SD GENius Medical & Nursing academy

Time – 2hr Mark - 100

Negative Marking 1/3

1. Physical changes occure during d) The position of the fetus in the

puberty include- uterus
(a) Breast development
6 . What is the term used for the
(b) Growth of pubic and axillary hair
abnormal positioning of the fetus
(c) Menstruation
where the head is tilted backward?
(d) All 2
Starting of menstrual cycle before a) Occiput anterior
the age of ten years, is termed as b) Occiput posterior
(a) Postcocious (b) Precocious c) Breech
(c) Amenorrhea (d) Dysmenorrhea d) Transverse

3. What is the primary event in the 7 Which of the following is a risk

second stage of labor? factor for prolonged labor?
a) Cervical effacement a) Advanced maternal age
b) Uterine contractions b) Adequate uterine contractions
c) Descent and expulsion of the c) Fetal head in the occiput anterior
fetus position
d) Placental separation d) Short duration of pregnancy

4 What is the most common 8 What is the first stage of labor

presentation of a breech fetus? characterized by?
a) Complete breech a) Full dilatation of the cervix
b) Frank breech b) Expulsion of the fetus
c) Footling breech c) Onset of regular uterine
d) Transverse lie contractions until full cervical
dilatation
5 The term "station" in labor refers
d) Uterine involution
to:
a) The level of cervical dilatation 9 Which of the following is the
b) The degree of effacement of the most important initial screening
cervix test for the detection of gestational
c) The descent of the fetal head in diabetes?
relation to the ischial spines
a) Oral glucose tolerance test c) Retroplacental hematoma
(OGTT) d) Elevated amniotic fluid index
b) Serum insulin levels
14 In a patient with pre-eclampsia,
c) Fasting blood glucose
which of the following is the most
d) HbA1c levels
appropriate initial management to
10 Which of the following is a prevent seizures?
recommended practice for
a) Antihypertensive medication
postnatal care to prevent
b) Magnesium sulfate
postpartum hemorrhage?
c) Steroid therapy
a) Early ambulation d) Bed rest
b) Immediate breastfeeding
15 Which of the following is a
c) Administration of antibiotics
common symptom of PCOS ?
d) Perineal massage
a) Hirsutism
11 Which of the following is the
b) Heavy menstrual bleeding
most common cause of maternal
c) High fertility rate
morbidity and mortality in the first
d) Sudden weight loss
trimester?
16 Which of the following is an
a) Ectopic pregnancy
abnormal finding on a non-
b) Miscarriage
stress test (NST) in a
c) Hyperemesis gravidarum
pregnant woman?
d) Pre-eclampsia
A Accelerations of fetal heart
12 Which of the following is the rate
first-line treatment for b) Late decelerations
endometriosis in a non-pregnant c) Early decelerations
patient? d) Variable decelerations
a) GnRH agonists 17 Which of the following is the
b) Oral contraceptives most appropriate surgical approach
c) Hysterectomy for a patient with a large,
d) Antidepressants symptomatic uterine fibroid?
A Hysteroscopic myomectomy
13 Which of the following is a
b) Laparoscopic myomectomy
classic sign of placenta previa on
c) Hysterectomy
ultrasound?
d) Laparotomy with fibroid excision
a) Low-lying placenta near the cervix
b) Placental calcifications
18 Which of the following is 23 Which of the following is not
considered a diagnostic feature of typically seen in a patient with pre-
eclampsia? eclampsia?
A) Proteinuria A) Proteinuria
B) Severe headache B) High blood pressure
C) Seizures C) Edema
D) Elevated liver enzymes D) Fetal tachycardia
19 Pre-eclampsia most commonly 24 The most likely cause of
occurs after which week of maternal death in eclampsia is:
gestation?
A) Pulmonary embolism
A) 12 weeks B) 20 weeks B) Stroke
C) 24 weeks D) 34 weeks C) Cardiac arrest
D) Hepatic rupture
20 Which of the following is a key
difference between pre-eclampsia 25 A 32-week pregnant woman
and eclampsia? with pre-eclampsia presents with
epigastric pain, headache, and
A) Presence of proteinuria
vision changes. What is the most
B) Presence of seizures
likely diagnosis?
C) Development of hypertension
D) Edema A) Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
B) HELLP syndrome
21 What is the first-line treatment
C) Placental abruption
for managing hypertension in a
D) UTI
pregnant woman with pre-
eclampsia? 26 In a patient with pre-eclampsia,
the presence of proteinuria is
A) Labetalol B) Methyldopa
defined as:
C) Nifedipine D) Enalapril
A) > 0.3g/day B) > 1g/day
22 Which of the following
C) > 3g/day D) > 5g/day
complications is most commonly
associated with severe pre- 27 What is the most common type
eclampsia? of twin pregnancy?
A) Placental abruption A) Monochorionic, Monoamniotic
B) Preterm labor B) Monochorionic, Diamniotic
C) HELLP syndrome C) Dichorionic, Diamniotic
D) Gestational diabetes D) Dichorionic, Monoamniotic
28 Which complication is more 32 Which of the following best
common in monochorionic twin describes a dizygotic (fraternal)
pregnancies? twin pregnancy?
A) Pre-eclampsia A) The twins are always of the same
B) Twin-to-twin transfusion gender.
syndrome (TTTS) B) The twins share a placenta but
C) Gestational diabetes have separate amniotic sacs.
D) Placenta previa C) The twins are genetically
identical.
29 In a twin pregnancy, what is the
D) The twins come from two
recommended method for
separate fertilized eggs.
assessing fetal growth and well-
being? 33. Which of the following is NOT a
typical complication seen in twin
A) Biophysical profile
pregnancies?
B) Non-stress test
C) Doppler studies and ultrasound A) Placenta accreta
D) Amniocentesis B) Hypertension
C) Anemia
30 Which of the following is a risk
D) Increased risk of postpartum
factor for multiple pregnancies?
hemorrhage
A) Advanced maternal age (above
34 Which of the following is the
35 years)
most common symptom of a molar
B) Increased body mass index (BMI)
pregnancy?
C) Use of fertility treatments
D) All of the above A) Severe abdominal pain
B) Excessive vomiting (hyperemesis
31 A "Vanishing twin" refers to:
gravidarum)
A) One of the twins dies in utero C) Vaginal bleeding
during the early stages of pregnancy D) High blood pressure
B) One twin is born alive but is
35 Which of the following
severely underweight
ultrasound findings is most
C) Both twins are identical and
suggestive of a molar pregnancy?
merge into one fetus
A) Fetal heart activity
D) The twins are born at different
B) snowstorm appearance
times
C) Single large cystic mass with a
fetus
D) Thickened endometrial stripe
36 Which hormone is A) Methylergonovine
most likely to be elevated B) Prostaglandin E2 (Dinoprostone)
in a molar pregnancy? C) pitocin
A) Progesterone D) Tranexamic acid
B) Luteinizing hormone
C) Human chorionic 41 A 35-year-old woman presents
gonadotropin with postpartum hemorrhage after
D) Estriol a vaginal delivery. She has a history
of preeclampsia and was given
37 Which of the following is a risk
magnesium sulfate during labor.
factor for developing a molar
Her uterine tone is firm, but she
pregnancy?
continues to bleed. Which of the
A) Advanced maternal age following is the most likely cause of
B) Previous molar pregnancy her bleeding?
C) Smoking
A) Uterine atony
D) Use of oral contraceptives
B) Genital tract trauma
38 Which of the following is the C) Coagulopathy
most appropriate treatment for a D) Retained placenta
molar pregnancy?
42 In cases of severe postpartum
A) Medical evacuation hemorrhage that do not respond to
B) Dilation and curettage (D&C) medical management, which of the
C) Surgical removal of the ovaries following surgical options may be
D) Chemotherapy considered?
39 A patient presents with A) Hysterectomy
significant postpartum bleeding. B) Uterine artery embolization
On examination, the uterus is soft C) B-Lynch suture
and enlarged. The most likely cause D) All of the above
of bleeding is:
43 Which of the following is the
A) Retained placenta primary treatment for uterine
B) Uterine atony atony in postpartum haemorrhage?
C) Genital tract trauma
A) Uterine massage and oxytocin
D) Coagulation disorder
B) Surgical evacuation of the uterus
40 Which of the following C) Anticoagulants
medications is commonly used as a D) Blood transfusion alone
first-line treatment for postpartum
hemorrhage due to uterine atony?
44 The duration of the puerperium postpartum?
period is typically: A) Mild fever
A) 1-4 weeks B) 6-8 weeks B) Heavy vaginal bleeding
C) 3-6 months D) 12 months C) Postpartum depression
D) Retained placenta
45 Which of the following changes
occurs in the uterus during the 50 Which of the following is the
puerperium? primary risk factor for uterine
A) Uterus enlarges slightly prolapse?
B) Uterus shrinks back to non- A) Advanced maternal age
pregnant size B) High parity
C) The cervix remains dilated C) Obesity
D) The uterus becomes highly D) Excessive physical activity
distensible
51 Which of the following is the
46 The involution of the uterus initial management step in a case
after delivery is typically completed of cord prolapse with a live fetus?
in: A) Immediate cesarean section
A) 3-5 days B) 1-2 weeks B) Manual elevation of the
C) 4-6 weeks D) 6-12 months presenting part
C) Amniotomy
47 Which of the following
D) Intravenous antibiotics
complications is most commonly
associated with a cesarean section 52. A woman presents with uterine
during the puerperium? prolapse. Which of the following is
A) Uterine prolapse the most common symptom?
B) Wound infection A) Dyspareunia (painful intercourse)
C) Endometriosis B) Vaginal bulging or a sensation of
D) Postpartum depression fullness
C) Severe pelvic pain
48 A postpartum patient with a
D) Heavy menstrual bleeding
persistent fever, abdominal pain,
and foul-smelling lochia may have: 53 Which of the following
complications is most commonly
A) Normal puerperal changes
associated with cord prolapse?
B) Postpartum depression
A) Fetal bradycardia
C) Endometritis
B) Maternal hemorrhage
D) Uterine inversion
C) Placental abruption
49 Which of the following is most D) Uterine rupture
commonly seen in the first 24 hours
54 A woman with uterine prolapse 58 A patient presents with
experiences significant pelvic prolonged labor, weak
discomfort and is considering contractions, and an absence of
surgery. Which of the following fetal descent despite adequate
surgical procedures is most uterine tone. What is the likely
commonly performed for uterine diagnosis?
prolapse? A) Uterine rupture
A) Vaginal hysterectomy B) Uterine inertia
B) Laparoscopic myomectomy C) Cephalopelvic disproportion
C) Pelvic floor repair surgery D) Pelvic fracture
D) Colposuspension
59 What is the most common cause
55 During a vaginal examination, of shoulder dystocia during
the examiner finds a cord prolapse. delivery?
The fetus is in a breech position. A) Maternal obesity
What should be done immediately? B) Macrosomia
A) Attempt manual reduction of the C) Prolonged labor
cord D) Breech presentation
B) Perform an emergency cesarean
60 Which of the following is a
section
common indication for performing
C) Attempt external cephalic version
an episiotomy during childbirth?
D) Apply a pelvic binder
A) Fetal malpresentation
56 Which of the following is B) Maternal pelvic fracture
most commonly associated C) Prolonged second stage of labor
with oligohydramnios? D) Routine procedure for all vaginal
A) Maternal diabetes deliveries
B) Post-term pregnancy
61 What is the most common
C) Multiple gestation
complication associated with
D) Fetal anemia
Hyperemesis Gravidarum?
57 What is the primary cause of
uterine inertia during labor? A) Eclampsia
A ) Inadequate uterine B) Electrolyte imbalance
contractions C) Gestational diabetes
B) Fetal malposition D) Preterm labor
C) Excessive amniotic fluid 62 Which of the following is a
D) Maternal dehydration possible long-term complication of
severe Hyperemesis Gravidarum?
A) Postpartum hemorrhage 66 Which of the following is a
B) Liver failure common method of performing a
C) Wernicke’s encephalopathy first-trimester abortion?
D) Preeclampsia
A) Hysterectomy
63 Which of the following factors is B) Dilation and curettage (D&C)
associated with an increased risk of C) Cesarean section
developing Hyperemesis D) Tubal ligation
Gravidarum?
67 Which of the following is an
A) Multiple gestation early medical method of abortion
B) Smoking used within the first 9 weeks of
C) History of diabetes mellitus pregnancy?
D) First pregnancy
A) Methotrexate and Misoprostol
64 What is the most appropriate B) Mifepristone and Misoprostol
management for an Rh-negative C) Mifepristone and Aspirin
woman who has had a previous D) Vacuum aspiration
pregnancy with Rh incompatibility?
68 What is the term for an abortion
A) Administer RhoGAM at 28 weeks
that occurs naturally without
and again after delivery
medical intervention?
B) Monitor the mother for signs of
A) Ectopic abortion
hemolysis
B) Spontaneous abortion
C) Perform an early amniocentesis
C) Induced abortion
to determine the Rh status of the
D) Molar pregnancy
fetus
D) Schedule an elective cesarean 69 Which of the following is true
delivery about Rh incompatibility in
pregnancy?
A) Rh incompatibility causes
65 Which of the following is a key maternal antibodies to attack fetal
diagnostic feature of Hyperemesis red blood cells in the first pregnancy
Gravidarum? B) Rh incompatibility only occurs if
the mother is Rh-positive
A) Serum hCG levels <100,000 IU/L
C) The risk of Rh incompatibility
B) Vomiting lasting for less than 24
increases with each subsequent
hours
pregnancy
C) Weight loss of more than 5% of
D) Rh incompatibility is preventable
pre-pregnancy weight
D) Presence of fever
by giving RhoGAM to the mother A) Both preterm and post-term
during pregnancy pregnancies are associated with a
higher risk of perinatal mortality.
70 A pregnancy is considered
B) Preterm pregnancies are less
preterm if it occurs before
likely to experience complications
which gestational week?
compared to post-term pregnancies.
A) 30 weeks B) 35 weeks
C) Both preterm and post-term
C) 37 weeks D) 40 weeks
pregnancies are equally likely to
71 Which of the following have fetal macrosomia.
interventions is commonly used to D) Post-term pregnancies are
prevent preterm birth in high-risk associated with higher risks of
pregnancies? respiratory distress syndrome
A) Progesterone supplementation compared to preterm pregnancies.
B) Magnesium sulfate
75 Which of the following is a
C) Oxytocin
common management strategy for
D) Corticosteroids
post-term pregnancy?
72 Which of the following is a A) Induction of labor
common complication of post-term B) Expectant management with
pregnancy? monitoring
A) Intrauterine growth restriction C) Cesarean section without trial of
B) Macrosomia labor
C) Preterm labor D) Increased doses of progesterone
D) Gestational hypertension
76 Which hormone is primarily
73 In preterm labor, the use of responsible for the shedding of the
corticosteroids is most effective in endometrial lining during
which of the following? menstruation?
A) Reducing maternal blood A) Estrogen B) Progesterone
pressure C) LH D) FSH
B) Accelerating lung maturation in
77 The luteal phase of the
the fetus
menstrual cycle begins after:
C) Preventing intrauterine growth
A) Ovulation B) Menstruation
restriction (IUGR)
C) Menarche D) Fertilization
D) Increasing fetal weight
78 Primary dysmenorrhea refers to:
74 Which of the following
A) Painful menstruation without
statements about preterm and
underlying pathology
post-term pregnancies is correct?
B) Painful menstruation due to
endometriosis D) Zygote formation, cleavage,
C) Pain during ovulation blastocyst formation
D) Pain due to uterine fibroids
83 When does implantation
79 The presence of endometrial typically occur after fertilization?
tissue outside the uterus is A) 2–3 days B) 4–6 days
characteristic of: C) 7–10 days D) 14–16 days
A) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) 84 Which of the following
B) Endometriosis hormones is produced by the
C) Uterine fibroids placenta to maintain pregnancy?
D) Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) A) Human chorionic gonadotropin
80 Which of the following is the B) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
first event that occurs during C) Follicle-stimulating hormone
ovulation? D) Prolactin

A) The release of an egg from the 85 Which of the following is NOT a

ovary function of the placenta?
A) Hormone production
B) A surge in luteinizing hormone B) Immunological protection
(C) Follicular maturation C) Nutrient exchange
D) Thickening of the endometrial D) Blood circulation from fetus to
lining mother
81 Which of the following occurs 86 Which hormone is primarily
immediately after fertilization? responsible for the maintenance of
A) Formation of the blastocyst pregnancy in the early stages,
B) Zygote formation produced by the placenta?
C) Implantation in the uterus A) Estrogen
D) Menstruation B) Progesterone
82 Which of the following is the C) Human chorionic gonadotropin
correct sequence of events after D) Prolactin
ovulation leading to fertilization? 87 At what week does the placenta
A) Egg is fertilized, zygote formation, typically start functioning to
cleavage, blastocyst formation produce progesterone?
B) Egg is fertilized, blastocyst A) 4th week B) 6th week
formation, cleavage, zygote C) 8th week D) 12th week
formation
C) Cleavage, blastocyst formation, 88 Which of the following is a
zygote formation characteristic feature of placenta
accreta? longitudinal lie with its back
A) Placenta is attached but detaches toward the mother's right side and
easily during delivery head in the maternal pelvis?
B) Placenta is deeply embedded in A) Left occipito-anterior (LOA)
the uterine wall, potentially leading B) Right occipito-anterior (ROA)
to hemorrhage C) Left occipito-posterior (LOP)
C) Placenta is unable to form D) Right occipito-posterior (ROP)
properly during early pregnancy
93 What is the most common cause
D) Placenta detaches prematurely
of secondary amenorrhea in
89 Which fetal presentation occurs women of reproductive age?
when the fetus is in a longitudinal A) Hypothyroidism
lie, with the buttocks or feet of the B) Polycystic ovarian syndrome
fetus entering the birth canal first? C) Uterine fibroids D) Pregnancy
A) Cephalic presentation
94 . The nurse is monitoring a client
B) Breech presentation
who is receiving oxytocin to induce
C) Transverse presentation
labor. Which assessment findings
D) Shoulder presentation
should cause the nurse to
90 hat is the term for when the immediatelydiscontinue the
fetal head is in the lower part oxytocin infusion? Select all that
of the uterus, in a flexed apply
position, with the occiput .A Fatigue B Drowsiness
(back of the head) directed C. Uterine hyperstimulation
towards the mother's pelvis? D. Late decelerations of the fetal
A Vertex presentation heart rate
B) Face presentation E Early decelerations of the fetal
C) Brow presentation heart rate
D) Breech presentation
95 The nurse is monitoring a client
91 In a breech presentation, in the immediate postpartum
which of the following is the period forsigns of hemorrhage.
least common type? Which sign, if noted, would be an
a) Frank breech early sign ofexcessive blood loss?
B Complete breech A temperature of 100.4° F (38° C
C) Footling breech B. An increase in the pulse rate from
D) Shoulder breech 88 to 102 beats per minute
C. A blood pressure change from
92 What is the term used to
130/88 to 124/80 mm Hg
describe a fetus that is in a
D. An increase in the respiratory rate thepreeclampsia and the need to
from 18 to 22 breaths perminute notify the primary health care
provider(PHCP)?
96 The nurse is assessing a client
A. Urinary output has increased.
who is 6 hours postpartum after
B. Dependent edema has resolved.
delivering afull-term healthy
C. Blood pressure reading is at the
newborn. The client complains to
prenatal baseline.
the nurse of feelings offaintness
D. The client complains of a
and dizziness. Which nursing action
headache and blurred vision.
is most appropriate?
99 The secretion of which hormone
A. Raise the head of the client’s bed. is directly triggered by the
B Obtain hemoglobin and luteinizing hormone (LH) surge?
hematocrit levels. a) Estrogen b) Progesterone
C. Instruct the client to request help c) HCG d) Prolactin
when getting out of bed.
100 . Which of the following is NOT
D. Inform the nursery room nurse to
a function of estrogen?
avoid bringing the newborn tothe
a) Maintenance of pregnancy
client until the client’s symptoms
b) Regulation of the menstrual cycle
have subsided.
c) Bone density preservation
97 The nurse in the labor room is d) Development of female
caring for a client in the active reproductive organs
stage of the firstphase of labor. The
nurse is assessing the fetal patterns
and notes a latedeceleration on the
monitor strip. What is the most
appropriate nursingaction?
A. Administer oxygen via face mask.
B. Place the mother in a supine position.
C. Increase the rate of the oxytocin
intravenous infusion.
D. Document the findings and
continue to monitor the fetal
patterns.
98 The home care nurse visits a
pregnant client who has a diagnosis
ofpreeclampsia. Which assessment
finding indicates a worsening of