ABAIDULLAH COLLEGE PAKPATTAN

(KEEN Evening Coaching Pakpattan)

Biology 2nd Year (Full Book Notes)
Prepared By: Sir Shozab Seemab Khan
Ch. 15 (Homeostasis)
Important Short Questions

Q.1: Define Homeostasis. Give its importance.

The protection of internal environment from the harms of fluctuations of external environment is termed as
homeostasis.
Importance: The homeostasis keeps the internal fluctuations in a narrow range with various control system
compared to wider external fluctuations. Homeostasis is the central requirement in the maintenance of an
organism, which compels the adaptations in the constant changing conditions and contributes in evolutionary
process.
Q.2: What is Negative Feedback Mechanism?
Detection of change and signalling for effector’s response to control system is a feedback mechanism. The
inverse effector’s response to the change in external environment as there is generally cooling effector’s
response to warmth sensing in external environment, thus are termed as negative feedback.
Q.3: Differentiate between osmoregulation and thermoregulation?
Osmoregulation Thermoregulation
The mechanism of regulation, generally between Maintenance of internal temperature within a
organism and its environment, of solutes and gain and tolerable range designated as thermoregulation.
loss of water is osmoregulation. Thermoregulation is ability of organisms to cope
Maintaining salt and water balance (osmotic balance) temperature extremes.
across membranes within the body. Examples: Mammals maintain their body
Examples: Water content in human different cells is temperature within a narrow range within 36°–
regulated like 20% in bones cells and 85% in brain 38°C.
cells.
Q.4: Distinguish between hypotonic and hypertonic environment?
Hypotonic Environment Hypertonic Environment
A diluted solution as compared to the cell The more concentrated external environment
concentration designated as hypotonic environment. compared to the cell concentration is termed as
Hypotonic environment osmotically causes entry of hypertonic environment.
water into cell and renders cell solution diluted. Hypertonic solution renders cell solution
The cell becomes turgid and may be harmed. concentrated and shrinks the cell due to loss of
Example: Fresh water is hypotonic environment. water.
Cell shrinks, it may damage cell membrane.
Q.5: Differentiate between hydrophytes and xerophytes?
Hydrophytes Xerophytes
The aquatic plants are called hydrophytes. The plants of severely dry terrestrial environment
They have to face flooding in freshwater. are called xerophytes.
These have adaptation to promote loss of water. They have to face severe shortage of water.
The surface area of leaves is very large to transpire These have adaptation to reduced loss of water or
water excessive. transpiration.
Examples: Hydrilla, water lily etc. Examples: Cacti, euphorbia, date palm etc.
Q.6: What are hydrophytes? Write their adaptations.
The aquatic plants are called hydrophytes.
Adaptations: They have to remove the flooding of its cells in fresh water.
Leaves surface area: In this type the surface area of leaves is very large to transpire water excessive
Stomata: Extensive stomata are present on the upper surface facing the atmosphere to promote loss of water.
Examples: Water lily, hydrilla, etc.
Q.7: Discuss process of osmoregulation in mesophytes. Give its examples?
The plants living in moderate environment are called mesophytes. These plants have moderate water
availability. When there is sufficient water availability, stomata are opened to promote of loss of excessive
water. When there is less supply of water, stomata are closed to prevent the loss of water. Examples are
Brassica, mango, rose etc.
Q.8: What are xerophytes? Give their adaptations.
The plants of severely dry terrestrial environment are called xerophytes.
Adaptations: They have the adaptations for reduced rate of transpiration.
Leaves: Many xerophytes possess small, thick leaves to limit water loss by reducing surface area.
Cuticle: Their cuticle is thick, waxy and leathery.
Stomata are on lower surface of leaves and located in depression.
Examples: Cactus, Acacia, date palm etc.
Q.9: Differentiate between osmoregulators and osmoconformers.
Osmoconformers Osmoregulators
The animal body fluids kept isotonic to the external Those animals whose body fluid concentrations
environment even for marine salt water environment. differ noticeably than outside environment.
These animals thus don’t require actively to adjust These animals actively regulate to discharge
their internal osmotic state. excess water in hypotonic environment and excrete
Examples: Most marine invertebrates. salts in hypertonic environment.
Examples: Fresh water fishes.
Q.10: Give four adaptations in marine fishes for survival? / Role of TMAO.
• Most marine invertebrate are osmoconformers.
• Hag fishes keep their environment isotonic to the surrounding sea water.
• In cartilaginous fishes, kidney as well as rectal gland maintains low internal salt concentration to sea water.
• Some fishes (like shark) retain adequate concentration of urea for making fluid to sea water. These fishes
also retain another chemical trimethyl amine oxide to protect their body from harms of urea.
Q.11: How do boney fishes osmoregulate in marine water?
Bony fishes (Perch, trout etc.) are descendent of fresh water fishes but later became marine constantly lose
water from their hypotonic body fluids to hypertonic environments. These fishes have adapted themselves to
drink large amount of seas water and excrete concentrated urine resulting in maximum salts secretion and
minimum water loss.
Q.12: Define anhydrobiosis. Give an example.
The term anhydrobiosis derives from the Greek for "life without water". Terrestrial animals have developed
different methods to tolerate dehydration. Terrestrial animals can tolerate dehydration and it differs in various
animals. This characteristic is known anhydrobiosis.
Example: The best example is Kangaroo rat can survive without drinking water by feeding on seeds of deserts
plants containing more carbohydrate, which water of metabolism.
Q.13: Why leaves of plant said to be as excretophores?
Plants produce organic and inorganic wastes, which are stored in leaves. Thus, falling of yellow leaves in
autumn is the seasonal time for a plant to get rid of accumulated wastes and because of this reason leaves are
said to be excretophores.
Q.14: Why ammonia must be kept in low concentration?
Ammonia is very toxic and dissolved very quickly in the body fluids. Thus, it must be kept in low
concentration in the body. It requires 500 ml of water for its 1 gm removal from body.
Q.15: What is ebony? Give its role.
Heavy blackish or very dark brown timber from a mainly tropical tree is known as ebony
Role: Some trees deposit strange chemicals in their branches and trunk, especially in old xylem which is no
longer used for transport. This takes place in ebony which produces very black wood in center. These are
considered to be wastes materials by plant physiologist.
Q.16: Distinguish between ureotelic and uricotelic.
Ureotelic Uricotelic
The animals excreting urea as their excretory product The animals excreting uric acid as excretory
called ureotelic. product called uricotelic.
Urea requires 50 ml of water for 1 gm removal. Uric acid requires 1 ml of water for 1 gm removal.
Examples: Mammal, most amphibian, sharks, and Examples: Birds, insects, reptiles, and land snails.
some bony fishes.
Q.17: Write structure formula of urea and uric acid.

Q.18: What are ammonotelic? Give examples.

The animals secreting ammonia as excretory product are called ammoniotelic. Ammonia is very toxic and
requires 500 ml of water for its 1 gm removal from the body.
Examples are most aquatic animals, including freshwater fishes.
Q.19: Give evolutionary significance of Uricotely and Ureotely.
Ureotely and uricotely are evolutionary adaptations of nitrogenous waste in their habitats. Animals have
adapted not only the chemical nature of excretory products but also the various adaptations have been obtained
to provide diversity in excretory structures.
Q.20: What is urea cycle? / Define urea cycle.
Urea is principle excretory product of man and liver form it from waste nitrogen. The metabolic pathways
involved in production of urea termed as urea cycle. Two ammonia and one carbon dioxide molecules are
shunted into the cycle to generate one molecule of urea.
Q.21: Differentiate between Metanephridium and Protonephridium.
Metanephridium Protonephridium
A tubular excretory system found in earthworm is A simple tubular excretory system found in
known as metanephridium. planarians is known as protonephridium.
It has ciliated internal openings called nephrostome. It is without internal openings.
In metanephridia flame cells are absent. In protonephridia flame cells are present.
Q.22: What you understand about Malpighian tubules? How malpighian tubules take part in excretion?
The terrestrial arthropods particularly in insects, the excretory structures are adapted to collect excretory
product from haemolymph in sinuses through the suspended tubular structure called malpighian tubules. The
malpighian tubules remove nitrogenous wastes from haemolymph. The Malpighian tubules open in the
digestive system. The insect are only animals in animal kingdom in which excretory structure are associated
with digestive system.
Q.23: Name the three plasma proteins synthesized by liver.
Prothrombin: Stimulate blood clotting
Fibrinogen: Causes blood clotting.
Albumin: Maintain the osmotic balance of blood.
Q.24: What is metanephridium? In which organism it found?
A tubular excretory system found in earthworm is known as metanephridium. It has ciliated internal openings
called Nephrostome. It is present in earthworm.
Q.25: What do you know about Flame cell? Why they are
called so? Give their role.
Planaria, the animals of the group of flatworms have simple
tubular excretory system is called protonephridium. A
protonephridium is a network of closed tubules without
internal openings. Branches of these tubules are capped by
cells called flame cells. Each flame cell has tuft of cilia,
beating of cilia looks like a flickering flame. Thus it is called
flame cell. Role: The beating of these cilia propels the
interstitial fluid into tubular system.
Q.26: Draw structure of single flame cell.
Q.27: Illustrate the function of Malpighian tubule?
The malpighian tubules remove nitrogenous wastes from haemolymph. The Malpighian tubules open in the
digestive system. The insect are only animals in animal kingdom in which excretory structure are associated
with digestive system. The epithelial linings of the tubules transport solutes including salts and nitrogenous
wastes from haemolymph into tubules lumen.
Q.28: What are metabolic wastes? Give names the metabolic wastes of man.
Considering of chemical basis of life has and its sustainability on metabolic pathway, the generation of wastes
is primarily done at metabolic level and these are called as metabolic wastes. Man, metabolic wastes: These
include urea, creatinine, uric acid, bilirubin, etc. are principles metabolic wastes of man.
Q.29: Write two storage functions of liver which effects on homeostasis?
Following two storage functions of liver which effects on homeostasis:
Iron: Oxygenation of tissues as constituents of haemoglobin.
Glycogen: Energy reserve.
Q.30: Write two important functions of liver.
Synthesis: Nitrogenous wastes: NH3, Urea and Uric acid (Supports kidney in waste disposal).
Plasma proteins: like prothrombin, fibrinogen, albumin. (Blood clotting, Maintain osmotic balance of blood).
Conversion: Excess glucose in blood to glycogen, lactic acid to glycogen and stored glycogen to glucose
(Energy storage and use).
Q.31: What is function of bile?
Bile emulsifies fat in small intestine breaking large globules into smaller ones for enzymes. Bile's main
functions are fat digestion, nutrient absorption, and waste excretion, produced by the liver and stored in the
gallbladder.
Q.32: Skin does not come within the definition of excretory organ. Comments.
Removal of salts with water by sweat glands and of sebum of sebaceous glands seems to be excretory in
nature. The removal of water and salts from sweat gland is for purpose of thermoregulation and sebum on skin
for protection against microorganisms. Therefore, in context of definition of excretion, skin may not be
considered as excretory organ.
Q.33: Why does filtration take place only at glomerular part of nephron and nowhere else?
The walls of glomerulus are porous and the fraction of blood pressure reaching here provides the filtration
pressure. Therefore, the material from blood in glomerulus can easily pass through these pores. On the other
hand, all other capillaries are on nephron are without such pores. So filtration cannot take place in them.
Q.34: What are Juxtamedullary Nephrons? Give their role.
The tubular nephron system form loop deep into the inner medulla called juxtamedullary nephron.
Role: These are involved in the production of concentrated urine.
Q.35: Differentiate between ureter and urethra.
Ureter Urethra
It is duct by urine passes from kidney to urinary It is duct by which urine passes from urinary
bladder. bladder to outside the body.
There are two ureters in urinary system. There is single urethra in urinary system.
It is only part of urinary system. It can act as urinogenital duct in male.
It is located in middle part of urinary system. It is located at last part of urinary system.
Q.36: Differentiate between Cortical nephron and Juxtamedullary nephron.
Cortical Nephron Juxtamedullary Nephron
The nephrons arranged along the cortex are The tubular nephron system form loop deep into the inner
called cortical nephron. medulla called juxtamedullary nephron.
They have short loop of Henle. They have very long loop of Henle.
These are involved in diluted urine production. These are involved in the production of concentrated urine.
Cortical nephrons account for 70% out of a Juxtamedullary nephrons account for 30% out of a total
total number of nephrons in human kidneys. number of nephrons in human kidneys.
Q.37: Explain briefly glomerular filtrate.
Blood passes through glomerulus and filtered into Bowmen’s capsule. It is specifically filtered here, unlike at
the other parts of vessels, because walls of glomerulus are porous and the fraction of blood pressure reaching
here provides the filtration pressure. The filtrate coming appearing in Bowmen’s capsule is called glomerulus
filtrate, which contains numerous useful substances like glucose, amino acid, salts etc. in aqueous solution.
Q.38: Sketch and label human kidney.
Q.39: Define counter-current multiplier.
The opposite flow of adjacent fluid that maximize
transfer rate is called counter -current multiplier. This
mechanism makes the interstitial fluid of the kidney
concentrated from cortical to medullary part of tubule.
In this way, highly concentrated urine is produced.
Q.40: What is glomerulus?
A capillary network within a glomerular capsule of a
nephron. Blood passes through glomerulus and filtered
into Bowmen’s capsule.
Q.41: What are vasa recta?
In juxtamedullary nephron, additional capillaries
extend down to form a loop of vessels called vasa recta.
The vasa recta maintain osmotic gradient required for water re-absorption in loop of Henle.
Q.42: Differentiate between afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole.
Afferent Arteriole Efferent Arteriole
It carries blood towards glomerulus from renal artery. It carries blood away glomerulus to vasa recta and
Diameter of afferent arteriole is comparatively peritubular capillary network.
smaller. Diameter of efferent arteriole is comparatively
It contains nitrogenous wastes. larger.
Blood pressure is low in afferent arterioles. It is free of nitrogenous wastes.
Blood pressure is high in efferent arterioles.
Q.43: Differentiate between Re-absorption and Secretion in nephron.
Re-absorption Secretion
It is process by which all the useful constituents of It is process to release of selective substances into the
the glomerular filtrate are taken back into blood in lumen of tubule.
proximal tubules lumen. The substance secreted from blood to tubules lumen.
 The substance taken from tubules to blood. This secretion is mainly of hydrogen ions.
These include amino acid, glucose salts etc. It balances pH value of the filtrate passing through the
It involves in urine formation. tubule.
Q.44: Name two hormones for concentrated urine production. What is role of aldosterone and ADH?
Following two hormones for concentrated urine production are:
Aldosterone secreted from adrenal cortex. It promotes active uptake of sodium ion in ascending thick limb
loop of Henley.
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secreted by posterior pituitary lobe. It promotes reabsorption of water in
collecting duct.
Q.45: Mentions two metabolic altered states generally (70%) cause kidney stone.
The high level of circulating calcium in blood called hypercalcemia and higher blood level of oxalate called
hyperoxaluria cause 70 % kidney stone.
Q.46: What is hyperoxaluria? How is it caused?
Higher blood level of oxalates is called hyperoxaluria. Causes: Oxalates are present in green vegetables and
tomatoes therefore may be the source of hyperoxaluria.
Q.47: What is hypercalcemia? Write its effects?
The high level of circulating calcium in blood called hypercalcemia.
Effects: It is responsible for calcium phosphate and calcium oxalate stones.
Q.48: What do you know about lithotripsy? / What is extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy?
The technique of non-surgical removal of kidney stones is called lithotripsy. It is used to break up stones that
form in the kidney, gall bladder, or ureter. There are several ways to do it, although the most common is
extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy. High concentrations of X-rays or ultrasound are directed from a machine
outside the body to the stone inside. The shock waves break the stone into tiny pieces or sand, which are
passed out of the body in urine.
Q.49: What is renal failure?
Different pathological and chemical factors may progressively destroy the nephron, especially the glomerular
part. This causes an increase in plasma level of urea or other nitrogenous wastes. The rise in urea level causes
many complications such as increased blood pressure and anemia. This condition is called renal failure.
Q.50: What is dialysis? When is it done? Give its types.
The clearing of the body of urea is called dialysis. When the function of the kidneys is completely lost in
chronic renal failure, the blood of the patient is treated by dialysis for the removal of blood urea. The blood is
cleared by passing it through an artificial kidney or by filtering it within the abdomen. In dialysis, nitrogenous
wastes or excessive water are removed as in a healthy kidney.
Types of dialysis are Hemodialysis and Peritoneal dialysis
Q.51: What is hemodialysis? Give the procedure of hemodialysis.
Hemodialysis means “cleaning the blood.” In this process, blood is circulated through a machine which
contains a dialyzer, also called an artificial kidney. The dialyzer has two spaces separated by a thin membrane.
Blood passes on one side of the membrane and dialysis fluid on the other. Wastes and excess water pass from
the blood through the membrane into the dialysis fluid.
Q.52: What is peritoneal dialysis?
Peritoneal dialysis works on the same principle except that the abdomen has a peritoneal cavity lined by a thin
epithelium called the peritoneum. The peritoneal cavity is filled with dialysis fluid that enters the body through
a catheter. Excess water and wastes pass through the peritoneum into the dialysis fluid. This process is repeated
several times a day.
Q.53: What is uremia? How is it treated?
A higher degree of renal failure is called uremia or end-stage disease.
Treatment: In this condition, dialysis cannot be done; therefore, surgical transplantation of a matching donor
kidney is the only permanent treatment.
Q.54: Differentiate between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.
Hemodialysis Peritoneal Dialysis
In this case, blood is passed through dialyzer or In this case, peritoneal cavity is filled with dialysis
artificial kidney. fluid.
It has two spaces separated by thin membrane. Catheter is used to enter the blood into body.
Excess water and wastes pass from the blood to Excess water or wastes pass through peritoneum
dialysis fluid through the membrane. into dialysis fluid.
It is most common type of dialysis used nowadays. It is less used type of dialysis.
Q.55: Account for two adaptations in plants to high temperature and one adaptation to low temperature.
High-temperature adaptations: Plants cool their body by evaporation and control their temperature at high
temperatures. The cells of some plants synthesize large quantities of special proteins called heat-shock proteins
to prevent denaturation.
Low-temperature adaptation: Plants increase the proportion of unsaturated fatty acids in response to cold
stress. This helps membranes maintain structure at low temperatures by preventing crystal formation.
Q.56: What are heat-shock proteins? Give their function.
Plants of temperate regions face stress at temperatures of 40°C or above. Their cells synthesize large quantities
of special proteins called heat-shock proteins. These proteins embrace enzymes and other proteins and thus
help prevent denaturation.
Q.57: Differentiate between ectotherms and endotherms.
Ectotherms Endotherms
The animals which produce metabolic heat at low The animals which generate their own heat as a by-
level, exchanging it with environment and absorb the product through metabolism are called
heat from environment are called ectotherms. endotherms.
Examples: Most of the fishes, amphibians and reptiles Examples: Some fishes, mammals, birds and
are ectotherms. flying insects are endotherms.
Q.58: What are poikilotherms? Give one example.
These are animals whose body temperature fluctuates with ambient (environmental) temperature.
Examples: All invertebrates, fishes, amphibians, and reptiles.
Q.59: Define homeotherms.
Animals exposed to changing air or water temperatures that maintain a constant body temperature are called
homeotherms.
Examples: Birds and mammals.
Q.60: What are heterotherms? Give an example.
These are animals capable of varying degrees of endothermic heat production but generally do not regulate
body temperature within a narrow range.
Examples: Bats and hummingbirds.
Q.61: Differentiate between shivering thermogenesis and non-shivering thermogenesis.
Shivering Thermogenesis Non-shivering Thermogenesis
The production of heat by contraction and shivering of The production of heat by the stimulation of
muscles. hormones like thyroid hormones is called non-
It is regulated by nervous system only. shivering thermogenesis.
It is regulated by both nervous and endocrine
systems.
Q.62: How do marine mammals regulate their body temperature?
In cold temperature: Marine mammals such as whales and seals possess a thick layer of insulating fat called
blubber under the skin, allowing survival in cold water.
In warm temperature: They dispose of excess heat into warm seas through numerous blood vessels in the
outer skin layer, which dissipates heat.
Q.63: Differentiate between brown fat and blubber.
Brown Fat Blubber
These are specialized fats for rapid heat production. These are thick layer of insulating fats.
These are found in newborn babies of human and These are present under the skin of marine
hibernating mammals. mammals like whales and seals.
They are involved in heat production process. They are involved to prevent heat loss.
Q.64: Write down thermoregulatory mechanisms of bats and dogs.
Dogs: Panting provides evaporative cooling in the respiratory tract.
Bats: Bats use saliva and urine for evaporative cooling.
Q.65: Explain the process of panting with an example.
Panting is evaporative cooling in the respiratory tract. It is one of the major temperature-reducing strategies
and is found in dogs.
Q.66: How do land animals respond to cold weather?
Vasoconstriction: More vasoconstriction occurs in legs and arms than in the trunk, reducing heat loss.
Fur: Many land mammals raise fur, forming an insulating layer.
Fat: Humans rely on a fat layer beneath the skin for insulation.
Q.67: Differentiate between vasodilation and vasoconstriction.
Vasodilation Vasoconstriction
It is dilatation of blood capillaries near skin. It is constriction of blood vessels near skin.
It increases rate of blood flow towards skin. It reduces rate of blood flow towards skin.
Capillaries are filled with warm blood. Capillaries are not filled with warm blood.
Vasodilation dissipates heat to lower body temperature Vasoconstriction conserves heat to increase body
to normal range. temperature.
Q.68: What is pyrexia? / What are Pyrogens? / Why temperature in fever is increased?
Leukocytes (WBCs) increase in number during bacterial or viral infection. Pathogens and blood cells produce
chemicals called pyrogens. Pyrogens raise the set point of the hypothalamus above the normal 37°C. Fever
helps stimulate protective mechanisms against pathogens.
Q.69: Compare physical temperature control system and living temperature control system.
Physical Temperature Control System Living Temperature Control System
In this system sensor i.e. thermometer detects change In this system receptor like skin detect change in
in temperature. temperature.
Sensor send change signals to control center. Receptors send signals to control center i.e. brain
Control center takes the action by drop or rise of or spinal cord.
temperature by switching on cooling and heating units. Control center takes the action by drop or rise of
temperature by blood circulation and hormones
actions.
Q.70: Sketch Urea Cycle.
 Ch. 16 (Support and Movement)
Important Short Questions

Q.1: What is turgor pressure? Give its importance.

The internal hydrostatic pressure in plant cell is called turgor pressure.
Importance: Water enters into living the cell of plant by osmosis, which causes turgor pressure. This pressure
keeps plant rigid and resistant to bending. If they lose turgidity, herbaceous stem wilt. Thus, turgor pressure is
extremely important to maintain turgidity in plant.
Q.2: What is Tonoplast? Describe its role.
Turgor pressure is generated by high osmotic pressure of the cell vacuole. The membrane that bounds vacuole,
is called tonoplast which contains a number of active transport systems that pump ions into the vacuole or
vacuolar compartments despite the higher concentration than that of the extracellular fluid.
Q.3: What are Sclerenchyma Cells? Distinguish between Sclereides and Fibers?
There three types of sclerenchyma cells
i) Fibers (Tracheid), ii) Sclereides and iii) Vessels (trachea).
Function: Primary function of Sclerenchymatous cells is to support to plant parts.
Fibers Sclereides
These are long and cylindrical. These are shorter than fiber cells.
They are elongated cells. They are broad cells.
They are present in the form of solid bundle in These are found in seed coat and nut shells.
xylem or bundle cap. They provide support to xylem tissues.
They provide protection to seed.
Q.4: Differentiate between collenchyma and sclerenchyma cells.
Sclerenchyma Collenchyma
They are non-living supporting cell of plants. The living supporting cells of plants.
They have highly lignified thick secondary They have angular thickenings in primary walls.
wall. They lack secondary wall and contain protoplast.
They have thick secondary wall and mostly They are elastic, elongate with the growth of stems and
non-living. leaves
They are present in xylem tissues and their They are present in cortex in the form of strands or
primary function is to provide support to plant cylinder and provide support to young and herbaceous
parts. parts of plant.
Q.5: What is vascular cambium? Give role of vascular cambium.
The cylinder of actively dividing cells between primary xylem and primary phloem is called vascular
cambium.
Role: Vascular cambium gives rise to two new tissues:
Secondary xylem: It appears next to the inner surface of vascular cambium.
Secondary phloem: It appears outer surface of the vascular cambium.
Q.6: Write the function of heartwood.
The inactive non-conductive wood is called heart wood. In most species, the heart wood accumulates a variety
of chemicals such as resins oils, gums and tannins. These provide a resistance to decay and insect attack, for
example, in red cedar and conifers.
Q.7: What are annual rings? How these rings can indicate age of tree?
Secondary xylem causes most of the increase of in stem thickness. Over the years woody stem get thicker and
thicker as its vascular cambium produces layer upon layer of secondary xylem. These layers are visible as
rings. These rings are known as annual rings. Since one growth ring is formed in one year, a count of the ring
at the base of trunk indicates the age of tree at the time it was cut.
Q.8: Differentiate between sap wood and heart wood.
Sap Wood Heart Wood
The active, conducting portion of wood is called sap The inactive, non-conductive portion of wood is
wood. called heart wood.
Sapwood is peripheral portion of stem. Heartwood is central portion of stem.
It conducts the water and minerals. It does not conduct water and mineral.
It is susceptible to decay and insect attack. It is resistant to decay and insect attack.
Q.9: How callus is formed? Give two functions of callus.
The newly formed wood tissues over a wound is called callus. Callus formation is one of important function
of cambium. In this case soft parenchymatous tissues are rapidly formed on or below the damage surface of
stems or roots. Functions: Callus has following functions Callus fills wound.
Callus unites branches during budding and grafting.
Q.10: What is pulvinus?
The place of attachment of leaf with the shoot, pulvinus, is swollen portion of the petiole composed of
parenchymatous cells with relatively large inter cellular spaces and central strand of vascular tissues.
Q.11: Write down the mechanism of rapid movement of leaflet.
It results in rapid loss of turgor by the cell in pulvinus. Investigation has shown that potassium ion (K+) moves
first, which causes the water to leave the cell by ex-osmosis. It takes about ten minutes to regain the turgor
and restore internal turgidity of leaves.
Q.12: What do you know about sleep movements?
Some leguminous plants like bean lower their leaves in the evening and raise them in the morning. These are
known as sleep movements. These sleep movements take place due to daily change in turgor pressure in the
pulvinus.
Q.13: What are growth movements? Name its types.
Growth movements are due to unequal growth on two sides of plant organs like stems, root, tendrils, buds etc.
there are three types of growth movements. i. Epinasty, ii, Hyponasty and iii. Nutation.
Q.14: Distinguish between Phototactic and Chemotactic movements.
Phototactic Movements Chemotactic Movements
It is the movements in the response to stimulus of It is movements in the response to stimulus of
light. chemical.
Example: Movements of chloroplast during cyclosis. Example: Movement of sperm of liverworts,
mosses ferns towards archegonium.
Q.15: Define nastic movements. Write the two types of nastic movements.
These are non-directional movements of parts of plant in response to external stimuli are called nastic
movements. There are two types of nastic movements.
Nyctinasty: The nyctinastic movements are shown by organs in response to external stimuli leads to
differential growth. These are due to turgor and growth changes.
Haptonastic: These movements occur in response to contact. Example the action of Venus fly trap.
Q.16: Differentiate between hyponasty and epinasty.
Hyponasty Epinasty
In hyponasty upper surface of leaf in bud In epinasty, lower surface of leaf in bud condition
condition shows more growth as compared to shows more growth as compared to upper surface in
lowered surface. bud condition.
This leads to opening of bud. In this case bud remains closed.
Hyponasty is due to gibberellins. Epinasty is due to auxins.
Q.17: What is Nutation?
The growing tip of young stem moves in zig-zag fashion due to alternate changes in the growth on opposite
side of the apex. This mode of growth is called nutation. Example: Grasses show this movement.
Q.18: Distinguish between photo-tactic and photo-nastic movements of plant.
Phototactic Movements Photo-nastic movements
The type of tactic movements in response to the The type of nastic movements in response to the stimulus
light stimulus is called phototactic movements. of photoperiod is called photonastic movements.
Example: A passive movement of chloroplast. Example: Opening and closing of flower due to light
intensity.
Q.19: Differentiate between geotropism and hydrotropism.
Geotropism Hydrotropism
Geotropism is due to gravity stimulus. Examples Hydrotropism is due to water stimulus. Examples
Roots show positive geotropism. Shoot shows Shoot shows negative hydrotropism. Roots show
negative geotropism. positive hydrotropism.
Q.20: What are paratonic movements? Name its types.
These movements are due to external causes. Tropic movements and nastic movements are its types.
Q.21: What is Nyctinasty Movement?
The nyctinastic movements are shown by the organs in response to external stimuli leading to differential
growth.
These are due to turgor and growth changes.
Q.22: Differentiate between Photonasty and Thermonasty.
Photonasty Thermonasty
The principal stimulus is the photoperiod. It is due to temperature.
Example: The flowers open and close due Example: The flowers of tulip close at night because of rapid
to light intensity. growth in lower side by upward and inward bending of petals.
Q.23: What is exoskeleton? Name its two layers.
An exoskeleton is hardened outer covering to which internal muscles are attached. The exoskeleton is inert
and non-living. It is secreted by the ectoderm in animal cells. It is composed of two layers:
Epicuticle is outer layer, made of lipoprotein.
Procuticle is inner layer which is made of chitin.
Q.24: Give two modifications in exoskeleton of arthropods.
• The skeleton is thin, soft and flexible at joint consequently joints move very easily.
• The skeleton has sensory receptors called sensilla. The sensilla are in the form of bristles and lenses.
• There are modifications in exoskeleton that permits the exchange of gases.
Q.25: Define the process of ecdysis or moulting.
The exoskeleton of arthropods has one disadvantage that animal cannot grow large within skeleton. The
periodic shedding of old skeleton and secretion of new skeleton is called moulting or ecdysis.
Q.26: What is ecdysis? Give its four stages.
Ecdysis is divided into four stages:
• Enzymes, secreted by hypodermal glands, begin digesting the old endocuticle. This digestion separates the
hypodermis and exoskeleton.
• The digestion of endocuticle is followed by secretion new procuticle and epicuticle.
• The old exoskeleton splits and pores are formed in it.
• Finally, the new exoskeleton is hardened by deposition of calcium carbonate.
Q.27: Give two functions of exoskeleton of arthropods.
Functions of exoskeleton of arthropods are following:
• The exoskeleton in arthropoda protects the animals against their enemies and rough environment.
• It also protects them from drying.
Q.28: What is role of ecdysone?
Ecdysone is hormone which along with nervous system control all changes of ecdysis in arthropods
Q.29: Why does molting takes place in arthropods? / Give disadvantage of exoskeleton.
The exoskeleton of arthropods has one disadvantage that animal cannot grow large within skeleton. So, animal
cannot grow large within skeleton. The animal therefore, needs to shed its exoskeleton periodically and replace
it with one of larger size.
Q.30: Explain briefly hydroskeleton.
The skeleton of the body which is produced due to fluid filled within the gastrovascular or coelomic cavity is
called hydroskeleton. It is present in the animals in which hard skeleton is absent like earthworm. Hydrostatic
skeleton provides support and resistance to contraction of muscles. It results in movement of the body.
Examples: It is found in cnidarians, annelids and soft bodied invertebrate.
Q.31: Differentiate between exoskeleton and endoskeleton.
Exoskeleton Endoskeleton
A hard skeleton present at the outer surface to The skeleton present inside the body and attached
which internal muscles are attached. internally with muscles.
It is inert and non-living and secreted by ectoderm. It is living and secreted by endoderm.
It cannot grow; old exoskeleton is shed periodically It grows as animals grow and is not shed.
Example: It is present in mollusks and arthropods. Example: Endoskeleton in most of chordates.
Q.32: Define bone. Also name the cells associated with bone.
The most rigid form of connective tissues is called bone. There are three types of cells associated with bones:
Osteoblast: These are bone forming cells.
Osteocytes: These are mature bone cell.
Osteoclast: These are bone dissolving cells.
Q.33: Differentiate between compact and spongy bone.
Compact Bone Spongy Bone
It is dense, strong and outer portion of It is light, rich in blood vessels, and highly porous portion of
bone. bone.
Function: It provides an attachment site for Function: The cavities of spongy bone contain bone marrow
a muscle. where blood cells are formed.
Q.34: What is cartilage? Name its types.
The cartilage is connective tissues much softer than bone. Cartilage covers the ends of the bone at joints, and
also supports the flexible portion of nose and external ears. There are three types of cartilage:
i. Hyaline Cartilage, ii. Elastic Cartilage, iii. Fibrocartilage
Q.35: Differentiate between hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage.
Hyaline cartilage Elastic cartilage
It is the most abundant type in human body. It is less abundance than hyaline cartilage.
It is found at the movable joints. It has matrix containing bundles of collagens fibers. It forms
external pinnae of ears and the epiglottis.
Q.36: Differentiate between cartilage and bone.
Bone Cartilage
The most rigid form of connective tissues is The cartilage connective tissues much softer than bone.
bone. Cartilages are not hardened by deposition of calcium
Bones are hardened by deposition of calcium carbonate.
carbonate. The living cells of cartilages are chondrocytes.
The living cells of bone are osteocytes. Cartilages cover ends of bones at joints and provide
Bones give support to the body. support to flexible portion of nose and ear.
Q.37: Names unpaired and paired facial bones.
There are 14 facial bones of which 6 are paired and 2 unpaired.
Unpaired facial bones: Mandible and vomer.
Paired facial bones: Maxilla, zygomatic, nasal, lacrimal, palatine and inferior concha.
Q.38: What is axial skeleton?
The axial skeleton is central axis and consists of the skull, vertebral column, ribs and sternum. It has 80 bones.
Q.39: Names pectoral girdle and fore limbs bones.
Pectoral girdle comprises scapula, suprascapula, and clavicle. The clavicle connects scapula with sternum.
The fore limb consists of humerus, radius and ulna, 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges.
Q.40: Differentiate between appendicular and axial skeleton.
Appendicular Skeleton Axial Skeleton
Appendicular skeleton consists of pectoral girdle with appendages The axial skeleton is consists of the
(fore limb) and pelvic girdle with appendages (hind limb). skull, vertebra, ribs and sternum.
It forms extremities of skeleton. It forms central axis of skeleton.
Q.41: Names unpaired and paired cranial bones.
The cranium consists of 8 bones, 4 unpaired and 2 paired which protect the brain.
Unpaired cranial bones: Frontal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid.
Paired cranial bones: Parietal and temporal
Q.42: Names pelvic girdle and hind limbs bones.
Pelvic girdle composed of two coxal bones. Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of three bones, ilium,
ischium and pubis. Hind-limb consists of 1 femur, 2 tibia and fibula, 7 tarsals 5 meta-tarsals and 14 phalanges.
Q.43: Why two lower pair of ribs is called floating ribs?
Rib cage consists of 12 pairs of ribs and sternum. Two lower pair (11th and 12th) of ribs are not attached to
sternum. They are called floating ribs. These protect kidneys.
Q.44: Compare hinge joints and ball & socket joints.
Hinge Joints Ball & socket joints
The joint that allows movements in two The joint that allows movements in several directions is
directions is called Hinge joints. called Ball & Socket joints.
A pair of muscles is arranged in same plane as Such joints have at least two pair of muscles present
that of joints. perpendicular to each other.
Examples: Joints of elbow and knee. Examples: Hip joints and shoulder joints.
Q.45: What are synovial joints?
The joints containing a cavity filled with fluid are called synovial joints. These joints are adapted to reduce
friction between moving joints. The joint is surrounded by layer of connective tissue called “fibrous capsule”
and their inner layer the synovial membrane. Some parts of capsule may be modified to form distinct ligament,
holding the bones together.
Q.46: What is cleft palate?
A condition in which palatine processes of maxilla and palatine fail to fuse. The persistent opening between
oral and nasal cavity interferes with sucking. It can lead to inhalation of food into the lungs causing aspiration
pneumonia.
Q.47: How fibrous joints differ from synovial joints.
Fibrous joints Synovial joints
They are held together by short fibers These joints contain a cavity filled with fluid.
embedded in connective tissues. They are adapted to reduce friction.
They are not adapted to reduce friction. These are freely moveable.
These are immoveable. Examples: They are present in elbow, knee, shoulder and
Examples: These joints are present in skull, hip joints.
and they fix teeth into jaws.
Q.48: What do you know about microcephaly, arthritis and osteoarthritis?
Microcephaly, the small sized skull is caused by some genetic defect. Arthritis covers over 100 types of
inflammatory and degenerative diseases that damage joints. Osteoarthritis is most common chronic arthritis,
which is degenerative joint disease also caused by genetic defect.
Q.49: What is rickets? Give its causes and cures.
Rickets is disease of children with bowed legs and deformed pelvis.
Cause: It is caused by deficiency of calcium in diet or vitamin ‘D’ deficiency.
Cure: It is treated by vitamin ‘D’ fortified milk and exposing skin to sunlight to cure disorder.
Q.50: What is disc slip or herniation of disc? Give treatment of disc slip.
Disc slip or herniation: The herniated disc (commonly known as disc slip) usually involves rupture of annulus
fibrous followed by protrusion of the spongy nucleus pulposus. If the protrusion presses on spinal cord or
spinal nerves exciting from cord generate severe pain or even destruction of this nervous structure.
Treatment: Disc slip is treated by bed rest, traction (pulling) and painkiller. If this fails then slip disc is
removed surgically.
Q.51: Write down the mechanism of disc slip.
Severe or sudden physical trauma to spines may cause herniation. This includes bending forward while lifting
a heavy object may cause herniation of one or more discs. The slipped disc annulus fibrosus is ruptured
followed by protrusion of spongy nucleus pulposus. If protrusion presses on spinal cord or on spinal nerves
exciting from cord generate severe pain or even destruction of these nervous structures.
Q.52: What are the causes of herniation of discs?
Severe or sudden physical trauma to spines may cause herniation. This includes bending forward while lifting
a heavy object may cause herniation of one or more discs.
Q.53: Give symptoms and causes of sciatica.
It is characterized by stabbing pain radiating over the course of sciatic nerve.
Causes: It results due to injury of proximal sciatic nerve, which might follow a fall. A herniated disc or
improper administration of an injection into the buttock.
Symptoms: This may result in a number of lower limb impairment depending on the precise nerve root
injured. When sciatic nerve is completely transected, the legs become nearly useless. They cannot be flexed
and all foot-ankle movement is lost. Recovery from sciatic injury is usually slow and incomplete.
Q.54: Explain briefly hematoma formation.
When a bone breaks, the blood vessels in the bone itself and perhaps in the surrounding are torn resulting
hemorrhage. As a result, a hematoma a mass of clotted blood is formed at fracture site. Soon, after bone cells
deprived of food begin to die and tissues at fracture site become swollen and hence painful.
Q.55: Differentiate between cardiac and smooth muscles.
Cardiac Muscles Smooth Muscles
They constitute most mass of heart walls. These are present in visceral organ like stomach, intestine,
These are chains of cell organized in into blood vessels etc.
fibers. These are long and spindle shaped.
They are striated muscles. They are non-striated muscles.
Function: They are involved in pumping of Function: They control movements of substances through
blood. hollow organs
Q.56: Differentiate between thick and thin filament of muscle fiber.
Thick filament of muscle fiber Thin filament of muscle fiber
It extends entire length of A-Band. It is It extends across I-Band and partly into A- Band.
about 16 nm in diameter. It is about 7-8 nm in diameter.
It is composed of single protein i.e. It is composed of three proteins i.e. actin, tropomyosin and
myosin. troponin.
Thick filament does not change during Thick filament slide over thick filament and shorten during
contraction of muscle. contraction of muscle.
Q.59: What is rigor mortis?
ATP is needed to break the link between the myosin bridge band actin. The amount of ATP in the body falls
after death. Thus, the bridges cannot be broken. So, these bridges remain firmly bound.
As a result, body becomes stiff after death. This condition is kwon as rigor mortis.
Q.57: Differentiate between smooth and skeletal muscles.
Smooth muscles Skeletal Muscles
These are present in visceral organ like stomach, intestine, The muscles attached with skeleton and
blood vessels etc. associated with movements.
These are involuntary muscle and not under conscious These are voluntary muscle and under
control. conscious control.
They are non-striated muscles. They are striated muscles.
It controls movements of substances through hollow organs. They move the skeleton.
Q.58: Give two differences between sarcoplasm of muscles cell and cytoplasm of other cells.
Sarcoplasm of muscle cell Cytoplasm of other cells
It contains large amount of stored glycogen. These cells do not have stored glycogen.
It also has red pigments myoglobin that stores These cells do not contain large red pigments
oxygen in muscle cell. myoglobin.
It has modified reticulum called sarcoplasmic These cells have endoplasmic reticulum with
reticulum without ribosomes. ribosomes.
The membrane of muscle cell is called sarcolemma. The membrane is called plasma membrane.
Q.60: What is muscle fatigue? Give its causes.
Muscle fatigue is state of physiological inability to contract is called muscle fatigue. Muscle fatigue is results
from deficit of ATP which result in state of continuous contraction result because the cross bridges are unable
to detach. Excess accumulation of lactic acid and ionic imbalance also contribute muscle fatigue. Lactic acid,
which causes the muscle pH drop (and muscle to ache), causes the extreme fatigue by breaking glucose.
Q.61: What is muscle cramp? Mention its causes.
The tetanic contraction of entire muscle is called cramp. It lasts few second or several hours, causing the
muscle to become taut or painful. It is most common is thigh and hip muscles, it usually occurs at night or
after exercise. It reflects low blood sugar level. Electrolyte depletion, dehydration and irritability of spinal
cord and neurons.
Q.62: Differentiate between tetanus and muscular tetany.
Tetanus Muscular Tetany
It is an acute infectious disease. It is caused by The continuous state of muscles contraction.
anaerobic bacterium Clostridium tetany. It is caused by low calcium level in the blood.
It causes the stiffness of jaws and neck muscles It causes spasm of larynx and respiratory paralysis.
(locked jaw).
Q.63: What is tetanus? Give its symptoms.
The term tetanus is used for an acute infectious disease caused by anaerobic bacterium Clostridium tetani. It
results in persistent painful spasm of some skeletal muscles. Typically begins gradually with stiffness of jaws
and neck muscles and progresses to fixed rigidity of jaws (lock jaw). Spasm of trunk and limb muscles, usually
fatal due to respiratory failure.
Q.64: Characterize the disease Tetany.
Tetany is the disease caused by low calcium in the blood. It increases the excitability of neurons and results
in loss of sensations. Muscle twitches and convulsion occur. If untreated the system progresses to spam of
larynx, respiratory paralysis and ultimately death occurs.
Q.65: How does tendon differ from ligament?
Ligament Tendon
A connective tissues fibril which connects bones A connective tissues fibril which connects muscles to
to bones. bones.
These are slightly elastic in nature. These are non-elastic in nature.
They provide stability to joints. They protect joints and provide mobility.
Q.66: What is effect of exercise on muscle?
When muscles are used actively, they increase in size or strength and become more efficient. Capillaries
surrounding the muscle fibers, as well as mitochondria within them increase in number and fiber synthesizes
more myoglobin. These changes result in more efficient muscle metabolism and resistance to fatigue.
Q.67: What is source of energy for muscles contraction?
Energy for muscle contraction comes from the ATP. Supply of ATP is maintained by the aerobic breakdown
of glucose in muscle cell, which comes from stored glycogen in the cell. When more energy is required due
to high metabolism, it is provided by another energy storing substance called creatine phosphate.
Q.68: Define ‘all or none response’.
The contraction of each muscle fiber is based on “all or none” principle i.e. all of its fibrils participate in
contraction. The degree of contraction depends upon the number of fibers that participate in contraction.
Q.69: What are Brachialis and Brachioradialis.
Brachialis: Muscles inserted in ulna are brachialis.
Brachioradialus: Muscle inserted in radius
Q.70: Differentiate between effective an recovery stroke in paramecium.
Effective stroke Recovery stroke
In this case, five out of nine (5/9) double fibrils In this case, the four out of nine double fibrils
contact or slide simultaneously. contract
As a result that cilium bend or shorten. As a result cilium becomes, straight.
It is called effective stroke. It is called recovery stroke.
Q.71: What are organs of locomotion in Paramecium, Euglena, Amoeba, and Starfish?
Organ of locomotion in Paramecium is cilia, Flagellum in Euglena, pseudopodia Amoeba is, and tube feet in
Starfish.
Q.72: Write adaptations of fishes for swimming.
Streamlined Body Shape: Most fishes have a fusiform (torpedo-shaped) body that reduces water resistance,
allowing them to swim efficiently.
Fins for Propulsion and Steering: Fishes use paired fins (pectoral and pelvic) for balance and steering, and
unpaired fins (dorsal, anal, and caudal) for propulsion and stability.
Scales and Mucus Layer: Overlapping scales covered with a thin layer of mucus reduce friction with water,
enhancing smooth and faster swimming.
Q.73: Differentiate between active and passive flight.
Active Flight Passive Flight
The birds fly actively by flapping their wings. The birds fly passively by gliding and have support
In this case air pressure on top of decreases as from air.
compared to lower, which uplift to bird. The wings act as an aerofoil during gliding.
Q.74: What are ungligrades?
These mammals walk on tips of toes modified into hoof are called unguligrades such as deer, Goat etc. It is
most swift type of locomotion.
Q.75: Compare digitigrades and plantigrades?
Plantigrades Digitigrades
In this mode of locomotion the mammals walk on Some mammals tend to walk on their digits only are
their sole are called plantigrades. called digitigrades.
Their palm, wrist and digits all rest on ground. Their modified digits only rest on ground.
They run slower than digitigrades. They run faster than plantigrades.
Example: Monkey, apes, man, bear etc. Examples: Rabbits rodents etc.
Q.76: What is Jet Propulsion? / How locomotion takes place in jelly fish?
Jelly fish has umbrella-like body called bell. First of all, water enters in bell then bell the water is forced out
like a jet and animal moves forward. This movement is known as jet propulsion.
Q.77: What are two types of wings? There two types of wings:
Long narrow wing: These are present in gulls and other seas birds. These are ideal for gliding into wind.
Short broad wing: These are present in many garden birds. They are effective for slow flapping flight.
Q.78: Define aerofoil.
Any smooth surface which moves through the air at an angle to stream. Bird wings act as aerofoils during
passive flight.
Q.79: Write two adaptations in birds that help them for flight?
Bones: They have bones with large air space. It has made the bones light.
Keel (boat like): The sternum is modified to form a keel. The keel is needed for the attachment of muscles.
Feather: The body is covered with feathers to keep their body warm. Thus, they can produce energy to fly.
Streamline body: It help the body to cut clearly through air.
Q.80: What is foramen triosseum? Give its function.
Foramen triosseum is an opening present in birds among three bones named scapula, coracoid, and clavicle.
Function: The tendon of supracoracoid muscle passes through this and attaches to upper surface of humorous,
due to which lifting action of the birds wing is possible.
 Ch. 17 (Coordination and Control)
Important Short Questions

Q.1: Differentiate between coordination of plants and animals.

Coordination in plants Coordination in animals
Plants behaviour is passive in response to stimulus. Animal behaviour is active in response to stimulus.
Plant has no specialized tissues for rapid movements Animal have evolved specialized tissues for rapid
Coordination in plants is achieved especially by movements like muscles.
hormones. Coordination in animals is by varieties of hormone
Slow response in plants is due to delay release and and nervous system.
arrival of hormone on target site. Rapid response is due to highly efficient nervous
system.
Q.2: Differentiate between etiolation and chlorosis.
Etiolation Chlorosis
If the plants are grown without light, they become Many plants take yellowish hue when they fail to
extremely long and fail to form the chlorophyll. They form sufficient chlorophyll. This condition is
are said to be etiolated. known as chlorosis.
Basis: This condition is arisen due to absence of light. Basis: This condition is arisen due to short supply
of mineral nutrient in soil.
Q.3: Differentiate between calluses and gall.
Calluses Galls
If plants are wounded, they often develop masses of Galls are growths on a plant that are induced by
amorphous material with very poor differentiation parasite and usually have highly organized growth.
known as calluses.
Induction: These are induced by damage or wound. Induction: These are induced by parasite or tumor.
Q.4: Differentiate between Biorhythm and diurnal rhythm.
Biorhythm Diurnal rhythm
In living things behavior activities occur at regular The biorhythms showing periodicity of about 24
intervals which are called biorhythm or biological hours are called diurnal or circadian rhythms.
rhythm. Examples: Opening and closing of stomata, sleep-
Examples: Flowering season in plants, migration of wake cycle etc.
birds etc.
Q.5: How do circadian rhythms are different from circannual rhythms?
Circadian rhythm Circannual rhythm
The biorhythms showing periodicity of about 24 hours If biorhythms are of about 365 days, these rhythms
are called diurnal or circadian rhythms. in activities are called circannual rhythm.
Examples: Opening and closing of stomata, sleep- Examples: Flowering season in plants , migration
wake cycle etc. birds etc.
Q.6: Write two characters of auxins.
• Auxins are indole acetic acid or its variants.
• In stem, auxins promote cell enlargements in region behind the apex.
• Promote cell division in cambium.
• Promote apical dominance and fruit growth.
• They sometimes can induce parthenocarpy.
Q.7: Write down the commercial applications of auxins.
NNA (Naphthalene acetic acid) and IAA (Indole propionic acid) stimulate fruiting- help natural fruit set
sometimes causes the fruit setting in absence of pollination (parthenocarpy).
2, 4 D (2, 4 Dichloro phenoxy acetic acid) is used as selective weed killer kills broad leaved species (Dicot).
Use in cereal crops and lawns to eliminate weeds. Inhibit the sprouting of potatoes. Prevent the premature fruit
drop (retard abscission).
Q.8: Name the synthetic auxin used as selective week killer.
2, 4 D (Dichloro phenoxy acetic acid) is used as selective week killer.
Q.9: What is commercial application of 2, 4 D (2, 4 Dichloro phenoxy acetic acid)?
• It kills broad leaved species (Dicot). Use in cereal crops and lawns to eliminate weeds.
• Inhibit the sprouting of potatoes.
• Prevent the premature fruit drop (retard abscission).
Q.10: Give commercial applications of gibberellins.
• GA promotes fruit setting e.g. tangerine and pears and used for growing seedless grapes (parthenocarpy)
and also increases the berry size.
• GA3 is used in brewing industry to stimulate α-amylase production in barley and this promotes malting.
• To delays ripening and improve storage life of bananas and grape fruits.
Q.11: Give two functions cytokinins hormones.
• Inhibit primary root growth.
• Promote lateral root growth.
• Promote stomatal opening.
Q.12: Give commercial applications of cytokinins.
• Cytokinins delay aging in fresh leaf crops, such as cabbage and lettuce (delay of senescence).
• It also keeps flowers fresh.
• They can also be used to break dormancy of some seeds.
Q.13: Give commercial applications of ethene.
• Ethene induces flowering in pineapple.
• It stimulates ripening of tomato and citrus fruit.
• The commercial compound ethephon break down to release ethene in plants and is applied to rubber plant
to stimulate flow of latex.
Q.14: Give commercial applications of abscisic acids.
Abscisic acid can be sprayed on tree crops to regulate fruit drop at the end of the season. This removes the
need for picking over a large time-span.
Q.15: Define receptors. Names different types of receptors.
The cells or organs which detect the change in internal and external environment of animals are called receptor.
The receptor may be a cell, neuron ending or receptor organ.
Types of receptors: Receptors are classified as Chemoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, photoreceptors,
thermoreceptors and nociceptors.
Q.16: Names and functions of different types of receptors.
Receptors are classified as follows:
Chemoreceptors: These are for smell, taste and for blood CO2, oxygen, glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids
(e.g. receptors in the hypothalamus).
Mechanoreceptors: These detect stimuli of touch, pressure, hearing, and equilibrium (e.g. free nerve endings
+ expended tips ending + stray endings).
Photoreceptors (electromagnetic receptors), respond to stimuli of light for example in eyes, rods, and cones.
Thermoreceptors: These are free nerve endings. These show the response of cold and warmth.
Nociceptors (Undifferentiated nerve endings) which produce the sensation of pain.
Q.17: Define Nissl's granules.
Nissl’s granules are group of ribosomes associated with rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus in
axoplasm of neurons.
Q. 18: Draw the Structure of Sensory Neurons.

Q. 19: Differentiate between Meissners corpuscles and Pacinian s corpuscle?

Meissners corpuscles Pacinian corpuscles
These are encapsulated nerve endings which lie in These are also encapsulated nerve endings which
papillae which extend into ridge of fingertips. situated quite deep in the body.
The corpuscles consist of spiral and much twisted Corpuscles located in limb probably form a basis
endings each of which ends in knob. of for vibration sense.
These are touch receptors. These receptors receive deep pressure.
Q.20: Mention relative abundance and distribution of receptor in human skin.
The relative abundance and distribution of various types of receptors in human skin differs greatly e.g. pain
receptors are nearly 27 times more abundant than cold receptors. The cold receptors are nearly10 times more
than temperature or heat receptors. The receptors are not distributed evenly over the entire surface of body
e.g. touch receptors are much more numerous in the finger tips than in the skin of the back. Their number is
relevant to the normal function of those two parts of body.
Q.21: What is neuroglia? Give their functions.
The chief structural and functional units of the nervous system are neurons, but there are other cells, in higher
animals, and in human called neuroglia, which make up as much as half of nervous system. Neuroglia play
important role in the nutrition of neurons and their protection by myelin sheath.
Q.22: How axons differ from dendrites?
Dendrites Axon
The processes or fibers which carry nerve impulse The processes or fibers conducting nerve impulse
towards the cell body of neuron are called Dendrites. away from the cell body of neuron are called Axon.
These are usually many per neuron. These are one per neuron.
These are very short in length. These are longer in length.
Neurotransmitter vesicles are not present. They contain neurotransmitter vesicles.
Q.23: Define effector. Give their examples.
These are structures which respond when they are stimulated by impulse coming via motor neuron.
Examples: The principal receptors are:
Glands which respond by secreting of hormones or enzymes.
Muscles which respond by contracting.
Q.24: What is reflex arc and reflex action? Give example.
The pathway of nerve impulse during a reflex action is called reflex arc. Reflex action is involuntary type of
action.
Example of reflex arc: Pain withdrawal reflex is simple reflex.
Q.25: Define nerve impulse.
Nerve impulse is wave of electrochemical changes, which travels along the length of the neurons involving
chemicals reactions and movements of ions across the cell membrane.
Q.26: Define electrical potential.
It is defined as capacity to do electrical work. It is type of stored energy which is produced during separation
of charges across the barrier. The charges in neurons are positive and negative.
Q.27: Define resting membrane potential. /What is meant by resting membrane potential?
The net difference of the charge between inner and outer surface of non-conducting neuron with more
electrically positive outside than inside of cell membrane is resting membrane potential. Resting membrane
potential is -70 mV.
Q.28: Define active membrane potential.
Resting membrane potential for a brief instant is replaced by active membrane potential is in the form of nerve
impulse. During this state, the inner membrane surface becomes more positive than outer. Active membrane
potential is +50 mV.
Q.29: Differentiate between resting and active membrane potential.
Resting membrane Potential Active membrane Potential
In this case, neuron is more positive electrically In this case, neuron is more negative electrically
outside than inside the cell membrane. outside than inside the cell membrane.
It does not transmit nerve impulse. It transmits nerve impulse. Action membrane
Resting membrane potential is -70 mV. potential is +50 mV.
Most of times neuron remain resting membrane Action potential is only for brief period.
potential.
Q.30: What is synapse?
Synapse is a microscopic gap between contact point of axon endings of one neuron and dendrites of other
neuron. There is no cytoplasmic connection between two neurons and microscopic gaps are left between them.
Each of these contact point is known as synapse.
Q.31: What are neurotransmitters? Give their two examples.
The action membrane potential cannot jump from one neuron to the next in line; rather, the message is
transmitted across the synapse in the form of a chemical messenger called a neurotransmitter.
Examples: Many neurotransmitters are known. These include acetylcholine, adrenaline, noradrenaline,
serotonin, and dopamine. Among these, acetylcholine is the only neurotransmitter that lies outside the CNS
neurons.
Q.32: Define the saltatory impulse.
In myelinated neurons, nerve impulse jumps from node to node (node of Ranvier). This is called saltatory
impulse. The normal speed of nerve impulse in humans is 100 meters per second but maximum speed recorded
is 120 meters per second.
Q.33: How nervous system of planaria is better from hydra?
The nervous system of Planaria is better developed as compared with hydra because it is centralized, has
definite nerves, has differentiation of neurons, has sense organs in the form of eyes and chemoreceptors and
has receptor cells sensitive to pressure and touch
Q.34: How brain and spinal cord are protected by various covers?
• Cranium which is part of skull protects brain and neural arches.
• Vertebrae of vertebral column protect spinal cord.
• The brain and spinal cord are also protected by triple layers of meninges.
• The cerebrospinal fluid similar composition to blood plasma bathes the neurons of brain and spinal cord and
it is cushion against bump and jolts.
Q. 35: Define limbic system. Give two functions.
The limbic system is located in an arc between thalamus and cerebrum.
Limbic system works together to produce our most basic and primitive emotions, drives and behaviors
including fear, rage, tranquility, hunger, thirst, pleasure and sexual responses.
Q.36: Give names of structural components of limbic system.
The limbic system consists of hypothalamus, the amygdala, and hippocampus as well as nearby region of
cerebrum.
Q.37: What is role of Amygdala?
In amygdala, clusters of neurons produce sensation of pleasures punishment or sexual arousal when
stimulated. It is also involved in feelings of fear and rage.
Q.38: What is cerebrospinal fluid? Write its functions.
The cerebrospinal fluid similar composition to blood plasma bathes the neurons of brain and spinal cord and
it is cushion against bump and jolts. The spinal cord has central canal and brain has many cavities filled by
CSF, which is also present between meninges.
Q.39: Give the function of Hypothalamus.
Hypothalamus through its hormones production and neural connection act as a major coordinating center
controlling:
• Body temperature • The menstrual cycle • Sleep-wake cycle
• Hunger • Water balance
Q.40: Give functions of hind-brain.
Hindbrain includes the medulla, pons and cerebellum.
Medulla several control automatic functions, such as breathing, heart beat rate, blood pressure and swallowing.
Pons influence transitions between sleep and wakefulness, and the rate pattern of breathing. Cerebellum is
important in coordinating movements which guides, smooth and accurate motion and maintains body position.
Cerebellum is involved in learning and memory storage of behaviours.
Q.41: Write functions of mid brain?
Midbrain is reduced in humans. It has following functions.
Auditory Relay Centre: It contains auditory relay center and center that controls reflex movements of eyes.
Reticular formation: Midbrain contains reticular formation, which is a relay center connecting hindbrain
with the forebrain. Reticular formation is very important in screening the input information before they reach
higher brain centers.
Q.42: Compare sympathetic and parasympathetic system.
Sympathetic Nervous System Parasympathetic Nervous system
Most ganglion fibers of the sympathetic system arise A few cranial nerves including vagus nerves
from the middle portion of the spinal cord and almost together with the nerves from the bottom of spinal
terminate in ganglia that lie near the cord. cord form parasympathetic nervous system.
This system is important during emergency situations It promotes all internal responses which are
and is associated with “fight or flight.” associated with relaxed state.
This system accelerates the heartbeat, dilates the pupil This system control contraction of pupils,
and inhibits the digestion of food etc. promotes digestion of food, retard the heart beat
etc.
Q.43: Differentiate between CNS and PNS.
Central nervous system (CNS) Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
It consists of the brain and the spinal cord. It consists of autonomic and sympathetic nervous
It receives and processes of information; initiates system.
the action. It transmits signal between CNC and rest of body.
It is composed of associated or mixed neuron. It is composed of motor neurons and sensory neurons.
It controls voluntary actions of body. It controls involuntary action of body.
Q.44: What do you know about parasympathetic nervous system?
A few cranial nerves including vagus nerves together with the nerves from the bottom of spinal cord form
parasympathetic nervous system. It promotes all internal responses which are associated with relaxed state i.e.
contraction of pupils, promotes digestion of food, retard the heart beat etc.
Q.45: Give three main actions of nicotine on coordination.
• Nicotine affects post synaptic membrane in CNS and PNS.
• It mimics the action of acetylene choline on nicotine receptor.
• It is stimulant of nerve impulse.
• It increases the heartbeat, blood pressure and digestive tract mobility.
• Nicotine may induce vomiting and diarrhea, and even may disturb the water retention relation.
Q.46: Differentiate between nerves and ganglia.
Nerves Ganglia
The nerves are the bundles of axons or dendrites, Ganglia are the concentrations of cell bodies of
bounded by connective tissue. neurons.
Examples: Spinal and cranial nerves. Examples: Dorsal root ganglion of sensory neuron.
Q.47: Give effect of nicotine on blood vascular system and digestive system.
• It increases the heartbeat, blood pressure and digestive tract mobility.
• Nicotine may induce vomiting and diarrhea, and even may disturb the water retention relation.
Q.48: What is Parkinson’s disease?
It is a nervous disorder, characterized by involuntary tremors, diminished motor power and rigidity. The mental
faculties are not affected. The disease is believed to be caused by cell death in the brain area that produces
dopamine. This disease may result by head trauma. Onset of disease is usually in 50’s and 60’s. Treatment:
Effective drugs are available such as L- dopa.
Q.49: What is epilepsy?
It is one of the convulsive disorders of nerves which are characterized by abrupt transient symptoms of motor,
sensory, psychic or autonomic nature, frequently sudden transient alterations in brain function associated with
excessive rapid electric discharges in the gray matter. Electroencephalography is the most important test in
the study of epilepsy. The onset of epilepsy is usually before age 30. Treatment: Anticonvulsant drugs are
used.
Q.50: What are symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease?
Its symptoms are similar to those diseases that cause dementia (memory loss). There is genetic predisposition
to the disease in some people, so it tends to run in families.
Q.51: Compare grey and white matter of spinal cord.
Grey Matter White Matter
It is inner and butterfly-shaped part of spinal cord. It is outer portion of spinal cord.
It contains central canal. It is without central canal.
It consists of cell bodies and non-myelinated nerve It consists of myelinated nerve fibers or tract.
fibers or tract.
Q.52: State two differences between nervous coordination and chemical coordination.
Nervous coordination Chemical coordination
The type of coordination which involves the The type of coordination which involves
specialized cells or neurons. specialized chemical secreting tissues or glands.
Neurons link together to form nervous system. Glands are link together to form endocrine system.
This has immediate effect or slow response to a There may have immediate effect but mostly
stimulus. hormones has prolonged and delayed effects.
This show rapid speed. It is not very rapid.
Q.53: Write four similarities of nervous and chemical coordination.
• Both hormone producing cells and nerve cells (neurons) synthesize chemical messenger.
• Both release the messenger chemicals in extracellular space of body.
• Both help in coordination of the body.
• Both are homeostatic in function.
Q.54: Define term hormone. Give two characteristics of hormone. Give example of hormone.
Hormones are organic compounds which are produced by gland cells, transported by blood and affect the
functioning of target cell. Examples: Insulin decreases blood glucose level.
Characteristics of hormones:
• They have different chemical nature.
• They don’t initiate new biochemical reaction but regulate already present the enzymatic or other reaction.
• They may either stimulate or inhibit a function.
Q.55: Explain different types of animal’s hormones chemically.
Chemically hormones may be following four types:
• Proteins (e.g. insulin and glucagon).
• Amino acid and derivative (e.g. thyroxine, epinephrine and norepinephrine).
• Polypeptides (e.g. vasopressin or anti-diuretic hormone and oxytocin).
• Steroids (e.g. oestrogen, testosterone and cortisone).
Q.56: Write down role of hypothalamus in chemical coordination.
It is a part of the fore brain. It is here many sensory stimuli of nervous system are converted into hormonal
responses. It is believed that oxytocin and ADH are produced in hypothalamus and then travel down nerves
to posterior lobe pituitary to be stored. They are released from storage after receiving impulse from the
hypothalamus.
Q.57: Anterior lobe of pituitary Gland is master Gland. Discuss.
Anterior lobe of pituitary gland is often referred as to the master gland, because in addition to producing
primary hormones it produces tropic hormones which control the secretion of hormones in many of other
endocrine glands.
Q.58: Define acromegaly. Give its causes.
If a Somatotrophin hormone (STH) is produced in excess during early life, leads to gigantism or if in later of
life causes the abnormal development of hands, feet, jaws etc. is known as acromegaly.
Q.59: What are effects of under secretion of vasopressin?
A lack of vasopressin produces diabetes insipidus, characterized by production of large quantities of diluted
urine and great thirst.
Q.60: Give causes of stimulation and the role of oxytocin.
Its release is stimulated by distension of cervix, decrease in progesterone level in blood and neural stimuli
during parturition and suckling.
Role of Oxytocin
• Primary action is on smooth muscle, particularly in the uterus during the child birth.
• And also causes milk ejection from mammary glands.
Q.61: What are the functions of parathyroid glands?
In man the glands are embedded in the posterior part of lateral lobes of the thyroid. These produce a hormone
called parathormone. Low level of blood Ca++ ions stimulate the parathyroid directly to increase
parathormone production whereas high level Ca++ ions suppress its release.
Under-activity causes a drop in blood Ca++ ions which in turn lead to muscular tetany. Over-activity leads to
a progressive demineralization of bones of similar to rickets as well as massive kidney stones. Both conditions
may be fatal.
Q.62: Explain functions of two hormones secreted by islets of Langerhans.
The islets of Langerhans contain large number of β cells associated with insulin production. The smaller
numbers of α cell secrete glucagon.
Generally, insulin depresses blood glucose level. Glucagon is antagonistic to insulin and causes the increase
of blood glucose level.
Q.63: Write the actions of glucagon? / Give role of insulin and glucagon.
The action of glucagon is essentially antagonistic to insulin and causes an increase of blood glucose level. It
does this mainly by breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver and muscles. It also increases the rate of
breakdown of fat.
Q.64: Name the hormones released by Adrenal glands.
Adrenal cortex produces Corticosterone and Aldosterone.
Adrenal medulla produces Adrenaline or Epinephrine, and Noradrenaline or Norepinephrine.
Q.65: How blood pressure is synergistically affected by adrenaline and noradrenaline?
Both adrenaline and noradrenaline are secreted in stress situations. Essentially, adrenaline dilates the blood
vessels in certain parts of body such as skeletal muscle and increases the heart’s output. Noradrenaline
constricts blood vessels but again only in certain areas such as gut, so the effects of the two hormones are
synergistic in raising blood pressure.
Q.66: Discuss two hormones produced by gut.
Many parts of the gut function as endocrine tissues. The important hormones produced are: Gastrin: Gastrin
is produced by mucosa of the pyloric region of stomach. It stimulates the secretion of gastric juice. It is
produced under the influence of protein food in the stomach after it is partially digested.
Secretion: It is produced by duodenum, when acid food touches its lining. It affects the pancreas to produce
and release pancreatic juice and also affects the rate of bile production in the liver.
Q.67: Compare gastrin and secretin hormones.
Gastrin Secretin
It is produced by mucosa of the pyloric region of It is produced by duodenum, when acid food touches
stomach under the influence of partially digested its lining.
protein food in the stomach. It stimulates the pancreas to produce and release
It stimulates the secretion of gastric juice. It does not pancreatic juice.
affect the rate of bile production in the liver. It also affects the rate of bile production in the liver.
Q.68: Give the role of gastrin hormone in digestion.
Gastrin is produced by mucosa of the pyloric region of stomach. It stimulates the secretion of gastric juice. It
is produced under the influence of protein food in the stomach after it is partially digested.
Q.69: What is the role of aldosterone and antidiuretic hormones (ADH)?
Both these hormones are mainly involved in osmoregulation of body. Aldosterone regulates the mineral ion
balance in the body. It conserves the level of Na+ in the body and prevents loss from kidney tubules. ADH
regulates water level in body. It promotes retention of water by kidneys in short supply and promotes water
loss in excess supply.
Q.70: Give functions of oestrogen hormone. How its deficiency affects?
• Oestrogen brings about the development of secondary sexual characteristics in females.
• It causes of thickening of the uterine wall.
• They also aid in healing and repair of uterine wall after menstruations.
• Deficiency of the sex hormones, leads in the young of failure to mature sexually and sterility in adults.
Q.71: Why progesterone is constituents of birth control pills?
Progesterone suppresses ovulation. That is why it is major constituent of birth control pills.
Q.72: Give functions of Testosterones. How its deficiency affects?
• In the foetus, it initiates the development of sex organs.
• At puberty, it brings about development of male secondary characteristics and promotes the sexual drive.
• Castrated male fail to develop secondary sexual characteristics and his body tends more towards the form
of the immature female.
Q.73: How Addison’s disease and Cushing’s disease are related?
Addison’s disease and Cushing’s disease are related because both of them disturb metabolism, particularly
weakness of muscles.
Q.74: Differentiate kinesis and taxes.
Kineses Taxes
It is a behaviour in which an organism changes the In contrast to kineses, a taxis (plural: taxes) is a
speed of random movement which helps them to directed movement either towards (positive taxis)
survive in the environment. or away from (negative taxis) a stimulus.
 Example: This type of behaviour enables pill pugs Example: Chemotaxis in bacteria and movement
(wood louse) to reach the moist area which is required of sperm of liverworts, mosses ferns towards
for their life. archegonium.
Q.75: What are the functions of follicle stimulating hormones (FSH)?
Females: In females stimulates follicle development and secretion of estrogen from ovaries.
Males: In males it stimulates development of the germinal epithelium of testes and sperm.
Q.76: Name the hormones that stimulate mammary gland for lactation.
Prolactin is a hormone associated with lactation. It stimulates the mammary glands to produce milk (lactation):
Increased serum concentrations of prolactin during pregnancy cause enlargement of the mammary glands of
the breasts and prepare the production of milk.
Q.77: What is imprinting?
The process by which an animal forms an association with another animal or object in the environment during
sensitive period of development is called imprinting. It is most common in birds. Bird’s young ones have
tendency to follow moving objects in their surroundings. Within a brief sensitive period, shape and forms of
object imprinted on the young bird.
Q.78: Define feedback mechanism also give its example.
It is type of interaction in which a controlling mechanism is itself controlled by the products of reactions. The
interaction of pituitary and other endocrine glands is examples of feedback mechanism. This mechanism is
very common in living system.
Q.79: Discuss latent learning.
Thorpe defined latent learning as the association of indifferent stimuli or situations without patent reward.
Q.80: What is habituation? Give an example.
Habituation is the simplest form of learning and involves modification of behaviour through a diminution of
response to repeated stimuli. A loss of receptivity to repetitious stimuli can be useful in preventing a drain of
energy and attention for trivial purposes.
Example: A snail crawling on a sheet of glass retracts into its shell when glass is tapped. After a pause, it
emerges and continues moving. A second tap causes retraction again but it emerges more quickly. Ultimately
tapping has no effect and snail ceases to respond.
Q.81: Name the four types of learning behavior?
Thorpe classified learning behaviours in six types:
1. Imprinting
2. Habituation
3. Condition or condition reflex type-I
4. Operant conditioning or condition reflex type-II
5. Latent learning
6. Insight learning
 Chapter No. 18 (Reproduction)
Important Short Questions

Q. 1: What is Diplohaplontic life cycle.

In sexual reproduction, plants have diplohaplontic life cycle with alternating diploid sporophyte and haploid
gametophyte generations. If the two generations are vegetatively similar, such alternation of generations is
referred to as isomorphic, and if they are dissimilar, it is called heteromorphic.
Q. 2: Write methods of asexual reproduction.
Methods of asexual reproduction are fission, sporulation, budding, vegetative propagation, artificial
propagation, parthenogenesis and apomixis etc.
Q.3: Why seed plants are dominant all over world?
Seed plants are predominantly present all around us due to their better sexual reproduction, modification of
flower and inflorescence for pollination, involving gamete transfer by pollen tubes, food storage for
developing embryo, protection by seed coats and dispersal with the help of fruit formation
Q.4: Describe evolution of pollen tube.
Evolution of pollen tube is an important step in land adaptation by the spermatophytes. Pollen tube acts as
vehicle for male gametes for their safe transport to female gamete in ovule in hostile land environment.
Evolution of pollen tube is parallel to the evolution of seed and is a tool of success for seed plants.
Q.5: What is parthenocarpy? How it can be induced artificially?
In some cases, fruit development proceeds without fertilization and thus no seed formation takes place e.g.
banana, pineapples and some varieties of oranges and grapes. Such development is called parthenocarpy. It is
due to hormonal imbalance; usually high auxin levels occur in these ovaries. Parthenocarpy is sometime
artificially induced for commercial purposes, by adding auxins in tomato, peppers etc.
Q.6: Describe Seed dormancy. Also write its importance.
It is the special condition of rest, which enables an embryo to survive long periods of unfavourable
environmental conditions, such as water scarcity or low temperature. During this period of rest the embryo
ceases or limits its growth. This is of great survival importance to the plant in that it prevents the dormant seed
from germinating in response to conditions such as a warm spell in winter.
Q.7: Define climacteric.
Fruit ripening is often accompanied by a burst of respiratory activity called the climacteric. This is associated
with ethane production, which helps in ripening of the fruit.
Q.8: Write effects of photoperiod on plant.
In plants, photoperiod and temperature affect flowering, fruit and seed production, bud and seed dormancy,
leaf fall and germination. Photoperiod affects flowering, when shoot meristems start producing floral buds
instead of leaves and lateral buds.
Q.9: Differentiate between short day and long day plants.
Short Day Plants Long Day Plants
Flowering induced by dark periods longer than a critical Flowering induced by dark periods shorter than a
length, e.g. cocklebur 8.5 h; tobacco 10-11h. critical length, e.g. henbane 13h.
Under natural conditions equivalent to days shorter than Under natural conditions equivalent to days
a critical length, e.g. cocklebur 15.5 h; tobacco 13- 14h. longer than a critical length, e.g. henbane 11 h.
[Link], soyabean, tobacco, strawberry etc. e.g. henbane, cabbage, spring wheat etc.
Q.10: What are phytochromes?
In plants blue pigment that is red light sensitive protein are called phytochromes. Phytochrome exists in two
forms i.e. P 660 and P 730.
Q.11: Define vernalisation. Write its importance.
Biennials and perennial plants are stimulated to flowering by exposure to low temperature. This is called
vernalisation. Temperature around 4°C is found to be very effective. It stimulates the production of “vernalin”
hormone which induces vernalisation Photoperiodism and vernalisation serve to synchronize the reproductive
behaviour of plants with their environment, ensuring reproduction at favourable times of year. They also
ensure that members of the same species flower at the same time, encouraging cross pollination for genetic
variability.
Q.12: Define parthenogenesis.
Parthenogenesis is defined as the development of an egg without fertilization, ants, bees and wasps are good
examples. Parthenogenesis has the advantage of accelerating the normal reproductive rate.
Q.13: What is apomixis?
In flowering plants, one form of parthenogenesis is called apomixis. In this a diploid cell of the ovule, either
from the nucellus or megaspore, develops into a functional embryo in the absence of a male gamete. The rest
of the ovule develops into the seed and the ovary into the fruit.
Q.14: Differentiate between haploid and diploid parthenogenesis.
Haploid Parthenogenisis Diploid Parthenogenisis
In the honeybees, males are produced from In aphids, diploid parthenogenesis may occur, in
unfertilized eggs. The queen bee can lay eggs that have which the egg- producing cells of the female,
not been fertilized. The sperms are stored in a pouch. undergo a modified form of meiosis involving total
The eggs may be fertilized or may not be fertilized non-disjunction of the chromosomes, they retain
from the stored sperms. The haploid egg develops into the diploid number of chromosomes. Egg (diploid)
haploid offspring; it is called haploid parthenogenesis. develops into young females.
Q.15: Write procedure of cloning.
A nucleus from the somatic cell is removed and introduced into an egg cell, whose own nucleus has been
destroyed by ultra violet radiation. The egg with transplanted diploid somatic cell nucleus develops into an
organism, genetically identical to the parent who has contributed the nucleus.
Q.16: How identical twins are produced?
In higher vertebrates such as human, sometimes when embryo is at two celled stage, the two blastomeres,
instead of remaining together, may separate and behave as two independent zygotes, each giving rise to a new
individual. Both the organisms have identical genetic makeup and are called identical twins. They are
produced asexually.
Q.17: What are fraternal twins?
In some cases, more than one egg is produced by the female and all these eggs are independently fertilized
forming two or more zygote. These zygotes develop into new offsprings, but with different genetic
combinations. Such a twins or triplets are called fraternal twins or triplets. They are produced sexually.
Q.18: Differentiate between sexual and asexual reproduction.
Asexual Reproduction Sexual Reproduction
One parent only. Usually two parents.
No gametes are produced. Gametes are produced (Sperms and Eggs)
Meiosis absent. Meiosis is present.
Offsprings identical to parent. Offsprings are not identical to parents.
Example: Microorganisms and less differentiated Examples: Majority of plant and animal species.
animals
Q.19: Briefly describe fertilization. Differentiate between external and internal fertilization.
Fertilization is the process which leads to the union of gametes. Sperm and egg fuse to from zygote.
External Fertilization Internal Fertilization
Occur outside the body. Occur inside the body of female.
Takes place in aquatic environment. Takes place in terrestrial conditions.
Sperms and eggs are released in water where Sperms are lodged in the female body where
fertilization occurs. fertilization occurs.
Example: Fishes and Amphibians Examples: Reptiles, Birds and Mammals
Q.20: What are ovoviviparous.
In some mammals like duckbill platypus and spiny ant-eater internal fertilization leads to internal development
of young one in a shelled egg and when development is completed, shelled egg is laid which hatches to
offspring This is called ovoviviparous condition.
Q.21: Differentiate between oviparous and viviparous.
Oviparous Viviparous
Internal fertilization in birds and reptiles lead to In mammals, internal fertilization leads to internal
external development. They lay shelled eggs to protect development and development of embryo is
the developing embryo from harsh terrestrial accomplished inside the female body, which gives
conditions. Such animals are called oviparous. birth to young one - such animals are called
viviparous.
Q.22: Write function of Sertoli cells.
Sertoli cells secretes a fluid which provide liquid medium, protection and nourishment to sperms while they
are in the tubules.
Q.23: Differentiate b/w spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
Spermatogenesis Oogenisis
The production of sperms in males is called The production of eggs in female is called
spermatogenesis. oogenesis.
It occurs in testes. It occurs in ovaries.
Q.24: Write function of testosterone / interstitial cells.
Between the seminiferous tubules are interstitial cells which secrete testosterone. This hormone is essential
for the successful production of sperms and also controls the development of male secondary sexual
characteristics during puberty.
Q.25: Define ovulation.
Release of egg from follicle cells is called ovulation. In human female only one ovum is usually discharged
from the ovary at one time. It is induced by luteinizing hormone.
Q.26: Define menstrual cycle.
In human females, the periodic reproductive cycle is completed in approximately 28 days and involves
changes in the structure and function of the whole reproductive system. It is called the menstrual cycle. In
involves changes in uterus and ovaries. It is controlled by pituitary gonadotropins.
Q.27: What is follicle atresia?
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the development of several primary follicles. Only one of these
follicles continues to grow with its primary oocytes while the rest break down by a degenerative process
known as follicle atresia.
Q.28: Describe corpus luteum.
The follicle cells, after release of the egg. are modified to form a special structure called corpus luteum. This
yellowish glandular structure starts” secreting hormone called progesterone. Progesterone develops
endometrium for implantation of zygote.
Q.29: What is menstruation?
If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum starts degenerating. The progesterone secretion diminishes
and its supporting effect on the spongy endometrium is reduced, which suffers a breakdown. This causes the
discharge of blood and cell debris known as menstruation. This stage usually lasts for 3 - 7 days.
Q.30: Define Menupause.
The end or complete stop of the menstrual cycle is called menupause, after which the female stops producing
the ova. It occurs at age of 45-50 in human females.
Q.31: What is lactation?
The process of milk production in females is called lactation. Human placental lactogen and luteotropic
hormone stimulate mammary development in preparation for lactation during pregnancy.
Q.32: Which factors can affect female reproductive cycle?
Malnourishment and emotional stresses effect the female reproductive cycle, which may be disturbed. The
cycle is not completed in its normal 28 days.
Q.33: How birth is initiated?
The ACTH released from fetal pituitary stimulates the fetal adrenal gland to release corticosteroids, which
cross the placental barrier and enter the maternal blood circulation causing a decrease in progesterone
production. The reduction of progesterone level, stimulates the pituitary gland to produce oxytocin hormone.
This induces labour pains.
Q.34: What is oestrous cycle.
Oestrous cycle is a reproductive cycle found in all female mammals except human being. In this cycle, the
estrogen production prepares the uterus for conception partly and also follicle develops ova. At this stage,
female needs a physical stimulus of mating for ovulation. She exhibits the desire for mating or is said to be on
“heat”
Q.35: What is labour pain?
Contraction of uterus wall is called labour pain. It is due to oxytocin hormone. The release of oxytocin occurs
in “waves” during labour and provides the force to expel the fetus from the uterus.
Q.36: Briefly describe after birth.
Within 10-45 minutes after birth, the uterus contracts and separate the placenta from the wall of the uterus and
placenta then passes out through the vagina. This is called after birth. Bleeding is controlled by the contraction
of smooth muscle fibers which completely
surround all uterine blood vessels supplying the placenta. Average loss of blood is about 350 cm3.
Q.37: How test tube babies are produced?
Parental sperm and ovum are fertilized in vitro - outside the female body and then the zygote is implanted
back into the mother uterus, placenta establishes and remaining development takes place in the body of the
mother leading to normal birth.
Q.38: What is Gonorrhea?
It is caused by a gram-positive bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae, mainly affecting the mucous membrane of
urinogenital tract. New born infants may acquire serious eye infections if they pass through the infected birth
canal. It spreads through sexual contacts.
Q.39: Briefly describe syphilis.
It is caused by a spirochaete, Treponema pallidum. It damages the reproductive organs, eyes bones joints,
central nervous system, heart and skin. Sexual contact is the major source of its spreading.
Q.40: Write a short note on Genital herpes.
It is caused by a herpes simplex type 2 virus, mostly transmitted by sexual contact and causing infection of
the genitalia. It produces genital soreness and ulcers in the infected areas. In infected pregnant woman, virus
can be transmitted to infant during birth, causing damage to eyes and CNS of the infant.
Q.41: How to control sexually transmitted diseases?
The sexual diseases can be controlled and prevented by avoiding sexual contacts with carrier or diseased
person and adopting the hygienic conditions. The treatment involves medication for a long period except AIDS
at present.
 Ch. 19 (Growth and Development)
Important Short Questions

Q.1: Differentiate between Growth and Development.

Growth Development
Growth is the permanent and irreversible development is a programmed series of stages from a
increase in size that occurs as an organism simpler to more complex form. As development
mature. The most obvious change is growth. proceeds, cellular differentiation of structure and
function takes place.
Q.2: What is Open Growth?
A plant has a growth pattern called open growth. Throughout life, the plant adds new organs such as branches,
leaves and roots, enlarging from the tips of roots and shoot but the rate of growth is not uniform throughout
the plant body.
Q.3: Define Meristem. Name its types.
In higher plants, growth is limited to certain regions known as growing points. These growing points consist
of groups of cells which are capable of division, these growing points are called meristems. These meristematic
cells are located at the stem and root and they are of the following types.
1. Apical Meristem. 2. Intercalary Meristem. 3. Lateral Meristem
Q.4: Briefly describe Apical Meristem.
The apical meristems are found at the tips of roots and shoot and are primarily concerned with the extension
of plant body. These are perpetual growth zones found at the apices of roots and stems. They are responsible
for primary growth.
Q.5: What is Intercalary Meristem?
These are the parts of apical meristem which get separated from apex by permanent tissues. They are situated
at the bases of internodes in many plants. They play important role in the production of leaves and flowers.
These are of temporary nature.
Q.6: Describe Lateral Meristem.
Lateral meristems are cylinders of dividing cells. They are present in dicots and gymnosperms. Vascular and
cork cambium are the examples of lateral meristem. They play an important role in secondary growth.
Q.7: Differentiate between Determinate and Indeterminate Growth in Plants.
Determinate Growth Indeterminate Growth
The type of secondary growth in which stem and root The type of secondary growth in which
grow to certain size and then stop e.g. leaves, flowers meristems continually replenish themselves,
and fruits. remaining youthful e.g. vegetative root and
stem.
Q.8: Differentiate between Primary and Secondary Growth.
Primary Growth Secondary Growth
Increase in plant height (length) due to increase in the Increase in diameter (thickness) of stem and
number of cells at the tips of roots and stem is called root due to activity of vascular and cork
primary growth. cambium is called secondary growth.
Primary tissues are added by the apical meristem. Secondary growth is due to Lateral and
Intercalary Meristem.
Q.9: Briefly describe Zone of Cell Division in Plants.
During cell division, the number of cells increase by mitosis. It occurs at the tip of root and shoot where cells
are small, have spherical nuclei lying in the center of cytoplasm, which is non-vacuolated. As a result of cell
division, each daughter cell proceeds to enlarge. Synthesis of cytoplasm and cell wall material also takes place
in this zone.
Q.10: What do you know about zone of elongation?
A little distance from apex of root and shoot lies the zone of elongation and is only of few millimeters in
length. During elongation the cell volume increases upto 150 folds due to uptake of water. Plasticity of cell
wall increases and wall pressure is reduced. Synthesis of new cytoplasm and cell wall material proceeds on.
Q.11: How Temperature affects growth in plants?
Rate of growth increases with rise of temperature and decreases with decrease in temperature. For maximum
growth, the optimum temperature is 25-30°C and it is least at 5-10°C. But at a very high temperature (35-
40°C), the rate of growth stops and the plant may die.
Q.12: Describe effect of light on plant growth.
Light influences growth in three ways; intensity, quality and duration. The increase in intensity of light
increases the number of cell divisions. The red-light favours elongation of cells and blue light enhances cell
division. Light also plays a role in inducing or suppressing flowering (photoperiodism)
Q.13: Define Differentiation in Plants.
In Plant’s development depends on the activities of the meristematic tissues, shoot and root apical meristems
give rise to all cells of the adult plant. Differentiation is the formation of specialized tissues in Plants.
Q.14: Define Growth Correlation.
The development of a plant is usually correlated with its growth and different organs growing at different rates
in different directions and the development of different parts takes place. Such reciprocal relationship is known
as correlation.
Q.15: What is Apical Dominance?
It is the growth correlative effect in plants. In many plants, only apical bud grows while growth is
suppressed in lower axillary buds. The auxin of terminal bud is responsible for inhibiting the growth of
lateral buds and this process is known as apical dominance.
Q.16: Differentiate between inhibitory and compensatory effect.
Inhibitory Effect Compensatory Effect
Apical dominance is caused by auxin diffusing from the apical The removal of apex releases the lateral
bud which inhibits the growth of lateral shoots is called buds from apical dominance. It is called
inhibitory effect. compensatory effect.
Q.17: Describe importance of Apical Dominance.
Apical dominance plays an important role in tap root development, and inhibition of sprouting of lateral buds
(eyes) in potato tuber by applying synthetic auxin. The storing period is increased from one to three years.
Q.18: Define Embryology.
Embryology is the study of growth and differentiation undergone by an organism in the course of its
development from a single fertilized egg into a highly complex and an independent living being like his
parents.
Q.19: Describe key events in animals’ development.
Q.20: Define Cleavage. / What is Discoidal Cleavage?
After fertilization, the egg undergoes a series of mitotic divisions, called cleavage. In bird’s egg the process
of cell division is confined to the small disc of protoplasm lying on the surface of the yolk at the. animal pole.
This type of cleavage is referred as discoidal cleavage.
Q.21: Write a short note on Morulla stage.
Cleavage results in the formation of a rounded closely packed mass of blastomeres. This is morula, it consists
of a disc shaped mass of cells two or more layers in thickness (blastoderm) lying close to the yolk. In the
center of the blastoderm, the cells are smaller and completely defined while those at the periphery, are
flattened, and larger.
Q.22: Briefly describe Blastula Stage. / What is Blastoderm?
The morula stage is short-lived and soon changes into blastula and is characterized by the presence of a
segmentation cavity or blastocoele. The discoidal cap of cells above the blastocoele is called blastoderm.
Q.23: Describe Zone of Junction.
The marginal area of the blastoderm in which the cells remain undetached from the yolk and closely adherent
to it is called the zone of junction.
Q.24: What is Gastrulation? / Differentiate between Epiblast and Hypoblast.
Gastrulation is characterized by the movement and rearrangement of cells in the embryo. During gastrulation,
the blastoderm splits into two layers.
Epiblast Hypoblast
An upper layer of cells called epiblast. Lower layer of cells called hypoblast.
The epiblast is mainly presumptive ectoderm and The hypoblast is mainly presumptive endoderm.
mesoderm
Q.25: Differentiate between Area Opaca and Area Pellucida.
Area Opaca Area Pellucida
The peripheral part of the blastoderm where the The central cells of blastoderm can be separated from
cells lie unseparated from the yolk is termed as the yolk, under these central cells a pool of fluid
area opaca, the white area that transmits light. develops, raising them off the yolk and giving the area
a translucent appearance - the area pellucida.
Q.26: What is Primitive Streak?
In the chick, the mesodermal cells do not invaginate as in amphibians, but migrate medially and caudally from
both sides and create a mid-line thickening called primitive streak.
Q.27: How Primitive Groove is Formed? / What are Primitive Ridges?
The continuous migration of cells takes place between epiblast and hypoblast and results in the formation of
groove along the whole length of primitive streak. This is named as primitive groove, marked on either side
by thickened margins, the primitive ridges.
Q.28: Describe Hensen’s Node.
At the cephalic end of primitive streak, closely packed cells form a local thickening known as Hensen’s node.
The Hensen’s node however, mark the site of a somewhat special type of invagination.
Q.29: What are Somites?
From Hensen’s node, dorsal mesoderm is formed and is organized into somites which are seen in 25-26 hours
embryo. Somites are compact cell masses lying immediately lateral to neural folds.
Q.30: Define Neurulation.
After the formation of neural tube, there is formation of central nervous system and the cavity enclosed is
known as neurocoel. This whole process is named as neurulation.
Q.31: How Neural Tube is Formed?
The neural plate sinks and the neural folds grow toward one another and meet in the middorsal line, fuse and
convert the neural groove into neural tube. At each end of neural tube, a small opening called anterior and
posterior neuro-pores are also seen, which close later on.
Q.32: What is Grey Cresent? Describe its role in Development.
Gray crescent is the pigment free area that appears at the time of fertilization. Development depends on the
position of gray crescent. So, in the half lacking gray crescent, no further development can take place.
Q.33: Briefly discuss role of Cytoplasm in Development.
Cytoplasm plays the role of selection of genes.
Clear cytoplasm. It produces larval epidermis.
Yellow cytoplasm. It gives rise to muscle cells.
Gray vegetal cytoplasm. It gives rise to gut.
Grey equatorial cytoplasm. It produces notochord and neural tube.
Q.34: Define Embryonic Induction.
The capacity of some cells to evoke a specific development response in other is called embryonic induction.
For example, in embryonic development of frog, mesoderm has some effect on the ectoderm to simulate the
ectoderm cells to form nervous system.
Q.35: What is Primary Organizer? / What is Primary Induction?
Dorsal lip of balstopore is capable of inducing a complete embryo. Spemann designated this area as primary
organizer because it was the only tissue capable of inducing development of secondary embryo in the host and
this phenomenon was called primary induction.
Q.36: Define Aging and write its symptoms.
Aging is an inevitable process and despite all the efforts to inhibit or stop it aging process goes on. It can be
defined as negative physiological changes in our body. Symptoms include loss of hair pigment, dryness and
wrinkling of skin, loss of agility, increased weight, poor vision, decreased immunity and forgetfulness.
Q.37: Give causes of aging.
The exact process of aging is still unknown, but the following points are worth consideration.
The cells of tissues have only a finite number of mitotic division and hence the cells may have reached their
finite number by the time tissue or organ is fully grown.
Changes in intracelluar substances take place during aging. For example, collagen acquires increased cross
linkages in its protein molecules. There is hardening and loss of resilience in connective tissue and cartilage.
Q.38: What is Gerontology? Describe its present Goal.
Gerontology is the study of aging. The present goal of gerontology is not necessarily to increase life span but
to increase health span.
Q.39: Define Regeneration.
The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of the body is called regeneration.
Q.40: Discus regeneration in Sponges.
In sponges due to simple organization sponges possess greater power of regeneration. These not only replace
the parts lost during injury, but any piece of the body is capable of growing into a complete sponge. The
process, is however, very slow and requires months or years for the complete development
Q.41: How regeneration Takes place in Star Fish?
If starfish breaks off portions of their arms into pieces till the central disc completely devoid of arms is left ,
the central disc in almost all cases and also the arms in some cases are capable of developing into separate
individuals.
Q.42: What are Neoblasts? Give their role in development.
In flatworms and planaria the unspecialized cells, neoblasts, which are always present in the body of adult are
mobilized and migrate to the site of amputation, where they differentiate into specialized cell types.
Q.43: How regeneration takes place in Salamanders and Newts?
In salamanders or newts some of the specialized tissue cell types in the stump of an amputated limb apparently
dedifferentiate (become less specialized) and then proceed to differentiate into the same and probably different
types of cells.
Q.44: Define Teratology.
Sometimes, under unfavourable conditions, some parts of the body show abnormal development. Teratology
is the branch of biology, which deals with these abnormal developments and causes for such developments.
Q.45: What are the causes of Abnormal Development?
Anything which interferes with the normal process of development is the factor causing abnormalities. The
normal process of development is disturbed by abnormalities inherited from parents, abnormalities due to
chromosomes or genes, environmental factors or metabolic defects.
Q.46: Briefly describe chromosomal abnormalities.
Chromosomal abnormalities result when one of the sex chromosomes (X or Y) is missing or extra and these
abnormalities lead to syndromes. Klinefelter’s Syndrome (XXY) is an example of trisomy of the sex
chromosome while Turner’s Syndrome (XO) is the condition in which one of the sex chromosomes is missing.
Q.47: What are Teratogens?
Environmental factors causing or contributing to abnormal development are grouped together as teratogens.
Ionizing radiations (e.g. x. rays) are well known for their teratogenic action. Because, they often have their
effect on the developing ovum or spermatozoan, causing damage or changes (mutations) in the genes.
Q.48: How nutrition can cause abnormal development?
Nutritional deficiencies, absence of certain substances (e.g. vitamins and trace elements), toxins and drugs
even ingested by mother, effect the differentiation of every tissue in the foetus. If such deficiency is high, a
cell may cause death of foetus.
Q.49: How metabolic defects cause abnormal development? Give Example.
Metabolic defects lead to structural deviations from the normal. During organogenesis, when various body
organs are formed, sometimes, one organ or its part is missing or it is repeated and it can result into abnormal
organs or body parts and the individual born are malformed. In microcephaly, the individuals are born with
small skull.
 Chapter No. 20 (Chromosomes and DNA)
Important Short Questions

Q.1: Define chromosomes. Write its composition.

Chromosomes are thread like structures that appear inside the
nucleus at the time of cell division. Typically, a chromosome
is made of chromatids, centromere, (primary constriction), and
a secondary constriction.
Chromosomes are composed of DNA and protein. Most are
about 40% DNA and 60% protein. A significant amount of
RNA is also associated with chromosomes, because these are
the sites of RNA synthesis.
Q.2: Define Karyotype. Write its importance.
The particular array of chromosomes that an individual possesses is called its karyotype. Karyotypes show
marked differences among species and sometimes even among individuals of the same species.
Q.3: Write types of chromosomes and describe its various shapes.
The chromosomes are divided into 4 types named
telocentric (centromere at tip), acrocentric
(centromere near tip), sub metacentric (centromere
near middle) and metacentric (centromere in
middle of chromosome). These chromosomes-
acquire different shapes at the time of anaphase
during cell division. The usual shapes are i, j and v.
Q.4: Define Nucleosome.
Every 200 nucleotides, the DNA duplex is coiled
around a core of eight histone proteins forming a
complex known as a nucleosome.
Q.5: Why histone protein has positive charge?
Unlike most proteins, which have an overall negative charge, histones are positively charged due to an
abundance of the basic amino acids arginine and lysine. They are thus strongly attracted to the negatively
charged phosphate groups of the DNA.
Q.6: Differentiate between Heterochromatin and Euchromatin.
Heterochromatin Euchromatin
It is highly condensed portions of the chromatin. The portion of the chromosome condensed only
Some of these portions remain permanently during cell division is called euchromatin.
condensed. It is present in an open configuration and its genes
DNA is never expressed. can be expressed.
Q.7: Briefly describe Transformation.
Transformation is the transfer of. genetic material from one cell to another and can alter the genetic make-up
of the recipient cell.
Q.8: What is Phosphodiester bond?
The reaction between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the hydroxyl group of another is a
dehydration synthesis, eliminating a water molecule and forming a covalent bond that links the two groups.
The linkage is called a phosphodiester bond because the phosphate group is now linked to the two sugars by
means of a pair of esters (P-O-C) bonds.
Q.9: Give role of P.A. Levene.
In 1920’s, the basic structure of nucleic acids was determined by the biochemist P.A. Levene, who found that
DNA contains three main components.
Phosphate (P04) groups. (2) Five carbon sugars
Nitrogen containing base.
Levene concluded that DNA and RNA molecules are made of repeating units called nucleotides.
Q.10: Draw structure of Cytocine, Uracil and Thymine.

Q.11: Draw structure of Adenine and Guanine.

Q.12: Differentiate between Purines and Pyrimidines.

Purines Pyrimidines
Double ringed. Single ringed.
Larger in size. Smaller in size.
e.g. adenine (A), and guanine (G). e.g. thymine(T), cytosine (C) and uracil (U).
Q.13: Describe role of Ervin Chargaff.
Erwin Chargaff showed that the amount of adenine in DNA always equals the amount of thymine, and the
amount of guanine always equals the amount of cytosine. It also implies that there is always equal proportion
of purine (A+G) and pyrimidine (C+T).
Q.14: Differentiate between R form and S form.
S Form Bacteria R Form Bacteria
The normal pathogenic form. The mutant form.
It forms smooth colonies on a culture dish. It forms rough colonies on a culture dish.
Polysaccharide coat is present. Polysaccharide coat is absent.
It is virulent. It is non-virulent
Cause blood poisoning in mice. Does not cause disease in mice.
Q.15: Give role of Rosalin Franklin.
Rosalind Franklin prepared this X- ray diffraction pattern of DNA in the laboratory of British Biochemist
Maurice Wilkins, who prepared DNA fibers. The diffraction pattern suggested that the DNA molecule had a
shape of a helix with a diameter of 2 nm and a complete helical turn every 3.4 nm
Q.16: Describe Watson and Crick Model of DNA.
According to Watson and Crick model DNA molecule is a simple double helix, with the basis of two strands
pointed inward toward each other. forming base-pairs. Hydrogen bonds exist between the bases in a base pair,
the double helix is stabilized as a duplex DNA molecule composed of two antiparallel strands, one chain
running 3’ to 5’ and the other 5’ to 3’. The base pairs are planar (flat) and stack 0.34nm apart.
Q.17: Sketch Watson and Crick Model of DNA.
Q.18: Describe semi conservative replication of DNA.
In semi-conservative replication, the two strands of the duplex separate out each acting as a model or mold,
along which new nucleotides are arranged thus giving rise to two new duplexes. In this process by separation
of two strands, primary structure has been conserved, whereas the secondary structure has been disrupted.
Q.19: Differentiate between conservative and dispersive replication of DNA.
Conservative Model Dispersive Model
The conservative model stated that the parental The dispersive model predicted that parental DNA
double helix would remain intact and generate would become completely dispersed and that each strand
DNA copies consisting of entirely new of all the daughter molecules would be a mixture of old
molecules. and new DNA.
Q.20: What is RNA Primer?
DNA polymerase cannot initiate synthesis on its own. Instead, another enzyme, primase, constructs an RNA
primer, a sequence of about 10 RNA nucleotides complementary to the parent DNA template. The RNA
nucleotides in the primers are then replaced by DNA nucleotides by DNA polymerase III.
Q.21: Describe function of DNA polymerase III.
DNA polymerase III recognizes the primer and adds DNA” nucleotides to it to construct the DNA strands.
Polymerase III progressively threads the DNA through the enzyme complex, moving at a rapid rate, some
1000 nucleotides / second.
Q.22: What are Okazaki Fragments?
The lagging strand elongates away from the replication fork, is synthesized discontinuously as a series of short
segments that are later connected. These segments, called Okazaki fragments are about 100 - 200 nucleotides
long in eukaryotes and 1000 - 2000 nucleotides long in prokaryotes. Each Okazaki fragment is synthesized by
DNA polymerase III in 5’ -> 3’ direction.
Q.23: Differentiate between Leading and Lagging Strand.
Leading Strand Lagging Strand
The strand of DNA which elongates toward the The strand which elongates away from the
replication fork is called leading strand. It is built up replication fork is called lagging strand. It is
simply by adding nucleotides continuously to its synthesized discontinuously as a series of short
growing 3’ end. segments that are later connected.
Q.24: What is one gene one polypeptide hypothesis?
Genes produce their effects by specifying the structure of enzymes and that each gene encodes the structure
of one enzyme. They called this relationship one - gene / one - enzyme hypothesis. Because many enzymes
contain multiple protein or polypeptide subunits, each encoded by a separate gene, the hypothesis is today
more commonly referred to as “one gene / one- polypeptide”.
Q.25: What is Central Dogma?
All organisms use the same basic mechanism of reading and expressing genes, which is often referred to as
central dogma. The genetic information resides in DNA, which is also the main fountain head. The genetic
information flows down into RNA, which is then converted into protein.
Q.26: What is Transcription and Translation.
The first step of central dogma is the transfer of information from DNA to RNA, which occurs when an mRNA
copy of the gene is produced. The process is called transcription.
The second step of the central dogma is the transfer of information from RNA to proteins, which occurs when
the information contained in the mRNA is used to direct the synthesis of polypeptides by ribosomes. This
process is called translation.
Q.27: Write types of RNA and explain rRNA.
The class of RNA found in ribosome is called ribosomal RNA (rRNA). During translation, rRNA provides the
site where polypeptides are assembled. In addition to rRNA, there are two other major classes of RNA in the
cells: transfer RNA (tRNA) and messenger
RNA (mRNA).
Q.28: Describe function of tRNA.
Transfer RNA molecules transport the amino acids to the ribosomes for use in building the polypeptides and
also position each amino acid at the correct place on the elongating polypeptide chain. Human cells contain
about 45 different kinds of tRNA molecules.
Q.29: Differentiate between sense and antisense strand.
Anti Sense Strand Sense Strand
The strands of DNA which is transcribed is called anti- The strands of DNA which is not transcribed is
sense strand. called sense strand.
It is called template strand. It is called coding strand.
Q.30: Write function of RNA polymerase enzyme.
There is only one type of RNA polymerase in prokaryote which is responsible for the synthesis of all the three
types of RNAs viz. rRNA, mRNA and tRNA. On the other hand there are three types of RNA polymerases in
eukaryotes namely RNA polymerase I, which synthesize rRNA, RNA polymerase II, which synthesizes
mRNA and RNA polymerase III which synthesizes tRNA.
Q.31: What is promoter site?
Transcription starts at the RNA polymerase binding site called promoter on the DNA template strand. In
prokaryotes within promoter there are two binding sites TTGACA also called -35 sequence and TATAAT
sequence also called -10 sequence, which have affinity for the RNA polymerase. In eukaryotes these sites are
at -75 and -25 sites, respectively.
Q.32: Describe role of sigma factor.
The binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter is the first step in gene transcription. One of the subunits of
RNA polymerase sigma factor, is responsible for correct initiation of transcription process. Once the
transcription has started the sigma factor is released.
Q.33: What is GC hairpin?
The stop sequences at the end of the gene terminate the
synthesis of mRNA. The simplest stop signal is a series of GC base pairs followed by a series of AT base pairs.
The RNA formed in this region forms a GC hairpin followed by four or more U ribonucleotides. The hairpin
causes RNA polymerase to stop synthesis.
Q.34: What protects the mRNA from variety of nucleases and phosphatases?
The eukaryotic mRNA is modified in several ways to aid this journey. A cap and a tail is added so that the
molecule may remain stable during long journey to ribosome. The cap is in the form of 7 methyl GTP, which
is linked 5’ to 5’ with the first nucleotide, whereas tail is in the form of poly A tail linked to 3’ end of the RNA.
These caps and tails save the mRNA from variety of nucleases and phosphatases.
Q.35: Define Codon and Anticodon.
Genetic code is a combination of 3 nucleotides, which specify a particular amino acid. There are three
nucleotides in a codon e.g. AUG code for methionine.
Triplet codon present on tRNA is called anticodon. It is opposite to Codon. For example anticodon of AUG
on tRNA is UAC.
Q.36: What are stop codons and start codon.
Out of 64 codons, three codons UAA, UAG and UGA do not code for any amino acid and hence are known
as nonsense codons. These codons are usually present at the end of the gene and hence are also called stop
codons. Every gene starts with initiation codon AUG, which encodes the amino acid methionine.
Q.37: Genetic code is universal or not? Explain.
The genetic code is universal. It is the same in almost all the organisms. For example, AGA specifies arginine
in bacteria, in humans and all other organisms whose genetic code has been studied.
The study of genetic code of mitochondrial DNA however, showed that genetic code is not that universal. For
example, UGA codon is normally a stop codon but, in mitochondria it reads as tryptophan.
Q.38: What is Mutation?
Changes in the DNA occur either due to mistake in replication or damage to the genetic message causing
mutations. The mutations in somatic cells do not pass on to offspring and so have little evolutionary
consequence than germ line changes. The mutation in
germ line cell is passed to subsequent generations thus providing the raw material from which natural selection
produces evolutionary change.
Q.39: Briefly describe Chromosomal aberrations.
Chromosomal aberrations are mega changes which involve presence of an extra chromosome or loss of a
chromosome from the diploid number of chromosomes, or changes like deletions, insertions, inversions in the
parts of the chromosome. Such chromosomal aberrations lead to syndromes like Down’s syndrome,
Klinefelter’s syndrome etc.
Q.40: How Point mutations are produced?
Point mutations are mutational changes which affect the message itself, producing alterations in the sequence
of DNA nucleotide. If alterations involve only one or a few base pairs in the coding sequence they are called
point mutations. Some point mutations occur due to spontaneous pairing errors that occur during DNA
replication, others result from damage to the DNA caused by mutagens, usually radiations or chemicals.
Q.41: Write a short note on Sickle Cell Anemia.
Sickle cell anemia is a point mutation leads to the change of amino acid glutamic acid into valine at position
6 from N terminal end in hemoglobin beta chain. This consequently alters the tertiary structure of the
hemoglobin molecule, reducing its ability to carry oxygen. It may cause death of patient.
Q.42: What is Alkaptonuria?
In alkaptonuria the patients produced urine that contained homogentisic acid. This substance oxidized rapidly
when exposed to air, turning the urine black. In normal individuals, homogentisic acid is broken down into
simpler substances. Patients suffering from alkaptonuria lacked the enzyme necessary to catalyze this
breakdown.
Q.43: What is Phenylketonuria?
In phenylketonuria, phenylalanine is not degraded because of defective enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase.
Phenylalanine consequently accumulates in the cells leading to mental retardation, as the brain fails to develop
in infancy. This disorder is because of the point mutation.
 Chapter No. 21 (Cell Cycle)
Important Short Questions

Q.1: Define cell cycle. Describe its phases.

The cell undergoes a sequence of changes, which involves period of growth, replication of DNA, followed by
cell division. This sequence of changes is called cell cycle. It consists of two phases.
Interphase which is the period of non-apparent division and period of division also known as mitotic phase.
Q.2: Define interphase. Name its phases.
The period of life cycle of cell (cell cycle) between two consecutive divisions is termed as the interphase or
misleadingly called resting phase. It is the period of great biochemical activity and can further be divided into
G1-phase, S-phase and G2-phase.
Q.3: What is G1 Phase?
G1 (Gap 1) is the period of extensive metabolic activity, in which cell normally grows in size, specific
enzymes, are synthesized and DNA base units are accumulated for the DNA synthesis. During this phase cell
prepares itself for S phase.
Q.4: What is G0 Phase?
Post-mitotic cell can exit the cell cycle during G1 entering a phase called G0, and remain for days, weeks, or
in some cases (e.g., nerve cells and cells of the eye lens) even the life time of the organism without proliferating
further.
Q.5: What is S Phase?
After G1 phase, S phase start during which DNA is synthesized and (chromosome are replicated) which
initiates G2 phase.
Q.6: What is G2 Phase?
G2 phase is called pre-mitotic phase in which cell prepares for division e.g., energy storage for chromosome
movements, mitosis specific proteins, RNA and microtubule subunits (for spindle fibers) synthesize.
Q.7: Briefly describe mitosis.
It is the type of cell division, which ensures the same number of chromosomes in the daughter cells as that in
the parent cells. It can take place in haploid as well as in diploid cells in nearly all parts of the body.
Q.8: Differentiate between karyokinesis and cytokinesis.
Karyokinesis is the division of nucleus and cytokinesis refers to the division of the whole cell.
Q.9: Write a short note on kinetochore microtubules.
The kinetochore microtubules attach to chromosomes at kinetochores and polar microtubules do not interact
the chromosomes but instead interdigitate with polar microtubules from the opposite pole. These microtubules
are composed of a protein tubulin and traces of RNA.
Q.10: What is mitotic apparatus? Write its function.
This specialized microtubule structure including aster and spindle is called mitotic apparatus. This is larger
than the nucleus, and is designed to attach and capture chromosomes, aligning them and finally separating
them so that equal distribution of chromosomes is ensured.
Q.11: What changes takes place during prophase of mitosis?
• The chromatin material gets condensed by folding.
• Chromosomes become more and more thick.
• Nuclear envelope and nucleoli disappear.
• Mitotic apparatus is organized.
• Cytoplasm becomes more viscous.
Q.12: Write a short note on metaphase of mitosis.
The kinetochore fibers of spindle attach to the kinetochore region (specialized area in centromere) of
chromosome, and align them at the equator of the spindle forming equatorial plate or metaphase plate. Each
kinetochore gets two fibers one from each pole.
Q.13: Briefly describe anaphase of mitosis.
It is the most critical phase of the mitosis, which ensures equal distribution of chromatids in the daughter cells.
The kinetochore fibers of spindle contract towards their respective poles, at the same time polar microtubules
elongates exert force and sister chromatids are separated from centromere. As a result, half sister chromatids
travel towards each pole.
Q.14: What changes takes place in cell during telophase of mitosis?
Chromosomes reaches at opposite poles.
The chromosomes decondense and disappear as chromatin.
Mitotic apparatus disorganizes.
Nuclear membrane and nucleoli reorganize.
Q.15: Write importance of mitosis.
• Hereditary material is equally distributed in the daughter cell.
• Plants and animals, undergo asexual reproduction.
• Regeneration, healing of wounds and replacement of older cells all are the gifts of mitosis.
• Tissue culture and cloning seek help through mitosis.
• Any malfunction in mitosis process may form unwanted tumors and lethal diseases like cancer.
Q.16: What is benign tumor?
Some tumors are of small size and localized (not transferred to other parts) called benign. The cells in this
type usually behave like the normal cells and have little deleterious effects, only due to either its interference
with normal cells or its hormone-like secretions.
Q.17: Describe malignant tumor (cancer).
The cells composing a malignant tumor or cancer, divide more rapidly, mostly invade surrounding tissues, get
into the body’s circulatory system, and set up areas of proliferation, away from their site of original
appearance.
Q.18: Define metastasis.
Malignant tumor cells divide more rapidly, mostly invade surrounding tissues, get into the body’s circulatory
system. This spread of: tumor cells and establishment of secondary areas of growth is called as metastasis.
Q.19: How cancer cells can be distinguished from normal body cells?
Cancer cells can be distinguished from normal cells because they are less differentiated than normal cells,
exhibit the characteristics of rapidly growing cells, i.e is, high nucleus to cytoplasm ratio, prominent nucleoli
and many mitosis.
Q.20: What are the causes of cancer?
Cancer is caused mainly by mutations in somatic cells. Cancer may also result from the accumulation of as
few as three to as many as twenty mutations, in genes that regulate cell division.
Q.21: Briefly describe meiosis.
Meiosis is the special type of cell division in which the number of chromosomes in daughter cells is reduced
to half, as compared to the parent cell. In animals at the time of gamete formation, while in plants when spores
are produced. It takes place in only diploid cells. It produces four haploid cells.
Q.22: What happens in leptotene stage of prophase I?
The chromosomes become visible, shorten and thick. The size of the nucleus increases and homologous
chromosomes start getting closer to each other.
Q.23: Briefly describe zygotene stage.
First essential phenomenon of meiosis i.e., pairing of homologous chromosomes called synapsis starts. This
pairing is highly specific and exactly pointed, but with no definite starting point(s). Each paired but not fused,
complex structure is called bivalent or tetrad.
Q.24: What occurs during anaphase I of meiosis?
The kinetochore fibers contract and the spindle or pole fibers elongate, which pull the individual chromosome
(each having two chromatids) towards their respective poles. It may be noted here that in contrast to anaphase
of mitosis, sister chromatids are not separated. This is actually reduction phase because each pole receives
half of the total number of chromosomes.
Q.25: Define crossing over.
Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exchange their segments due to chiasmata formation,
during the process called crossing over. In this way reshuffling of genetic material occurs which produces
recombination’s.
Q.26: Write a short note on pachytene stage.
The pairing of homologous chromosomes is completed. Chromosomes become more and more thick. Each
bivalent has four chromatids, which wrap around each other. Crossing over takes place. Pachytene may last
for days, weeks or even years.
Q.27: What happens during diplotene stage of prophase I?
The paired chromosomes repel each other and begin to separate. Separation however, is not complete, because
homologous chromosomes remain united by their point of interchange (chiasmata). Each bivalent has at least
one such point, the chromatids otherwise are separated.
Q.28: Describe diakinesis.
During this phase the condensation of chromosomes reaches to its maximum. At the same time separation of
the homologous chromosomes is completed, but still, they are united at one point, more often at ends. Nucleoli
disappear.
Q.29: Describe metaphase I of meiosis.
Nuclear membrane disorganizes at the beginning of this phase. Spindle fibers originate and the kinetochore
fibers attach to the kinetochore of homologous chromosome from each pole and arrange bivalents at the
equator. The sister chromatids of individual chromosome in bivalent behave as a unit.
Q.30: Describe telophase I of meiosis.
Nuclear membrane reorganizes around each set of chromosomes at two poles, nucleoli reappear thus two
nuclei each with half number of chromosomes are formed, later on cytoplasm divides thus terminating the
first meiotic division. It is also to be noted that chromosomes may decondense during this stage.
Q.31: Write down importance of meiosis.
Crossing over and random assortment of chromosomes are two significant happenings of meiosis. During
crossing over, parental chromosomes exchange segments with each other which results in a large amount of
recombination’s. It causes variations and modifications in the genome. These variations are not only the bases
of evolution.
Q.32: Why progeny of very same parents is not similar?
The variations produced by Crossing over and random assortment of chromosomes are not only the bases of
evolution, but also make every individual specific, particular and unique in his characteristics. Even the
progeny of very same parents, i.e., brothers and sisters are not identical to each other.
Q.33: What is chromosomal non-disjunction?
Abnormalities is chromosome non-disjunction, in which chromosomes fail to segregate during anaphase and
telophase and do not finish with equal distribution of chromosome among all the daughter nuclei. This results
either increase or decrease in the number of chromosomes, causing serious physical, social and mental
disorders. This non-disjunction may be in autosome or in sex chromosome.
Q.34: How mongolism is related to age of mother?
Non-disjunction appears to occur in the ova and is related to the age of mother. The chances of teenage mother
having Down’s syndrome child is one in many thousands, forty years old mother, one in hundred chances and
by forty-five the risk-is three times greater.
Q.35: Write a short note on Klinefelter syndrome.
These individuals have additional sex chromosome e.g., 47 chromosomes (44 autosome + XXY). They are
phenotypically male but have frequently enlarged breasts, tendency to tallness, obesity, small testes with no
sperms at ejaculation and under developed secondary sex characters.
Q.36: Briefly describe Mongolism (Down Syndrome).
It is one of the consequences of autosomal non-disjunction in man, during which 21st pair of chromosome
fails to segregate, resulting in gamete with 24 chromosomes. When this gamete, fertilizes normal gamete the
new individual will have 47 (2n + 1) chromosomes. The affected individuals have flat, broad face, squint eyes
with the skin fold in the inner corner, and protruding tongue, mental retardation, and defective development
of central nervous system.
Q.37: What is turner syndrome?
These affected individuals have one missing X chromosome with only 45 chromosomes (44 autosomes + X).
Individuals with this condition often do not survive pregnancy and are aborted. Those who survive have female
appearance with short stature, webbed neck, without ovaries and complete absence of germ cells.
Q.38: What is apoptosis?
Internal program of events and sequence of morphological changes by which cell commits suicide is
collectively called as apoptosis. During this process the dying cells shrink and condense ultimately split up,
thus releasing small membrane bounded apoptotic bodies, which are generally phagocytosed by other cells.
Q.39: Define Necrosis.
The cell death due to tissue damage is called necrosis, during which typical cell swells and bursts, releasing
the intracellular contents, which can damage neighboring cells and cause inflammation.
Q.40: Sketch cell cycle.

Q.41: How cytokinesis is different in plants from animals?

During cytokinesis in plants, shape of cell does not change due to presence of cell wall. Plants does not have
centrioles; spindle microtubules radiate from analogous region. In plants cytokinesis takes place by
phragmoplast.
Q.42: What is phragmoplast? Give its role.
At cytokinesis, in place of contractile ring a membrane structure, phragmoplast is formed from vesicle which
originate from Golgi complex. These vesicles originate actually during metaphase, line up in the center of the
dividing cell, where they fuse to form phragmoplast at the end of telophase.
Q.43: How cytokinesis takes place in animals?
During late telophase the astral microtubules send signals to the equatorial region of the cell, where actin and
myosin are activated which form contractile ring, followed by cleavage furrow, which deepens towards the
center of the cell, dividing the parent cell into two daughter cells.
 Chapter No. 22 (Variations and Genetics)
Important Short Questions

Q.1: What is Gene?

Gene is the basic unit of biological information. In fact, DNA stores all sorts of biological information coded
in the sequence of its bases in a linear order, and genes are actually parts of DNA comprising its base
sequences.
Q.2: Define Locus.
The position of a gene on the chromosome is called its locus.
Q.3: What is Allele?
Genes form pairs on pairs of homologous chromosomes. One member of a gene pair is located on one
homologue, and the other member on the other homologue. Partners of a gene pair are called alleles.
Q.4: Briefly describe Genotype and Phenotype.
Phenotype is the form of appearance of a trait. A flower may be red or white in colour. Flower colour is a trait
and red and white are its two phenotypes.
Genotype is the genetic complement i.e., the genes in an individual for a particular trait. Each form of
expression is determined-by a different allele of the colour gene. Allele “R” is the determiner for redness,
while “r” is the determiner for whiteness.
Q.5: Define Gene Pool.
All the genes/alleles found in a breeding population at a given time are collectively called the gene pool. It is
the total genetic information encoded in the total genes in a breeding population existing at a given time.
Q.6: Why Mendel choose pea plant?
Pea plant was easy to cultivate and it grew well in his garden. Its flowers were hermaphrodite. It was normally
self-fertilizing, but could also be cross-fertilized. He can raise many generations of pea within a short time.
Pea had many sharply distinct traits.
Q.7: Define Law of Segregation.
According to law of segregation, the two coexisting alleles for each trait in an individual segregate (separate)
from each other at meiosis, so that each gamete receives only one of the two alleles. Alleles unite again at
random fertilization of gametes when zygote is formed.
Q.8: What is Test Cross?
Test cross is used to test the genotype of an individual showing a dominant phenotype. It is a mating in which
an individual showing a dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual showing its recessive phenotype.
Test cross finds out the homozygous or heterozygous nature of the genotype.
Q.9: Define Law of Independent Assortment.
When two contrasting pairs of traits are followed in the same cross, their alleles assort independently into
gametes.” Alleles of one pair inherit independently of alleles of the other pair. The distribution of alleles of
one trait into gametes has no influence on the distribution of alleles of the other trait.
Q.10: What is Probability
Probability is the chance of an event to occur. Inheritance of seed shape is an independent event. In F2
offspring of a monohybrid cross independent chance for a seed to be round is 3/4, or it to be wrinkled is 1/4.
Q.11: Describe Product Rule.
When two independent events are occurring simultaneously like in Dihybrid cross, the ratio of each joint
phenotypic combination can be obtained by multiplying the probabilities of individual phenotypes. It is called
product rule.
Q.12: Define Dominance Relation. Name its types.
Dominance is a physiological effect of an allele over its partner allele on the same gene locus. There are four
types of dominance relations among alleles, each indicating a different style of their functional effect upon
each other.
Complete dominance, Incomplete dominance, Codominance and Over dominance are its types.
Q.13: Briefly describe Complete Dominance.
When one allele (R) is completely dominant over the other (r), presence of the recessive allele is functionally
hidden, so the heterozygote (Rr) has the same round phenotype as (RR) homozygote.
Q.14: What is Incomplete Dominance?
When the phenotype of the heterozygote is intermediate between phenotypes of the two homozygotes, it is
called incomplete or partial dominance. It was discovered by Carl Correns in 1899 from 4 O’clock plant when
he crossed a true breeding fed flowered plant with a true breeding white flowered 4 O’clock, all the F1 hybrids
had pink flowers.
Q.15: Define Codominance.
The phenotype of heterozygote is distinct in quality from those of the two homozygotes. It is not an
intermediate quantitative expression like incomplete dominance. Each allele of the gene pair is associated with
a different substance. Codominance occurs when both the alleles express independently in heterozygote.
Q.16: Write a short note on Over Dominance.
This dominance relation is fascinating because the over dominant heterozygote exceeds in quantity the
phenotypic expression of both the homozygotes. In fruit fly Drosophila the heterozygote (w+ / w) has more
quantity of fluorescent pigments in eyes than wild (w+ / w+) or white eye (w / w) homozygotes.
Q.17: How Multiple Alleles are formed?
Gene mutations may produce many different alleles of a gene. Some genes may have as many as 300 alleles.
All such altered alternative forms of a gene, whose number is more than two, are called multiple alleles. Any
two of these multiple alleles can be present in the genome of a diploid organism, but a haploid organism or a
gamete can have just one of them in its genome.
Q.18: Explain Genetic Basis of ABO System.
Bernstein explained the genetic basis of ABO system in 1925. This blood group system is encoded by a single
polymorphic gene I on chromosome 9. It has three multiple alleles IA, IB, and i. Allele IA specifies production
of antigen A, and allele IB specifies production of antigen B, but allele i does not specify any antigen.
Q.19: Why blood group of a person never changes?
The blood group alleles start their expression at early embryonic stage and keep on expressing themselves till
death. Therefore, the blood group phenotype of a person never changes throughout life.
Q.20: Describe universal donor and universal recipient.
O- blood group individuals are called universal donors because they can donate blood to any blood group.
AB+ blood group individuals are called universal recipients because they can receive transfusions of blood
from any of the other blood groups.
Q.21: What are Secretors?
A and B antigens can also be present in saliva and other body fluids of some persons called secretors. Secretors
have dominant secretor gene “Se” on chromosome 19.
Q.22: Describe Rh Blood Group System.
ABO blood type is further differentiated by a + or - sign. This positive or negative sign refers to the presence
or absence of another blood group system antigen called Rh factor. Rh blood group system is defined on the
basis of Rh factor present on the surface of RBC.
Q.23: Describe genetic basis of Rh Blood Group System.
Rh blood group system is encoded by three genes C, D and E, which occupy two tightly linked loci. Alleles
of gene D occupy one locus called locus D, while genes C and E alternatively occupy the other locus. The D
locus is of prime importance. Gene D has two alleles, D and d. D is completely dominant over d.
Q.24: What is Erythroblastosis Foetalis?
Maternal-foetal Rh incompatibility Maternal-foetal incompatibility results when an Rh- woman, married to
an Rh+ man conceives a child who is Rh+. When mother’s anti - Rh antibodies seep through placenta into
blood circulation of foetus, they start hemolysis (break down / bursting) of RBC of foetus. As this destruction
continues, the foetus becomes anaemic. The anaemic foetus starts to release many -immature erythroblasts
into his blood stream. That is why this hemolytic disease of the new born is called erythroblastosis foetalis.
Q.25: What is mild ABO incompatibility?
Sometimes a mild ABO incompatibility protects the baby against a more severe Rh incompatibility. If O-
mother conceives A+ or B+ baby, any foetal A or B type RBC entering the mother’s blood are quickly
destroyed by her anti - A or anti - B antibodies, before she can form anti - Rh antibodies.
Q.26: Define Epistasis.
When an effect caused by a gene or gene pair at one locus interferes with or hides the effect caused by another
gene or gene pair at another locus, such a phenomenon of gene interaction is called epistasis. It is the
interaction between different genes occupying different loci.
Q.27: Describe Bombay Phenotype.
The recessive allele h cannot insert sugar molecule to glycoprotein. Therefore, hh individuals lack the site of
attachment for antigen A pr antigen B. Thus, A and B antigens cannot adhere to their RBC and fall away. Their
RBC lack A and B antigens although they do not lack IA and IB genes. They are phenotypically like O, but
are not genotypically O. Their phenotype is called Bombay phenotype
Q.28: What is Pleiotropy. Give examples.
When a single gene affects two or more traits, the phenomenon is called pleiotropy. Such a gene with multiple
phenotypic effect is called pleiotropic.
White eye gene in Drosophila also affects the shape of sperm storing organs (spermathecae).
Genes that affect growth rate in humans also influence both weight and height.
Q.29: Define Polygenic Trait.
Continuously varying trait is encoded by alleles of two or more different gene pairs found at different loci, all
influencing the same trait in an additive way. These quantitative traits, are called polygenic traits.
Q.30: Give role of Polygenes.
The genes of polygenic traits are called polygenes. Each polygene has a small positive or negative effect on
the character. Polygenes supplement each other and sum of positive and negative effects of all individual
polygenes produce quantitative phenotypes of a continuously Varying trait.
Q.31: What is Gene Linkage?
All the genes located on the same chromosome are linked to each other. This phenomenon of staying together
of all the genes of a chromosome is called linkage. Gene linkage is a physical relationship between genes.
Q.32: Describe Linkage Group.
Gene linkage is a physical relationship between genes. A chromosome carries its linked genes en bloc in the
form of a linkage group. The number of linkage groups corresponds to the number of homologous pairs of
chromosomes. Man has 23 linkage groups.
Q.33: What is Recombinant Frequency?
It is the proportion of recombinant types between two gene pairs as compared to the sum of all combinations.
The recombination frequencies between two linked genes can be calculated by backcrossing the heterozygote
to a homozygous double recessive.
Q.34: How chromosomes of male and female fruit fly are different?
The female had two similar rod-shaped X-chromosomes in the fourth pair, while the male had one rod shaped
X-chromosome but the other a morphologically different, J-shaped Y chromosome in the fourth heteromorphic
pair.
Q.35: Describe SRY Gene.
SRY is the male determining gene. It is located at the tip of short arm of Y-chromosome. Its name SRY stands
for “Sex determining regions of Y.”
Q.36: How chromosomes of male and female Grasshopper are different?
In some grasshoppers, males and females have different number of chromosomes. The female has 24
chromosomes in the form of 11 pairs of autosomes and a pair of X chromosomes. But the male grasshopper
has 23 chromosomes. He has 11 pairs of autosomes and only one X chromosome. The other member for sex
chromosome pair is entirely missing in male. Thus, male is XO and female is XX.
Q.37: What are Sex Chromosomes?
X and Y chromosomes are called sex chromosomes because these have genes for determination of sex.
Chromosomes of the other three pairs are autosomes. All chromosomes other than sex-chromosomes are called
autosomes. Autosomes do not carry any sex determining gene.
Q.38: Describe XO-XY System of Sex Determination.
This pattern of sex determination is found in grasshopper and Protenor bug. Male is XO because it has only
one X chromosome. The other sex chromosome is missing entirely. Male is heterogametic because. it forms
type I types of sperms; half the sperms have X chromosome while the other half are without any sex
chromosome. A gamete without any sex chromosome is called nullo gamete.
Q.39: What is XY-XY System?
This pattern of sex determination is found in Drosophila, man and many other organisms. Male is XY and
female is XX. Male being heterogametic produces two types of sex-determining sperms. Half the sperms carry
X-chromosome and the other half carry Y - chromosome. Chances for both types of sperms are equal.
Q.40: Describe ZZ-ZW System of Sex Determination.
This type of sex - determination pattern is common in birds, butterflies and moths. It was discovered by J.
Seiler in 1914 in moth. It is the reverse of XY - XX system. Here the female is heterogametic ZW but the male
is homogametic ZZ. Female produces two kinds of eggs Z and W in equal proportions.
Q.41: What is X-linked Trait?
A trait whose gene is present on X chromosome is called X - linked trait. X - linked traits are commonly
referred as sex-linked traits. A gene present only on X chromosome, having no counterpart on Y chromosome,
is called X - linked gene.
Q.42: What are Pseudosomal Genes?
Some genes like bobbed gene in Drosophila are present on X and Y both. These are called X and Y linked
genes. These are called pseudo autosomal genes because their pattern of inheritance is like autosomal genes.
Q.43: What is Hemophilia?
Haemophilia is a rare X — linked recessive trait. Haemophiliac’s blood fails to clot properly after an injury,
because it has either a reduction or malfunction or complete absence of blood clotting factors. It is a serious
hereditary disease because a haemophiliac may bleed to death even from minor cuts.
Q.44: Describe inheritance pattern of X-Linked Recessive Traits.
X linked recessive traits zigzag from maternal grandfather through a carrier daughter to a grandson. It never
passes direct from father to son. These are more common in males.
Q.45: What are opsins?
Normal trichromatic colour vision is based on three different kinds of cone cells in the retina, each sensitive
to only one of the three primary colours, red, green or blue. Each type of cone cell has specific light absorbing
proteins called opsins.
Q.46: What is Protanopia, Deuteranopia and Tritanopia.
Protanopia is red blindness, deuteranopia is green blindness, while tritanopia is blue blindness.
Q.47: What is Protanomalous and Deuteranomalous?
Some people can detect red and green but with altered perception of the relative shades of these colours. They
have abnormal but still partially functional opsins. They are protanomalous and deuteranomalous for red and
green weakness respectively.
Q.48: Describe Blue Cone Monochromacy.
A monochromat can perceive one colour. Monochromacy is true colour-blindness. Blue cone monochromacy
is an X – linked recessive trait in which both red and green cone cells are absent. That is why it is also called
red - green colour-blindness. It is true color blindness.
Q.49: What is Testicular Feminization Syndrome?
Testicular feminization syndrome is a rare X-linked recessive trait. Although the persons affected by this trait
have a male set of XY chromosomes, yet tfm gene on their X chromosome develops them physically into
females. They have breast, female genitalia, a blind Vagina but no uterus. Degenerated testes are also present
in abdomen. Such individuals are happily married as females but are sterile. It is an androgen insensitivity
syndrome. Male sex hormone testosterone has no effect on them.
Q.50: Describe inheritance pattern of X-Linked Dominant Traits.
Pattern of X - linked dominant inheritance is different from X - linked recessive. It is more common in females
than males. All daughters of an affected father, but none of his sons are affected. Any heterozygous affected
mother will pass the trait equally to half of her sons and half of her daughters. Hypophosphatemic rickets is
an X - linked dominant trait.
Q.51: Describe Sex Limited Traits.
A sex-limited trait is limited to only one sex due to anatomical differences. Such trait affects a structure or
function of the body present in only males or only females. These trails may be controlled by sex-linked or
autosomal genes. Genes for milk yield in dairy cattle affect only cows.
Q.52: Briefly describe Sex Influenced Traits.
Sex influenced trait occurs in both males and females but it is more common in one sex. It is controlled by an
allele that is expressed as dominant in one sex but recessive in the other. This difference in expression is due
to hormonal difference between the sexes. Pattern baldness is a sex influenced trait.
Q.53: What is Diabetes Mellitus?
Diabetes mellitus is a hereditary disease. It is actually a heterogenous group of disorders which are
characterized by elevated blood sugar level. Diabetics are unable to metabolize blood sugar in their body.
They pass glucose in their urine.
Q.54: Describe Juvenile Diabetes.
Type I is also called Juvenile diabetes because it usually occurs in early age before 40. It arises due to
deficiency of pancreatic hormone insulin that normally routes blood glucose to cells for use. Type I is an auto
immune disorder. They must receive exogenous insulin to survive.
Q.55: Discuss Type II Diabetes.
Diabetes mellitus type II is non-insulin dependent. Despite producing insulin, body cells gradually fail to
respond to insulin and cannot take up glucose from blood. They develop a sort of insulin resistance. It occurs
among people over the age of 40, and is more common among the obese. Exercise can overcome this.
Q.56: What is MODY?
About 2% - 5% of type II diabetics get the disease early in life, before 25 years of age. It is called maturity
onset diabetes of the young (MODY). MODY can be inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. About 50% of
cases of MODY are caused by mutations in glucokinase gene.
Q.57: Describe Multifactorial Trait with examples.
Multifactorial trait is that which is controlled by many genes (polygenic) and is also influenced by
environmental factors. For examples diabetes and blood pressure.
 Ch. 23 (Biotechnology)
Important Short Questions

Q.1: What is Cloning of a gene? / By what means cloning of a gene is done?

Cloning of a gene produces many identical copies. Recombinant DNA technology is used when a very large
quantity of a gene is required. The use of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) creates a lesser number of copies
within a laboratory test tube.
Q.2: Briefly describe procedure of recombinant DNA technology.
In order to produce recombinant DNA, the following are required:
1. Gene of interest, which is to be cloned.
2. Molecular scissors to cut out the gene of interest.
3. Molecular carrier or vector, on which gene of interest could be placed.
4. The gene of interest along-with the vector is then introduced into an expression system, as a result of
which a specific product is made.
Q.3: How to get gene of interest?
There are three possible ways to get the gene of interest.
(a) to isolate it from the chromosome.
(b) to synthesize it chemically, and
(c) to make it from mRNA.
Q.4: What is palindromic sequence?
Bacteria produce a variety of restriction enzymes, which cut the DNA at very specific sites characterized by
specific sequence of four or six nucleotides arranged symmetrically in the reverse order. Such sequences are
known as palindromic sequences. For example, AATT sequence.
Q.5: What are sticky ends?
The single stranded but complementary ends of the two DNA molecules are called “sticky ends” because they
can bind by complementary base pairing. So, it facilitate the insertion of foreign DNA into vector DNA.
Q.6: What are restriction endonucleases? / What are molecular scissors?
These are natural enzymes of bacteria, which they use for their own protection against viruses. The restriction
enzyme cuts down the viral DNA, but does no harm to the bacterial chromosome. They are called restriction
enzymes because they restrict the growth of viruses. EcoRl, a commonly used restriction enzyme.
Q.7: What is recombinant DNA or chimaeric DNA?
The plasmid and gene of interest are cut with same restriction enzyme to produce sticky end which are joined
by DNA ligase enzyme. This enzyme seals the foreign piece of DNA into the vector. Now the two different
pieces of DNA have been joined together, which is now known as recombinant DNA or chimaeric DNA.
Q.8: What is Genomic Library?
A genomic library is a collection of bacterial or bacteriophage clones, each clone containing a particular
segment of DNA from the source cell. For making a genomic library, an organism’s DNA is simply sliced up
into pieces, and pieces are put into vectors (i.e. plasmids or viruses) that are taken up by host bacteria.
Q.9: Give role of DNA Probe. / How to find gene from genomic library?
A particular probe can be used to search a genetic library for a certain gene. A probe is a single stranded
nucleotide sequence that will hybridize (pair) with a certain piece of DNA. Location of the probe is possible
because the probe is either radioactive or fluorescent.
Q.10: Briefly describe PCR.
Kary B. Mullis developed the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in 1983. PCR can create millions of copies of
a single gene or any specific piece of DNA quickly in a test tube. PCR is very specific - the targeted DNA
sequence can be less than one part in a million of the total DNA sample. PCR takes its name from DNA
polymerase, the enzyme that carries out DNA replication in a cell.
Q.11: What are RFLPs?
The entire genome is treated with restriction enzymes, which results in a unique collection of different sized
fragments. Therefore, restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLPs) exists between individuals. During
a process called gel electrophoresis, the fragments can be separated according to their lengths.
Q.12: Give uses of DNA fingerprinting.
DNA fingerprinting is used to solve disputed parenthood. The DNA from a single sperm enough to identify a
suspected rapist. DNA finger prints are used as forensic evidence to identify criminals.
Q.13: Describe principle methods of gene sequencing.
The main principle of these methods is:
To generate pieces of DNA of different sizes all starting from the same point and ending at different points.
2. Separation of these different pieces of DNA on agarose gel. 3. Reading of sequence from the gel.
Q.14: Describe methods of gene sequencing.
For generation of different sized DNA fragments, two methods are generally used. One is Sanger’s, method
in which dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates arc used to terminate DNA synthesis at different sites. The other
method is Maxam-Gilbert method in which DNA threads are chemically cut into pieces of different sizes.
Q.15: What are the goals of Human Genome Project?
The first goal is to construct a genetic map of the human genome. The aim is to show the sequence of genes
along the length of each type of chromosome. The second goal is to construct a base sequence map. There are
three billion base pairs in the human genome and it is estimated.
Q.16: What is NutraSweet?
Biochemists have discovered a strain of bacteria that is especially good at producing phenylalanine; an organic
chemical needed to make aspartame, the dipeptide sweetener better known as NutraSweet.
Q.17: What is Taq polymerase?
DNA polymerase enzyme is extracted from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus, which lives in hot springs. This
enzyme is also known as Taq polymerase which can withstand high temperature. Two strands of DNA are
separated by high temperature; therefore, replication is not interrupted by the need to add more enzyme.
Q.18: Define Bioreactor. / Write down any two uses of transgenic bacteria.
Recombinant DNA technology is used to produce bacteria that reproduce in large vats called bioreactors.
Biotechnology products produced by bacteria, such as insulin, human growth hormone, tissue plasminogen
activator, haemophilia factor VIII, and hepatitis B vaccine. Transgenic bacteria can be used as biofilters to
prevent airborne chemical pollutants from being vented into the air.
Q.19: What is gene pharming?
Gene pharming is the use of transgenic farm animals to produce pharmaceuticals. Genes that code for
therapeutic, and diagnostic proteins are incorporated into the animal’s DNA, and the proteins appear in the
animal’s milk or urine which are extracted.
Q.20: How Transgenic animals are produced?
It is possible to micro eggs by hand, but another method uses vortex mixing. The eggs and silicon - carbide
needles, and the needles make tiny holes through which DNA (genes) can enter. When these eggs are fertilized,
the resulting offspring are transgenic animals.
Q.21: Define plasmid. Give example.
Plasmids are natural extra-chromosomal circular DNA molecules which carry genes for antibiotic resistance
and fertility etc. One of the plasmids discovered earlier pSC 101 has antibiotic resistance gene for tetracycline,
whereas pBR 322 has antibiotic resistance genes for tetracycline as well as ampicillin.
Q.22: What are the uses of PCR amplification and analysis?
PCR amplification and analysis can be used to diagnose viral infections, genetic disorders, cancer, in forensic
laboratories to identify criminals; and to determine the evolutionary history’ of human population.
Q.23: Define Gene Therapy. Differentiate between In vivo and Ex vivo Gene Therapy.
Gene therapy is the insertion of genetic material into human cells for the treatment of a disorder. It includes
procedures that give a patient healthy genes to repair faulty genes.
 In Vivo Gene Therapy Ex Vivo Gene Therapy
In vivo means the genetic modification occurs directly within the Ex vivo means that cells are removed
patient's body, with the therapeutic gene delivered directly to the from a patient's body, genetically
target cells through injection or other methods. modified in a lab, and then
It is used for treatment of cancer and cystic fibrosis reintroduced in the body.
It is used for treatment of SCID
Q.24: How gene therapy is useful for cancer?
Gene therapy is also being done to cancer patients, which makes them more tolerant of chemotherapy. In
clinical trials researchers have given genes to cancer patient that either make healthy cells more tolerant of
chemotherapy or make tumors more vulnerable to it. Once the bone marrow stem cells were protected it was
possible to increase the level of chemotherapy to kill the cancer cells.
Q.25: What are Protoplasts?
Techniques have been developed to introduce foreign genes into immature plant embryos, or into plant cells
that have had the cell wall removed and are called protoplasts.
Q.26: What are totipotent cells?
Tissue culture is the growth of a tissue in an artificial liquid culture medium. German botanist Gottlieb
Haberlandt said in 1902 that plant cells are totipotent - each cell has the full genetic potential of the organism
- and, therefore, a single cell could become a complete plant.
Q.27: What is SCID? How it is treated?
SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome) children lack an enzyme adenosine deaminase (ADA)
that is involved in the maturation of T and B cells and, and they are subjected to life threatening infections.
Bone marrow stem cells are removed from the blood and infected with a retrovirus (RNA virus) that carries a
normal gene for the enzyme then the cells are returned to the patient.
Q.28: What is Cystic fibrosis? What is its treatment?
Cystic fibrosis patients lack a gene that codes for trans-membrane carrier of the chloride ion. Patients often
die due to numerous infections of the respiratory tract. In vivo gene therapy is used in treatment. Liposomes-
microscopic vesicles coated with the gene are sprayed into patient’s nostrils.
Q.29: How coronary artery angioplasty is carried out?
During coronary artery angioplasty, a balloon catheter is used to open up a closed artery. To prevent artery
from closing again, the balloon is coated with a plasmid that contains a gene for vascular endothelial growth
factor. The expression of the gene, promotes the proliferation of blood vessels to bypass the obstructed area.
Q.30: Why urine is a preferable vehicle for a biotechnology product than milk?
Urine is a preferable vehicle for a biotechnology product than milk because all animals in a herd urinate - only
females produce milk; animals start to urinate at birth - females don’t produce milk until maturity; and it’s
easier to extract proteins from urine than from milk.
Q.31: What is Anther Culture Technique?
Anther culture is a technique in which mature anthers are cultured in a medium containing vitamins and growth
regulators. The haploid tube cells with in the pollen grains divide, producing proembryos consisting of 20 to
40 cells. Finally, the pollen grains rupture releasing haploid embryos and develops into haploid plant.
Q.32: Give example of Genetic Engineering of Plant.
High-voltage electric pulses can then be used to create pores in the plasma membrane so that the DNA enters.
In one of the first procedures carried out, a gene for the production of the firefly enzyme luciferase was inserted
into tobacco protoplast and the adult plants glowed when sprayed with the substrate luciferin.
Q.33: What is Particle Gun Method?
In 1987, John C Sanford and Theodore M. developed a method to introducing DNA into a plant tissue culture
callus. They constructed a device, called the particle gun, that bombards a callus with DNA coated microscopic
metal particles. Then genetically altered somatic embryos develop into genetically adult plants. Many plants
including com and wheat varieties have been genetically engineered by this method.
 Ch. 24 (Evolution)
Important Short Questions

Q.1: Define Evolution.

Evolution refers to the processes that have transformed life on earth from its earliest forms to the vast diversity
that we observe today. Evolutionary change is based mainly on the interactions between populations of
organisms and their environments.
Q.2: Describe role of Carlous Linneus.
Carolus Linnaeus in 18th century classified organisms. He grouped similar species in the same genus and
similar genera in one family. But as a natural theologian, he believed that species were permanent creations.
A century later, the taxonomic system of Linnaeus became a focal point in Darwin’s arguments for evolution.
Q.3: Describe Theory of Special Creation.
According to the theory of special creation, all living things came into existence in their present forms
especially and specifically created by Nature. Among the scientists who believed in divine creation was
Carolus Linnaeus.
Q.4: What is Hydrothermal Vent Hypothesis? What supports this hypothesis?
According to this hypothesis life may have begun deep in the oceans, in underwater hot springs called
hydrothermal vents. These vents could have supplied the energy and raw materials (for the origin and survival
of early life forms. A group of bacteria, called archaebacteria that tolerate temperatures up to 120°C and seem
to have undergone less evolutionary change supports this vent hypothesis.
Q.5: Briefly describe Endosymbiont Hypothesis.
This idea of endosymbiont hypothesis and was first proposed by Lynn Margulis. According to this hypothesis,
the aerobic bacteria developed into mitochondria, which are the sites of aerobic respiration and most energy
conversion in eukaryotic cells.
Q.6: What do you know about Membrane Invagination Hypothesis?
Prokaryotic cell membrane invaginated (folded inward) to enclose copies of its genetic material. This
invagination resulted in the formation of several double membrane bound organelles in a single cell. These
entities could then have evolved into the eukaryotic mitochondrion, nucleus, chloroplast etc.
Q.7: What is Lamarckism? Or Describe Inheritance of Acquired Characters.
Jean Baptiste Lamarck published his theory of evolution in 1809. According to Lamarck, the modifications an
organism acquires during its lifetime can be passed along to its offspring’ e.g. the long neck of the giraffe.
However, now we know that acquired characteristics cannot be inherited.
Q.8: Briefly discuss theory of Use and Disuse of Organs by Lamarck.
Lamarck argued that those parts of the body used extensively to cope with the environment become larger and
stronger, while those that are not used deteriorate. Among the examples Lamarck cited were the blacksmith
developing a bigger bicep in the arm that works the hammer and giraffe stretching its neck to new lengths in
pursuit of leaves to eat.
Q.9: What do you know about Charles Darwin?
Charles Darwin was born in Shrewsbury, in Western England, in 1809. He joined the expedition on Beagle to
South American coastline. He observed and collected thousands of specimens of diverse fauna and flora of
South America. In 1844, Darwin wrote a long essay on the origin of species and natural selection. The book
“Origin of Species” was published by Darwin in 1859.
Q.10: Why Galapagos Islands are famous?
Most of the animal species on the Galapagos live nowhere else in the world, although they resemble species
living on the South American mainland. From Galapagos islands, Darwin collected on the Galapagos were 13
types of finches that, although quite similar, seemed to be different species. Some were unique to individual
islands, while other species were distributed on two or more islands that were close together.
Q.11: Briefly describe Descent with Modification.
Darwin believed in perceived unity in life, with all organisms related through descent from some common
ancestor that lived in the remote past. In the Darwinian view, the history of life is like a tree, with multiple
branching and rebranching from a common trunk
Q.12: What is Neo-Darwinism. Or Describe Modern Synthesis Theory.
With progress of Population Genetics in 1930, Mendelism and Darwinism were reconciled, and modern
synthesis or Neo-Darwinism was developed in the early 1940s. It is called a synthesis because it integrated
discoveries and idea from many different fields, including paleontology, taxonomy, biogeography, and
population genetics.
Q.13: What is Biogeography? How it provides evidence of evolution.
Biogeography is the geographical distribution of species which first suggested the idea of evolution to Darwin.
Islands have many species of plants and animals that are endemic but closely related to species of the nearest
mainland. For example, armadillos, the armored mammals that live only in America. Their fossil record
confirms that modern armadillos are modified descendants of earlier species that occupied these continents.
Q.14: Define Fossils. Where most fossils are found?
Fossils are either the actual remains or traces of organisms that lived in ancient geological times. The organism
may be embedded in sand, resin or ice, or an impression or cast is made of the body parts, the tissue being
replaced or petrified by silica or calcium carbonate minerals. Most fossils are found in sedimentary rocks.
Q.15: How fossils record confirms evolution?
The succession of fossil forms is strong evidence in favour of evolution. It provides a visual record in a
complete series showing the evolution of an organism. Oldest known fossils of prokaryotes confirms that they
are ancestor of all life.
Q.16: Differentiate b/w Analogy and Homology/ Differentiate b/w Divergent and Convergent Evolution.
Divergent Evolution Convergent Evolution
Homologous organs are functionally different but Analogous organs are functionally alike but
structurally alike e.g. Fore limbs of man, bat, horse, structurally different e.g. wings of bat, birds and
whale etc. are example of divergent evolution. insects etc. are examples of convergent evolution.
Q. 17: What are Vestigial Organs? Give examples.
The oldest homologous structures are vestigial organs, rudimentary structures of marginal, if any, use to the
organism. Vestigial organs are historical remnants of structures that had important functions in ancestors but
are no longer essential presently. For example, vermiform appendix in carnivores and ear muscles in man
Q.18: How comparative embryology provides evidence about evolution?
Closely related organisms go through similar stages in their embryonic development. For example, all
vertebrate embryos go through a stage in which they have gill pouches on the sides of their throats. At
embryonic stage of development, similarities between fishes, frogs, snakes, birds, humans, and all other
vertebrates are much more apparent than differences
Q.19: Discuss Molecular Biology as evidence of evolution.
Evolutionary relationships among species are reflected in their DNA and proteins—in their genes and gene
products. If two species have genes and proteins with sequences of monomers that match closely, the
sequences must have been copied from a common ancestor. For example, a common genetic code brings
evidence that all life is related.
Q.20: Differentiate between Natural and Artificial Selection.
Natural Selection Artificial Selection
Natural selection occurs through an interaction Artificial selection, also called selective breeding,
between the environment and the variability inherent is the process where humans identify desirable
in any population. Natural selection can amplify or traits in animals and plants and use these traits to
diminish only those variations that are heritable. An develop desirable phenotypic traits by breeding.
example of natural selection in action is the evolution For example human selects better variety of rice
of antibiotic resistance in bacteria. and wheat for farming.
Q.21: Define Gene Pool.
The total aggregate of genes in a population at any one time is called the population’s gene pool. It consists of
all alleles at all gene loci in all individuals of the population.
Q.22: What are Fixed alleles?
If all members of a population are homozygous for the same allele, that allele is said to be fixed in gene pool.
More often, there are two or more alleles for a gene, each having relative frequency (proportion) in gene pool.
Q.23: State Hardy Weinberg Theorem.
This theorem was given by Hardy and Weinberg in 1908. It states that the frequencies of alleles and genotypes
in a population’s gene pool remain constant over the generations unless acted upon by agents other than sexual
recombination. p+q=1 (p + q)2 = 1 p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
Q.24: Name the factors which can alter gene frequency of a population.
Many factors can alter gene frequency. Out of these five affect the proportion of homozygotes and
heterozygotes enough to produce significant deviations from the proportion claimed by Hardy Weinberg
principle.
1. Mutation 2. Migration 3. Genetic Drift 4. Non-Random Mating 5. Selection
Q.25: How Migration affects gene frequency?
A very potent agent of change, migration locally acts to prevent evolutionary changes by preventing
populations that exchange members from diverging from one another. Emigration and immigration of
members of a population, cause disturbance in the gene pool.
Q.26: What is Genetic Drift? How it changes gene frequency?
It is the change in frequency of alleles at a locus that occurs by chance. In small populations, such fluctuations
may lead to the loss of particular alleles. This may occur in a small population when a few individual fail to
reproduce and then genes are lost from the population.
Q.27: What is Non-Random Mating? How it affects gene frequency?
Inbreeding is the most common form; it does not alter allele frequency, but lessens the proportion of
heterozygote individuals. Individuals with certain genotypes sometimes mate with one another more
commonly than would be expected on a random basis.
Q.28: Differentiate between Endangered and Threatened Species.
Endangered Species Threatened Species
An endangered species is in imminent danger of A threatened species is likely to become
extinction throughout its range (where it lives). endangered in the near future.
Q.29: What are the causes of species extinction.
Extinction is a natural process and has been the fate of most plant and animal species and is mostly as a result
of habitat destruction. The destruction of habitat has resulted in- tens of thousands of extinctions. Other causes
of extinction include climate change, pollution, and invasions from foreign species.
Q.30: What measures should be taken for endangered species?
A global system of national parks to protect large tracts of land and wildlife corridors that allow movement
between natural areas.
Protected landscapes and multiple-use areas that allow controlled private activity but also retain value as a
wildlife habitat.
Zoos and botanical gardens to save species whose extinction is imminent.
Q.31: Name any 4 extinct and endangered species of Pakistan.
In Pakistan. Cheetah. Tiger. Asian lion. Indian rhino. Cheer pheasant. Crocodile and Gavial have been declared
extinct. While. Indus dolphin. Blackbuck, Common leopard. Great Indian bustard. Houbara bustard. White-
headed duck and Marbled teal are among the animal near to extinction.
 Ch. 25 (Ecosystem)
Important Short Questions

Q.1: Differentiate between Ecology and Ecosystem.

Ecology Ecosystem
The term ecology comes from the Greek The major unit of ecology is the ecosystem. The eco part of
words oikos. meaning “the family the word is related to the environment and the system part
household”, and logy, meaning “the study means a collection of related parts that function as a unit. The
of”. Ecology is the study of relationship of ecosystem consists of two basic interacting components, the
living organisms to their environment. living or biotic, and the physical or abiotic factors.
Q.2: Differentiate between Population and Community.
Population Community
Population is a group of interbreeding individuals (same All populations within an ecosystem are
species) occurring together in space and time. Populations known as a community and are in one or
of plants and animals in the ecosystem do not function another manner interconnected to one another.
independently of each other.
Q.3: Differentiate between Biome and Biosphere.
Biome Biosphere
Major types of ecosystems, those that occupy broad Biosphere is a thin layer of earth in which all living
geographical regions are called biomes. Each biome organisms exist. Biosphere is spread out over the
consists of a combination of plants and animals in the surface of plant earth extending about 8-10
fully developed climax community. kilometers.
Q.4: What is Habitat?
An organism responds to a variety of environmental factors, and only when all of them are within the range
of tolerance, it can inhabit a location. The actual location of place where an organism lives is called its habitat.
An organism lives in a habitat.
Q.5: Define Niche.
Niche is defined as the ultimate distributional unit within which a species is restrained by the limitations of
its physical structure and its physiology. Charles Elton described the niche as the basic role of an organism
in the community. Niche is the species occupation. It refers to a profession or job of an organism.
Q.6: What is Ecological Niche?
A niche is defined as the role a species plays in a community including behavior and influence. Ecological
niche with habitat also specifies how the organism gets its supply of energy and materials - for example
organism’s predators, prey and competitors as well as its behavior and interactions.
Q.7: Differentiate between Autecology and Synecology.
Autecology Synecology
Study of a single population’s relationship to its The study of the relationship of different
environment it will be called as autecology. For example, communities (grouping of populations) to their
study of 50 to 100 plants of soybean in order to know the environment is called synecology or community
effect of water pollution on their growth and yield. ecology. For example, study of pond ecosystem.
Q.8: What are Decomposers?
Decomposers are mainly the fungi and bacteria, which obtain their energy from the dead and decaying plants
and animals. They release chemical elements as ions. The main chemical ions are nitrates, ammonia,
phosphates, potassium and calcium.
Q.9: What is Food Web?
Food web is actually “the combination of many food chains”. Food webs are not simple. All the food chains
and food webs begin with a green plant (producer) and may consist of three to five links or trophic levels.
Q.10: Define Food Chain with help of example.
It is a series of eating and being eaten of organisms in an ecosystem for transfer of energy from one trophic
level to another. For example, Eagle may eat blue bird, but blue bird eats insects like caterpillar and caterpillar
feeds on grass or green leaves.
Q.11: Differentiate between Biotic and Abiotic Components of an Ecosystem.
Biotic Components Abiotic Components
Biotic components include all living organisms Abiotic components include all non-living
including plants and animals supported by biosphere. components air, water, and soil. It includes
It includes producers, consumers and decomposers. atmosphere, hydrosphere and lithosphere.
Q.12: Differentiate between Producers and Consumers.
Producers Consumers
Producers are the autotrophs green photosynthetic Consumers are all the organisms, primarily
plants, which capture and bring light energy into the animals, which obtain energy directly or
ecosystem. They are able to manufacture organic food indirectly
from simpler inorganic substances. They are from the producers as ready-made organic food.
autotrophic organisms. They are mainly heterotrophic organisms.
Q.13: Sketch a simple Food Web.

Q.14: Describe various Trophic Levels in Food Web.

A food web consists of more complex trophic levels or food links. In a food chain T1 is the first trophic level
which includes producers, T2 is the second trophic level representing primary consumers, T3 is the third
trophic level representing secondary consumers and T4 is the fourth trophic level which represents tertiary
consumers.
Q.15: What is the importance of Food Web?
The variety of pathways in a food web helps to maintain the stability of the ecosystem. For example, owls
prey on rabbits and mice. If a disease reduces the rabbit population; fewer plants are consumed. The larger
plant population produces more fruits and seeds, which, in turn, support a larger mouse population. The
increased number of mice becomes major food source for the owls. The rabbit population gradually increases,
and these primary consumers once again become a food source for the owls. Thus, nature maintains a balance.
Q.16: Define Succession. Differentiate between Primary and Secondary Succession.
Succession is a sequence of changes in the community structure of an ecosystem over a period of time.
Community changes alter the ecosystem in ways that favours the competitors and species to replace their
predecessors in somewhat predictable manner.
Primary Succession Secondary Succession
During primary succession, an ecosystem is During secondary succession a new ecosystem develops
forged from bare rock, sand or clear glacial pool after an existing ecosystem is disturbed as in case of
where there was no trace of previous life. The forced fire or an abandoned farm field. Secondary
 formation of an ecosystem from scratch is a succession happens much more rapidly than primary
process often requiring thousands of years. succession because the previous community has left its
mark in the form of improved soil and seeds.
Q.17: Differentiate between Pioneers and Climax Community.
Pioneers Climax Community
In each case succession is initiated by a few hardy Succession ends with a diverse and relatively
invaders (lichens) called pioneers. stable climax community (forest).
Q.18: What is Predation?
An animal that preys on other animals is a predator. A predator is a consumer. The animal that is caught and
eaten is the prey. The over-all process is called predation. Examples: cat/mouse, fox/rabbit, seal/fish,
frog/mosquito, hawk/small birds etc.
Q.19: Give significance of Predation.
The sizes of populations of predator and prey are related to each other. The size of each population is
determined by the size of the other. If the number of prey is large, this leads to an increase in the number of
predators; as predator feeds upon the prey, the number of prey begins to fall. So, relationship of predator -
prey creates a “cycle”.
Q.20: What is Parasitism? / Define infestations.
Parasitism is an association between a host and a parasite, which involves providing the parasite with food,
protection and conditions for its survival. The parasite may or may not harm the host. Diseases in living
organisms, which are caused by parasites are called infestations.
Q.21: Differentiate between Endoparasites and Ectoparasites.
Endoparasites Ectoparasites
Parasites that live inside the body of the host are Parasites that live outside the body of the host are
called endoparasites. e.g. tape worm in intestine of called endoparasites. e.g. fungi causing dandruff in
man. hair.
Q.22: What is Symbiosis. Name its types.
It is an association between two organisms, which lives together for a shorter or longer period of time. It
includes association like Parasitism, Mutualism and Commensalism.
Q.23: What do you know about Root Nodules?
The legume plant, pea and bean, are the hosts to symbiont bacteria, which inhabit the roots forming root
nodules. The bacteria in the root nodules fix nitrogen in soil from air, converting it into amino acid, which the
host uses. In return, host provides bacteria with food and protection.
Q.24: What are Mycorrhizae?
Mycorrhiza is an association between the roots of plants growing in acid soil and certain fungi. The host is
pine, beech or heather and it provides the fungus with an enzyme to digest carbohydrates in leaf litter. In
return, the fungus symbiont passes mineral ions from the soil to the host.
Q.25: Define Mutualism. Give examples.
It is the relationship between two organisms in which both the organisms benefit from each other. Lichens are
an example of mutualism between a fungus and an alga. The relationship between insects and flowering plants
is another example.
Q.26: What are Lichens? How they are ecologically important?
Lichen is a dual organism composed of symbiotic association of an alga living within a fungus mycelium. The
lichens grow on exposed rock surfaces and are important colonizers of bare ground.
Q.27: What is Commensalism? Give Example.
In this type of relationship only one organism benefits from the relationship. The other is not affected at all.
For example, sharks may have small fish called remoras attached to them. As the shark feeds, the remoras pick
up the scraps. The remoras benefit from this relationship; the shark is not affected at all.
Q.28: Define Grazing.
Many animals like rabbits, goats, sheeps, cows, buffaloes and horses feed on grasses. This mode of feeding is
called grazing and these animals are called grazers. These animals live in pastureland where they feed on
grasses, herbs and shrubs.
Q.29: What are disadvantages of over grazing.
Over grazing tramples the soil into hard layer as a result of which rain water will not penetrate this soil. It runs
off from the upper surface removing the fertile topsoil with it. The final result of over - grazing is totally barren
land. Over grazing may lead to the transformation of a grassland into a desert.
Q.30: Why is moderate grazing important?
Grazing is very important factor in determining the ecosystem. Moderate grazing is very helpful to maintain
grassland ecosystem. It destroys the competitors and helps the grass to grow well.
Q.31: Differentiate between Micronutrients and Macronutrients.
Micronutrients Macronutrients
Micronutrients are elements required by organisms Macronutrients are elements required by organisms in
in small quantity or in trace amount like zinc, large amount like water, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen,
molybdenum, iron, iodine. nitrogen, phosphorus, sulphur and calcium.
Q.32: What is Biogeochemical Cycle?
The chemical elements essential for life in living organisms are called biogenic elements or nutrient elements.
The nutrient cycles are also called biogeochemical cycles as the nutrients move from living to non-living to
living portions of ecosystem in a cyclic manner.
Q.33: What is Ammonification?
Nitrogenous compounds present in soil are decomposed into simple compounds by soil-dwelling organisms
chiefly bacteria and fungi. These microorganisms use the proteins and amino acids and release excess of
ammonia (NH3) or ammonium ions (NH4+). This process is known as ammonification.
Q.34: What do you know about Nitrification?
Several bacteria in soil like Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are able to oxidize ammonia or ammonium ions,
this oxidation is known as nitrification. The conversion of ammonia or ammonium ions into nitrite and nitrate
by nitrifying bacteria is called Nitrification.
Q.35: How Nitrogen Depletion occurs in soil?
Nitrates are steadily lost due to the soil erosion, fire and water percolating down through the soil. Nitrates are
also lost as a result of the activities of certain soil bacteria; in the absence of oxygen these bacteria break down
nitrates releasing nitrogen back into the atmosphere and using the oxygen for their own respiration.
Q.36: What are the remedies of Nitrogen Depletion?
The nitrogen cycle is maintained primarily by the activities of the nitrogen - fixing bacteria, which incorporate
gaseous nitrogen from air into organic nitrogen containing compounds. Soil nitrogen resources are also
strengthened by the addition of nitrogen fertilizers by the man himself.
Q.37: Differentiate between Gross Primary Production and Net Primary Production.
Gross Primary Production Net Primary Production
The total amount of energy fixed by plants is gross The amount of energy left after plants have met their
primary production. respiratory needs is net primary production, which
shows up as plant biomass.
Q.38: Why energy is lost in each Trophic Level?
As energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next, from producer to primary consumer, between 80
to 90% of original energy is lost in form of heat as a by-product of respiration.
 Ch. 26 (Some Major Ecosystem)
Important Short Questions

Q.1: Differentiate between Climate and Weather.

Climate Weather
Climate refers to overall patterns of weather that Weather refers to short-term fluctuations in
prevail from year to year even century-to-century in a temperature, humidity, cloud cover, wind and
particular region. precipitation over periods of hours or days.
Q.2: Define hydrospheric ecosystem and write its common features.
Hydrospheric ecosystem is a “system in water where living and non-living components exchange materials
and transfer of energy also takes place within water. The common features of Hydrospheric ecosystem includes
temperature, absorption of energy, nutrients and abundant water with appropriate temperature.
Q.3: How productivity of aquatic ecosystem can be measured?
The productivity can be indicated by consumption of CO2 and evolution of oxygen in the process of
photosynthesis.
The productivity of aquatic ecosystem is basically determined by the light and nutrients. Light intensity and
quality vary with the water depth, so the primary productivity also varies with light.
Q.4: What is the productivity of grassland ecosystem?
In temperate grassland the rate of primary production is about 700 - 1500 g/m2 annually. In sub-humid tropical
grassland, it is more than 4000 g/m2.
Q.5: Compare Limnetic with Profundal zone?
Limnetic Zone Profundal Zone
In this zone enough light penetrates to support In this zone light is insufficient to support
photosynthesis. Here, phytoplankton includes photosynthesis. The organisms of this zone are mainly
cyanobacteria (blue green algae) which serve as nourished by detritus that falls from the littoral and
producers. These are eaten by protozoa and limnetic zone and by incoming sediment. Decomposers
small crustaceans, which in turn are consumed and detritus feeders, such as, snails and certain insect
by fishes. larvae, bacteria, fungi and fishes, inhabit it.
Q.6: What is littoral zone? What type of animals are found in littoral zone?
In this zone, the water is shallow, and plants find abundant light, anchorage and adequate nutrients from the
bottom sediments. Phytoplantons and Zooplanktons are present in littoral zone. Littoral invertebrate animals
include small crustaceans, insect larvae, snails, flatworms, Hydra; vertebrates include frogs, aquatic snakes
and turtles.
Q.7: Write adaptations of animals for terrestrial mode of life.
Supporting tissues: Both plants and animals have evolved supporting tissues like vascular bundles (xylem-
phloem) in plants and skeleton in animals to support them on land against the force of gravity.
Conservation of water: Plants and animals evolved various methods to conserve water in their body e.g.
homeostasis. The mechanism of temperature regulation was developed by land plants and animals by
developing bark and skin respectively.
Q.8: Name the six major terrestrial biomes.
Terrestrial Ecosystem can be divided into following main types such as
Forest ecosystem. It is further sub-divided into: (a) tropical rain forests
(b) temperate deciduous forests (c) coniferous alpine and boreal forests
Grass land ecosystem. 3. Desert ecosystem. 4. Tundra ecosystem.
Q.9: Write names of plants and animals, of temperate deciduous forests.
Some dominant plants are Taxus baccata, Pinus wallichiana, Berberis lyceum. Many herbs and shrubs are
with height of 5m. Some grasses, ferns and other herbaceous plants make up field layer.
Some very common animals are Macca multata (rhesus monkey), Selenarctos tibetanus (black bear), Felis
bengalensis (leopard cat), deer, and wolves with various types of microorganisms to convert the litter into
organic matter such as bacteria, fungi, and earthworms.
Q.10: Differentiate between alpine and boreal coniferous forests.
Alpine Coniferous Forests Boreal Coniferous Forests
Coniferous forests located at high altitude are called Coniferous forests located at high latitude are
alpine. Altitude is the distance (height) from sea level. called boreal. Latitude is the distance from equator.
Q.11: What are planktons? Give their types.
Living among the anchored plants are microscopic organisms called plankton. These can be divided into two
groups.
Zooplanktons Phytoplankton’s
Zooplankton (Greek “drifting animals”): such as Phytoplankton (Greek “drifting plants”): these
protozoa and tiny crustaceans. include photosynthetic protista, bacteria and algae.
Q.12: Give an account of Eutrophication or Algal Bloom.
The large amount of phosphate encourages growth of microscopic plants called eutrophication. This may
affect the force of that aquatic reservoir. This is the natural process of excessive enrichment of water with
nutrients by which large amount of living organic matter grows in the water.
Q.13: Write down the average rain fall of terrestrial ecosystems.
The average rainfall in temperate deciduous forests is between 750 - 1500 mm.
The grasslands usually face severe droughts. Annual rainfall is about 250 to 750 ml. In tropical and subtropical
grasslands, rainfall reaches about 1500 mm (60 inches).
In desert ecosystem rainfall is less than 25 to 50 cm (10 - 20 inches) or not at all.
Q.14: Give the names of some major ecosystems on land in Pakistan.
1 Temperate Deciduous Forests. 2 Coniferous Alpine and Boreal Forests. 3 Grassland Ecosystem.
4 Desert Ecosystem. 5 Tundra Ecosystem.
Q.15: Briefly describe the conditions of Taiga.
Northern coniferous forests are also called Taiga. Conditions in taiga are harsher than those in the temperate
deciduous forest. The winters are longer and colder, and the growing season is shorter.
Q.16: Briefly describe soil conditions of temperate deciduous forests.
The soil of temperate deciduous forest is grayish brown in colour, very fertile and rich in organic matter, with
maximum water holding capacity.
Q.17: Describe human impact on coniferous alpine and boreal forests.
Due to severity of climate and remoteness most of the coniferous forests remains undisturbed, but these forests
are major source of lumber for construction, so forests have been cleared in the world.
Q.18: Write Human effects on temperate deciduous forests.
On temperate deciduous forest large mammals such as black bear, deer, wolves, bobcats and mountain lions
were formerly abundant, but the predators have been largely wiped out by humans. Need of lumber and its
use in agriculture has reduced many deciduous forests from the world.
Q.19: Differentiate between prairies and savanna.
Prairies Savanna
Grassland present in temperate climates are called Grassland located in tropical climates have woody
Prairies, such as Prairies of North America, trees and are called Savanna.
Pampas of Argentina. These grasslands do not
have woody plants so they are known as Prairies.
Q.20: What is layering in Grassland ecosystem?
Layering is the characteristic of grassland. Tall grasses (Andropogon, Panicum) form the first) layer, mid high
grasses (Stipa, Sporobolus, Oryzopsis) form the second layer and third layer is formed by short grasses and
forbs and warfare species (Poa, Bromus) with mosses and lichens.
Q.21: Write down soil conditions of grassland ecosystem.
The soil moisture is limited on account of low precipitation and high evaporation. Upper soil layer in which
grasses are rooted is normally moist but deeper layers are constantly dry. The soil of grassland is basically
impermeable with excessive salinity.
Q.22: Where the desert ecosystems are found in Pakistan?
In Pakistan the desert ecosystem in western Punjab (Mianwali and Bukhar) is known as “Thal”. In southern
Punjab, areas like Fort Abbass, Bahawal Nagar, Yazman, Bahawal Pur (Cholistan), Khan pur and Rahim yar
khan also have deserts. In Sindh, this desert ecosystem is called “Thar”.
Q.23: Write adaptations of plants in desert ecosystem.
The plants such as cacti have large shallow root systems. Plants are covered with the waterproof waxy coating
to prevent evaporation of precious water. Water is stored in thick stems of cacti and other succulents. Cacti
and Euphorbia have fleshy stems in which water is stored for use during the period of drought.
Q.24: What is desertification? Quote one example.
The human activities are reducing the extent of many biomes, they are causing the spread of deserts, a process
called desertification. A dramatic example is occurring in the Sahel. Twenty-five years of below average
rainfall, coupled with rapid growth of the human population have caused a steady southward spread of desert.
Q.25: What is tundra? Where it is found in Pakistan?
The last biome seen before reaching the polar ice-caps is the arctic tundra, a vast treeless region bordering the
Arctic ocean. It is between taiga and polar ice caps, and at high altitude across the mountain above timberline
such as mountain of Karakoram and Koh Hindu Kush in Pakistan.
Q.26: Where arctic tundra is present?
Aractic tundra stretches across Northern North America, Northern Europe and Siberia (with high latitude).
Q.27: What is human impact on tundra ecosystem?
Human activities in the tundra leave scars that persist for centuries. Fortunately, for the tundra inhabitants,
the impact of civilization is localized around oil drilling sites, pipelines, mines and military bases.
Q.28: Write down plant and animal life of tundra ecosystem.
The ground is carpeted with small perennial flowers and dwarf willows no more than a few centimeters tall
often with large lichen called reindeer moss. The standing pools provide superb mosquito habitat. The
mosquitoes and other insects provide food for numerous birds. The tundra vegetation supports lemmings,
which are eaten by wolves, snowy owls, arctic foxes and even grizzly bears.
 Chapter 27 (Man and His Environment)
Short Questions Notes

Q.1: What is a nutrient cycle? How it can be upset?

In nature, there is no such thing as waste; dead materials decay and become food for other living things. This
food is consumed, or decays and becomes food again. This is the nutrient cycle, the process that supplies
food to living things. The balance in the nutrient cycle [Link] upset when:
(1) not enough food is produced,
(2) too much food is consumed,
(3) decayed nutrients are not returned to the ground.
Q.2: Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources. Give one example.
Renewable Resources Non-Renewable Resources
Air, water, food, land, forests and wild life Non-renewable resources include various metals, non-metallic
are renewable resources because they are minerals and fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas). These
never depleted. They are recycled in resources are exhaustable and once consumed cannot be
nature. replaced.
Q.3: Briefly describe Air? How it is being depleted?
Air is several kilometers thick blanket of atmosphere surrounding the earth. It is very important natural
resource. It consists of nitrogen (79%), oxygen (20%), CO2 (0.03%) and traces of inert gases called noble
gases. Air is being polluted rapidly due to industrialization and automobiles. Polluted air contains certain
gases, like carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons and oxides of nitrogen.
Q.4: Write uses of water.
Water is very important as raw material in making variety of foodstuff, drinks, liquid detergents and many
other products. From seawater, we obtain sodium chloride (table salt), which is used in cooking and
manufacture of other useful chemicals such as chlorine and sodium hydroxide.
Q.5: What is soil? Give its basic constituents also write importance of soil.
Land is an important natural resource. Soil can be defined as “the upper layer of earth’s crust.” The basic
constituents of soil are soil particles, soil water, soil air and inorganic matter and soil organisms. Soil plays a
very vital role in;
Supporting life on land, land plants depend directly on soil to be anchored firmly.
Soil provides water, organic and inorganic nutrients to the plants.
Q.6: What is wild life? Give its important role.
Wild life refers to all non-cultivated plants and non-domesticated animals. Game animals and plants have been
major source of food for humans. Wild life is a renewable recourse and plays very important role in food
chain. Without these, the food chain can be disturbed to such an extent that it will be very difficult to maintain
the balance
Q.7: What are fossil fuels? How they are formed?
Coal, oil and gas are the fossil fuels 95% of our daily energy requirements are met with these resources. They
are called fossil fuels because they are the remains of plants and animals of past which became buried due to
environmental hazards and were fossilized in deeper layers of earth and sea.
Q.8: What is hydroelectric power? Write its advantages.
As rain water falls, it gains speed and its kinetic energy increases. The kinetic energy of falling water is
harnessed to turn turbines fixed at the base of dams. The turning turbines will then drive generators to produce
electricity, which is known as hydroelectric power or electricity. It is the cheapest and non pollutant source of
energy, which man must exploit more for its benefit and for keeping environment safe.
Q.9: How energy can be produced by tides?
Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and sun on the water in seas and oceans. The changing
tides drive water towards or away from the land. The difference in height of the water at high and low tides is
made use of in a tidal power station to generate electricity. A tidal power station consists of a long barrier
called a tidal barrage. The flow of water across the barrage turns its turbines, which in turn drive the generators
to produce electricity.
Q.10: Briefly describe wind power.
Wind is moving air. It blows form area of high pressure to area of lower pressure. Modern windmills or wind
turbines harness wind energy to drive generators, which produce electricity. Wind itself costs nothing and does
not cause air pollution. All the windmills stop working when the wind stops blowing.
Q.11: What do you mean by Nuclear Energy. Write two disadvantages of Nuclear energy?
Nuclear energy is obtained from nuclear fuels by nuclear fission. In nuclear power station, large amount of
heat is generated by nuclear fission, which takes place in a nuclear reactor. The heat energy is then used to
convert water into steam, which drives steam turbines for generating electricity. Each nuclear power station
can last only for about 30 years and strict safety measures have to be taken to avoid radiation pollution.
Q.12: What is Geothermal Energy?
Volcanoes, hot springs and geysers allow the escape of hot substance from the inside of the earth. The natural
heat energy trapped underground is called geothermal energy. Hot water or steam carrying geothermal energy
comes up to the surface in some parts of the world such as New Zealand and Ice Land. Geothermal energy is
free and can last for a long time.
Q.13: How energy can be produced from solid wastes?
Conversion of waste materials like trash, paper, organic manure, plastic materials, cans, agriculture and
industrial waste etc. by hydrogenation, pyrolysis (destructive distillation) or bioconversion can provide oil and
gas and also their threat as a source of pollution of land and water can be countered.
Q.14: Write a note on ocean thermal gradient.
In tropical regions, temperature of surface water is about 25°C and that at the depth of a few hundred meters
only 5°C. This develops an ocean thermal gradient and heat is conducted from region of higher to lower
temperature. Man has developed the technology to use this thermal gradient to drive a turbine for electricity
generation.
Q.15: Write four methods of energy conservation.
• Reduce wastage by recycling.
• Drive less, walk and use public transport more.
• Switch off lights and electrical appliances when they are not in use.
• Minimize the. use of air conditioner.
Q.16: How Depletion and Degradation of resource occur on planet earth?
The earth’s natural resources include the physical resources of water, air, soil, chemical elements and fossil
fuels, together with all other species of living organisms. Human activities like over hunting, deforestation,
combustion of fossil fuels and industrialization results in depletion and degradation of resource on planet
earth.
Q.17: Define Demography.
Many of the problems of the world are caused by or made worse by an increasing human population.
Demography is the study of human populations and things that affect them.
Q.18: Give reasons for world population explosion.
1. Disease prevention medicine, public, personal and food hygiene.
2. Improved nutrition by efficient agriculture
3. Housing and living standards are improved.
4. Child care, maternity, parent- craft and Welfare services.
Q.19: Enlist four consequences of population increase in Pakistan.
[Link] crowding, less living space. more people; more crime, violence and social diseases.
2. Starvation through lack of sufficient food.
3. Populations will outstrip food supply.
4. Destruction of the countryside, plants, animals and wildlife.
Q.20: What is Reforestation?
Replantation of trees in an area where plants existed before is called reforestation. It is especially important
for many of the conifers species, which often require bare soil to establish.
Q.21: Differentiate between afforestation and deforestation.
Deforestation Afforestation
The destruction of forests leaves the soil barren and this is Afforestation is establishment of new forests
called deforestation. where no forests existed previously.
Clearance of vast areas of forest for procuring lumber, It is the plantation of trees in an area where
planting subsistence Crops or grazing cattle is called previously no plants existed.
deforestation
Q.22: Give importance of forests.
Forests are very important as they provide protection to man and other organisms. Fruits of forest trees are the
source of food. Forests regulate the flow of water in the streams, prevent soil erosion and make the
environment very pleasant. Forests provide us timber, fire wood, medicines and many other products.
Q.23: Why forests (trees) are called environmental buffers?
Trees are called environmental buffers; they intercept heavy rainfall and release the water steadily and slowly
to soil beneath and to the streams and rivers that start in or flow through them, the tree roots hold the soil in
place. Forest causes rainfall and makes our environment cool and humid.
Q.24: Differentiate between Pollution and Pollutants.
Pollution Pollutants
The befouling of the environment by anything Harmful substances which pollute our
produced by humans which is or may be harmful to environment are called pollutants. For example
human life and other living organisms is called sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide, oxides of
environmental pollution. nitrogen, lead etc.
Q.25: What is ozone? Give its importance.
A layer of atmosphere extending from 10-50 kilometers above earth, which filters most of UV radiation
(ultraviolet rays) and protects us from these harmful rays of the sun is known as ozone layer, as it contains
ozone. In pure form ozone is bluish, explosive and highly poisonous gas. Ozone (O3) molecule is made up of
three oxygen atoms bounded together.
Q.26: What are the sources of chlorofluorocarbon? / How is ozone layer being depleted?
The decline in thickness of the ozone layer is caused by increasing level of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), which
contains chlorine, flourine and carbon. These gases are produced from the aif conditioners in our homes,
offices, vehicles, and operating refrigerators. As CFCs rise to the atmosphere, ultraviolet rays cause chlorine
to release. The chlorine released destroys the ozone molecule in the ozone layer.
Q.27: What are the effects of ozone depletion?
As the ozone layer becomes thinner, more ultraviolet, rays from the sun are able to reach earth. If more
ultraviolet rays reach the earth’s surface, they will affect all life on earth by increasing temperature. They
cause skin cancers and cataracts in human. They also affect crops, plants, trees and even marine plankton and
distort weather patterns.
Q.28: What are green-house effect?
The glass of greenhouse does not permit longer wave infra - red radiation to escape outside and so the heat
remains within the green house. The CO2 of the atmosphere behaves like glass sheet of greenhouse. It absorbs
the sun energy but does not allow it to escape outside, as a result of which the temperature of the atmosphere
increases which is called greenhouse effect.
Q.29: What are causes and harms of greenhouse effect? / Define Global Warming.
Over urbanization, deforestation, industrialization are the causes of greenhouse effect, which is gradually
increasing temperature on earth, called “global wanning”. This may lead to rapid melting of ice caps and
glaciers, bringing floods and changing the path of major air and ocean currents, drastically affecting the global
weather conditions.
Q.30: What is acid rain?
Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide emitted in the air during the burning of fossil fuels, combined with water
vapours in the atmosphere forms acids.

Q.31: Write harmful effects of acid rain.

• Acid rain damages life in lakes, farms and forests.
• It also kills decomposers and microorganisms.
• Plants poisoned and deprived of nutrients become weak and vulnerable to infection and insect attack.
• Stone monuments like “Taj Mahal” are being eroded due to “stone cancer” by acid rains.
Q.32: What is water pollution? Give its causes,
Human activity is the main cause of pollution of canals, streams, lakes, rivers and even seawater. This polluted
water affects the living organisms in it and directly or indirectly also humans. Main sources of water pollution
are sewage incomplete treatment, oil and detergents.
Q.33: Describe eutrophication. What are its effects?
Some detergents contain a lot of phosphate. This is not removed by sewage treatment and is discharged into
rivers. The large amount of phosphate encourages growth of microscopic plants called eutrophication. This
may affect the force of that aquatic reservoir. This is the natural process of excessive enrichment of water with
nutrients by which large amount of living organic matter grows in the water.
Q.34: What are industrial effluents? Give their any two effects.
The chemical waste from industry comprises substances called effluents. Factories sometimes turn
waterways into open sewers by dumping oil, toxic chemical and other harmful liquids (called effluents) into
them. They either kill the microorganisms that pollute the water or inhibit their growth.
Q.35: Differentiate between health and disease.
Health Disease
The steady internal state of homeostasis is Disease refers to the departure from normal or steady
known as normal health. internal state of homeostasis through structural or
functional disorders of the body.