23-12-2025

1001CMD303029250150 MD

PHYSICS

1) Locus of points, which oscillate in phase is called -

(1) Fringe
(2) Wavefront
(3) Polarised light
(4) Reflected ray

2) Energy of wave travels in a direction -

(1) Perpendicular to wavefront

(2) Along the wavefront
(3) Making an angle 30° with wavefront
(4) No energy travels

3) The secondary wavelets in Huygen's principle -

(1) originate from the point source only.

(2) travels only along the direction of the original wave.
(3) originate from each point on the wavefront and spread in all directions.
(4) travel at half the speed of the original wave.

4) According to Huygen's principle, the new position of a wavefront at a later time is obtained by

(1) Joining the centers of all secondary wavelets

(2) Drawing a common tangent to all secondary wavelets
(3) Adding the amplitudes of all secondary disturbances
(4) Drawing a radius from the point source to the new wavefront

5) Shape of emergent wavefront from prism in given case -

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

6) When light enters a denser medium from a rare medium, its speed decreases. Does this decrease
in speed reduce the energy carried by the light ?

(1) Yes, because a decrease in speed reduces the energy to zero.

(2) Yes, energy always depends on speed
(3) No, energy depends on the amplitude of the wave, not on its speed.
(4) No, because the wave stops in a denser medium.

7) Distance between a person and a point source is 'd'. Observed intensity by person is I0. When
person shift 50 m towards source intensity becomes 9 times of previous value. Find value of 'd' -

(1) 50 m
(2) 100 m
(3) 75 m
(4) 150 m

8) According to the interaction of light with atomic constituents of matter, what happens to the
frequency of scattered light?

(1) It becomes higher than the frequency of incident light.

(2) It becomes lower than the frequency of incident light.
(3) It becomes zero because atoms absorb all energy.
(4) It remain equal to the frequency of the incident light.

9) In a Young's double slit experiment with light of wavelength λ the separation of slits is d and
distance of screen is D such that D > > d > > λ. If the Fringe width is β, the distance from point of
maximum intensity to the point where intensity falls to half of maximum intensity on either side is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) In the YDSE shown the two slits are covered with thin sheets having thickness t and 2t and

refractive index 2µ and µ. Find the position (y) of central maxima

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4) None

11) The distance between the first and the sixth minima in the diffraction pattern of a single slit is
0.5mm. The screen is 0.5m away from the slit. If the wavelength of light used is 5000 Å, then the slit
width will be.

(1) 5 mm
(2) 2.5 mm
(3) 1.25 mm
(4) 1.0 mm

12) One slit of a Young's experiment is covered by a glass plate (μ1 = 1.4) and the other by another
glass plate (μ2 = 1.7) of the same thickness. The point of central maxima on the screen, before the
plates were introduced is now occupied by the third bright fringe. Find the thickness of the plates
(in µm), the wavelength of light used is 4000 Å.

(1) 2 μm
(2) 1 μm
(3) 3 μm
(4) 4 μm

13) Two polarizing filters are crossed at 90°. A third filter is placed between them initially aligned
with first. It is then rotated by angle θ. Find plot of intensity coming from third and final filter as a

function of θ. The incident light is unpolarized with intensity I :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A parallel beam of monochromatic and unpolarised light is incident on a transparent slab of
refractive index . The reflected beam is completely polarised ? What are the angles of incidence
(i) and refraction (r) ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) In Young’s double slit experiment, two slits S1 and S2 are ‘d’ distance apart and the separation
from slits to screen is D (as shown in figure). Now if two transparent slabs of equal thickness 0.1 mm
but refractive index 1.51 and 1.55 are introduced in the path of beam (λ = 4000Å) from S1 and S2
respectively. The central bright fringe spot will shift by ________ number of fringes.

(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 13
(4) 5
16) The figure shows a schematic diagram of young’s double slit expenment. Some changes are
listed in column-I and its consequences in column-II. Match the following:

List-I List-II

Position of all
Increase in maxima
(P) wavelength of (1) changed
light used. except
central maxima

Increase in Position of all

(Q) separation 'd' of (2) minima
slits from screen. change.

Source slit(S) is Fringe width

(R) moved parallel to (3) remains
screen. unchanged.

Source slit(S) is Angular fringe

(S) moved closer to (4) width does not
plane of slits. change.
(1) P → 1, 2; Q → 1, 2, 4; R → 1, 2; S → 3, 4
(2) P → 1, 2; Q → 1, 2, 4; R → 2, 3; S → 3, 4
(3) P → 2, 3; Q → 1, 2; R → 4; S → 3, 4
(4) P → 2, 3; Q → 1, 2; R → 1, 4; S → 4

17) In young’s experiment, the upper slit is covered by a thin glass plate of refractive index and
thickness , where is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. The lower slit is also

0
covered by another glass plate of thickness and refractive index as shown in fig. If I is the
intensity at point P due to slits S1 & S2 each then :
(a) Intensity at point P is
(b) Fringe pattern shifts upwards by a distance equal to two fringe widths after insertion of both the
glass plates together
(c) Optical path difference between the waves from S1 & S2 at point P is
(d) Optical path difference between the waves from S1 & S2 at point P is

(1) only d
(2) a, d
(3) a, b, c
(4) b, d

18) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : If the Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from air to glass is θB, then

Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from glass to air is

Statement II : The Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from glass to air is tan–1 (μg) where μg
is the refractive index of glass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statements I and Statement II are true.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

19) A mixture of polarised and unpolarised light is incident on a polariser. As the polariser is rotated
through 360°. it is found that the minimum and the maximum of the transmitted intensity is in the
ratio 1 : q. The ratio of intensities of polarised to unpolarised light in the incident beam is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light
I0 is incident on P1 . A third polaroid P3 is kept in between P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle
45° with that of P1 . The intensity of transmitted light through P2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
21) Two coherent light sources each of wavelength λ are separated by a distance 4λ. The total

number of minima formed on line AB which runs from –∞ to +∞ is :-

(1) 10
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 12

22) Figure shows plane wave refracted from air to water using Huygen's principle a, b, c, d, e are
lengths on the diagram. The refractive index of water w.r.t. air is in the ratio :–

(1) a/e
(2) b/e
(3) b/d
(4) d/b

23) In YDSE, if a slab whose refractive index can be varied is placed infront of one of the slits. Then
the variation of resultant intensity at mid point of screen with µ will be best represented by (µ is
greater than or equal to 1) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
24) Two sources S1 & S2 emitting coherent light waves of wavelength λ in the same phase are
situated as shown. The distance OP, so that the light intensity detected at P is equal to that at O is :

(D>>λ)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A double slit experiment is shown in the figure. Each slit has width W. A thin piece of glass of
thickness δ refractive index µ, is placed between one of the slits and the screen. The intensity at the
central point is measured as a function of thickness δ. For what values of δ is the intensity at C is

minimum.

(1)

(2)

(3) zero
(4) λ

CHEMISTRY

1)

The value of 'x' in balanced equation is :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

2) Suppose the following reaction :-

The product D and F are related as :-

(1) Identical
(2) Homolog
(3) Functional isomer
(4) Both form identical product with HNO2

3) Match the column :-

Column-I (Reaction) Column-II (Product)

(A) (p)

(B) (q)

(C) (r)

(D) (s)

(1) A → q, B → r, C → p, D → s
(2) A → r, B → q, C → p, D → s
(3) A → s, B → p, C → q, D → s
(4) A → p, B → q, C → r, D → s

4) The product formed from the following reaction sequence is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) "DIBAL–H" can be used to prepare aldehyde from

(1) Cyanide only

(2) Ester & isocyanides
(3) Cyanide & isocyanides
(4) Cyanide & ester

6)

Which is false statement ?

(1) Carboxylic acid and phenol can be differentiated by NaHCO3

(2) 2o Amine does not react with Hinsberg reagent
(3) Ethyl alcohol and Acetone can be differentiated by Brady's reagent
(4) 2-Alkyne does not give Tollen's reagent test

7) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2 to give unstable diazonium salts.
Statement II : Primary aromatic amines react with HNO2 to form diazonium salts which are stable
even above 300 K.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

8)
X, Y, Z are -

(1) NaNO2/Cu, Δ, HBF4, NaNO2 + HCl/0 – 5°C

NaNO2 + HCl/0 – 5°C, B2H6/THF,
(2)
NaNO2/Cu, Δ
NaNO2 + HCl/0 – 5°C, AgF,
(3)
NaNO2/Cu, Δ
(NaNO2 + HCl)/0 – 5°C, HBF4,
(4)
NaNO2/Cu, Δ

9)
The structure of product will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) Statement-I :- Primary amines have higher boiling point than isomeric secondary amines.
Statement-II :- Primary amines have more H-bonding.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I & Statement-II both are incorrect.

11) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II
Compound pKb value

(A) Benzenamine (p) 9.38

Phenyl
(B) (q) 4.70
methanamine

(C) Ethanamine (r) 3.29

N, N-dimethyl
(D) (s) 8.92
aniline
(1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
(2) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s
(3) A-p, B-q, C-s, D-r
(4) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p

12) In the following reaction

The product ‘C’ will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) ? (major product)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)
Major product (C) is :–
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

Coupling of benzene diazonium chloride with phenol is an example of :

(1) Nucleophillic addition of benzene diazonium chloride

(2) Electrophillic substitution of phenol
(3) Nucleophillic substitution of phenol
(4) Electrophillic substitution of benzene diazonium chloride

16) P give positive test with P

(1) Ceric ammonium nitrate

(2) aq. NaHCO3
(3) Neutral FeCl3
(4) Fehling solution

17)
What is A, B & C respectively ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18)
Find products

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

19) In a set of reactions p-nitrotoluene yielded a product (D)

The product (D) would be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

20) In the following reaction which of the following step is wrong :-

(1) Step - I
(2) Step -II
(3) Step - III
(4) Step - I and II both

21) The major product of the reaction is :-

Major product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
22) CH3COOH
Identify D in above reaction sequence.

(1) CH3CH2NC
(2) CH3– NC
(3) CH3CH2OH
(4) CH3CN

23)

Which of following gives primary amines as products of reduction :

(a) (b) CH3–C ≡ N

(c) CH3–CH2–NO2 (d) CH3–N C

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b, d
(3) b, d
(4) a, b, c

24) The major product (P) in this reaction sequence is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
25) Match the column-I with column-II and mark the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) CH3NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH (i) CH3NH2

(B) CH3CONH2 + Br2 + KOH (ii) CH3–CH2–OH

(C) CH3CH2NH2 + NaNO2 + HCl (iii) CH3NHCH3

(D) CH3NC + 4H (iv) CH3NC

(1) (A)→(i), (B)→(ii), (C)→(iii), (D)→(iv)

(2) (A)→(ii), (B)→(iii), (C)→(iv), (D)→(i)
(3) (A)→(iv), (B)→(i), (C)→(ii), (D)→(iii)
(4) (A)→(iii), (B)→(iv), (C)→(i), (D)→(ii)

BIOLOGY

1) Assertion : Emphysema is a chronic disorder of Alveoli.

Reason : One of the major causes of Emphysema is cigarette smoking in which alveolar walls are
damaged due to which respiratory surface is increased.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

2) Primary immune response is of ____(A)____ intensity. Subsequent encounter with the same antigen
or pathogen elicits a ___(B)___intensified ___(C)___ response.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) High Low Anamnestic

(2) Low High Primary

(3) Low High Secondary

(4) High Low Primary

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Identify the skeletal structure of following chemical and find only correct statement about it–
(a) These chemicals interacts with receptors present principally in gasterointestinal tract.
(b) These are known for their effects on cardiovascular system.
(c) These drugs generally taken by inhalation and oral ingestion.

(1) a only
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and c

4)

Study the given flow chart and identify A, B, C, D, E :

A B C D E

Clinical
(1) Interferons Vaccine Colostrum Antiserum
infection

(2) Interferons Infection Vaccine Colostrum Antiserum

(3) Interferons Infection Colostrum Vaccine Antiserum

(4) Interferons Vaccine Infection Sera Colostrum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Study carefully the following stages of life cycle of malarial parasite i.e., Plasmodium. Arrange
these stages in the correct sequence and select the correct answer.
1. Sporozoites leave the blood stream and enter the liver cells of man.
2. Sporozoites present in the salivary glands of female Anopheles mosquito are injected into the
blood stream of man.
3. The parasite reproduces asexually in RBCs, resulting in bursting of RBCs and causing the cycles
of fever, released parasites infect new RBCs.
4. The parasite reproduces asexually in liver cells, ultimately causing the rupturing of cells.
5. Gametocytes develop in the RBCs of man.
6. Female Anopheles mosquito takes up the gametocytes with blood meal of an infected person.
7. Mature infective stage of the parasite i.e., sporozoites escape from intestine and migrate to the
mosquito's salivary glands.
8. Fertilization and developmental stages of the parasite take place in mosquito's stomach.

(1) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 8 → 7
(2) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 7 → 8
(3) 1 → 2 → 4 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 8 → 7
(4) 6 → 8 → 7 → 4 → 5 → 2 → 3 → 1

6)

Read the following four statements (A–D) :

(A) Hemophillus influenzae is responsible for Influenza
(B) Xenopsella cheopis is causative agent for plague
(C) Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebiasis
(D) Microsporum, trichophyton and epidermophyton are not responsible for ring worm

Out of these how many statements are false :

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

7) Select the correct options to fill up the blanks.

(i) With repeated use of drugs, the tolerance level of receptors present in our body ____ .
(ii) Smoking produces ____ and reduces the concentration of ____ in blood.
(iii) Cannabinoid receptors are present in the ___.
(iv) Morphine is a very effective ____ and ___.
(v) Opioids are extracted from the ____ of poppy plant, Papaver somniferum.

(1) (i) decreases, (ii) sedative pain killer, (iii) brain, (iv) hallucinogen, depressant, (v) latex
(2) (i) increases, (ii) CO, haembound oxygen, (iii) brain, (iv) sedative, painkiller, (v) latex
(3) (i) decreases, (ii) CO, haembound oxygen, (iii) brain, (iv) sedative painkiller, (v) latex
(4) (i) increases, (ii) CO, haembound oxygen, (iii) latex, (iv) sedative, painkiller, (v) resin

8) Neutrophils and monocytes are important cells participating in :-

(1) Phagocytosis
(2) Perforin production
(3) Passive immunity
(4) Antibody production

9) When people are healthy they are

(A) More efficient at work
(B) Decreases productivity
(C) Brings economic prosperity
(D) Increases longevity of people
(E) Increases infant and maternal mortality
How many statements are correct about healthy people

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

10) Surgical removal of thymus of a new born shall result in failure to mature -

(1) Monocytes
(2) B - lymphocytes
(3) T - lymphocytes
(4) Basophils

11) Which of the following combination is not a cannabinoids ?

(1) Charas, Ganja

(2) Datura, LSD
(3) Charas, Hashish
(4) Marijuana, Bhang

12) All the following diseases are spread by mosquito except :-

(1) Chikungunya
(2) Dengue
(3) Chicken pox
(4) Filariasis

13) Non specific immunity includes all of these except

(1) Lymphocyte
(2) Macrophage
(3) Interferons
(4) Neutrophils

14) Which type of immunity is responsible for graft rejection ?

(1) Cell mediated immunity

(2) Antibody mediated immunity
(3) Humoral immunity
(4) Innate immunity

15)

Most cancers are treated by combination of:-

(a) Surgery
(b) Radiotherapy
(c) Chemotherapy
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and c

16) Choose the option which is not a cancer :-

(1) Glaucoma
(2) Leukaemia
(3) Sarcoma
(4) Carcinoma

17) Which disease is not infectious -

(1) Diphtheria
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Cancer
(4) Tetanus

18) Which one of the following group is not of infectious diseases ?

(1) Cancer, Allergy, Rheumatoid arthritis

(2) Dysentery, Plaque, Diphtheria
(3) Polio, Pneumonia, Tetanus
(4) Smallpox, Ringworm, Common Cold

19) Which of the following is correct matching?

(A) Wuchereria bancrofti (i) House fly

(B) Common round worm (ii) Female anopheles

(C) Entamoeba histolytica (iii) Female culex

Contaminatted
(D) Plasmodium falciparum (iv)
food & water

A B C D

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) iii iv ii i

(3) iii iv i ii

(4) iii ii iv i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Which of the following statement is false :-

The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the environment
(1)
is called allergy
(2) The use of drugs like anti-histamine, adrenalin and steroids increase the symptoms of allergy.
Some how, modern-day life style has resulted in lowering of immunity and more sensitivity to
(3)
allergens.
(4) Rheumatoid arthritis which affects many people in our society is an auto-immune disease.

21) Read the following four statements (a-d) :-

(a) Injection of dead/inactivated pathogen causes passive immunity.
(b) Antibody molecule has four polypeptide chains.
(c) Streptococcus pneumonia causes intestinal perforation.
(d) Typhoid is caused by salmonella typhi.
How many of the above statement is/are correct.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

22) Which of the following statement is correct for benign tumor ?

(1) It usually spreads to other parts of body

(2) It causes huge damage to the tissues concerned
(3) Normally remain confined to its original location
(4) It is characterised by metastasis

23)

Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II
(A) Typhoid (i) Stool, mucous, blood
(B) Pneumonia (ii) Haemozoin, granules
(C) Common cold (iii) Haemophilus influenzae
(D) Malaria (iv) Salmonella typhi
(E) Amoebiasis (v) Rhino virus
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(ii), E-(i)
(3) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(i)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(v)

24) Which feature of the acquired immunity is the basis of secondary or anamnestic immune
response?

(1) Specificity
(2) Diversity
(3) Discrimination between self and non-self cells
(4) Memory

25) How many of the following organs provide the site for interaction of lymphocytes with the
antigen, which then proliferate to become effector cells ?
Bone marrow, Thymus, Spleen, Lymph nodes, Peyer's patches of small intestine

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

26) Which of the following statement is correct about typhoid ?

(A) It is caused by Salmonella typhi
(B) It could be confirmed by widal test
(C) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases
(D) Mary mallon was a cook by profession and she was a typhoid symmptomatic patient

(1) A, C, D
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) All are correct

27) Choose the incorrect match

(1) Cannabinoids - charas

(2) Carcinogen - Gamma rays
(3) Retrovirus - Reverse transcriptase
(4) Rheumatoid arthritis - Allergy

28)

In given diagram identify (A), (B) and (C)

 (A) – Blood vessels,
(1)
(B) – Tonsils (C) – Lymph nodes
(A) – Lymphatic vessels
(2)
(B) – Bone marrow (C) – Thymus
(A) – Lymph nodes
(3) (B) – Thymus
(C) – Lymphatic vessels
(A) – Payer's patches
(4)
(B) – Spleen (C) – Blood vessels

29) Match the item of column-I with column-II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II
A Morphine i Cannabis sativa
B Nicotine ii Papaver somniferum
C Marijuana iii Erythroxylum coca
D Coca alkaloids iv Nicotiana tobacum
Options :
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

30) Choose the incorrect statement regarding cancer:-

(1) Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases in human beings

(2) Uncontrolled, abnormal & excessive meiotic division of cells
(3) Cancerous cell lost property of contact inhibition
(4) Invasive in nature
31) Select an correct statement regarding the diagram shown below -

(1) Many fungi belonging to 5 genera are responsible for this.

(2) It is not a most common infections disease in man.
Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on some parts of body such as skin, nails and scalp are the
(3)
main symptoms of the disease.
(4) It is a type of bacterial disease

32) Transmission of HIV infection generally does not occurs by –

(1) Sexual contact with infected person

(2) By transfusion of contaminated blood
(3) Mere touch or physical contact
(4) By sharing infected needles

33) Select the pathogen mismatched with the symptoms of disease caused by it from the list given
below:

(1) Entamoeba histolytica : Constipation, abdominal pain.

(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae : Blockage of the intestinal passage.
(3) Wuchereria bancrofti : Chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels of lower limb.
(4) Epidermophyton : Dry scaly lesions on nail.

34) Innate immunity is ____ ____ type of defence, that is present ____ ____ of birth.

(1) A – Specific, B – At the time

(2) A – Specific, B – after
(3) A – Non specific, B – At the time
(4) A – Non- specific, B – after

35) The figure below shows steps A, B & C of replication of retrovirus. Select the option giving
correct identification

(1) B–Incorporation of viral DNA into host genome with Integrase enzyme
(2) C–Production of new viral DNA by infected cell
(3) A–Replication of viral RNA by protease enzyme
(4) C–Viral RNA replication by reverse transcriptase enzyme

36) Bluish colouration of lips and finger nails due to infection in alveoli (lower respiratory tract
infection) may be caused due to :

(1) Haemophilus influenzae

(2) Salmonella typhi
(3) Rhino virus
(4) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

37) Widal test is performed to confirm :-

(1) Malaria
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Jaundice
(4) Typhoid

38) In malaria which factor is responsible for the chill and high fever ?

(1) Sporozoits
(2) Merozoits
(3) Haemozoin
(4) R.B.C

39) Hepatitis B vaccine is produced from :-

(1) Inactive viruses

(2) Yeast
(3) Haemophilus influenzae
(4) Salmonella typhi

40) Match the columns and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A. Pneumonia I. Virus P. Fluid filled alveoli

Infacts nose and

B. Common cold II. Bacteria Q.
respiratory passage

C. Amoebiasis III. Protozoa R. Small intestine

D. Typhoid IV. Helminth S. Large intestine

(1) A-II-Q, B-I-P, C-III-S, D-I-R
(2) A-II-P, B-I-Q, C-IV-R, D-I-S
(3) A-II-P, B-I-Q, C-III-S, D-II-R
(4) A-I-P, B-II-Q, C-IV-R, D-II-S
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 3 2 4 3 3 4 4 2 2 4 3 4 1 2 3 2 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 3 3 3 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 1 3 4 2 2 4 3 1 1 2 4 3 2 3 2 4 2 2
Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 4 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 3 3 2 1 2 2 1 2 3 2 3 1 1 4 1 3 1 3 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 2 4 2 3 4 3 2 2 3 3 2 3 1 1 4 3 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Wavefront → locus drawn on particles vibrating in same phase.

2)

Energy of wave travels in a direction perpendicular to wavefront.

3) Every point on the wavefront becomes a source of secondary wavelets that expand in all
direction with the same speed as the original wave.

4) The new wavefront is formed by the envelope (common tangent) to all the spherical
secondary wavelets.

5)

Conceptual

6)

Energy depends on amplitude

7)

8)

No change in frequency

9)

I = Imax

cos =

ϕ=
 Δx = ϕ= × =

y=

10) [S2P + (µ2 – 1) t2] – (S1P + (µ1 – 1) t1) = nλ = 0

(S2P – S1P) = (µ1 – 1) t1 – (µ2 – 1) t2

= (2µ – 1) t – (µ – 1)2t
= –t + 2t = t
d sin θ = t
d tan θ = t

11)

Distance between first and

sixth minima =

⇒ a = 2.5 mm

12) (µ2 – µ1)t = 3λ

13)

Explain the Question : We need to draw the graph of intensity vs angle θ.

Concept : This question is based on polarization.
Solution :

=
Final answer : 3
14)

Explain the Question : We need to find the angle of incidence and angle of refraction.
Concept : This question is based on polarization (Brewster's law).
Solution :
It is given that reflected beam is completely polarized i.e. the incident angle equals to
Brewster angle
tan ip = μ
ip = tan–1 (μ)

ip = tan–1
ip = 60°
From Snell's law 1× sin60° =

Final answer : option (4)

15)
Path difference at P be Δx

{y is the distance of central maxima from geometric center}

∴ Central bright fringe spot will shift by ‘x’

Number of shift =

= 10 Ans

16)

Theoretical

17)
Optical path diff. due to S1 is = t1 (μ1 –1)

Optical path diff due to S2 is

Path diff at point

Optical path is conserved by S1 is more so bring will shift at upper side.

18)

Explain Question : To angle the statement I and statement II and check if both are correct or
not.

Concept : This question is based on Brewster's law.

Solution : air is to glass → θB

angle between reflected and refracted ray = 90°

θB + 90 + r = 180°
r = 90 – θB
tan θB = μga
For glass to air sin (r) × μg = μa × sin θB
sin r × μg = μa × sin (90 – r)

cot r =
Final Answer : Option (2)

19)

Polarised intensity = Ip
Unpolarised intensity = Iu
 ⇒

20)

I2 =

21) d sin θ = λ

sin θ = ≤1

n ≤ 4·5
∴ n = 1, 2, 3, 4
∴ Total min = 2(4) = 8

22)

Time taken by wave in air to travel distance

t=
During same time distance travelled in medium.
 d = tv so

23)

Δ = (μ – 1)t

As μ varies path difference change from nλ to (2r – 1) , so due to constructive & destructive
interference the intensity varies from maximum to minimum.

24) 2λcosθ = λ

θ = 60°

25) For point C, without slab path difference is 0

In presence of slab path difference is (μ – 1) · d for point C

for minimum intensity path difference should be (2n – 1)

so (μ – 1) d =

⇒d=
for minimum intensity n = 1

So δmin =

CHEMISTRY

26)

Theoretical
27)
D & F are functional isomers.

28)

Electrophilic substitution reaction

29)

30)

Theoretical

31) NCERT XII / part II / pg.# 393

32)

33)
 Theoretical

34)

35) H-bonding increases boiling point of 1° amines

36) Question Explanation :

The question asks to correctly match the amine compounds in Column-I with their
corresponding pKb values in Column-II.

Concept :
Basicity of Amines, pKb, I Effect, M Effect

Solution :
The basicity order is:
Ethanamine > Phenylmethanamine > N,N-dimethylaniline > Benzenamine.
Therefore, the pKb order is the reverse: Benzenamine (highest pKb) > N,N-dimethylaniline >
Phenylmethanamine > Ethanamine (lowest pKb).

Column-I (Compound) Match pKb value

(A) Benzenamine p (9.38)
(B) Phenylmethanamine q (4.70)
(C) Ethanamine r (3.29)
(D) N,N-dimethylaniline s (8.92)

Final Answer :
Option (1)
37)

38)

39)

40)

E.S.R. of phenol

41) Voilet colour solution.

42)

Explain Question: What is A, B & C respectively.

Concept: SN1 , SN2mechanism and reduction.
Solution:
Final answer: option (2)

43)

Explain question :- Complete the following reaction sequence and find product ?
Concept: This question is based on Diazotisation, substitution reaction and ozonolysis
Solution:

Final Answer: (4)

44)

45)

Memory based

46)
Explain Question : Identify the major product formed when NH2–C(CH3)2–C(OH)(CH3)2 reacts
with NaNO2 and HCl.
Concept : This question is based on diazotization Reaction, Elimination Reaction, Carbocation
Rearrangement.
Solution :

Final answer : Option (3)

47)

Explain Question : Identify compound D formed from the reaction sequence starting with
CH3COOH.
Concept : This question is based on Acyl chloride formation, Amide formation, Hoffmann
bromamide reaction, Nucleophilic substitution.
Acylation, Hoffmann bromamide reaction, Nucleophilic substitution.
Solution :

Final answer : Option (2)

48)

Explain question :The question asks to identify which of the given compounds will produce a
primary amine upon reduction.
Concept : This question is based on Reduction, Amines, Amides, Nitriles, Nitro Compounds,
Isocyanides
Solution :
Let's analyze the reduction product of each compound:
● (a) Acetamide (CH3CONH₂): Amides are reduced by strong reducing agents like LiAlH4 to
form primary amines with the same number of carbon atoms.

● (b) Acetonitrile (CH3C≡N): Nitriles (cyanides) are reduced by agents like H₂/Ni,
Na(Hg)/C2H5OH, or LiAlH4 to form primary amines.
 ● (c) Nitroethane (CH3CH2NO2): Nitroalkanes are reduced by agents like H2/Pd, Sn/HCl, or
Fe/HCl to form primary amines.

● (d) Methyl isocyanide (CH3N≡C): Isocyanides are reduced by catalytic hydrogenation (e.g.,
H2/Pt) to form secondary amines.

Therefore, compounds (a), (b), and (c) all give primary amines as their reduction products.
Final Answer: option (4)

49) Explanation Question:

Find the major product (P) in the given reaction sequence?
Concept:
This question is based on Electrophilic Aromatic substitution (Nitration)
Reduction, Acylation, NSR
Solution:

Final Answer: (3)

50) (i) CH3NH2+CHCl3+KOH CH3NC

(ii) CH3CONH2+Br2+KOH → CH3–NH2
(iii) CH3–CH2NH2+NaNO2 + HCl → CH3–CH2–OH
(iv) CH3NC+4H CH3–NHCH3

BIOLOGY

51)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 144

52)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 135

53)
NCERT XII, Pg. # 143

54)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 136

55)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 132

56)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 131,132,133

57)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 143,144

58)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 134

59)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 130

60)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 138

61)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 143

62)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 131,132

63)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 134

64)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 135

65)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 142

66)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 141

67)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 130

68)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 130

69)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 132,133

70) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 153 (E)

71) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 146 (E)

72) NCERT Pg. # 157 (E)

73) NCERT Pg. # 146,147,148

74) NCERT Pg. # 151

75) NCERT Pg. # 154

76) NCERT Pg. # 147 (E)

77) NCERT, 12th, Page no. 153, 155, 157 & 159

78) NCERT XII Pg. # 154 (E), 166(H), figure 8.5

79)

Asking About: Matching the items in Column-I (drugs) with their sources in Column-II
(plants).
 Concept: This question tests knowledge of the sources of various drugs and alkaloids.

A. Morphine: An opiate alkaloid extracted from the opium poppy.

B. Nicotine: A stimulant alkaloid found in the tobacco plant.

C. Marijuana: A psychoactive drug derived from the cannabis plant.

D. Coca alkaloids (Cocaine): Stimulants extracted from the coca plant.

Solution:

A. A (Morphine) matches with ii (Papaver somniferum).

B. B (Nicotine) matches with iv (Nicotiana tabacum).

C. C (Marijuana) matches with i (Cannabis sativa).

D. D (Coca alkaloids) matches with iii (Erythroxylum coca).

Final answer: 2. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

80)

Explain Question : Choose the incorrect statement regarding cancer?

Concept : CANCER

Solution : Option 2 is -Uncontrolled, abnormal & excessive meiotic division of cells-

INCORRECT because cancerous cells have mitotic division
Final answer : 2

81)

NCERT XII Pg # 133 (E), 146 (H)

82)

Explain Question : Transmission of HIV infection generally does not occurs by.

Concept : This question is based on AIDS.

Solution : Transmission of HIV infection generally does not occurs by mere touch or physical
contact.
Final Answer : option (3)

83) :
Streptococcus pneumoniae : Blockage of the intestinal passage

84) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 150

85)

NCERT-XII, Page No. # 155

86) NCERT Page # 147 (E)

87) NCERT-XII, Pg#146, last line

88) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 147, Para–8.1

89)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 136

90) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 130, 131, 132, 133