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Questions for Test-F

The document contains a series of physics questions and answers covering topics such as centripetal force, kinetic energy, equilibrium, and thermodynamics. It includes explanations for each answer, providing insights into concepts like moment of inertia, buoyancy, and the behavior of gases. Overall, it serves as a study guide for understanding fundamental physics principles.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
2 views30 pages

Questions for Test-F

The document contains a series of physics questions and answers covering topics such as centripetal force, kinetic energy, equilibrium, and thermodynamics. It includes explanations for each answer, providing insights into concepts like moment of inertia, buoyancy, and the behavior of gases. Overall, it serves as a study guide for understanding fundamental physics principles.
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

1.

______ is the force that maintains the body moving in a circular


manner.

a) Centripetal force b) Centrifugal force c) Force of gravity d)


Reaction forces

6. When a cat falls from a height _____________a) It sustains injury b)


It diesc) It lands on its feet d) It bounces backAnswer: c

Explanation: When a cat falls to the ground from a height, it stretches


its body along with the tail so that its moment of inertia becomes
high. The value of angular speed decreases and therefore the cat is
able to land on the ground gently.

8. If the earth were to shrink suddenly, what would happen to the


length of the day?
a) It increases b) It remains the same c) It decreases d) It becomes
unpredictable

Explanation: When the earth shrinks, the moment of inertia (I=2/5


MR2) decreases about its own axis due to the decrease in radius R.
To converse angular momentum, the time period T decreases. That
is, the length of the day decreases.

5. During rolling, the force of friction acts in the same direction as the
direction of motion of the centre of mass of the body.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: When a body rolls, the force if the friction acts in the
same direction as the direction of motion of the centre of mass of the
body.

9. Which part of the ship is made heavy?


a) The whole ship should be light in weight
b) The top part
c) The bottom part
d) The sides
9. Which part of the ship is made heavy?
a) The whole ship should be light in weight
b) The top part
c) The bottom part
d) The sides

Explanation: The bottom of the ship is made heavy so that the centre
of gravity remains low. This ensures the stability of its equilibrium.
8. A faulty balance with unequal arms has its beam horizontal. The
weights of the two pans are _____________
a) Equal
b) Unequal
c) Uncertain
d) Very largeExplanation: They are of unequal mass. Their masses are
in the inverse ratio of the arms of the balance.

10. Standing is not allowed in double decker bus.


a) True
b) False

Explanation: The bottom of the ship is made heavy so that the centre
of gravity remains low. This ensures the stability of its equilibrium.

Moment of inertia of an object does not depend upon ___________


a) Mass of object
b) Mass of distribution
c) Angular velocity
d) Axis of rotation

Explanation: Moment of inertia does not depend on the angular


velocity of the object but depends on all factors given in other
options.

2. Kinetic energy with any reference must be ___________


a) Zero
b) Positive
c) Negative
d) Either negative or positive

Explanation: KE = 1/2 mv2


It is always positive.
It is always positive.
1. In stable equilibrium, a body has maximum potential.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: A body is said to be in stable equilibrium if it tends to


regain its equilibrium position after being slightly displaced and
released. In stable equilibrium, a body has minimum potential energy.

5. The ying wheel attached to the shaft of steam engine works on


the principle of ___________
a) Centripetal action
b) Moment of inertia
c) Newton’s third law of motion
d) Conservation of momentum

Answer: b
Explanation: A ywheel is attached to the shaft of an engine. Because
of its large moment of inertia, the ywheel opposes the sudden
increase or decrease in the speed of the vehicle. It allows a gradual
change in the speed and prevents jerky motions and hence ensures a
smooth ride for the passengers.
6. An elephant and an ant are to be projected out of the earth into
space. What is the velocity needed to do so?
a) Elephant needs to be projected with a higher velocity
b) Ant should be projected with a higher velocity
c) Both should be projected with the same velocity
d) Elephant cannot be projected to space

Answer: c
Explanation: The escape velocity ve=√2gR, does not depend upon
the mass of the projected body. Thus we need the same velocity to
project an elephant and an ant into space.
4. For a collision to occur, the actual physical contact is necessary.
a) True
b) False
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4. For a collision to occur, the actual physical contact is necessary.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: A collision is said to occur between two bodies, either if
they physically collide against each other or if the path of one is
a ected by the force exerted by the other. For a collision to take
place, the actual physical contact is not necessary.

11. A clock tted with a pendulum and another with a spring indicate
correct time on earth. Which shows correct time on the moon?
a) Clock tted with pendulum
b) Clock tted with spring
c) Both the clocks
d) Neither of the clocks

Answer: c
Explanation: A clock tted with spring will show the correct time on
the moon because its time period is not a ected by the variation in g.

3. It is painful to walk barefooted on the ground covered with edged


pebbles.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: While walking, when the entire weight of our body gets
supported on the sharp edge of any pebble, it will exert a large
pressure on our feet due to the reaction. This causes considerable
pain on our feet.

9. A wooden block is taken to the bottom of a deep, calm lake of


water and then released. It rises up with a ___________
a) Constant acceleration
b) Decreasing acceleration
c) Constant velocity
d) Decreasing velocity

Answer: a
Explanation: The wooden block rises up with acceleration,
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Explanation: The wooden block rises up with acceleration,
a=(Upthrust-weight of block)/(Mass of block).

10. The water droplets in free fall are spherical due to ___________
a) Gravity
b) Viscosity
c) Surface tension
d) Intermolecular attraction

Answer: c
Explanation: Freely falling water droplets assume spherical shape due
to the surface tension of water.

5. The sprinkling of water reduces slightly the temperature of a closed


room because of ___________
a) Temperature of water is less than that of the room
b) Speci c heat of water is high
c) Water has large latent heat of vaporisation
d) Water is a bad conductor of heat

Answer: c
Explanation: Water has a large latent heat of vaporisation. When it is
sprinkled over a large area, its vaporisation occurs which, in turn,
causes cooling.

7. On a cold morning, a metal surface will feel colder to touch than a


wooden surface, because of ___________
a) Metal has high speci c heat
b) Metal has high thermal conductivity
c) Metal has low speci c heat
d) Metal has low thermal conductivity
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Due to the higher thermal conductivity of metal than
wood, heat begins to ow readily from our body to the metal surface
and so we feel colder.
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Explanation: Due to the higher thermal conductivity of metal than
wood, heat begins to ow readily from our body to the metal surface
and so we feel colder.

4. Fluids cannot resist sheer stress.


a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Fluids cannot resist sheer stress because they do not
deform. Rather they ow. Fluids are opaque to transverse waves
therefore they have the inability to undergo sheering stress.

4. It is easier to swim in sea water than in river water.


a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: The sea water has many salts dissolved in it. So the
density of sea water is greater than that of river water. Consequently,
the sea water exerts greater upthrust on the swimmer than the river
water. Hence it is easier to swim in sea water than in river water.
5. If there were no gravity, which of the following will not be there for
a uid?
a) Viscosity
b) Surface tension
c) Pressure
d) Archimedes’ upward thrust
View Answer

Explanation: Archimedes’ upward thrust will be absent for a uid if


there were no gravity.

6. Why locations next to large water bodies tend to have a moderate


climate than those further inland?
a) Because of the latitude
b) Because of speci c heat of water
c) Because of the heating e ects of sun
d) Because of the water in clouds
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6. Why locations next to large water bodies tend to have a moderate
climate than those further inland?
a) Because of the latitude
b) Because of speci c heat of water
c) Because of the heating e ects of sun
d) Because of the water in clouds

Answer: b
Explanation: It takes a longer time to heat up or cool down a given
mass of water than an equal mass of aluminium or iron. This high
speci c heat of water makes it easy for cooling and warming. This is
why the locations next to larger water bodies tend to have a
moderate climate than those further inland.

11. The temperature of a body can be negative on the Kelvin scale.


a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature of a body cannot be negative on a
Kelvin scale because the absolute zero on the Kelvin scale is the
minimum possible temperature.

2. Temperature is a microscopic concept.


a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Temperature is a macroscopic concept. It is related to
the average kinetic energy of a large number of molecules forming a
system. It is not possible to de ne the temperature for a single
molecule.

5. Compared to burn due to air at 100°C, a burn due to steam at


100°C is ___________
a) More dangerous
b) Less dangerous
c) Equally dangerous
d) Not dangerous

Answer: a
Explanation: Compared to burn due to air at 100°C, a burn due to
steam at 100°C is more dangerous due to the additional heat
possessed by steam.
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Explanation: Compared to burn due to air at 100°C, a burn due to
steam at 100°C is more dangerous due to the additional heat
possessed by steam.

8. The Wien’s displacement law expresses a relation between


___________
a) Wavelength corresponding to maximum energy and absolute
temperature
b) Radiated energy and wavelength
c) Temperature and emissive power
d) Colour of light and emissive power

Answer: a
Explanation: Wien’s displacement law gives a relation between
wavelength corresponding to maximum energy emitted by a black
body and its absolute temperature.

10. The thermal capacity of 40g of aluminium (speci c heat = 0.2


cal°g-1 C-1) is ___________
a) 40cal°C-1
b) 160 cal°C-1
c) 200 cal°C-1
d) 8 cal°C-1

Answer: d
Explanation: Thermal capacity = mc
Thermal capacity = 40g×0.2cal g-1 C-1
= 80 cal°C-1.

3. Which of the following parameters does not characterize the


thermodynamic state of matter?
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Work
d) Volume

Answer: c
Explanation: Work is not a state variable. It is a mod of transfer of
energy from the system to surrounding or vice versa.
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Explanation: Work is not a state variable. It is a mod of transfer of
energy from the system to surrounding or vice versa.

8. The door of a domestic refrigerator is kept open while the switch is


on. Then the room will ___________
a) Get heated
b) Ger neither heated nor cooled
c) Gets cooled
d) Gets heated rst and then cools

Answer: a
Explanation: Temperature of the room will rise because refrigerator
takes less heat from the room and rejects more heat.

10. Heat capacity of a substance is in nite. It means ___________


a) Heat is given out
b) Heat is taken out
c) No change in temperature
d) Heat is rst given out and then taken out

Answer: c
Explanation: Whatever amount of heat is taken in or given out by a
substance of in nite heat capacity, there is no change in its
temperature.

8. Even Carnot engine cannot give 100% e ciency, because we


cannot ___________
a) Prevent radiation
b) Find ideal sources
c) Reach absolute zero temperature
d) Eliminate friction

Answer: a
Explanation: The e ciency of a Carnot engine will be 100% when its
sink is at 0K. But the temperature 0K cannot be realised in practice,
so the e ciency is never 100%.
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Explanation: The e ciency of a Carnot engine will be 100% when its
sink is at 0K. But the temperature 0K cannot be realised in practice,
so the e ciency is never 100%.

4. When a gas is suddenly compressed, its temperature decreases.


a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Sudden compression of gas gives an adiabatic process.
The work done in compressing the gas increases the internal energy
of the gas. Hence the temperature of the gas rises.

4. The change internal energy in a cyclic process is ___________


a) Zero
b) In nity
c) Constant
d) Unity

Answer: a
Explanation: The change in internal energy in a cyclic process is zero
because the system returns to its initial state

5. It is possible that the temperature of the body changes even


without giving heat to it or taking heat from it.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: During an adiabatic compression, temperature increases
and an adiabatic expansion, temperature decreases, although no
heat is given to or taken from the system in these changes.

1. Air in a cylinder is suddenly compressed by a piston which is then


maintained at the same position. After sometime, the ___________
a) Pressure will increase
b) Pressure remains the same
c) Pressure will decrease
d) Pressure may increase or decrease
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a) Pressure will increase
b) Pressure remains the same
c) Pressure will decrease
d) Pressure may increase or decrease

Answer: c
Explanation: Sudden compression increases inside temperature. After
sometime heat ows out. This decreases temperature of the air, As V
is constant, so pressure inside decreases.

5. Out of solid, liquid and gas of the same mass and at the same
temperature, which one has the least internal energy?
a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) All three have the same internal energy

Answer: a
Explanation: The one which has small potential energy has the
greatest internal energy. On the other hand, the one which has large
potential energy has the least internal energy; therefore the internal
energy of the solid is least.

7. If an ideal gas has a volume V at 27°C and it is heated at a


constant pressure, so that its volume becomes 1.5V, then the value of
nal temperature is?
a) 327K
b) 177°C
c) 873K
d) 600°C

Answer: b
Explanation: At constant pressure,
V2/V1 =T2/T1
1.5V/V=T2/(273+27)
T2=300×1.5=450K=177℃.

6. An ant is walking on the horizontal surface. The number of degrees


of freedom of ant will be ___________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
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6. An ant is walking on the horizontal surface. The number of degrees
of freedom of ant will be ___________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6

Answer: b
Explanation: As the ant can move on a plane, it has 2 degrees of
freedom.

8. An absolute zero is the temperature at which?


a) Water solidi es
b) All gases become liquid
c) rms velocity becomes zero
d) Solids melt

Answer: c
Explanation: According to the kinetic theory of gases, absolute zero is
that temperature at which all molecular motion ceases. Hence at
T=0K, rms velocity becomes zero.

8. What is the time period of a pendulum hanged in a satellite? (T is


the time period on earth)
a) Zero
b) T
c) In nite
d) T/√6

Answer: c
Explanation: In a satellite, g= 0
T=2π√(l/g)=2π√(l/0)=∞.

3. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion at midpoint of


mean position and extremely. What is the potential energy in terms of
total energy (E)?
Answer: a

Explanation: At y = A/2,
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Explanation: At y = A/2,
Potential energy = 1/2×kx2
Potential energy=1/2×k×A2/22 = 1/4×1/2×k×A2=1/4×E.

1. A motion can be periodic and not oscillatory.


a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: A motion can be periodic and not oscillatory. For
example, uniform circular motion is periodic but not oscillatory.

1. Every simple harmonic motion is periodic motion, but every


periodic motion need not be simple harmonic motion.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Every simple harmonic motion is periodic motion, but
every periodic motion need not be simple harmonic motion. For
example, when the motion of the earth around the sun is a periodic
motion, but not simple harmonic motion as the back and forth motion
is not taking place.

4. In a simple harmonic oscillator, at the mean position ___________


a) Kinetic energy in minimum, potential energy is maximum
b) Both kinetic and potential energies are maximum
c) Kinetic energy is maximum, potential energy is minimum
d) Both kinetic and potential energies are minimum

Answer: c
Explanation: At mean position, the kinetic energy is maximum and
potential energy is minimum.

10. If the metal bob of a simple pendulum is replaced by a wooden


bob, then its time period will ___________
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains the same
d) First increases and then decreases
View Answer
10. If the metal bob of a simple pendulum is replaced by a wooden
bob, then its time period will ___________
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains the same
d) First increases and then decreases
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Time period, T=2π√(l/g) is independent of the mass of
the bob.

2. Which of the following is a simple harmonic motion?


a) Particle moving in a circle with uniform speed
b) Wave moving through a string xed at both ends
c) Earth spinning about its axis
d) Ball bouncing between two vertical walls

Answer: b
Explanation: Wave moving through a string xed at both ends has
simple harmonic nature.

10. To show that a simple pendulum executes simple harmonic


motion, it is necessary to assure that ___________
a) Length of the pendulum is small
b) Amplitude of oscillation is small
c) Mass of the pendulum is small
d) Acceleration due to gravity is small

Answer: b
Explanation: Motion is simple harmonic only when the amplitude of
oscillation is small because only then f is proportional to x.

1. A source of sound frequency 600Hz is placed inside water. The


speed of sound in water is 1500 m/s and in air it is 300 m/s. The
frequency of sound is recorded by an observer, who is standing in
the air is?
a) 200 Hz
b) 3000 Hz
c) 120 Hz
d) 600 Hz
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frequency of sound is recorded by an observer, who is standing in
the air is?
a) 200 Hz
b) 3000 Hz
c) 120 Hz
d) 600 Hz

Answer: d
Explanation: The frequency of sound does not change during its
refraction from water into the air.

3. A whistle giving out 450Hz approaches a stationary observer at a


speed of 33m/s. The frequency heard by the observer in Hz is (speed
of sound = 330m/s).
a) 409
b) 429
c) 517
d) 500

Answer: d
Explanation: v‘=v/(v-vs)×v
v‘=330/(330-33)×450=500Hz.

8. A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20dB. The


intensity decreases by a factor of ____________
a) 100
b) 1000
c) 10000
d) 10
Answer: a

Explanation: L1=10lo (I1/I0) L2=10lo (I2/I0)


I1-I2=10lo (I1/I2)
20dB=10lo (I1/I2)
I1/I2 = 102 I2=1/100×I1

10. It takes 2 seconds for a second wave to travel between two xed
points when the day temperature is 10°C. If the temperature rises to
30°C, the sound wave travels between the same xed parts in
__________
a) 1.9 sec
b) 2 sec
c) 2.1 sec
d) 2.2 sec
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g⁡
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10. It takes 2 seconds for a second wave to travel between two xed
points when the day temperature is 10°C. If the temperature rises to
30°C, the sound wave travels between the same xed parts in
__________
a) 1.9 sec
b) 2 sec
c) 2.1 sec
d) 2.2 sec

Answer: a
Explanation: v∝1/√T and t∝1/v
t2/t1 = √(T1/T2)=√((273+10)/(273+30))=√(283/303)
t2=√(283/303)×2s=1.9s.

8. Two waves are propagating with the same amplitude and nearly
same frequency in opposite direction, they result in __________
a) Beats
b) Stationary wave
c) Resonance
d) Wave packet

Answer: b
Explanation: Stationary waves are formed when two waves of same
frequency travelling in opposite directions are superimposed.
10. The loudness and pitch of a sound note depends on __________
a) Intensity and frequency
b) Frequency and number of harmonics
c) Intensity and velocity
d) Frequency and velocity

Answer: a
Explanation: Loudness depends on intensity while pitch depends on
the frequency of sound.
3. The waves produced by a motor boat sailing in water are
__________
a) Transverse
b) Longitudinal
c) Longitudinal and transverse
d) Stationary

Answer: c
Explanation: Transverse waves are generated on the water surface.
Inside water longitudinal waves longitudinal waves are produced due
to vibrations of the rudder.
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Explanation: Transverse waves are generated on the water surface.
Inside water longitudinal waves longitudinal waves are produced due
to vibrations of the rudder.

5. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves, whose crests are 100m apart


and velocity is 25m/s. The boat bounces up once in every __________
a) 2500s
b) 75s
c) 4s
d) 0.25s

Answer: c
Explanation: ʎ=100m, v=25m/s
T=ʎ/v=100/25=4s.

3. What is the quantity that helps us distinguish a particular voice of a


singer from the voice of many singers?
a) Timbre
b) Pitch
c) Intensity
d) Music

Answer: a
Explanation: The timbre or quality of sound is one which helps us to
distinguish between musical notes emitted by di erent musical
instruments or voices, even though they have the same pitch and
loudness.

11. When can sound be heard over long distances?


a) On a sunny day
b) On a humid day
c) When snowing
d) On a rainy day

nswer: d
Explanation: On a rainy day, the air contains a larger amount of water
vapour. This decreases the density of air. As a result, the sound
travels faster in the air and can be heard over longer distances.
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Explanation: On a rainy day, the air contains a larger amount of water
vapour. This decreases the density of air. As a result, the sound
travels faster in the air and can be heard over longer distances.

12. A person riding on a merry-go round emits a sound wave of a


certain frequency. Will the person at centre observe Doppler E ect.
a) Yes
b) No

Answer: b
Explanation: The person does not experience the Doppler E ect
because the source is moving perpendicular to the line joining the
source and the observer.

10. The sound of a bomb explosion travels faster than the sound
produced by a humming bee.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: The velocity of sound in a medium does not depend
upon its loudness, pitch or quality. Thus the sound of a bomb
explosion and the sound produced by humming bee, even though
having entirely di erent characteristics, travel with the same speed.
6. With the propagation of a longitudinal wave through a material
medium, the quantities transmitted in the propagation direction are
__________
a) Energy, momentum and mass
b) Energy
c) Energy and mass
d) Energy and linear momentum

Answer: b
Explanation: In wave propagation, energy is transmitted in the
direction of propagation of the wave.

9. The apparent frequency in Doppler’s e ect does not depend upon


___________
a) Speed of the observer
b) Distance between the observer and source
c) Speed of the source
d) Frequency of the source
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9. The apparent frequency in Doppler’s e ect does not depend upon
___________
a) Speed of the observer
b) Distance between the observer and source
c) Speed of the source
d) Frequency of the source

Answer: b
Explanation: Apparent frequency in Doppler’s e ect depends on
frequency of source, direction and velocity of source and observer. It
does not depend on the distance between observer and source.

8. Sonograms work under the principle of Doppler E ect.


a) False
b) True

Answer: b
Explanation: There is an apparent change is the frequency between
the incident sound waves on the foetus and the re ected sound
waves from the foetus. Therefore it works on the principle of Doppler
E ect.

10. An ultrasound pulse sent by a source in sea is re ected by a


submerged target at a distance 597.50m and reaches the source
after 0.83seconds. Find the velocity of sound in sea water.
a) 495.925m/s
b) 719.879m/s
c) 110m/s
d) 1439.75m/s

Answer: d
Explanation: Velocity = 2d/t
Velocity = 1439.75m/s.

Q.13. One coulomb passing a point in one second is one:

A. ampere
B. volt
C. ohm
D. charge
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A. ampere
B. volt
C. ohm
D. charge

Q.20. The term used to designate electrical


pressure is:

A. voltage
B. current
C. resistance
D. conductance

Answer. A

12. In medicine, which of the mentioned electromagnetic waves


is utilised to kill cancer cells?

a) Infrared (IR) rays


b) Visible rays
c) Ultraviolet rays
d) Gamma rays

Answer: Correct option will be: (d) Gamma rays.

13. Choose the electromagnetic wave that is the most dangerous


to humans.

a) Radio waves
b) UV rays
c) Microwaves
d) IR

Answer: Correct option will be: (b) UV rays

15. What are the two colours that emerge from Prism’s two
extreme ends?
15. What are the two colours that emerge from Prism’s two
extreme ends?

a) Blue and Green


b) Yellow and Orange
c) Red and Orange
d) Violet and Red

Answer: Correct option will be: (d) Violet and Red

18. The term “heat radiation” refers to which of the following?

a) X- rays
b) Gamma rays
c) Microwaves
d) Infrared radiation

Answer: Correct option will be: (d) Infrared radiations

(a) Long distance radio broadcasts use short-wave bands.


Why?
(a) Long distance radio broadcasts use shortwave bands
because only these bands can be
refracted by the ionosphere.
It is necessary to use satellites for long distance TV
transmission. Why?
(b) It is necessary to use satellites for long distance TV
transmissions because television
signals are of high frequencies and high energies. Thus,
these signals are not re ected by
the ionosphere. Hence, satellites are helpful in re ecting
TV signals. Also, they help in long
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the ionosphere. Hence, satellites are helpful in re ecting
TV signals. Also, they help in long
distance TV transmissions.
(b) It is necessary to use satellites for long distance TV
transmissions because television
signals are of high frequencies and high energies. Thus,
these signals are not re ected by
the ionosphere. Hence, satellites are helpful in re ecting
TV signals. Also, they help in long
distance TV transmissions.

9. Electromagnetic radiation is created due to periodic change in


_____

a a Electric eld
b b Magnetic eld
c c Both electric eld and magnetic eld
d d Space
Answer: c) Both electric field and magnetic field

Q. Explain why substances with a high refractive index like diamond,


sparkle.
As any angle larger than critical is totally internally re ected, the smaller the
critical angle the easier it is to get internal re ections which cause the
sparkle. As c is inversely proportional to n, high n, low c.

Q how many mirrors are in the Periscope?

Q. Why are prism binoculars preferred over traditional


binoculars?
Prism binoculars use a system of prisms to invert and revert the
image, allowing for a more compact design.
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Prism binoculars use a system of prisms to invert and revert the
image, allowing for a more compact design.

QUESTION: WHAT IS AZIMUTH MIRROR?


An azimuth mirror is a portable navigational instrument, used with a
compass, that allows a user to simultaneously view a compass card
and the image of a terrestrial or celestial object, thereby determining
its bearing. It works by using a prismatic mirror to re ect the
compass card image into the observer's eye while they also look at
the object, enabling simultaneous comparison and accurate reading
of the object's direction.
Q describe the principle of SExtant working
Sextant is based on the principle that “the deviation produced in ray by successive
reflections
from two inclined mirrors is constant for all angle of incidence and is twice the angle
between
the mirrors
Sextant is an instrument which enables us to determine the angular separation between
two
distant point object at the plane of observations.

Q expain hear transfer mechanism of heat reaching your hand away from a bonfire.

The amount of work done in joules, when one unit electric charge
moves from one point to another point in an electric circuit is
called :
(a) Electric current
(b) Electric resistance
(c) Electric conductance
(d) Potential di erence
Answer: (d) Potential difference

[Link] is the driving force that establishes the flow of current.

True

False
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False

1. KCL is based on the fact that


a) There is a possibility for a node to store energy.
b) There cannot be an accumulation of charge at a node.
c) Charge accumulation is possible at node
d) Charge accumulation may or may not be possible.
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since the node is not a circuit element, any charge which
enters node must leave immediately

3. The algebraic sum of voltages around any closed path in a network


is equal to ____________
a) In nity
b) 1
c) 0
d) Negative polarity
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: According to KVL, the sum of voltages around the closed
path in a network is zero.

1. ____________ helps in current measurement by placing it in


____________ with the circuit element.
a) Voltameter, Parallel
b) Ammeter, series
c) Voltmeter, series
d) Ammeter, parallel

8. An ideal ammeter functions as __________ circuit.


a) A short
b) An open
c) A power
d) An in nite
View Answer
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8. An ideal ammeter functions as __________ circuit.
a) A short
b) An open
c) A power
d) An in nite
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: An ideal ammeter offers a zero equivalent resistance. So
acts a short circuit.

15. If you comb your hair and the comb becomes positively
charged, then your hair becomes _______.
a a positively charged
b b negatively charged
c c uncharged
Q what preaution should be taken to avoid acidents by static charge
a) bonding and grounding
b) contolling flow rate
c) relaxation time
d) all of above

1. Which of the following appliances works on the heating


effect of electric current?
a) Electric fan
b) Electric bulb
c) Refrigerator
d) Air conditioner
Q!. Why is the wire in the filament of a light bulb designed to
have higher resistance than the other wires in the circuit?

a) to reduce energy loss


b) to incraese the brightnss of the bulb
c) to lower the temperature of the bulb
d) to impove the electrical conductivity

[Link] whether the floowing is true /false


electric appliances convert all the electric energy in to heat energy
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electric appliances convert all the electric energy in to heat energy

Q3 How the heat produced by an electric appliance related to the


electric current owing truough it .
a)heat is directly propotional to current b) heat is inversly proportional
c) haet and current are not related d) heat depends on voltage ,not
current

Q4. hich of the following types of electric heating is also known as


Eddy current heating.
A) dieectic Heating b) Induction heatingC) Infrared HeatingD)
Resistance heating
Ans B
1. The phenomenon due to which there is an induced current in one
coil due to the current in a neighbouring coil is?
a) Electromagnetism
b) Susceptance
c) Mutual inductance
d) Steady current
Answer: c
Explanation: When there is a current in a coil, due to the magnetic
eld caused by the current there is current induced in the
neighbouring coil as well. This is known as mutual inductance.
2. If the current in one coil becomes steady, the current in
neighbouring coil is?
a) Zero
b) Infinity
c) Doubles
d) Halves
Answer: a
Explanation: A current is induced when there is changing magnetic
ux. Hence the induced current in neighbouring coil is zero when the
current is steady.

3. Mutual Inductance of the two magnetically coupled coils depends


on
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3. Mutual Inductance of the two magnetically coupled coils depends
on
a) Numuber of turns of eah coil
b) Flux produced by one and linked by the other
c) Current in the flux producing coil
d)All of the above

Q4. Mutual Inductance of the two magnetically coupled coils does not
depends on
a) Numuber of turns of eah coil
b) Permeability of the core material
c) Temperature of the coil
d) cross sectional area of their common core
Ans w
Q5. Which of the following is true for self inductance/
a) it is inversely proportional to the area
b) it incraeses with the incraesing current
c) it ia form of inertia in the circuits
d) it has no practical application

Q 2. For a purely inductive circuit which of the


following is true?

(A) Apparent power is zero


(B) Relative power is zero
(C) Actual power of the circuit is zero
(D) Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will
not be charged

Answer: Option C

Q 14. The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f.


is induced in it when the current through the coil
changes is known as
Q 14. The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f.
is induced in it when the current through the coil
changes is known as

(A) Self-inductance
(B) Mutual inductance
(C) Series aiding inductance
(D) Capacitance

Answer: Option A

Q 21. The law that the induced e.m.f. and current


always oppose the cause producing them is due to

(A) Faraday
(B) Lenz
(C) Newton
(D) Coulomb

Answer: Option B

Q 31. Which of the following circuit element stores


energy in the electromagnetic field?

(A) Inductance
(B) Condenser
(C) Variable resistor
(D) Resistance

Answer: Option A
Q 40. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of
conservation of

(A) Induced current


(B) Charge
(C) Energy
(D) Induced e.m.f.

Answer: Option C

Q 45. Both the number of turns and the core length


of an inductive coil are doubled. Its self-inductance
will be

(A) Unaffected
(B) Doubled
(C) Halved
(D) Quadrupled

Answer: Option B

This set of Analog Communications Multiple Choice Questions &


Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Transmitter”.

1. Modulation is done in ________


a) Receiver
b) Transducer
c) Between transmitter and radio receiver
d) Transmitter
Answer: d
6. What is the role of the transmitter in the communication system?
a) to decode a signal to be transmitted
b) to convert one form of energy into other
c) to detect and amplify information signal from the carrier
d) to produce radio waves to transmit data
Answer: d
Explanation: Transmitter is used to produce radio waves which are
then sent to the antennae to transmitted.

9. What is the role of Amplitude limiter in the FM receiver?


a) Filteration
b) Adjust the gain of receiver
c) Amplify a weaker signal
d) Demodulate a signal
Answer: d
Explanation: Amplitude Limiter in FM receivers are used to eliminate
the amplitude changes caused due to noise interference. It does so by
clipping the amplitude of output signals to the desired level,
irrespective of any variations in the input signal.

7. What is the function of radio receiver?


a) to detect and amplify information signal from the carrier
b) to modulate a message signal
c) to produce radio waves
d) to convert one form of energy into other
Answer: a
Explanation: Receiver is to detect and amplify information signal from
the carrier. Transmitter is used to modulate message signal and
produce radio waves. Transducer is used to convert one signal form of
energy into another form.

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