over
c. Diakinesis → (I) Terminalisation of chiasmata
d. Leptotene → (V) Condensation of chromosomal material start
e. Diplotene → (II) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
Final Answer : a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-V, e-II

136) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 164, para-04

137) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 123

138)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

139)

One bivalent is equal to two chromosomes

140)

Explain Question : The question asks about the location of DNA replication and centriole
duplication during the S phase in animal cells.
Concept : This question is based on S phase
Explanation :
DNA replication takes place in the nucleus because that is where chromosomal DNA is located.
Centrioles are microtubule-based structures located in the cytoplasm (specifically near the
nucleus in the centrosome). Their duplication also occurs in the S phase, but outside the
nucleus.
Final answer : 3

141)
th
NCERT-XI , Pg. # 128

142) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 138

143)

Question Explanation: Identifying the correct statement about events in the cell cycle.
Concept: Cell cycle stages.
Solution: Chromosome replication occurs in S-phase. The S-phase (synthesis phase) is the
period during interphase when a cell's DNA is duplicated.
Final Answer: b

144)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

145)

NCERT Pg # 121

146) NCERT Page No. 163

147) Explain Question: The question asks about the relation which is similar to the relation
of Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae with Polymoniales.
Concept: Order/ Family.
Solution: The relation of Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae with Polymoniales is similar to the
relation occuring in : Felidae and Canidae with Carnivora
So, the correct answer is: 1.
Final answer: Option (1)

148)

NCERT Page No. # 30

149)

Explain Question: The question tests the understanding of the definition and concept of
genus using an Assertion–Reason format.

Concept: Genus

Solution:
Assertion: True - A genus is defined as an aggregate of closely related species.

Reason: True Species within the same genus share more common characters with each other
than with species of other genera.

Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Final answer: 4

150)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 29, para-03

151) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 11, Table 1.1

152) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 06

153)

Question Explanation: The question asks to identify the correct statements about taxonomy,
taxa, genus, and specific epithets.

Concept: The Living World → Taxonomic Hierarchy and Nomenclature.

Solution:
A. Correct – One genus can have multiple species, each with its own specific epithet.
B. Correct – The same specific epithet can be used in different genera (e.g., Mangifera indica
and Triticum indica).
C. Correct – Taxa is the scientific term for categories used in taxonomy.
D. Correct – Cats, dogs, mammals, and animals represent different taxa at different
hierarchical levels.

Final answer: A, B, C and D

154)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 7

155)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 3
156) Explain Question: Question asks in which organisms heterocysts are found.
Concept: Cyanobacteria
Solution: Heterocysts occur in Anabaena and Nostoc.
Final answer: 1

157) Explain Question: Question asks about which structure is not found on the outer surface
of a bacterial cell.
Concept: This question is based on Structure of bacterial cell
Solution: Mesosomes: Infoldings of plasma membrane inside the cell, not on outer surface
Final answer: 2

158) Explain Question: Question asks about which statement is not related to Mycoplasma.
Concept: This question is based on Mycoplasma
Solution: Statement about lacking cell membrane is incorrect.
Final answer: 3

159) Explain Question: Question asks about which microorganisms produce methane in the
gut of ruminant animals.
Concept: This question is based on Archaebacteria
Solution: Methane production in ruminants is due to Methanogens.
Final answer: 4

160)

Question Explanation :
The question asks which feature is exclusive to the Monera kingdom and not shared with any
other kingdom in R.H. Whittaker's five-kingdom classification.

Concept :
R.H. Whittaker's five-kingdom classification.

Solution :
Only nitrogen fixation is a unique functional trait primarily seen in certain prokaryotes
(Monera).

Final Answer :
Option (4)

161) NCERT(XI) ; Page No. # 11

162) NCERT(XI) ; Page No. # 13

163) NCERT(XI) ; Page No. # 10

164) NCERT(XI) ; Page No. # 7

165) NCERT(XI) ; Module # 1

166) NCERT(XI) ; Page No. # 7

167) NCERT(XI) ; Page No. # 11

168) NCERT(XI) ; Page No. # 4

169) NCERT(XI) ; Page No. # 7

170) NCERT(XI) ; Page No. # 13

171) NCERT(XI) ; Page No. # 13

172) NCERT(XI) ; Page No. # 7

173) NCERT(XI) ; Page No. # 7

174) NCERT(XI) ; Page No. # 3

175) NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 127

176) NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 126

177) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 121

178) NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 125

179) NCERT (XI) ; Module-2

180) NCERT (XI) ; Page No. 126