FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL 05.

In which phase of criminal investigation is

INVESTIGATION AND INTELLIGENCE the investigator required to apprise the person of
his rights under Republic Act 7438?

01. It deals with the identity, location and arrest A. During the identification of the criminal
of a person who commits a crime and offender
simultaneously identifies, collects, preserves and B. During the arrest, detention, and interrogation
evaluates evidence for the purpose of bringing of the offender
the criminal offender to justice. C. During the gathering of evidence
D. During police line-up
A. Investigation
B. Criminal Investigation 06. What specific offense has been committed?
C. Investigative Process Who committed it? When, where, why, and how
D. Criminal Inquest was it committed? These are called the
__________ of criminal investigation.
02. It is the product resulting from the
collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and A. Cardinal Points
interpretation of all available information B. Three I's
concerning one or more aspects of criminal C. Golden Rule
activity and which is immediately or potentially D. Bridges Burn
significant to police planning.
07. One of the stages of criminal investigation is
A. Investigation the identification of criminals, which can be
B. Information done in any or a combination of the following,
C. Data EXCEPT:
D. Intelligence
A. By confession or admission
03. What is referred to as the knowledge B. By corpus delicti
pertaining to the capabilities, vulnerabilities, and C. By circumstantial evidence
probable course of action of foreign nations? D. By eyewitness

A. Combat Intelligence 08. It is a term used by the FBI to describe

B. National Intelligence everybody who is an informant.
C. Police Intelligence
D. Strategic Intelligence A. Cooperative Witness
B. Active Informant
04. Through this tool of criminal investigation, C. Jailhouse Informant
tangible things may be used to detect crimes, D. Voluntary Informant
identify criminals, and assist investigators in
achieving the objectives of criminal 09. Intelligence on the enemy and the
investigation. characteristics of the operation used in the
planning and conduct of tactical operations.
A. Information
B. Criminalistics A. Strategic Intelligence
C. Instrumentation B. Military Intelligence
D. Interview/Interrogation C. Combat Intelligence
D. Counter Intelligence
10. They are referred to as justice collaborators
or cooperating witnesses. 16. The commission of four or more murders in
a single incident within a short span of time.
A. Informants
B. Private Detective A. Mass Murder
C. Special Investigator B. Manslaughter
D. Voluntary Informant C. Serial Murder
D. Sensational Murder
11. Which of the following is NOT an element
of corpus delicti? 17. Intelligence should be essential and pertinent
to the purpose at hand. This refers to the
A. Proof of the occurrence of a certain event principle of:
B. Person's criminal responsibility for the act
C. Additional evidence of a different character to A. Continuity
the same point B. Objective
D. Proper chain of custody C. Selection
D. Timeliness
12. It is the questioning of a person with the
main focus of obtaining a valid and lawful 18. This segment of the intelligence process
confession or admission of guilt. deals with what happens when information is
received, processed, and integrated with current
A. Interview holdings.
B. Interrogation
C. Invitation A. Data Analysis
D. All of the above B. Data Collation
C. Data Evaluation
13. What type of reasoning analyzes collected D. Data Dissemination
information carefully to develop a theory of the
crime? 19. The following are the threefold aims of
criminal investigation, EXCEPT:
A. Inductive
B. Deductive A. To locate the whereabouts of the victim
C. Systematic B. To locate the perpetrator
D. Logical C. To identify the felon
D. To provide evidence to prove the guilt of the
14. The knowledge essential to the prevention of offender
crimes and the investigation, arrest, and
prosecution of criminal offenders is called: 20. The term used for the object of surveillance
is "subject," while the investigator conducting
A. Criminal Intelligence the surveillance is called:
B. External Intelligence
C. Internal Intelligence A. Rabbit
D. Public Safety Intelligence B. Surveillant
C. Decoy
15. Which of the following must be done to D. Target
maintain the legal integrity of evidence?

A. Evidence must be properly documented

B. Maintain its chain of custody
C. Identify, tag, and seal the evidence
D. Photograph and package the evidence
SPECIALIZED CRIME A. Direct Evidence
INVESTIGATION 1 WITH LEGAL B. Circumstantial Evidence
MEDICINE C. Object Evidence
D. Documentary Evidence

26. Which of the following questions in

21. This is the investigation of cases that are
incidents involving assaults CANNOT be
unique and often require special training to
answered by a medico-legal officer?
fully understand their broad significance.
A. How many are the victims?
A. Criminal Investigation
B. What is the position of the victim when
B. Homicide Investigation
assaulted?
C. Special Crime Investigation
C. Was there evidence of defense marks or
D. All of the Above
struggle?
D. From what direction was the force
22. A branch of medicine dealing with the
applied?
application of medical knowledge for legal
27. Instantaneous rigidity of the muscles of
purposes.
the body immediately after death.
A. Medical Jurisprudence
A. Rogor Mortis
B. Legal Medicine
B. Migor Mortis
C. Forensic Medicine
C. Rigor Mortis
D. All of the Above
D. Ragor Mortis
23. The highest form of evidence.
28. It is proof of facts from which, taken
collectively, the existence of a particular fact
A. Real Evidence
in dispute may be inferred.
B. Autoptic Evidence
C. Expert Witness
A. Prima Facie Evidence
D. Either A or B
B. Circumstantial Evidence
E. None of the Above
C. Corpus Delicti
D. Primary Evidence
24. These are articles and materials found in
connection with an investigation that aid in
29. With treachery, taking advantage of
establishing the identity of the perpetrator or
superior strength, with the aid of armed men,
the circumstances under which the crime
or employing means to weaken the defense
was committed.
are qualifying circumstances of murder.
Must all these circumstances be present for
A. Corpus Delicti
the killing to be considered murder?
B. Associative Evidence
C. Tracing Evidence
A. Murder
D. Physical Evidence
B. Homicide
C. No
25. Evidence which proves the fact in
D. Definitely Yes
dispute without the aid of any inference or
presumption.
30. A man suddenly casts sand upon the
eyes of the victim and then stabs him to A. 1–2 hours
death. What offense is committed? B. 2–3 hours
C. 3–4 hours
A. Murder D. 4–5 hours
B. Parricide
C. Physical Injuries 36. The transient loss of consciousness with
D. Homicide temporary cessation of the vital functions of
the body is known as:
31. He who kills an illegitimate grandfather
or an illegitimate grandson is not guilty of A. Death
parricide but of homicide or murder. B. State of Suspended Animation
C. Coma
A. The statement is erroneous D. Rigor Mortis
B. The statement is true
C. The statement is partly correct 37. Considered to be the beginning of any
D. The statement is inadmissible homicide investigation is the:

32. What aggravating circumstance is A. Process of establishing the accurate cause

present when the offended party was not of death
given the opportunity to defend himself? B. Process of determining who is
responsible for the death
A. Employing Means to Weaken the C. Process of determining how the victim
Defense was killed
B. Taking Advantage of Superior Strength D. Process of determining when the victim
C. Means to Afford Impunity was killed
D. Treachery
38. In a case involving a dead person, when
33. As a general rule, can a police officer should an autopsy be performed?
arrest a person with a warrant of arrest?
A. Death has been caused by violence
A. No, because it violates the Constitution B. At once when there is the slightest reason
B. Yes, by means of In Flagrante Delicto to suspect homicide
C. No, because a warrant is unnecessary C. Upon the request of the dead person's
D. Yes family
D. In all cases involving death
34. Under R.A. 8353, "carnal knowledge"
refers to: 39. Which of the following is the primary
role of the investigator upon arrival at the
A. Knowledge of Sex homicide scene?
B. Forcible Sex
C. Sexual Knowledge A. Verification of Death
D. Sexual Penetration B. Identification of the Person Responsible
C. Call a Physician for Proper Declaration of
35. It usually takes ________ for the Death
stomach to empty its contents after meals. D. All of the Above
 b. No. The entry is thru an opening intended
40. Which of the following is NOT rape by for egress.
sexual assault? c. It must be theft
d. No idea
A. Inserting a penis into another person's
anal orifice 44. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped
B. Inserting a penis while the woman is the wall. The wall collapsed. There was a
sleeping small opening there. At night, a man entered
C. Inserting any instrument or object into the through that opening without breaking the
genital or anal orifice of another person same and rob the store. What is the crime
D. Inserting a penis into another person's committed?
mouth
a. Theft
SPECIALIZED CRIME b. Robbery
c. Trespass to dwelling
INVESTIGATION 2 WITH
d. none
INTERROGATION AND INTERVIEW
45. If accused entered the house through a
41. In robbery by force upon things, the door, and it was while escaping that he
offender must enter the house or building in broke any wall, floor or window after taking
which the robbery was committed, by any of personal property inside the house, then
the following means, except; there is ___
a. Through a opening not intended for
entrance or egress. a. Robbery
b. By breaking any wall, roof, or floor or b. Theft
breaking any door or window. c. Malicious mischief
c. By using any fictitious name or d. none
pretending the exercise of public authority.
d. By using keys borrowed from the owner. 46. Mario entered the house of Juan because
the latter left it open. While inside, Mario
42. Important for robbery by use of force uses his false key to open a receptacle where
upon things, it is necessary that offender cash and jewelries are being kept. what is
______ the crime committed by Mario?

a. Broke anything as a means of entry a. Robbery

b. enters the building or where object may b. Theft
be found. c. Qualified theft
c. applied force upon things d. Qualified robbery
d. Applies force, threat or violence
47. If Anna and Ben told the occupant of the
43. Mario entered thru the fire exit to rob the house that they were the nephews of the
house. The fire exit is not intended for spouse of the owner of the house and once
entrance. Will it qualify for robbery? inside, they robbed. What is the crime
committed?
a. Yes because entry thru an opening not
intended for entrance to rob is robbery a. Robbery
b. Theft b. Robbery with homicide and the physical
c. Qualified theft injury shall be aggravating
d. Qualified robbery c. Robbery with physical injury, homicide is
separate crime
48. Angelo, Ben, Ceny and Dan robbed a d. Only robbery, homicide and physical
bank. When they were about to flee, injury aggravate the crime.
policemen came, and they traded shots with
them. If one of the policemen was killed, the 52. The robbers enter the house. In entering
offense is______ through the window, one of the robbers
stepped on a child less than three days old.
a. Robbery with homicide The crime is_____
b. Robbery and murder
c. Robbery only and homicide is aggravating a. Robbery and homicide
d. Homicide and the robbery is only b. Robbery with homicide
aggravating c. Robbery with infanticide
d. Robbery with murder
49. From the scenario above, If one of the
robbers was the one killed, the remaining 53. The tactics and style of the robbery
robbers shall be_____ includes this one which is the least planned
of all and is based on the element of
a. Robbery with homicide surprise.
b. Robbery and murder
c. Robbery only and homicide is aggravating a. The selective raid
d. Homicide and the robbery is only b. The ambush
aggravating c. The planned operation
d. None of the above
50. What if a bank employee was the one
killed either by the robbers or by the 54. A robbery which involves a minimum of
policemen in the course of the latter’s action planning but some casing of the robbery
of arresting or trying to arrest the robbers, scene.
the crime is______
a. The selective raid
a. Robbery with homicide b. The ambush
b. Robbery and murder c. The planned operation
c. Robbery only and homicide is aggravating d. None of the above
d. Homicide and the robbery is only
aggravating 55. They are robbers described as those
persons who worked at robbery as a trade
51. If, on the occasion or by reason of the making it their living and having no other
robbery, somebody is killed, and there are means of income.
also physical injuries inflicted by reason or
on the occasion of the robbery a. Amateurs
b. Professionals
a. Robbery with homicide and physical c. Organized
injury d. none of the above
56. The burglar is an aerialist, the stopover a. The interviewer must be in a respectable
robber steps from a fire escape, balcony or civilian attire.
other building to a nearby window. The b. RAPPORT
“human fly” robber can progress upward or c. CONVERSATIONAL TONE OF VOICE
downward or the sides of a building to a d. KNOWLEDGE OF HUMAN
selected point of entry. BEHAVIOR

a. The open door or window entry

b. The jimmy entry TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND
c. The celluloid entry ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION WITH
d. The stopover or human fly entry DRIVING
57. All but one are special aggravating
circumstance in arson. 61. The minimum age for non-professional
driver’s license applicant is:
a. Committed with intent to gain
b. Committed to conceal a crime. A. 16
c. Committed for the benefits of others B. 17
d. Offender is motivated by spite, revenge or C. 18
hatred towards the owner or occupant of the D. 21
house;
62. A driver who was in traffic accident is
58. Is a conversation with a purpose, justified to leave from the accident area, if
motivated by a desire to obtain certain any of the circumstances below are present,
information from the person being except:
interviewed as to what was done, seen, felt,
heard, tasted, smell or known. A. He is in imminent danger of being
harmed by other persons by reason of an
a. Interview accident
b. Interrogation B. He surrenders to proper authority
c. Elicitation C. He summons the assistance of a physician
d. Survey or nurse to aid the victim
D. He hides from the police for justifiable
59. “Never conduct or let anyone conduct an cause
interview if the interviewer has not gone to
the crime scene.” 63. Friction mark on a pavement made by a
tire, which is both rotating and slipping is
a. The cardinal rule of interview called:
b. The golden rule of interrogation
c. The cardinal rule interrogation A. Centrifugal skid
d. The golden rule interview B. Centrifugal force
C. Scuff mark
60. It is the friendly relation between the D. Skid mark
interviewer and the interviewee which is
conducive to a fruitful result. 64. The chronological arrangement of the
color of the traffic lights from the top.
A. Yellow, red, green pedestrian or driver, including any vehicle or
B. Green, red, yellow animal which he is using.
C. Red, yellow, green
D. Green, yellow, red A. Pedestrian
B. Motorists
65. Separation of traffic units in a vehicular C. Traffic users
accident is referred to as: D. Traffic unit

A. Final position 70. The entire width between boundary lines

B. Disengagement of every way or place of which any part is
C. Hazards open to the use of the public for purposes of
D. Stopping vehicular traffic as a matter of right or
custom.
66. In the examination of the scene of
accident, which of the following evidence A. Traffic way
will show how the accident happened? B. Road way
C. Traffic units
A. Hole on the road pavement D. Subway
B. The driver under the influence of liquor
C. Point of impact 71. What is the primary aim of driver
D. Vehicle has brake failure instruction programs?

67. Early Warning Device must be installed A. To teach the rudiments of driving
___________ to the front and at the rear of B. To instill awareness of one’s legal and
the motor vehicle whenever the motorcycle moral responsibilities in traffic
is stationary for any reason, or it is C. To teach the abilities required for one to
compelled to stop on an area where standing be eligible for a driving license
or parking is prohibited. D. To help the learners know the basic
traffic rules and regulations
A. At least 3 meters
B. At least 4 meters 72. Used when a traffic enforcer observed a
C. At least 5 meters minor violation but is preoccupied at the
D. At least 6 meters moment.

68. This principle refers to the legal or A. Visual warning

customary precedence which allows one B. Written warning
vehicle to cross or pass in front of another. C. Verbal warning
D. Oral warning
A. The doctrine of right of way
B. The doctrine of last clear chance 73. Traffic lights were first introduced
C. Last clear chance on______
D. Right of way a. Subway
b. Railway
69. Any person using a traffic way for c. Airport
travel, parking or other purposes as a d. Highway
74. The linkages between two municipalities
with right of way from 15 meters to 60 79. This is also known as the Land
meters. Transportation and Traffic Code.

A. National Roads A. Republic Act No. 4136

B. Provincial Roads B. Republic Act No. 6374
C. City Roads C. Republic Act No. 10586
D. Municipal Roads D. Republic Act No. 10913

75. A state or condition of severe road 80. Every and any driver hired or paid for
congestion arising when continuous queues driving or operating a motor vehicle,
of vehicles block an entire network of whether for private use or for hire to the
intersecting streets bringing traffic in all public.
directions to a complete standstill.
A. Owner
A. Traffic Build-up B. Professional Driver
B. Traffic Congestions C. Dealer
C. Traffic Jams (Snarl-up) D. All of the above
D. Gridlocks

76. These are conditions on road networks TECHNICAL ENGLISH 1 & 2

that occur as use increases and are
characterized by slower speeds, longer trip (Legal Forms and Investigative Report
times, and increased vehicular queueing. Writing)

A. Traffic Build-up
B. Traffic Congestions 81. Is a type of writing where the author is
C. Traffic Jams (Snarl-up) writing about a particular subject that
D. Gridlocks requires direction, instruction or
explanation.
77. These are highways with limited access,
normally with interchanges, and may a. Technical Writing
include facilities for levying tolls for b. Writing
passage in an open or closed system. c. Legal Writing
d. Legal Form
A. National Roads
B. Expressways 82. A document written for experts will be
C. Provincial Roads very different from one written for the
D. All of the above general public.

78. Having a driver’s license is a: a. SIMPLICITY AND CONCISENESS

b. ACCURACY
A. Constitutional Right c. AUDIENCE FOCUSED
B. Statutory Right d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
C. Privilege
D. None of the above 83. There is no room for ambiguity or errors
in a technical document.
 of the matter and outlining the nature of the
a. SIMPLICITY AND CONCISENESS case.
b. ACCURACY
c. AUDIENCE FOCUSED a. AFFIDAVIT OF UNDERTAKING
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE b. AFFIDAVIT OF DISINTERESTED
PERSONS
84. It tells the story if the crime; what c. COMPLAINT AFFIDAVIT
happened and why it happened. d. NONE OF THE ABOVE

a. NARRATIVES AND REPORTS 89. An order in the court that requires

b. LEGAL PLEADINGS AND someone to testify as a witness.
CITATIONS
c. JUDICIAL ORDERS a. SUBPOENA
d. STUDIES AND RESEACH b. SUMMON
c. Subpoena ad testificandum
85. Are binding written documents that d. Subpoena ducestecum
serve as means for putting into effect legal
proceedings, court orders and notices. 90. Is detailed account of an event, situation,
etc., usually based on observation or inquiry.
a. Technical Writing
b. Writing a. Story
c. Legal Writing b. Narrative
d. Legal Form c. Report
d. Report writing
86. Is that part of an affidavit in which the
officer certifies that the instrument was 91. It is an official record of information
sworn to before him. relevant to the investigation which the
investigator submits to his or her superior. It
a. Will is a document that details the findings or
b. Deed evidence related to the formal complaint or
c. Contract allegation.
d. Jurat
a. Investigative reporting
87. This one is to authenticate an agreement b. Investigative report
between two or more persons, or where the c. Investigative report writing
document contains a disposition of property. d. Investigative writing

a. Will 92. A police report which represents data on

b. Acknowledgement a specialized subject.
c. Affidavit
d. Sworn statements a. PROBLEM SOLUTION REPORT
b. TECHNICAL REPORT
88. Is a sworn statement prepared by c. FACT FINDING REPORT
someone who wishes to file a legal d. PERFORMANCE REPORT
complaint. It becomes the basis for the case,
providing basic information about the facts
93. The word "Technical" comes from the c. Security
Greek word "techne" that means____ d. Impartiality

a. FORMAT 98. This report can simply be an

b. TECHNIQUE accomplishment report which may be
c. SKILL analytical and may be comparatively longer
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE than spot report.

94. It contains the daily registry of all crime a. SPOT REPORT

incident reports, official summaries of arrest, b. PROGRESS REPORT
and other significant events reported in a c. FINAL REPORT
Police station/Unit. d. AFTER OPERATION REPORT

a. BLUE BLOTTER 99. A record needed to keep all members of

b. WHITE BLOTTER the police force informed concerning police
c. PINK BLOTTER operations, assignments, and administrative
d. BLACK BLOTTER functions.
e. RAINBOW BLOTTER
a. Wanted Persons Report
95. Is an informal letter about a thing or b. Accident Report
things to be remembered or a brief written c. Daily Record of Events
outline of the terms of a transaction d. Technical Report
especially in legal matters.
100. Third major division of police records.
a. FORMAL REPORT It provides identification criminals which
b. INCIDENT REPORT includes names, physical characteristics and
c. ACCIDENT REPORT in some cases photograph.
d. MEMORANDUM
a. Arrest Report
96. The heart of any police records system. b. Arrest and Booking Records
It is the basis for an analysis of offenses and c. Booking Report
the methods by which they are committed. d. Identification Records

a. Case Records
b. Complaint/Assignment Sheet
c. Booking report
d. Incident report

97. The police report must be considered

classified, hence transmission, handling and
access to these reports should be limited
only to police personnel who are granted by
higher authority security clearance.

a. Completeness
b. Timelines