1. Explain the general safety rules followed in a medical laboratory.

Answer: Wear PPE, maintain hand hygiene, and dispose of waste safely.

2. Why is patient preparation important before laboratory testing?

Answer: It ensures accurate laboratory results.

3. Describe the correct method of blood sample collection.

Answer: Collect blood aseptically using the correct technique.

4. Explain the procedure for urine sample collection.

Answer: Collect a clean midstream urine sample in a sterile container.

5. What is CSF and how is it collected?

Answer: CSF is collected by lumbar puncture under sterile conditions.

6. How is a saliva sample collected?

Answer: Saliva is collected by spitting or swabbing into a sterile container.

7. What is Point of Care Testing (POCT)?

Answer: POCT is testing performed near the patient for rapid results.

8. What is the principle of hemoglobin estimation?

Answer: Hemoglobin is measured by the cyanmethemoglobin method.

9. What is Giemsa stain used for?

Answer: It stains blood cells and detects blood parasites.

10. Why is blood cell morphology important?

Answer: It helps diagnose blood disorders.

11. What is hematocrit (HCT)?

Answer: HCT is the percentage of red blood cells in blood.

12. What is ESR?

Answer: ESR measures the rate of red blood cell sedimentation.

13. What are Liver Function Tests (LFTs)?

Answer: They assess liver function and damage.

14. What are Renal Function Tests (RFTs)?

Answer: They evaluate kidney function.

15. What does serum ferritin indicate?

Answer: It indicates the body's iron stores.
16. What is the difference between HDL and LDL?
Answer: HDL is good cholesterol, while LDL is bad cholesterol.

17. Why is water pH important in the laboratory?

Answer: It ensures accurate test results.

18. What does Prothrombin Time (PT) measure?

Answer: PT evaluates the extrinsic coagulation pathway.

19. What does APTT measure?

Answer: APTT evaluates the intrinsic coagulation pathway.

20. What is the difference between BT and CT?

Answer: BT measures bleeding time, while CT measures clotting time.

21. How are blood cells counted?

Answer: They are counted using a Neubauer counting chamber.

22. How are eosinophils and reticulocytes counted?

Answer: They are counted using special stains and a hemocytometer.

23. Why is ABO blood grouping performed?

Answer: To ensure safe blood transfusion.

24. What is the Weak D test?

Answer: It detects weak Rh(D) antigen.

25. Why are standard precautions important?

Answer: They prevent the spread of infection.

26. What is serology?

Answer: It is the study of antigen-antibody reactions.

27. What is the Widal test used for?

Answer: It helps diagnose typhoid fever.

28. What is the ASOT test?

Answer: It detects antibodies against Streptolysin O.

29. What is the purpose of serological testing?

Answer: It detects antibodies or antigens in blood.

30. What is urinalysis?

Answer: It is the physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine.
31. Why should all specimens be treated as infectious?
Answer: To prevent disease transmission.

32. What is the difference between sterilization and disinfection?

Answer: Sterilization kills all microbes, while disinfection kills most pathogens.

33. How does hemolysis affect laboratory results?

Answer: It causes inaccurate test values.

34. Why should a patient rest before blood collection?

Answer: To obtain reliable test results.

35. What is the normal appearance of CSF?

Answer: It is clear and colorless.

36. Why should CSF be examined immediately?

Answer: To preserve cells and microorganisms.

37. Which urine sample is preferred for routine testing?

Answer: A clean midstream urine sample.

38. Why is the order of draw important?

Answer: It prevents additive contamination between tubes.

39. What is the most common complication of venipuncture?

Answer: Hematoma formation.

40. How does hemolysis affect potassium levels?

Answer: It falsely increases potassium levels.

41. What is a Vacutainer system?

Answer: It is a vacuum-based blood collection system.

42. When is capillary blood collection preferred?

Answer: In infants or when only a small sample is needed.

43. Why is EDTA used in hematology?

Answer: It prevents blood clotting and preserves blood cells.

44. What is the difference between serum and plasma?

Answer: Serum lacks clotting factors, while plasma contains them.

45. Why must ESR tubes be kept upright?

Answer: To obtain accurate ESR readings.
46. What does hematocrit measure?
Answer: It measures the percentage of red blood cells in blood.

47. Why should the buffy coat be excluded during hematocrit reading?
Answer: To avoid falsely high hematocrit values.

48. What is rouleaux formation?

Answer: It is the stacking of red blood cells like coins.

49. Which conditions increase ESR?

Answer: Infections and inflammatory diseases increase ESR.

50. Which condition may decrease ESR?

Answer: Sickle cell anemia may decrease ESR.

51. What is the significance of the buffy coat layer after centrifugation?
Answer: It contains white blood cells and platelets.

52. What color is the EDTA tube and what is it used for?
Answer: Lavender (purple) top; used for CBC and hematology tests.

53. Which stain is commonly used for blood films?

Answer: Giemsa stain is commonly used.

54. What does a hypersegmented neutrophil indicate?

Answer: It suggests megaloblastic anemia.

55. What is a spherocyte associated with?

Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis or autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

56. Why is ALT more liver-specific than AST?

Answer: ALT is found mainly in liver cells.

57. Which enzyme confirms hepatic origin of raised ALP?

Answer: Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT).

58. Which is a better marker of kidney function, urea or creatinine?

Answer: Creatinine is more reliable.

59. Why is ferritin the best marker of iron stores?

Answer: It reflects the body's iron reserves.

60. Is ferritin an acute-phase reactant?

Answer: Yes, it increases during inflammation.
61. Why is EDTA unsuitable for coagulation tests?
Answer: It binds calcium and prevents clotting.

62. What property of sialic acid affects ESR?

Answer: It gives RBCs a negative surface charge.

63. Why is methanol omitted in thick blood film preparation?

Answer: To preserve parasites for detection.

64. What is the main advantage of a closed Vacutainer system?

Answer: It reduces contamination and needle-stick injuries.

65. Which blood layer contains platelets after centrifugation?

Answer: The buffy coat.

66. Why should urine be examined within 2 hours?

Answer: To prevent deterioration of the sample.

67. Which urine cast suggests pyelonephritis?

Answer: White blood cell cast.

68. What does nitrite positivity indicate?

Answer: It suggests a bacterial urinary tract infection.

69. Which crystal is classically linked with gout?

Answer: Uric acid crystals.

70. What does leukocyte esterase detect?

Answer: White blood cells in urine.

71. Why is serum preferred for most serological tests?

Answer: It is free of clotting factors.

72. Which Widal antigen indicates acute infection?

Answer: O antigen.

73. What is the normal adult ASOT value?

Answer: Less than 200 IU/mL.

74. Which organism produces Streptolysin O?

Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes.

75. What confirms a reactive VDRL test?

Answer: A treponemal-specific test.
76. Which Hb estimation method is the gold standard?
Answer: Cyanmethemoglobin method.

77. At what wavelength is cyanmethemoglobin measured?

Answer: 540 nm.

78. Which POCT device gives digital Hb results?

Answer: HemoCue Hemoglobin Analyzer.

79. What pH buffer is used in Giemsa staining?

Answer: pH 7.2 phosphate buffer.

80. What fixes thin blood films?

Answer: Methanol.

81. Which vein is preferred for routine venipuncture?

Answer: Median cubital vein.

82. What is the insertion angle for butterfly needles?

Answer: 10–15 degrees.

83. Why is the order of draw important?

Answer: To prevent additive contamination.

84. Which specimen is preferred for urinalysis?

Answer: Fresh midstream urine.

85. What is the gold standard for early typhoid diagnosis?

Answer: Blood culture.

86. What anticoagulant is used in the Westergren ESR method?

Answer: Sodium citrate.

87. What causes rouleaux formation?

Answer: Increased plasma proteins.

88. Which tube cap is used for CBC?

Answer: Lavender (purple) top.

89. What is the normal appearance of CSF?

Answer: Clear and colorless.

90. Which blood film is more sensitive for malaria detection?

Answer: Thick blood film.
91. What is the objective of patient preparation?
Answer: To obtain accurate test results.

92. What is the patient's position during CSF collection?

Answer: Lateral lying with knees flexed.

93. What are the different types of urine samples?

Answer: Random, first morning, midstream, timed, and 24-hour urine.

94. What is the advantage of saliva samples?

Answer: They are non-invasive and easy to collect.

95. What is venipuncture?

Answer: The puncture of a vein to collect blood.

96. Why is the median cubital vein the first choice?

Answer: It is large, stable, and easy to access.

97. Why is the basilic vein the last choice?

Answer: It lies close to nerves and arteries.

98. Define POCT.

Answer: Point-of-care testing performed near the patient.

99. What are the limitations of POCT?

Answer: Lower accuracy and limited test range.

100. Which reagent is used in the cyanmethemoglobin method?

Answer: Drabkin's reagent.

101. What is Drabkin's reagent used for?

Answer: It is used for hemoglobin estimation.

102. What is the normal hemoglobin level in adult males?

Answer: 13–17 g/dL.

103. What is the normal hemoglobin level in adult females?

Answer: 12–15 g/dL.

104. What is anemia?

Answer: It is a decrease in hemoglobin concentration.

105. What is polycythemia?

Answer: It is an increase in red blood cell count.
106. What is leukocytosis?
Answer: It is an increase in white blood cell count.

107. What is leukopenia?

Answer: It is a decrease in white blood cell count.

108. What is thrombocytopenia?

Answer: It is a decrease in platelet count.

109. What is thrombocytosis?

Answer: It is an increase in platelet count.

110. What is the normal platelet count?

Answer: 150,000–450,000/µL.

111. What is the normal RBC count in adults?

Answer: 4.5–5.5 million/µL.

112. What is the normal WBC count?

Answer: 4,000–11,000/µL.

113. What is the normal ESR in adult males?

Answer: 0–15 mm/hour.

114. What is the normal ESR in adult females?

Answer: 0–20 mm/hour.

115. What is the main function of red blood cells?

Answer: To transport oxygen.

116. What is the main function of white blood cells?

Answer: To defend the body against infections.

117. What is the main function of platelets?

Answer: To help in blood clotting.

118. Which anticoagulant is used for CBC?

Answer: EDTA.

119. Which anticoagulant is used for coagulation tests?

Answer: Sodium citrate.

120. Which anticoagulant is used for glucose estimation?

Answer: Sodium fluoride.
121. What is serum?
Answer: Plasma without clotting factors.

122. What is plasma?

Answer: The liquid part of blood containing clotting factors.

123. What is hemolysis?

Answer: The destruction of red blood cells.

124. What is jaundice?

Answer: Yellow discoloration caused by increased bilirubin.

125. What is bilirubin?

Answer: A pigment produced from red blood cell breakdown.

126. Which organ produces bile?

Answer: The liver.

127. What is creatinine?

Answer: A waste product used to assess kidney function.

128. What is urea?

Answer: A waste product formed from protein metabolism.

129. What is albumin?

Answer: The major protein in blood plasma.

130. What is globulin?

Answer: A group of proteins involved in immunity.

131. What is cholesterol?

Answer: A waxy lipid found in blood and cells.

132. What are triglycerides?

Answer: The main form of stored fat in the body.

133. What is HDL?

Answer: High-density lipoprotein (good cholesterol).

134. What is LDL?

Answer: Low-density lipoprotein (bad cholesterol).

135. What is VLDL?

Answer: Very low-density lipoprotein that transports triglycerides.
136. What is blood glucose?
Answer: The amount of glucose present in blood.

137. What is diabetes mellitus?

Answer: A disease characterized by high blood glucose levels.

138. What is hypoglycemia?

Answer: Abnormally low blood glucose.

139. What is hyperglycemia?

Answer: Abnormally high blood glucose.

140. What is HbA1c?

Answer: It reflects the average blood glucose over 2–3 months.

141. What is a normal fasting blood glucose level?

Answer: 70–99 mg/dL.

142. What is urine specific gravity?

Answer: It measures the concentration of urine.

143. What is urine pH?

Answer: It indicates the acidity or alkalinity of urine.

144. What does protein in urine indicate?

Answer: It suggests kidney disease.

145. What does glucose in urine indicate?

Answer: It suggests diabetes mellitus.

146. What do ketones in urine indicate?

Answer: They indicate fat metabolism or uncontrolled diabetes.

147. What does blood in urine indicate?

Answer: It may indicate urinary tract disease or injury.

148. What are urinary casts?

Answer: Cylindrical structures formed in kidney tubules.

149. What are urinary crystals?

Answer: Solid particles formed from dissolved substances in urine.

150. Why is urine microscopy performed?

Answer: To detect cells, casts, crystals, and microorganisms.
151. What is microscopy?
Answer: Microscopy is the examination of specimens using a microscope.

152. Which microscope is commonly used in laboratories?

Answer: The compound light microscope.

153. What is the function of the objective lens?

Answer: It magnifies the specimen.

154. What is the function of the eyepiece?

Answer: It further magnifies the image.

155. What is the total magnification of a 10× eyepiece and 40× objective?
Answer: 400×.

156. Which objective lens is used with immersion oil?

Answer: The 100× oil immersion objective.

157. Why is immersion oil used?

Answer: It improves image resolution.

158. What is staining?

Answer: It is the process of coloring cells for better visibility.

159. Why are stains used in microscopy?

Answer: To differentiate cells and microorganisms.

160. What is Gram staining?

Answer: A staining method used to identify bacteria.

161. What color are Gram-positive bacteria?

Answer: Purple.

162. What color are Gram-negative bacteria?

Answer: Pink or red.

163. What is culture media?

Answer: A nutrient medium used to grow microorganisms.

164. What is agar?

Answer: A solidifying agent used in culture media.

165. What is incubation?

Answer: Keeping cultures at an optimum temperature for growth.
166. What is sterilization?
Answer: Complete destruction of all microorganisms.

167. What is autoclaving?

Answer: Sterilization using steam under pressure.

168. What is the standard autoclave temperature?

Answer: 121°C.

169. What is the standard autoclave pressure?

Answer: 15 psi.

170. How long is the standard autoclave cycle?

Answer: 15–20 minutes.

171. What is disinfection?

Answer: The destruction of most pathogenic microorganisms.

172. What is antisepsis?

Answer: The use of chemicals to prevent infection on living tissues.

173. What is contamination?

Answer: The unwanted presence of microorganisms.

174. What is aseptic technique?

Answer: A method to prevent contamination.

175. What is a pathogen?

Answer: A microorganism that causes disease.

176. What is normal flora?

Answer: Microorganisms normally present in the body.

177. What is infection?

Answer: The invasion and multiplication of pathogens.

178. What is immunity?

Answer: The body's ability to resist disease.

179. What is an antigen?

Answer: A substance that triggers an immune response.

180. What is an antibody?

Answer: A protein produced to fight antigens.
181. What is vaccination?
Answer: Administration of a vaccine to develop immunity.

182. What is a vaccine?

Answer: A biological preparation that provides immunity.

183. What is ELISA?

Answer: A test used to detect antigens or antibodies.

184. What is PCR?

Answer: A technique used to amplify DNA.

185. What is DNA?

Answer: The genetic material of cells.

186. What is RNA?

Answer: A nucleic acid involved in protein synthesis.

187. What is HIV?

Answer: Human Immunodeficiency Virus.

188. What disease does HIV cause?

Answer: AIDS.

189. What is Hepatitis B?

Answer: A viral infection affecting the liver.

190. What is Hepatitis C?

Answer: A viral liver infection spread mainly through blood.

191. What is malaria?

Answer: A parasitic disease transmitted by mosquitoes.

192. Which parasite causes malaria?

Answer: Plasmodium species.

193. Which mosquito transmits malaria?

Answer: Female Anopheles mosquito.

194. What is dengue fever?

Answer: A viral disease transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes.

195. Which mosquito spreads dengue?

Answer: Aedes aegypti mosquito.
196. What is tuberculosis (TB)?
Answer: A bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

197. Which specimen is commonly collected for TB diagnosis?

Answer: Sputum.

198. What is sputum?

Answer: Mucus coughed up from the lungs.

199. What is COVID-19?

Answer: A viral respiratory disease caused by SARS-CoV-2.

200. What is the purpose of laboratory diagnosis?

Answer: To detect, confirm, and monitor diseases.

201. What is quality control (QC)?

Answer: QC ensures laboratory test results are accurate and reliable.

202. What is quality assurance (QA)?

Answer: QA is a system that maintains the overall quality of laboratory services.

203. Why is quality control important?

Answer: It detects errors and ensures accurate results.

204. What is calibration?

Answer: Calibration adjusts an instrument to provide accurate measurements.

205. What is a control sample?

Answer: A sample with known values used to check test accuracy.

206. What is a standard solution?

Answer: A solution of known concentration used for calibration.

207. What is accuracy?

Answer: Accuracy is how close a result is to the true value.

208. What is precision?

Answer: Precision is the consistency of repeated measurements.

209. What is sensitivity?

Answer: Sensitivity is the ability of a test to detect disease correctly.

210. What is specificity?

Answer: Specificity is the ability of a test to identify healthy individuals correctly.
211. What is a false-positive result?
Answer: A positive result in a person who does not have the disease.

212. What is a false-negative result?

Answer: A negative result in a person who has the disease.

213. What is a reference range?

Answer: The normal range of laboratory values in healthy people.

214. What is a reagent?

Answer: A chemical used to perform laboratory tests.

215. Why should reagents be stored properly?

Answer: To maintain their stability and effectiveness.

216. What is an expired reagent?

Answer: A reagent that should not be used after its expiry date.

217. What is centrifugation?

Answer: Separation of substances by rapid spinning.

218. What is the purpose of centrifugation?

Answer: To separate serum or plasma from blood cells.

219. What is the RPM of a centrifuge?

Answer: RPM means revolutions per minute.

220. Why must a centrifuge be balanced?

Answer: To prevent vibration and equipment damage.

221. What is a laboratory report?

Answer: A document containing test results.

222. Why is proper labeling important?

Answer: To prevent sample identification errors.

223. What information should be on a specimen label?

Answer: Patient name, ID, date, and time of collection.

224. What is specimen rejection?

Answer: Refusing an unsuitable sample for testing.

225. Name one reason for specimen rejection.

Answer: Incorrect labeling.
226. What is biosafety?
Answer: Safe handling of infectious materials.

227. What is biohazard waste?

Answer: Waste contaminated with infectious material.

228. Where are used needles discarded?

Answer: In a sharps container.

229. What should be done after a needle-stick injury?

Answer: Wash the area and report it immediately.

230. What is hand hygiene?

Answer: Cleaning hands to prevent infection.

231. When should hands be washed in the laboratory?

Answer: Before and after handling specimens.

232. What is PPE?

Answer: Personal Protective Equipment.

233. Name the basic PPE used in a laboratory.

Answer: Gloves, lab coat, mask, and eye protection.

234. Why are gloves worn?

Answer: To prevent contamination and infection.

235. Why is a lab coat worn?

Answer: To protect clothing and skin.

236. What is cross-contamination?

Answer: Transfer of microorganisms between samples.

237. How can cross-contamination be prevented?

Answer: By using aseptic techniques and changing gloves.

238. What is biomedical waste?

Answer: Waste generated during medical procedures.

239. How is biomedical waste disposed of?

Answer: According to biomedical waste management guidelines.

240. What is the purpose of waste segregation?

Answer: To ensure safe disposal and reduce infection risk.
241. What is a laboratory SOP?
Answer: A Standard Operating Procedure for laboratory work.

242. Why are SOPs important?

Answer: They ensure consistent and safe laboratory practices.

243. What is documentation?

Answer: Recording laboratory procedures and results.

244. Why is documentation necessary?

Answer: To maintain accuracy and traceability.

245. What is confidentiality in the laboratory?

Answer: Protecting patient information from unauthorized access.

246. Why must patient information remain confidential?

Answer: To protect patient privacy.

247. What is ethics in laboratory practice?

Answer: Following professional and moral principles.

248. What is professionalism?

Answer: Responsible and ethical behavior at work.

249. Why is communication important in the laboratory?

Answer: It prevents errors and improves patient care.

250. What is the main goal of a medical laboratory?

Answer: To provide accurate and timely diagnostic results.

251. What is a microscope?

Answer: An instrument used to magnify small objects.

252. What are the main parts of a microscope?

Answer: Eyepiece, objective lenses, stage, condenser, and light source.

253. What is the function of the condenser?

Answer: It focuses light on the specimen.

254. What is the function of the diaphragm?

Answer: It regulates the amount of light.

255. What is the function of the coarse adjustment knob?

Answer: It brings the specimen into rough focus.
256. What is the function of the fine adjustment knob?
Answer: It provides sharp and clear focus.

257. Which objective is used first while focusing?

Answer: The 10× low-power objective.

258. Why should the microscope be cleaned after use?

Answer: To maintain image quality and prevent damage.

259. What is immersion oil used for?

Answer: It improves resolution with the 100× objective.

260. Which lens uses immersion oil?

Answer: The 100× oil immersion lens.

261. What is a blood smear?

Answer: A thin layer of blood spread on a glass slide.

262. Why is a blood smear prepared?

Answer: To examine blood cell morphology.

263. What is the purpose of staining a blood smear?

Answer: To differentiate blood cells clearly.

264. Which stain is commonly used for blood smears?

Answer: Giemsa stain.

265. What is differential leukocyte count (DLC)?

Answer: It is the percentage of different white blood cells.

266. Which WBC is most abundant in blood?

Answer: Neutrophils.

267. Which WBC increases in allergic conditions?

Answer: Eosinophils.

268. Which WBC produces antibodies?

Answer: Lymphocytes.

269. Which WBC becomes a macrophage in tissues?

Answer: Monocytes.

270. Which WBC releases histamine?

Answer: Basophils.
271. What is anemia?
Answer: A decrease in hemoglobin or red blood cells.

272. What is leukocytosis?

Answer: An increase in white blood cell count.

273. What is leukopenia?

Answer: A decrease in white blood cell count.

274. What is thrombocytopenia?

Answer: A decrease in platelet count.

275. What is thrombocytosis?

Answer: An increase in platelet count.

276. What is hemostasis?

Answer: The process of stopping bleeding.

277. What is coagulation?

Answer: The formation of a blood clot.

278. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?

Answer: Vitamin K.

279. What is fibrin?

Answer: An insoluble protein that forms blood clots.

280. What is fibrinogen?

Answer: A plasma protein converted into fibrin.

281. What is hemophilia?

Answer: An inherited bleeding disorder.

282. What is thrombosis?

Answer: Formation of a blood clot inside a blood vessel.

283. What is embolism?

Answer: Blockage of a blood vessel by an embolus.

284. What is blood transfusion?

Answer: Transfer of blood from a donor to a recipient.

285. Why is blood grouping important?

Answer: To prevent transfusion reactions.
286. What is cross-matching?
Answer: Testing donor and recipient blood compatibility.

287. Who is the universal donor?

Answer: O negative blood group.

288. Who is the universal recipient?

Answer: AB positive blood group.

289. What is Rh factor?

Answer: An antigen present on red blood cells.

290. What is Rh incompatibility?

Answer: A mismatch between maternal and fetal Rh factors.

291. What is hemolytic disease of the newborn?

Answer: Destruction of fetal RBCs due to Rh incompatibility.

292. What is Coombs test?

Answer: A test used to detect antibodies against red blood cells.

293. What is the direct Coombs test used for?

Answer: To detect antibodies attached to RBCs.

294. What is the indirect Coombs test used for?

Answer: To detect free antibodies in serum.

295. What is agglutination?

Answer: Clumping of cells due to antigen-antibody reaction.

296. What is hemagglutination?

Answer: Clumping of red blood cells.

297. What is compatibility testing?

Answer: Testing donor and recipient blood before transfusion.

298. What is transfusion reaction?

Answer: An adverse reaction following blood transfusion.

299. What is the most common cause of transfusion reaction?

Answer: ABO blood group incompatibility.

300. Why is patient identification essential before transfusion?

Answer: To ensure the correct blood is given to the correct patient.
301. What is microbiology?
Answer: The study of microorganisms.

302. What are microorganisms?

Answer: Organisms too small to be seen with the naked eye.

303. Name the main groups of microorganisms.

Answer: Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites.

304. What are bacteria?

Answer: Single-celled prokaryotic microorganisms.

305. What are viruses?

Answer: Infectious agents that require living cells to reproduce.

306. What are fungi?

Answer: Eukaryotic organisms including yeasts and molds.

307. What are parasites?

Answer: Organisms that live on or in a host and cause disease.

308. What is bacteriology?

Answer: The study of bacteria.

309. What is mycology?

Answer: The study of fungi.

310. What is parasitology?

Answer: The study of parasites.

311. What is virology?

Answer: The study of viruses.

312. What is asepsis?

Answer: The absence of disease-causing microorganisms.

313. What is an inoculation loop?

Answer: A wire loop used to transfer microorganisms.

314. Why is the inoculation loop flamed?

Answer: To sterilize it before and after use.

315. What is a culture?

Answer: The growth of microorganisms on culture media.
316. What is pure culture?
Answer: A culture containing only one type of microorganism.

317. What is a colony?

Answer: A visible mass of microorganisms on solid media.

318. What is colony morphology?

Answer: The appearance of bacterial colonies.

319. What is nutrient agar?

Answer: A general-purpose culture medium.

320. What is blood agar?

Answer: An enriched medium used to grow many bacteria.

321. What is MacConkey agar used for?

Answer: To isolate Gram-negative bacteria.

322. What is selective media?

Answer: Media that allow only specific microorganisms to grow.

323. What is differential media?

Answer: Media that distinguish bacteria by their characteristics.

324. What is incubation?

Answer: Keeping cultures at suitable conditions for growth.

325. What is the usual incubation temperature for bacteria?

Answer: 37°C.

326. What is aerobic bacteria?

Answer: Bacteria that require oxygen for growth.

327. What is anaerobic bacteria?

Answer: Bacteria that grow without oxygen.

328. What is facultative anaerobe?

Answer: A bacterium that grows with or without oxygen.

329. What is sterilization?

Answer: Complete destruction of all microorganisms.

330. What is pasteurization?

Answer: Heating to destroy harmful microorganisms.
331. What is autoclaving?
Answer: Sterilization using steam under pressure.

332. What is hot air oven sterilization?

Answer: Sterilization using dry heat.

333. What is disinfection?

Answer: Destruction of most pathogenic microorganisms.

334. What is an antiseptic?

Answer: A chemical used on living tissues to kill microorganisms.

335. What is a disinfectant?

Answer: A chemical used on non-living objects to kill microorganisms.

336. What is contamination?

Answer: Accidental introduction of unwanted microorganisms.

337. What is nosocomial infection?

Answer: An infection acquired in a hospital.

338. What is an opportunistic pathogen?

Answer: A microorganism causing disease in weakened individuals.

339. What is antibiotic sensitivity testing?

Answer: Testing bacteria against antibiotics to determine effectiveness.

340. Which method is commonly used for antibiotic sensitivity testing?

Answer: Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion method.

341. What is an antibiotic?

Answer: A drug that kills or inhibits bacteria.

342. What is antibiotic resistance?

Answer: The ability of bacteria to resist antibiotics.

343. What is multidrug resistance (MDR)?

Answer: Resistance to multiple antibiotics.

344. What is a zoonotic disease?

Answer: A disease transmitted from animals to humans.

345. What is an epidemic?

Answer: A sudden increase in disease cases in a community.
346. What is a pandemic?
Answer: An epidemic spreading across many countries.

347. What is an endemic disease?

Answer: A disease constantly present in a specific area.

348. What is the incubation period?

Answer: The time between infection and symptom onset.

349. What is the carrier state?

Answer: A person carries a pathogen without symptoms.

350. Why is hand hygiene important in microbiology?

Answer: It prevents the spread of infections.

351. What is immunology?

Answer: The study of the immune system.

352. What is the immune system?

Answer: The body's defense system against infections.

353. What is innate immunity?

Answer: Natural immunity present from birth.

354. What is acquired immunity?

Answer: Immunity developed after infection or vaccination.

355. What is active immunity?

Answer: Immunity produced by the body's own immune response.

356. What is passive immunity?

Answer: Immunity received from another person or source.

357. What is an antigen?

Answer: A substance that stimulates antibody production.

358. What is an antibody?

Answer: A protein that fights specific antigens.

359. What are immunoglobulins (Ig)?

Answer: Antibodies produced by plasma cells.

360. Which immunoglobulin is most abundant in blood?

Answer: IgG.
361. Which immunoglobulin is the first produced during infection?
Answer: IgM.

362. Which immunoglobulin is found in secretions?

Answer: IgA.

363. Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergies?

Answer: IgE.

364. Which immunoglobulin functions as a B-cell receptor?

Answer: IgD.

365. What is an allergic reaction?

Answer: An exaggerated immune response to an allergen.

366. What is hypersensitivity?

Answer: An excessive immune response causing tissue damage.

367. What is autoimmunity?

Answer: The immune system attacks the body's own tissues.

368. What is an autoimmune disease?

Answer: A disease caused by autoimmunity.

369. What is immunization?

Answer: The process of developing immunity against disease.

370. What is vaccination?

Answer: Administration of a vaccine to provide protection.

371. What is a booster dose?

Answer: An additional vaccine dose to strengthen immunity.

372. What is ELISA?

Answer: A test used to detect antigens or antibodies.

373. What is a rapid diagnostic test (RDT)?

Answer: A quick test for detecting diseases.

374. What is agglutination?

Answer: Clumping of particles due to antigen-antibody reaction.

375. What is precipitation reaction?

Answer: Formation of an insoluble antigen-antibody complex.
376. What is complement?
Answer: A group of proteins that assist immune defense.

377. What is complement fixation?

Answer: An antigen-antibody reaction involving complement proteins.

378. What is seroconversion?

Answer: Development of detectable antibodies after infection.

379. What is seropositive?

Answer: Presence of specific antibodies in blood.

380. What is seronegative?

Answer: Absence of specific antibodies in blood.

381. What is blood culture?

Answer: A test to detect microorganisms in blood.

382. What is urine culture?

Answer: A test to identify microorganisms in urine.

383. What is sputum culture?

Answer: A test to detect respiratory pathogens.

384. What is stool culture?

Answer: A test to identify intestinal pathogens.

385. What is sensitivity testing?

Answer: It determines which antibiotics are effective.

386. What is nosocomial infection?

Answer: An infection acquired in a hospital.

387. What is cross-infection?

Answer: Infection transmitted from one person to another.

388. What is isolation?

Answer: Separation of infected patients to prevent disease spread.

389. What is quarantine?

Answer: Restricting movement of exposed individuals.

390. What is an outbreak?

Answer: A sudden increase in disease cases.
391. What is surveillance?
Answer: Continuous monitoring of diseases.

392. What is epidemiology?

Answer: The study of disease distribution in populations.

393. What is morbidity?

Answer: The frequency of disease in a population.

394. What is mortality?

Answer: The frequency of deaths in a population.

395. What is prevalence?

Answer: The total number of existing disease cases.

396. What is incidence?

Answer: The number of new disease cases.

397. What is vector?

Answer: An organism that transmits disease.

398. What is reservoir?

Answer: The natural source of a pathogen.

399. What is host?

Answer: An organism that harbors a pathogen.

400. What is the main purpose of laboratory diagnosis?

Answer: To diagnose, monitor, and prevent diseases.

401. What is molecular biology?

Answer: The study of DNA, RNA, and genes.

402. What is DNA?

Answer: DNA is the genetic material of cells.

403. What is RNA?

Answer: RNA carries genetic information for protein synthesis.

404. What is a gene?

Answer: A gene is a unit of heredity.

405. What is a chromosome?

Answer: A chromosome is a DNA-containing structure carrying genes.
406. What is PCR?
Answer: PCR is a technique used to amplify DNA.

407. What is RT-PCR?

Answer: RT-PCR detects RNA by converting it into DNA.

408. What is electrophoresis?

Answer: It separates DNA, RNA, or proteins by size.

409. What is a biomarker?

Answer: A biomarker is a measurable indicator of disease.

410. What is genetic testing?

Answer: It detects inherited genetic disorders.

411. What is histopathology?

Answer: The microscopic study of diseased tissues.

412. What is a biopsy?

Answer: Removal of tissue for examination.

413. What is cytology?

Answer: The study of individual cells.

414. What is a Pap smear?

Answer: A screening test for cervical cancer.

415. What is FNAC?

Answer: Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology.

416. What is a tumor?

Answer: An abnormal growth of cells.

417. What is a benign tumor?

Answer: A non-cancerous tumor.

418. What is a malignant tumor?

Answer: A cancerous tumor that spreads.

419. What is metastasis?

Answer: The spread of cancer to other body parts.

420. What is oncology?

Answer: The study and treatment of cancer.
421. What is hematology?
Answer: The study of blood and blood disorders.

422. What is clinical pathology?

Answer: Diagnosis of disease through laboratory testing.

423. What is biochemistry?

Answer: The study of chemical processes in living organisms.

424. What is microbiology?

Answer: The study of microorganisms.

425. What is immunology?

Answer: The study of the immune system.

426. What is parasitology?

Answer: The study of parasites.

427. What is virology?

Answer: The study of viruses.

428. What is mycology?

Answer: The study of fungi.

429. What is bacteriology?

Answer: The study of bacteria.

430. What is laboratory accreditation?

Answer: Official recognition that a laboratory meets quality standards.

431. What is ISO 15189?

Answer: An international quality standard for medical laboratories.

432. What is internal quality control (IQC)?

Answer: Daily monitoring of laboratory test accuracy.

433. What is external quality assessment (EQA)?

Answer: Comparison of laboratory performance with other laboratories.

434. What is turnaround time (TAT)?

Answer: The time from sample collection to reporting results.

435. What is a critical value?

Answer: A life-threatening laboratory result requiring immediate reporting.
436. Why are critical values reported immediately?
Answer: To allow urgent patient treatment.

437. What is laboratory information system (LIS)?

Answer: A computer system for managing laboratory data.

438. What is specimen transport?

Answer: Safe transfer of specimens to the laboratory.

439. Why should specimens be transported promptly?

Answer: To preserve sample quality.

440. What is cold chain transport?

Answer: Transporting specimens at recommended temperatures.

441. What is sample integrity?

Answer: Maintaining the original quality of the specimen.

442. What is sample contamination?

Answer: Unwanted substances entering a specimen.

443. What is reagent blank?

Answer: A reagent solution without the test sample.

444. What is positive control?

Answer: A control that gives a known positive result.

445. What is negative control?

Answer: A control that gives a known negative result.

446. What is reference material?

Answer: A material with known values used for quality assurance.

447. What is validation?

Answer: Confirming that a test performs accurately.

448. What is verification?

Answer: Confirming that a validated method works correctly in a laboratory.

449. What is competency assessment?

Answer: Evaluation of laboratory staff skills and performance.

450. What is the primary role of a medical laboratory professional?

Answer: To provide accurate, reliable, and timely laboratory results.
451. What is laboratory management?
Answer: The organization and supervision of laboratory operations.

452. What is inventory management?

Answer: Controlling laboratory supplies and equipment.

453. Why is stock management important?

Answer: It prevents shortages and wastage of materials.

454. What is preventive maintenance?

Answer: Regular servicing to keep equipment functioning properly.

455. What is corrective maintenance?

Answer: Repairing faulty laboratory equipment.

456. Why should laboratory equipment be calibrated?

Answer: To ensure accurate and reliable results.

457. What is equipment validation?

Answer: Confirming that equipment performs correctly.

458. What is documentation in the laboratory?

Answer: Recording all laboratory procedures and results.

459. Why are laboratory records important?

Answer: They provide accuracy, traceability, and legal evidence.

460. What is record retention?

Answer: Keeping laboratory records for a specified period.

461. What is laboratory safety?

Answer: Practices that protect laboratory workers and patients.

462. What is a chemical hazard?

Answer: Harm caused by dangerous chemicals.

463. What is a biological hazard?

Answer: Risk caused by infectious microorganisms.

464. What is a physical hazard?

Answer: Injury caused by physical agents or equipment.

465. What is a fire extinguisher used for?

Answer: To extinguish small fires.
466. What should be done during a chemical spill?
Answer: Follow the laboratory spill management procedure.

467. What is an MSDS/SDS?

Answer: A document containing chemical safety information.

468. What is first aid?

Answer: Immediate care given before medical treatment.

469. What should be done after exposure to infectious material?

Answer: Wash the area immediately and report the incident.

470. Why is vaccination recommended for laboratory workers?

Answer: To protect them from occupational infections.

471. What is biomedical waste segregation?

Answer: Separating waste according to its type.

472. What is a sharps container used for?

Answer: Safe disposal of needles and sharp objects.

473. What is the color code for infectious waste?

Answer: Yellow.

474. What is the color code for sharps waste?

Answer: White (translucent) puncture-proof container.

475. What is the color code for recyclable contaminated plastic waste?
Answer: Red.

476. Why should laboratory doors remain closed?

Answer: To reduce contamination and improve safety.

477. Why is eating or drinking prohibited in laboratories?

Answer: To prevent contamination and infection.

478. What is laboratory ethics?

Answer: Following professional and moral principles.

479. What is informed consent?

Answer: Patient permission before a procedure or test.

480. What is patient confidentiality?

Answer: Keeping patient information private.
481. What is professionalism?
Answer: Responsible, ethical, and competent behavior.

482. Why is teamwork important in a laboratory?

Answer: It improves efficiency and patient care.

483. What is communication in laboratory practice?

Answer: Accurate exchange of laboratory information.

484. What is laboratory audit?

Answer: A systematic review of laboratory activities.

485. What is continuous quality improvement (CQI)?

Answer: Ongoing efforts to improve laboratory quality.

486. What is a standard operating procedure (SOP)?

Answer: A written instruction for performing laboratory tasks.

487. Why must SOPs be followed?

Answer: To ensure consistent and accurate procedures.

488. What is laboratory accreditation?

Answer: Official recognition of laboratory competence.

489. What is patient identification?

Answer: Confirming the patient's identity before testing.

490. Why is patient identification important?

Answer: To prevent specimen and reporting errors.

491. What is specimen collection?

Answer: Obtaining a sample for laboratory testing.

492. What is specimen preservation?

Answer: Maintaining the quality of a specimen until testing.

493. What is specimen transport?

Answer: Safe delivery of specimens to the laboratory.

494. What is specimen storage?

Answer: Keeping specimens under suitable conditions.

495. What is result reporting?

Answer: Communicating laboratory findings to clinicians.
496. What is critical result reporting?
Answer: Immediate reporting of life-threatening laboratory results.

497. What is laboratory error?

Answer: A mistake occurring during laboratory procedures.

498. How can laboratory errors be minimized?

Answer: By following SOPs and quality control measures.

499. What is the goal of quality laboratory practice?

Answer: To provide accurate, reliable, and timely test results.

500. What is the ultimate purpose of a medical laboratory?

Answer: To support diagnosis, treatment, and disease prevention.

501. What is professionalism in the medical laboratory?

Answer: Ethical, responsible, and competent laboratory practice.

502. Why is punctuality important in laboratory work?

Answer: It ensures timely testing and reporting.

503. Why is discipline important in the laboratory?

Answer: It maintains safety and quality standards.

504. What is accountability?

Answer: Taking responsibility for one's work and actions.

505. Why is confidentiality important in laboratory practice?

Answer: It protects patient privacy and trust.

506. What is integrity?

Answer: Being honest and ethical in all laboratory work.

507. Why is teamwork essential in a laboratory?

Answer: It improves efficiency and patient care.

508. Why is communication important among laboratory staff?

Answer: It prevents errors and ensures accurate results.

509. What is critical thinking in laboratory practice?

Answer: Analyzing information to make correct decisions.

510. Why should laboratory personnel continue professional education?

Answer: To stay updated with new techniques and knowledge.
511. What is evidence-based laboratory practice?
Answer: Using scientific evidence to guide laboratory procedures.

512. Why is time management important in the laboratory?

Answer: It improves efficiency and reduces delays.

513. What is laboratory accreditation?

Answer: Recognition that a laboratory meets quality standards.

514. What is quality improvement?

Answer: Continuous efforts to enhance laboratory performance.

515. What is laboratory competency?

Answer: The ability to perform laboratory tasks correctly.

516. What is continuing professional development (CPD)?

Answer: Ongoing learning to improve professional skills.

517. What is biosafety level (BSL)?

Answer: A classification of laboratory safety requirements.

518. What is biosecurity?

Answer: Measures to prevent misuse or loss of biological materials.

519. Why should laboratory incidents be reported?

Answer: To improve safety and prevent recurrence.

520. What is risk assessment?

Answer: Identifying and evaluating laboratory hazards.

521. What is laboratory waste management?

Answer: Safe handling and disposal of laboratory waste.

522. Why should laboratory equipment be cleaned regularly?

Answer: To maintain accuracy and prevent contamination.

523. Why should expired reagents never be used?

Answer: They may produce inaccurate results.

524. Why is internal quality control performed daily?

Answer: To ensure consistent test accuracy.

525. What is external quality assessment (EQA)?

Answer: Evaluation of laboratory performance by an external agency.
526. Why should specimen labels be checked carefully?
Answer: To prevent patient identification errors.

527. What should be done if a specimen is mislabeled?

Answer: Reject the specimen and request a new one.

528. What is the first step before performing any laboratory test?
Answer: Verify the patient's identity and specimen details.

529. Why should laboratory reports be reviewed before release?

Answer: To ensure accuracy and completeness.

530. What is the importance of critical value reporting?

Answer: It allows immediate medical intervention.

531. Why must laboratory records be maintained?

Answer: For traceability, quality assurance, and legal purposes.

532. What is the main purpose of laboratory quality management?

Answer: To provide accurate, reliable, and timely results.

533. What is the role of a medical laboratory scientist?

Answer: To perform tests and assist in disease diagnosis.

534. What is the role of a medical laboratory technician?

Answer: To collect, process, and analyze laboratory specimens.

535. What is the main objective of diagnostic laboratory testing?

Answer: To diagnose, monitor, and prevent diseases.

536. Why is patient safety the highest priority in the laboratory?

Answer: Because accurate results directly affect patient care.

537. What is the importance of laboratory ethics?

Answer: It ensures honesty, fairness, and patient confidentiality.

538. What is the importance of quality assurance in the laboratory?

Answer: It ensures reliable and accurate laboratory services.

539. What is the importance of standard precautions?

Answer: They protect healthcare workers and patients from infection.

540. What is the ultimate goal of a medical laboratory?

Answer: To provide accurate results for effective patient diagnosis and treatment.