26-07-2026

1752CMD303034260003 MD

PHYSICS

1) Which of the following sets of concurrent forces may be in equilibrium?

(1) F1 = 3 N, F2 = 1N, F3 = 5N
(2) F1 = 3 N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 9N
(3) F1 = 3 N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 6N
(4) F1 = 3 N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 15N

2) Given and which of the following is correct :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) are antiparallel

3) An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius R in 40 second. What will be his
displacement at the end of 2 minute 20 second ?

(1) Zero
(2) 2 R
(3) 2πR
(4) 7πR

4) If the distance covered is zero, the displacement :

(1) must be zero

(2) may or may not be zero
(3) cannot be zero
(4) depends upon the particle

5) At what angle must the two forces (X + Y) and (X – Y) act so that the resultant may be ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

6) Two forces, each equal to F, act as shown in figure. Their resultant is:

(1) F/2
(2) F
(3)
(4)

7) If

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Two vectors of equal magnitudes have a resultant equal to either of them, then the angle between
them will be :

0
(1) 30
0
(2) 120
0
(3) 60
0
(4) 100

9) A vector points vertically upward and points towards north. The vector product × is :–

(1) Null vector

(2) Along west
(3) Along east
(4) Vertically downward

10) If a particle moves from point P (2, 3, 5) to point Q (3,4,5). Its displacement vector be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) The vectors and are such that . The angle between vectors and is :-

(1) 90°
(2) 60°
(3) 75°
(4) 45°

12)

A particle moves from A to B along a nonlinear path. Then correct option is

(l - distance covered, s - displacement)

(1) l = s
(2) l < s
(3) l ≥ s
(4) l > s

13) If , then the value of is:

(1)

(2) A + B
(3)
(4)

14) A vector is not changed if

(1) It is displaced parallel to itself

(2) It is multiplied by an arbitrary scalar
(3) It is cross multiplied by a unit vector
(4) It is rotated through an arbitrary angle

15) The angle between the two VECTORS and will be :-

(1) zero
(2) 45°
(3) 90°
(4) 180°

16) The magnitude of a vector cannot be:

(1) Positive
(2) Unity
(3) Negative
(4) Zero

17) The angles which the vector , makes with X, Y and Z-axes are respectively

(1) 45°, 90°, 45°

(2) 90°, 45°, 45°
(3) 90°, 90°, 45°
(4) 45°, 45°, 90°

18)

The numerical ratio of displacement to the distance covered is always :-

(1) Less than one

(2) Equal to one
(3) Equal to or less than one
(4) Equal to or greater than one

19)

If , then the value of is

(1) P2 + Q2 + 2PQ
(2) P2 + Q2 – 2PQ
(3) P + Q
(4) P – Q

20) Vector makes angle with the X, Y and Z axes respectively, then

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

21) The location (position) vector of the point (1, -2, 5) will be :
(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Which of the following pair of forces can give a resultant force of 2 N ?

(1) 1 N and 2 N
(2) 1 N and 5 N
(3) 2 N and 5 N
(4) 1 N and 4 N

23) Two vectors and are perpendicular to each other. The value of
'P' is:-

(1) 3
(2)
(3)
(4) 2

24) If and are non-zero unit vectors then will be

(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) –1
(4) 2

25) The scalar product of two vectors is and the magnitude of their vector product is 10. The
angle between them is….

0
(1) 30
0
(2) 45
0
(3) 60
0
(4) 90

26) What is the angle between the vectors and

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 180°
(4) 90°
27) If the position of a particle is unchanged. What can we say about the displacement and distance
covered by the particle :-

(1) Both must not be zero

(2) Both must be zero
(3) Distance may be non-zero but displacement must be zero
(4) Distance must be zero but displacement may be non-zero

28) The value of λ in the unit vector is

(1)
(2)
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.4

29) A particle starts from origin & moves towards positive y-axis to the point (0, 20m) & return back
to the point (0, 5m). The ratio of distance travelled to the magnitude of displacement is :-

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 7 : 1
(4) 1 : 7

30) For the given figure :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) A vector perpendicular to may be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) A monkey moves 3m east, 4m north and then climbs a pole of 12m length, then the minimum
distance between initial and final locations of monkey is :-

(1) 19 m
(2) 13 m
(3) 17 m
(4) 5 m

33) A man goes 10 m towards North, then 20 m towards East, then displacement is :-

(1) 22.5 m
(2) 25 m
(3) 25.5 m
(4) 30 m

34) The minimum number of vectors having different planes which can be added to give zero
resultant is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

35) If is perpendicular to then

(1) a = 2b
(2) a = b
(3) a = –b
(4) 2a = b

36) A particle moves 30 metre due west then 20 metre due south, then 20 metre due east. Find out
displacement :-

(1)
(2)
(3) 10 m
(4) 20 m

37) The unit vector along is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) all of these

38) The direction cosines of a vector are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Which one of the following is not the vector quantity?

(1) Torque
(2) Displacement
(3) Velocity
(4) Speed

40)

If unit vectors are inclined at an angle θ, then is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) tan θ

41) The resultant of A and B makes an angle a with A and b with B :

(1) a < b if A > B

(2) a < b if A < B
(3) a = b if A < B
(4) a < b if A = B

42) If and are vectors, the correct statement relating to these is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

43) The sum of two forces acting at a point is 16 N. If the resultant force is 8 N and its direction is
perpendicular to minimum force, then the force are :

(1) 6 N and 10 N
(2) 8 N and 8 N
(3) 4 N and 12 N
(4) 2 N and 14 N

44) The angle makes by with y-axis is 37°. Find the value of α.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) Given that and . What is the angle between and ?

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 180°

CHEMISTRY

1) Given Rydberg constant R = 105 cm–1. Supposing if the electron jumps from M–shell to K–shell in a
H-atom, then the frequency of the radiation emitted would be:-

(1) 819 × 105

(2)
× 1015

(3)
× 105

(4)
× 1015

2) Rutherford's α-particle scattering experiment is related to size of the :-

(1) Nucleus
(2) Proton
(3) Neutron
(4) Electron

3) The frequency of a green light is 6 × 1014 [Link] wavelength is :

(1) 500 nm
(2) 5 nm
(3) 50,000 nm
(4) None of these
4) If anion X–2 has 15 electrons then how many e will be in X+3 :-

(1) 16
(2) 13
(3) 10
(4) 12

5) Two particles A and B are in motion. If the wavelength associated with the particle A is 5.0 × 10–8
m, the wavelength of particle B having momentum half of A is :-

(1) 2.5 × 10–8m

(2) 1.25 × 10–8m
(3) 1.0 × 10–7m
(4) 1.0 × 10–8m

6) The frequency of light emitted for the transition n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ is equal to the transition in
H–atom corresponding to which of the following?

(1) n = 3 to n = 2
(2) n = 4 to n = 3
(3) n = 3 to n = 1
(4) n = 2 to n = 1

7) Which of the following does not represent the mathematical expression for the Heisenberg
uncertainty principle :-

(1)
Δx.Δp >

(2)

(3)
ΔE.Δt >
ΔE.Δx >
(4)

8) Which graph shows how the energy E of a photon of light is related to its wavelengths (λ)?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) In an atom 13Al27. number of protons is (a), electron is (b) and neutron is (c). Hence ratio will
be [in order c : b : a]

(1) 13 : 14 : 13
(2) 13 : 13 : 14
(3) 14 : 13 : 13
(4) 14 : 13 : 14

10) Given that the mass of electron is 9.1 × 10–31 kg and velocity of electron is 2.2 × 106 ms–1. If the
uncertainty in its velocity is 0.1%, the uncertainty in position would be :-

(1) 26 nm
(2) 32 nm
(3) 48 nm
(4) 50 nm

11)

En = -313.6/n2. If the value of En = -34.84 then to which of the following value does "n" correspond:

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Assuming nuclei and atoms to be spherical, their radii are known to be of the order of 10–13 cm
and 10–8 cm respectively. The ratio of volume of nucleus to atomic volume would be :-
(1) 10–14
(2) 10–15
(3) 10–16
(4) 10–17

13) If the emission starts from 4th orbit then number of lines in ultra violet and infra red region are :-

(1) 3,1
(2) 2,1
(3) 6,2
(4) 1,2

14) Electronic transition in He+ ion takes from n2 to n1 shell such that :
2n2 + 3n1 = 18
2n2 – 3n1 = 6
What will be the total number of photons emitted when electrons transit to n1 shell?

(1) 21
(2) 15
(3) 20
(4) 10

15) According to Rutherford's model which is incorrect :-

(1) Nucleus is small in comparision of atom

(2) Positive charge is concentrated on nucleus
(3) Electron revolve around the nucleus in closed circular path
(4) Total positive charge and mass is uniformly distributed throughout the atom.

16) An electron of energy 10.8 eV is incident on an H-atom then :-

(1) The electron will come out with 10.8 eV energy.

(2) The electron will be completely absorbed
10.2 eV. of the electron would be absorbed by H atom and it would come out with 0.6 eV
(3)
energy.
(4) Can't be predicted

17) Species which are isoelectronic to one another are

(a) CN– (b) OH– (c) CH3+
(d) N2 (e) CO

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, d, e
(4) b, c, d
18) What is the Ist separation energy (in eV) for Be3+ ?

(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 27.2 eV
(3) 40.8 eV
(4) 54.4 eV

19) A 100 watt bulb emits light of λ = 400 Å, the number of photons/sec emitted by the bulb will be -

(1) 5 × 1016
(2) 2 × 1019
(3) 20 × 1029
(4) 5 × 1015

20) Radius ratio of first orbit of would be -

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 1

21) The spectrum of He is similar to :-

(1) Na
(2) H
(3) Li+
(4) He+

22) Consider the following statements:

(I) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is quantised.
(II) The electron in the orbit nearest the nucleus has the lowest energy.
(III) Electron revolves in different orbits around the nucleus.
(IV) The position and velocity of the electrons in the orbit cannot be determined simultaneously.
Which of the above are parts of Bohr's theory?

(1) I & II only

(2) I, II, IV only
(3) II & III only
(4) I, II & III only

23) If mass of electron is doubled, mass of neutron is halved, mass of proton is same. Then atomic
mass of 168O would:-

(1) Increased by 25%

(2) Increased by 50%
(3) Reduced by 25%
(4) Reduced by 50%

24) The energy of a photon having wavelength equal to 200 picometre ?

(1) 2 × 10–30 J
(2) 2 × 10–15 J
(3) 10–15 J
(4) 10–25 J

25) A photon of energy 8 eV is incident on a metal surface of threshold frequency 1.6 × 1015 Hz. The
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted is -
(Take h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s; 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J)

(1) 1.4 eV
(2) 0.8 eV
(3) 4.2 eV
(4) 2.8 eV

26) In H-atom when electron transit from 7th orbit to 2nd orbit than number of total spectral lines in
emission spectrum are :

(1) 15
(2) 10
(3) 6
(4) 21

27) Which of the following relations is true for the energies of two radiations one with a wanelength
of 6000Å and other with 2000Å :-

(1) E1 = 3E2
(2) E1 = E2
(3) E2 = 3E1
(4) None of these

28) The ratio of the energy of the electron in ground state of hydrogen to the electron in first excited
state of Be3+ is :-

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 : 8
(3) 1 : 16
(4) 16 : 1

29) The work function of metal is 1 eV. Light of wavelength 3000Å is incident on this metal surface.
The maximum velocity of emitted photo-electrons will be :-

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 1 × 103 m/s
(3) 1 × 104 m/s
(4) 1 × 106 m/s

30) The radius of 2nd Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is r2. The radius of third Bohr orbit will be :-

(1)

(2) 4r2

(3)

(4) 9r2

31)

Find the ratio of radius of first and second orbit of He+ ion ?

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

32) For which species bohr atomic model is valid

(1) H+
(2) He
(3) Li+
(4) He+

33) The velocity of electron in the 2nd orbit of H-atom is V cm/sec. Its velocity in 5th Bohr's orbit
would be

(1) 5 × V cm/sec

(2)
V× cm/sec

(3)

(4)

34)

The shortest wavelength of He+ atom in Balmer series is x, then longest wavelength in the Paschen
series of Li+2 is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Bohr radius of nth orbit of an atom is given by the expression K = 1 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) When an electron jumps from 'L' level to 'M' level there occurs ?

(1) Emission of energy

(2) Absorption of energy
(3) Emission of γ rays
(4) Emission of X rays

37) The element having no neutron in the nucleus of its atom is :-

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Nitrogen
(3) Helium
(4) Boron

38) The radius of nucleus of an element is if its nucleus has 62 proton and 63 neutron :-

1/3
(1) Ro (125)
1/3
(2) Ro(63)
1/3
(3) Ro(62)
1/3
(4) Ro(62 × 63)

39) The ratio of time periods (T1/T2) in second orbit of hydrogen to third orbit of He+ ion is :-

(1) 8/27
(2) 32/27
(3) 27/32
(4) 24/36

40) If number of electrons present in x+3 is 16, then number of protons in x will be
(1) 16
(2) 13
(3) 18
(4) 19

41) Given :

What is the abundance of M50 :-

(1) 15%
(2) 45%
(3) 75%
(4) 85%

42) If 'λ' is wavelength of electron in second orbit of H-atom the radius of orbit is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The difference in angular momentum associated with the electron in two successive orbits of
hydrogen atom is :

(1) h/π
(2) h/ 2π
(3) h/2
(4) (n – 1)h/ 2π

44) The charge on the atom containing 17 protons, 18 neutrons and 18 electrons is :-

(1) +1
(2) -2
(3) -1
(4) Zero

45)

For below transitions in hydrogen like atoms, select the correct relations
(1) v3 = v1 + v2

(2)

(3)
(4) None of these

BIOLOGY

1) Bacterium with flagella all over its body, is called :-

(1) Amphitrichous
(2) Monotrichous
(3) Lophotrichous
(4) Peritrichous

2) Nostoc & Anaebena can fix atmopheric nitrogen in specialised cells called :-

(1) Hormocyst
(2) Heterocyst
(3) Conidium
(4) Endospore

3) Archaebacteria found in marshy place are :

(1) Anaerobic
(2) Aerobic
(3) Parasite
(4) Autotroph

4) Storage food in Euglena is :-

(1) Starch
(2) Leucosin and fat
(3) Glycogen
(4) Paramylum and fat

5) Plasmid is a :

(1) Small extra chromosomal ds DNA

(2) Bacteriophage
(3) DNA found in mitochondria
(4) DNA found in bacterial chromosome

6) Consider the following statements about Ascomycetes.

I. They are saprophytic, decomposer, coprophilous and parasitic.
II. Include unicellular and multicellular forms.
III. Mycelium is coenocytic and aseptate.
IV. Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora are important examples of Ascomycetes.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are false?

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) I and III

7) The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in production of
antibiotics are the ones categorized as

(1) Chemosynthetic autotrophs

(2) Heterotrophic bacteria
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Archaebacteria

8) Which of the following are not considered in five kingdom system of classification ?

(1) Lichen
(2) Virus
(3) Viroid
(4) All the above

9) Which one of the following is not a plant like protist -

(1) Desmid
(2) Dinoflagellate
(3) Diatom
(4) Slime mould

10) Which of the following is incorrect for given organism?

(1) Found in stagnant fresh water

(2) Have a lipid rich layer pellicle
(3) Have two flagella
(4) Flexible body
11) Select a correct statement :-

(1) All bacteria are photoautotrophic

(2) Euglenoids do not have cell wall
(3) Dinoflagellates are not motile
(4) Diatoms are prokaryotic algae

12) Bacterial cell wall is composed of :-

(1) Cellulose
(2) Chitin
(3) Peptidoglycan
(4) Proteins

13) Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall,
pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen ?

(1) Pseudomonas
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Nostoc
(4) Bacillus

14) The major modes of nutrition of kingdom viz. Animalia, Fungi and Plantae, respectively are :-

(1) Autotroph, Chemotroph & Holozoic

(2) Phototroph, Saprotroph & Holophytic
(3) Holozoic, Osmotrophic, Holophytic
(4) Osmotrophic, Holozoic & Holophytic

15)

Match the organisms in column-I with habitats in column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Halophiles (i) Hot springs

(b) Thermoacidophiles (ii) Aquatic environment

(c) Methanogens (iii) Guts of ruminants

(d) Cyanobacteria (iv) Salty area

Select the correct answer from the options given below :-
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

16) Asexual spores are generally absent in–

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Deuteromycetes
(4) Phycomycetes

17) Find out the correct match from the following table :

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Monera Eukaryotes Producer

(ii) Protista Unicellular Decomposer

Unicellular
(iii) Fungi Decomposer
prokaryotes

(iv) Plantae Multicellular Producer

(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

18) According to five kingdom system of classification Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Euglena, Amoeba
and paramoecium are placed in which kingdom?

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia

19) Which of the following is not a part of cell envelope ?

(1) Cell wall

(2) Glycocalyx
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Nucleoid

20) Which structure of prokaryotes is analogous to mitochondria ?

(1) Periplasmic space

(2) Genophore
(3) Mesosome
(4) Perinuclear space

21) Example of protein rich spiral cyanobacteria is :-

(1) Spirogyra
(2) Spirullina
(3) Volvox
(4) Euglena

22) Under favourable conditions slime moulds form:-

(1) protonema
(2) Plasmodium
(3) mycelium
(4) fruiting bodies

23) According to five kingdom classification of R.H. Whittaker, producer are placed in.

(1) Monera, Protista, Plantae

(2) Only lower plants
(3) Protista and plantae only
(4) Only higher plants

24) Which of the following bacteria used in Gobar gas fermenter ?

(1) Barophilic
(2) Halophiles
(3) Thermoacidophiles
(4) Methanogens

25) In given diagram (A), (B), (C) and (D) represents :-

A B C D

(1) Cocci Bacilli Vibrio Spirilla

(2) Cocci Bacilli Spirilla Vibrio

(3) Cocci Spirilla Bacilli Vibrio

(4) Cocci Vibrio Spirilla Bacilli

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Match the column and choose wrongly matched.

 Column I Column II

(1) Slime moulds Saprophytic

(2) Euglenoids Marine water

(3) Diatoms Photosynthetic

(4) Desmids Golden algae

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Which of the following is not a feature of Nucleoid :-

(1) Absence of nuclear membrane

(2) Single, circular DNA
(3) DNA without Histon
(4) Single stranded DNA

28) Archaebacteria can survive in extreme harsh habitats due to presence of :-

(1) Complex cell membrane

(2) DNA with core histone
(3) Capsule
(4) Slime layer

29) Silica gel (Keieselghur)/Diatomite/Diatpmaceous earth is obtained by :

(1) diatoms
(2) dinoflagellates
(3) euglenoids
(4) brown algae.

30) Which of the following are true about Euglena ?

(1) It is free living fresh water organism and found in stagnant water
(2) It is unicellular
(3) It has two-flagella, one eye-spot and one contractile vacuole
(4) All the above

31) Choose the incorrect statement regarding blue green algae :

(1) First photosynthetic prokaryotes

(2) First oxygenic photosynthetic prokaryotes
(3) They do not produce flagellated structure
(4) Structure of BGA is similar to gram (–ve) bacteria
32) Yeast (unicellular fungi) belongs to :-

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

33) Which of the following character is not used by Whittaker in his five kingdom classification?

(1) Phylogeny
(2) Body organisation
(3) Mode of asexual reproduction
(4) Mode of nutrition

34) Maximum Nutritional diversity is found in-

(1) Fungi
(2) Plantae
(3) Monera
(4) Animalia

35) Protista kingdom is a group of:

(1) Unicellular eukaryotes only

(2) Unicellular prokaryotes only
(3) Multicellular and unicellular eukaryotes both
(4) Unicellular eukaryotes and unicellular prokaryotes both

36) Which of the following bacteria causes typhoid:-

(1) [Link]
(2) Salmonella typhi
(3) Mycobacterium
(4) Microbacterium

37) Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below -

Column-I Column-II

i. Chrysophytes a. Paramoecium

ii. Dinoflagellates b. Euglena

iii. Euglenoids c. Gonyaulax

iv. Protozoans d. Diatoms

(1) i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv - d
(2) i - a, ii - d, iii - c, iv - b
(3) i - d, ii - b, iii - c, iv - a
(4) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a

38) In which of the following fungal group clamp connection is used to change monokaryotic
mycelium to dikaryotic mycelium ?

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

39) Choose the correct statement.

(1) Bacterial flagella is made up of basal body, hook and filament

(2) Single protective unit of bacteria is made up of only cell wall
(3) Pili are longer than flagella
(4) A plasmid always attached with genophore

40) Which of the followings is not a function of mesosome ?

(1) Help in DNA replication

(2) Help in cell wall synthesis
(3) ATP synthesis
(4) Storage of food

41) Thermoacidophiles belong to :-

(1) Eubacteria
(2) Chrysophyte
(3) Archaebacteria
(4) Dinoflagellates

42) Kingdom monera includes:-

(1) Multicellular animals

(2) Multicellular plants
(3) Unicellular eukaryotic living beings
(4) Cyanobacteria and mycoplasma

43) The majority of bacteria are important :-

(1) Producers
(2) Decomposers
(3) Consumers
(4) Methanogens
44) Bacteria reproduce mainly by :-

(1) Fission
(2) Fragmentation
(3) Budding
(4) Spore

45) The Cyanobacteria are also referred to as :-

(1) Protists
(2) Slime moulds
(3) Green algae
(4) Blue Green Algae

46) A student brought home a strange animal which he found outside under a rock. It had moist
skin, a complete digestive tract, a ventral nerve cord, and have metameric segments. Identify the
phylum of the animal.

(1) Porifera
(2) Annelida
(3) Mollusca
(4) Echinodermata

47) Identify the likely animals (a), (b), (c) and (d) in the given representation of classification :-

Options:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1 Pleurobranchia Fasciola Dentalium Echinus

2 Physalia Taenia Snail Ophiura

3 Pleurobranchia Obelia Dentalium Asterias

4 Ctenoplana Obelia Aplysia Dentalium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Find out the mismatched pair:

(1) Operculum → Scoliodon
(2) Parapodia → Nereis
(3) Comb plates → Ctenoplana
(4) Choanocytes → Spongilla

49) The figure shows two animals A and B selct the correct answer w.r.t. common characteristics of
these two animals.

(A) (B)

(1) Both are triploblastc, metamerically segmented and coelomats

(2) In both fertilization is internal and development is through many larva stages
(3) In both sexes are not separate
(4) Both are triploblastic and bilaterally symmetrical

50) Oxygen (O2) is utilized by the organisms to __________ break down nutrient molecules like glucose
and to derive energy for performing various activities.

(1) Directly
(2) Indirectly
(3) Incompletely
(4) Any of these

51) Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the _____.

(1) End of thoracic cavity

(2) Mid of thoracic cavity
(3) End of the neck
(4) Middle of the neck

52) Assertion (A): Locusts are considered a gregarious pest.

Reason (R): They are solitary and do not form swarms that destroy crops.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

53) Mechanism of breathing vary among different groups of animals depending mainly on, -

(1) Habitats
(2) Levels of organisation
(3) Both 1 & 2
(4) Mode of nutrition.

54) Identify the incorrect statement regarding the class of given organism

(1) Tympanum represents ear

(2) Fertilisation is internal
(3) Three chambered heart is found in all members
(4) Despite being tetrapods, limbs may not be present in every member of this class

55) Read the following statements A-D :-

(A) Members are worm like and marine
(B) Body divided into proboscis, collar and trunk
(C) Respiration by gills
(D) Flame cells are excretory organs
How many statements are incorrect for Balanoglossus

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

56) Statement-I : Snake and lizards shed their scales as skin cast.
Statement-II : Reptiles are oviparous and development is indirect.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

57) How many animals in the list given below have radial symmetry :
Obelia, Sponge, Aurelia, Pleurobranchia, Fasciola, Ascaris, Earthworm, Pila, star fish.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Four

58) Mark the option with correct combination of the characterstics and the group of animals
possessing them ?

(1) Water vascular system-Sycon, Spongilla, Euspongia

(2) Chidocytes for defense-Physalia, Gorgonia, Pleurobranchia
(3) Flame cells for excretion-Planaria, Taenia, Ascaris
(4) Metameric segmentation-Rana tigrina, Periplaneta, Pheretima

59) Statement-I : Coelenterates, ctenophores & echinodermates show radial symmetry.

Statement-II : In closed type circulation blood is circulated through a series of vessels of same
diameters.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

60) Which is incorrect for Balaenoptera–

(1) Internal fertilization

(2) Mammary glands
(3) Viviparous
(4) Respiration by gills

61) Assertion:- In Cockroaches, Blood do not play a role in exchange of gases

Reason:- Cockroaches do not have a respiratory pigment

(1) Both statements are true, and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion
(2) Both statements are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
(3) The assertion is true, but the reason is false
(4) The assertion is false, but the reason is true

62) Match the following and mark the correct options:

Column-I Column-II
(Animal) (Respiratory organ)

A. Earthworm i. Moist cuticle

B. Arthropods ii. Gills

C. Fishes iii. Lungs

D. Birds/Reptiles iv. Trachea

(1) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
(2) A - i, B - iv, C - ii, D - iii
(3) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv
(4) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii

63) Which of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising Glucose to CO2
aerobically?

(1) Giver-cell
(2) RBC
(3) WBC
(4) Smooth muscle cell

64) Examine the figures A,B,C and D. In which one of four options all the items A,B,C and D are
correct?

A-Petromyzon, B-Scoliodon,
(1) C-Pristis, D-Catla

A-Scoliodon, B-Pristis,
(2) C-Hippocampus, D-Catla

A-Scoliodon, B-Pristis,
(3) C-Hippocampus, D-Trygon

A-Scoliodon, B-Pristis,
(4) C-Hippocampus, D-Torpedo
65)
Which of the following is not correct for the animal shown in the above diagram:-

(1) Reproduction takes place by both asexual as well as sexual methods.

(2) Bioluminiscence is well marked
(3) Body has comb plates for locomotion
(4) Diploblastic organism with tissue level of organisation

66) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : In Cephalochordata, notochord is present from head to tail region throughout their
life.
Statement II : Urochordates bear vertebral columns only in the tail region throughout the life.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.

67) Which one of the following is not the function of Cnidoblast ?

(1) Anchorage
(2) Defense
(3) Reproduction
(4) Capture of Prey

68) Which among the following does not help in the locomotion of aquatic annelids?
(1) Circular muscles
(2) Parapodia
(3) Nephridia
(4) Longitudinal muscles

69) In the given table which animale is correctly matched with its character in column-II and its
class in column-III ?

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A bony fish cultivated

in aquarium.
(1) Clarias Osterichthyes
Oviparous with
indirect development

Body divided into

head and trunk.
Rana
(2) Respiration by gills in Amphibia
tigrina
adult, skin is soft,
scaless

Terrestrial animal;
Body is covered with
(3) Crocodilus Reptilia
cornified scales. Four
chambered heart

Pouched animal. Body

covered with hair.
(4) Macropus Mammalia
External ear and post
anal tail present
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

70) In which of the following, gaseous exchange between O2 and CO2 occurs through the entire
body surface?

(1) Sponges
(2) Flatworms
(3) Coelenterates
(4) All of these

71) Read the following statements and find out the true (T) or false (F) statement :-
(A)Vertebral column in the vertebrates is always bony.
(B) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
(C) All chordates possess paired appendages may be fins or limbs.
(D)In all chordates pharynx perforated by gill slits.
Options :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

 (1) F T T T

(2) F T F T

(3) T T F F

(3) T T F T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the lungs takes places by

(1) passive transport

(2) active transport
(3) osmosis
(4) simple diffusion

73) The unique mammalian characteristics are :-

(1) Hairs, pinna and mammary gland

(2) Hairs, pinna and indirect development
(3) Pinna, monocondytic skull and mammary glands
(4) Hairs, tympanic membrane and mammary gland

74) Notochord is a ____A____ derived rod like structure formed on ____B____ during ambryonic
development in some animals.
Find out correct answer about A and B.

(1) A-Ectodermally, B-Ventral side

(2) A-Endoermally, B-Dorsal side
(3) A-Mesodermally, B-lateral side
(4) A-Mesodermally, B-Dorsal side

75) Tongue worm belong to phylum

(1) Arthropoda
(2) Porifera
(3) Hemichordata
(4) Cnideria

76) In the given list, how many animals have notochord but have no vertebral column.
Hag fish, Sea lancelet, Sea horse, Salpa, Lamprey, Ascidia, Earthworm, Hemidactyles.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

77) (a) Fertilization ______.

(b) Development ______.
(c) Excretion and osmoregulation by ______.
Fill in the blanks for organism given in the figure.

(1) Internal, direct, proboscis gland

(2) Internal, indirect, flame cells
(3) External, direct, nephridia
(4) External, indirect, protonephridia

78) Choose the wrong statements with respect to Aves.

I. Birds are ammonotelic.
II. Fertilisation in birds is internal and females are oviparous.
III. Digestive tract has additional chambers and animals are homeothermous.
IV. Birds are unisexual.

(1) Only I
(2) I and II
(3) I, II and III
(4) II, III and IV

79) How many among following are able to maintain constant body temperature and can fly?

Pteropus, Neophron, Columba,

Struthio, Pavo, Macaca
(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

80) Which of the following is not a characteristic of all chordates?

(1) Presence of a notochord
(2) Bilateral symmetry
(3) Complete digestive system
(4) Scales

81) Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while
swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of :-

(1) Epiglottis
(2) Diaphragm
(3) Neck
(4) Tongue

82) Arrange the steps of respiration in correct sequence :-

(a) Transport of gases by the blood.
(b) Diffusion of gases between blood and tissue.
(c) Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released
out.
(d) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane.
(e) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reaction.

(1) c b a d e
(2) c e a d b
(3) c d a b e
(4) c a d b e

83) Which of the following options is wrong w.r.t. to Ascidia ?

(1) Present exclusively in marine water

(2) It is a urochordate and notochord is present only in larval tail
(3) It is a vertebrate because it has a notochord
(4) It is a protochordate

84) Similarity between protochordata and hemichordata is :

(1) Presence of notochord

(2) Exclusively marine
(3) Dorsal, hollow and single central nervous system
(4) Exclusively parasitic

85) Choose the incorrect statement.

Sensory organs like antennae, eyes (compound and simple), statocysts or balancing organs are
(1)
present in arthropods.
(2) A well developed excretory organs are present in echinoderms.
(3) Joined appendages is a characteristic feature of phylum Arthropoda.
 The organisms of 2nd largest phylum exhibit the same type of symmetry as that of larval forms
(4)
of echinoderms.

86) The presence of notochord in the larval tail is a characteristic of :

(1) Doliolum
(2) Branchiostoma
(3) Balanoglossus
(4) Petromyzon

87) Match the following list of animal with their level of organisation :-

Division of Labour Animal

(A) Organ level (i) Pheritima
(B) Cellular level (ii) Fasciola
(C) Tissue level (iii) Spongilla
(D) Organ system level (iv) Obelia
Choose the correct match showing division of labour with an example :-
(1) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D) and (iv)-(A)
(2) (i)-(B), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(C) and (iv)-(A)
(3) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(B) and (iv)-(C)
(4) (i)-(A), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(C) and (iv)-(B)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88) Which of the following is not an excretory structure found in invertebrates?

(1) Flame cells

(2) Malpighian tubules
(3) Nephridia
(4) Kidney

89) File like rasping organ called radula, found in

(1) Echinus
(2) Limulus
(3) Ctenoplana
(4) Chaetopleura

90) Read the following statements :-

(A) Respiration in catabolic process during which CO2 is released
(B) Respiration is catabolic process during which energy is released
(C) Respiration is anabolic process during which O2 utilized
(D) Respiration is anabolic process during which glucose in utilized
Which of the statements are incorrect :

(1) A and B
(2) C and D
(3) B and C
(4) A and D
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 2 1 1 2 1 2 2 3 1 4 4 1 3 3 1 3 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 1 2 1 3 3 1 3 3 3 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 1 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 1 3 3 4 4 4 3 1 3 2 1 4 4 3 3 4 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 3 3 1 1 3 1 4 3 2 4 2 2 1 2 1 1 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 2 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 1 4 1 3 2 4 4 2 2 3 2 3 1 2 4 2 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 1 4 2 2 4 1 1 4 1 2 3 3 1 2 4 3 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 3 1 3 4 4 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 2 2 1 2 3 3 4 4 2 4 1 4 3 1 2 1 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 3 2 2 1 3 4 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

F1 = 3 N, F2 = 5N, F3 = 6N

2)

⇒ is parallel to

3) Time given, t = 140 sec.

Time taken to complete one round = 40 sec.
Hence, athlete will complete three and a half rounds in the given time and his displacement
will be 2R.

4)

must be zero

5)
(X2 + Y2) + 2(X2 – Y2) cos θ = 0

⇒ cosθ = .

6)

Correct Option : F

7)

8)
0
120

9)

Along west
10) Displacement vector

11)

⇒ A2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ = A2 + B2 – 2AB cos θ

⇒ cos θ = 0 ⇒ θ = 90°

12)

for a non-linear path distance > displacement

13)

14)

It is displaced parallel to itself

15)

16)

Negative

17)

45°, 90°, 45°

18)

Equal to or less than one

19)
PQ cos θ = PQ ⇒ cos θ = 1 ⇒ θ = 0°

20)
 Correct Option : 2

21)

22)

Range

23)

Correct Option : 3

24) Since
therefore

25)
0
Correct Option : 30

26)
∴ is anti-parallel to

27)

Position is unchanged

then Δx = 0

28)

Correct Option :

29) Initial position = (0,0)

Final position = (0, 5)

=5–0

distance = 20 + 15 = 35 m

30)
31)

32) displacement
⇒ shortest distance = = 13 m

33)

22.5 m

34)

Correct Option : 4

35)

a = –b

36) d1 = –30
d2 = –20
d3 = 20

=
=

37)

38)

39)

Speed

40)

⇒
 41)

a < b if A > B

42)

43)

6 N and 10 N

44)

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) × 1015

47)

Nucleus

48)

500 nm

49)

Correct Option : 10

50)
 1.0 × 10–7m

51)

n = 2 to n = 1

52) Question Explanation :

The question asks which of the given expressions does not represent the mathematical
expression for the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle.
Concept: Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle:

A. Δx Δp ≥ h/(4π) (position and momentum uncertainty)

B. Δx Δv ≥ h/(4πm) (position and velocity uncertainty, where m is mass)
C. ΔE Δt ≥ h/(4π) (energy and time uncertainty)

Solution:

A. Option 1: Δx Δp ≥ h/(4π) is a correct expression.

B. Option 2: Δx Δv ≥ h/(4πm) is a correct expression (since p = mv).
C. Option 3: ΔE Δt ≥ h/(4π) is a correct expression.
D. Option 4: ΔE Δx ≥ h/(4π) is not a correct expression. Energy and position are not conjugate
variables in the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle.

Final Answer : Option (4)

53)

54)

Question Explanation:
We are given an atom of 13AI27 and asked to find the number of neutrons (c), electrons (b),
protons (a), then write the ratio c : b : a.

Concept:
Atomic number = Protons = Electrons (for neutral atom)
Mass Number = Protons + Neutrons

Solution:
Atomic number = 13 Þ Protons = 13, Electrons = 13
Mass number = 27
Neutrons = 27 - 13 = 14
So, C : b : a = 14 : 13 : 13

Final Answer: Option (3)

55) Question Explanation : uncertainity is position

Concept : He i senberg priniple

Solution :

Δx = 26 × 10–9m
= 26 nm
Final answer : option (1)

56)

Correct Option : 3

57)

10–15

58)

Correct Option : 3,1

59) n1 = 2
n2 = 6
Total number of photon emitted

= = 10

60)

Total positive charge and mass is uniformly distributed throughout the atom.

61)

10.2 eV. of the electron would be absorbed by H atom and it would come out with 0.6 eV
energy.

62)
a, d, e

63)

54.4 eV

64)

Explain the Question : We are asked to find the number of photons emitted per second by a
100 W bulb emitting light of wavelength 400 Å.
Concept : This question is based on
Power of bulb, P = Energy emitted per second
Energy of one photon, E = h·c / λ
Number of photons/sec, n = P / E
Solution :
Given : P = 100 W, λ = 400Å = 4 × 10–8 m, h = 6.626 × 10–34 J·s, c = 3 × 108 m/s
Energy of one photon:
E = (h·c)/λ = (6.626 × 10–34 × 3 × 108) / (4 × 10–8) = 4.97 × 10–18 J
Number of photons/sec:
n = P / E = 100 / (4.97 × 10–18) ≈ 2 × 1019
Final answer : 2

65)

1:1:1

66)

Correct Option : Li+

67)

I, II & III only

68)

Asking : Mass of 6O16 atom

Concept : Mass of atom is sum of mass of fundament particles in atoms

Solution : Mass of oxygen atom

= 8mp + 8mn
(Mass of electron is negligible)

= 8 mp +
= (8 + 4) unit = 12 unit
Reduction in mass of oxy = ​
= 25% reduced

69)

10–15 J

70)

Question Explanation : In a Photo-Electric Effect (PEE) experiment :

Energy of the incident photon of light ⇒ ϕPh = 8 eV

Threshold Frequency of the illuminated metal ⇒ 0 = 1.6 × 1015 Hz

Planck’s Constant ⇒ h = 6.6 × 10–34 [Link]

1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 Joules

Maximum Kinetic Energy of the ejected photo-electrons ⇒ KEmax = ?

Concept : Einstein’s photo-electric equation

Solution :

ϕPh = ϕ0 + KEmax

⇒ ϕPh = 0 + KEmax

⇒ 8 eV = (6.6 × 10–34 Joule. sec) × (1.6 × 1015 Hz) + KEmax

⇒ 8 eV = 10.56 × 10–19 Joule + KEmax

⇒ 8 eV = eV + KEmax

⇒ 8 eV = 6.6 eV + KEmax

⇒ KEmax = 1.4 eV

Final Answer : Option (1)

71) EXPLANATION: electronic transition is given in H- spectrum and total spectral line is to
be found .
GIVEN DATA : electronic transition is 7th orbit to 2nd orbit .

CONCEPT: Number of total spectral line =

CALCULATION: Number of total spectral line =
Number of total spectral line = 5x6 / 2 = 15
FINAL ANSWER : 15
CORRECT OPTION : 1

72)

E2 = 3E1

73)

1:4

74)

Question Explanation : In a Photo-Electric Effect (PEE) experiment :

Work Function of the illuminated metal ⇒ ϕ0 = 1 eV

Wavelength of the incident photon of light ⇒ λPh = 3000 Å

Maximum Velocity of the ejected photo-electrons ⇒ vmax = ?

Concept : Einstein’s photo-electric equation

Solution :

ϕPh = ϕ0 + KEmax

0
⇒ = ϕ + KEmax

⇒ = 1 eV + KEmax

⇒ 4.13 eV = 1 eV + KEmax

⇒ KEmax = 3.13 eV

⇒ KEmax = 3.13 x 1.6 x 10–19 J

⇒ KEmax = 5.008 x 10–19 J

⇒ me = 5.008 x 10–19 J

⇒ × (9.1 × 10–31) × = 5.008 × 10–19

⇒ = 1.100 × 1012
⇒ vmax = 1.04 × 106 m/s

⇒ vmax ≈ 1 × 106 m/s

Final Answer : Option (4)

75) Question Explanation :

Find the radius of the 3rd Bohr orbit r3 when the radius of the 2nd Bohr orbit of hydrogen
atom is r2.

Concept:
Bohr's Atomic model.

Solution:
According to Bohr's model, the radius of the nth orbit is given by:

where:
a0 is the Bohr radius (constant), n is the principal quantum number (orbit number), Z is the
atomic number (for Hydrogen, Z = 1),
From this, we can see that:

We are given the radius of the 2nd orbit as r2. We need to find the radius of the 3rd orbit (r3).
Using the proportionality and Substitute the orbit numbers (n = 3 and n = 2):

Final Answer: Option (3)

76) for minimum wavelength n2 =

77) Explanation the Question : Determine for which species the Bohr atomic model is valid.
Concept : This question is based on Bohr model is valid only for hydrogen-like (single
electron) species.
Solution :
Hydrogen-like species have only one electron.
H+ → 0 electron → not applicable
He → 2 electron → not hydrogen-like
Li+ → 2 electrons → not hydrogen-like
He+ → 1 electron → hydrogen-like
Among the listed options, He+ is the correct standard example.
Final Answer : option (4)
78)

79)

80)

81)

Explanation the Question:

Determine what happens when an electron moves from a lower energy level (L) to a higher
level (M).
Concept:
This question is based on
• Electron transition to higher energy level → requires energy → absorption
• Electron transition to lower energy level → releases energy → emission
Solution:
L →M is upward transition → electron absorbs energy
Final Answer: (2)

82) Explanation question:

We need to identify which of the four elements listed has zero neutrons in the nucleus.

Concept:
number of Neutrons = Mass number – number of Protons.

Solution:
Hydrogen ⇒ ⇒ Number of neutrons = 1 – 1 = 0
Nitrogen ⇒ ⇒ Number of neutrons = 14 – 7 = 7
Helium ⇒ ⇒ Number of neutrons = 4 – 2 = 2
Boron ⇒ ⇒ Number of neutrons = 11 – 5 = 6

Final Answer: option (1)

83)

Ro (125) 1/3

84)

Question Explanation: Use Bohr model relation for time period of revolution.

Concept: Bohr model time period formula

Time period: T ∝ n³ / Z²

n = principal quantum number, Z = atomic number

Solution:
For H (Z = 1, n = 2): T₁ ∝ 2³ / 1² = 8

For He⁺ (Z = 2, n = 3): T₂ ∝ 3³ / 2² = 27 / 4

Ratio:
T₁ / T₂ = 8 / (27/4) = 8 × 4 / 27 = 32/27

Final Answer: Option 2

85)

Explain the Question : The problem gives number of electrons in X3+ and asks for protons in
neutral atom X. Relation of charge, electrons and protons is used.
Concept : This question is based on Protons = Atomic number of the element.
Solution :
For cation : Electrons = Protons – Charge
Given, electrons in X3+ = 16
⇒ p – 3 = 16
⇒ p = 19
Final answer : 4

86)

Correct Option : 15%

87)

88)

h/ 2π

89) +17 – 18 = –1

90)

v3 = v1 + v2

BIOLOGY

91)
Peritrichous

92)

Heterocyst

93) NCERT Pg. # 19

94)

Paramylum and fat

95)

Small extra chromosomal ds DNA

96)

In Ascomycetes, the mycelium is septate and branched, not coenocytic (which is typical of
lower fungi like Zygomycetes).

The correct answer is : OPTION (3) Only III

97)

The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in the
production of antibiotics are categorized as heterotrophic bacteria.

The correct answer is: OPTION (2) Heterotrophic bacteria

98) NCERT (XIth) Pg # 25

99)

Slime mould

100)

Have a lipid rich layer pellicle

101)

Euglenoids do not have cell wall

102)
Peptidoglycan

103) Mycoplasma

104) NCERT Pg. # 17 (Table-2.1)

105)

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

106)

SOLUTION—

Asexual spores are generally absent in Basidiomycetes. While Basidiomycetes primarily

reproduce sexually through basidiospores, some can reproduce asexually. However, asexual
reproduction is not a defining characteristic of this group.

The correct answer is: OPTION(2)Basidiomycetes

107) NCERT-XI, Pg # 17, Table-2.1

108)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which kingdom the organisms Chlamydomonas,
Chlorella, Euglena, Amoeba, and Paramoecium belong to according to the five kingdom system
of biological classification.

Underlying Concept: The five kingdom system classifies all living organisms into five major
groups based on their cell structure, mode of nutrition, and other characteristics. Protista is
one of these kingdoms which includes mostly unicellular eukaryotic organisms like algae and
protozoans.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the kingdom Protista includes unicellular eukaryotes that
are not plants, animals, or fungi. Organisms like Amoeba and Paramoecium are protozoans,
while Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, and Euglena are types of unicellular algae or algae-like
protists.

Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to classify these organisms under Plantae or

Animalia because they may share some characteristics with these groups, such as
photosynthesis or movement, but they differ fundamentally at the cellular level.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Monera includes prokaryotic organisms (bacteria)
which these are not. Plantae includes multicellular photosynthetic organisms, but some listed
here are heterotrophic or mixotrophic. Animalia is for multicellular heterotrophs without cell
walls, so organisms like Chlamydomonas and Euglena do not fit.
109)

SOLUTION—

The nucleoid is not a part of the cell envelope. The cell envelope in bacteria consists of the
glycocalyx, cell wall, and cell membrane.

The correct answer is: OPTION(4) Nucleoid

110)

Mesosome

111) Spirullina

112) NCERT XIth Pg.#21

113)

Monera, Protista, Plantae

114)

Methanogens

115)

Correct Option : 2

116)

Correct Option : 2

117)

Solution:

The correct answer is:

4. Single stranded DNA

Nucleoid DNA is typically double-stranded, not single-stranded.

118)

Complex cell membrane

119)

diatoms

120)

All the above

121)

First photosynthetic prokaryotes

122) NCERT XI Pg. # 23; Para: 2.3.2

123) NCERT-XI, Pg#17

124)

Monera

125)

Unicellular eukaryotes only

126) Salmonella typhi

127)

i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a

128)

Basidiomycetes

129)

Solution :- The correct answer is

1. Bacterial flagella is made up of basal body, hook and filament

130)

SOLUTION—

Mesosomes are extensions of the plasma membrane in prokaryotic cells and are involved in
several functions, including:
 A. DNA replication
B. Cell wall synthesis
C. Cellular respiration and ATP synthesis

The correct answer is: OPTION(4)Storage of food

131)

Archaebacteria

132)

SOLUTION—

Kingdom Monera includes cyanobacteria and mycoplasma. These organisms are unicellular
and prokaryotic, lacking a well-defined nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.

The correct answer is: OPTION(4) Cyanobacteria and mycoplasma

133)

Decomposers

134) NCERT XI, Pg. # 20

135) NCERT XI(E) Pg # 19 (2.1.2) line 4

136)

Annelida

137)

Correct Option : 3

138)

Operculum → Scoliodon

139)

Both are triploblastic and bilaterally symmetrical

140)

Indirectly
141)

Mid of thoracic cavity

142)

A is true, but R is false.

143) NCERT, Pg. - 183

144)

Three chambered heart is found in all members

145) NCERT- XI, Page No.- 45

146) NCERT Page No. 49

147) ThreeThreeThreeThree

148)

Metameric segmentation-Rana tigrina, Periplaneta, Pheretima

149) NCERT Pg. # 47

150)

Respiration by gills

151) Both statements are true, and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion

152) New NCERT Page No. 183

153) solution:
Anaerobic respiration occur in mature RBC and Skeletal muscle.

154)

A-Scoliodon, B-Pristis,
C-Hippocampus, D-Catla
155)

Reproduction takes place by both asexual as well as sexual methods.

156) (NEW NCERT 11th Page No. 46)

157)

Correct option (3)

158)

Nephridia

159)

Correct Option : 4

160)

All of these

161)

Correct Option : 2

162)

simple diffusion

163) NCERT Page No. 51

164)

A-Mesodermally, B-Dorsal side

165)

Hemichordata

166)

Three
167) NCERT- XI, Page No.- 42

168) Birds are ammonotelic.

169) [NCERT Pg. 58]

170) Scales is not characteristic feature of all chordates

171) Epiglottis

172) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 185

173)

It is a vertebrate because it has a notochord

174)

Exclusively marine

175) NEW NCERT 11th Page No. 45

176)

Doliolum

177) NCERT (XIth) Page No. # 49,50,51,52

178)

Kidney

179)

Chaetopleura

180)

C and D