19-07-2026

1103CMD303001260006 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find the value of x for which the function

y = – 5x2 + 20x + 4 is maximum :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

2)

Find the value of cos(74°) = ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

Value of cos(106°) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4)

Acceleration v/s time graph for a particle moving along a straight line is shown in figure. The
particle is initially at rest. Find the time instant(s) in seconds, when the particle is at rest.
(1) t = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) t = 0, 2, 4
(3) t = 1, 3
(4) None of these

5)

‘y-x’ graph of the particle moving in plane is given below. If the graph shows the motion of a particle
for 2 sec. The ratio of average velocity and average speed is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

6)

Which of the following represents uniformly accelerated motion :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Three elephants A, B and C are moving along a straight line with constant speed in same direction
as shown in figure. Speed of A is 5 m/s and speed of C is 10 m/s. Initially seperation between A & B
is d and between B & C is also d. When B catches 'C' seperation between A & C becomes 3d. Then

speed of B will be :-

(1) 7.5 m/s

(2) 15 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

8) A ship is travelling due east at 20 km/h. Find the speed of second ship heading 37° north of east,
if it is always due north of the first ship.

(1) 25 km/hr
(2) 12.5 km/hr
(3) 50 km/hr
(4) 33.3 km/hr

9) The velocity-time plot for a particle moving on a straight line is shown in the figure.

(1) Acceleration of particle for 0 to10s is positive and for 10 to 30s is negative.
(2) The particle has never turned around.
(3) The particle has zero displacement in given time interval.
The average speed in the interval 0 to 10 s is the same as the average speed in interval 10s to
(4)
20 s.

10) Two cars C1 and C2 are moving in the same direction on a straight single lane road with constant
velocities 12 m/s and 10 m/s respectively. When the separation between the two was 200 m, C2
started accelerating to avoid collision. The minimum acceleration of car C2 so that they don’t collide,

is

(1) 1 cm/s2
(2) 2 cm/s2
(3) 3 cm/s2
(4) 4 cm/s2

11) The coordinate of an object is given as a function of time by x = 7t – 3t2, where x is in meters and
t is in seconds. Its average velocity over the interval from t = 0 to t = 4 s is:

(1) 5m/s
(2) – 5m/s
(3) 11m/s
(4) –11m/s

12) A particle is projected as shown in figure. If the particle strikes at the wall after 1 sec, then the

ratio will be: (approximately)

(1) 1
(2) 1.6
(3) 2.6
(4) 3

13) A flag is mounted on a boat and boat having a speed of 10 km/hr in still water, moving towards
north. River is flowing with speed 5 km/hr towards east. Wind is blowing in the west direction with
speed 5 km/hr. The flag will point in direction :-

(1) North West

(2) South West
(3) North East
(4) North

14) An object is thrown horizontally from a tower H meter high with a velocity of m/s. Its
speed on striking the ground will be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) Position-time graph is given, find average velocity in time t = 0 and t = 15 sec is :-

(1) 5 m/s
(2)
m/s
(3) –2 m/s

(4)
m/s

16) A body is moving according to the equation x = at + bt2 + ct3 then its instantaneous speed is
given by :-

(1) a + 2bt+3ct2
(2) a + 2b + 3ct
(3) a + 2b – 3ct
(4) None of these

17) 2 km wide river flowing at rate of 5 km/hr. A man can swim in still water with 10 km/hr. If he
want to cross the river along shortest path then time elapsed in swimming will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) For the v-t graph shown in figure total time of journey is 10 s. If maximum velocity during the

motion is 3 m/s, the time for which motion is uniform is :-

(1) 2s
(2) 4s
(3) 6s
(4) 8s

19) If velocity of a particle is given by v = (2t + 3) m/s, then average velocity in interval 0 ≤ t ≤ 1s is:

(1)
m/s

(2)
m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

20) A body moves with position x = 2t3 – 3t2 along x-axis. Where x is in meter and t is in second. The
initial velocity of the body is :

(1) Zero
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) Independent

21) A projectile passes two points A and B at same height after 3 s and 6 s of its projection.
Horizontal separation between the points A and B is 150 m. The horizontal range is closest to:

(1) 180 m
(2) 240 m
(3) 350 m
(4) 450 m

22) What will be closest distance of approach between A and B :-

(1) 6 m
(2) 8 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 0 m

23) A particle is projected from the ground with velocity u at angle θ with horizontal. The horizontal
range, maximum height and time of flight are R, H and T respectively. They are given by

and
Now keeping u fixed, θ is varied from 30° to 60°, then

(1) R will first increase then decrease, H will increase and T will decrease
(2) R will first increase then decrease while H and T both will increase
(3) R will decrease while H and T both will increase
(4) R will increase while H and T both will also increase

24) The position vector of a particle is . The velocity vector of the particle
is :

(1) Parallel to the position vector

(2) Perpendicular to the position vector
(3) Directed towards the origin
(4) Directed away from the origin

25)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

26) If = 2 and = 4 and angle between them is 60°, then is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) The angles which a vector makes with X, Y and Z axes respectively are :-

(1) 60°, 60°, 60°

(2) 45°, 45°, 45°
(3) 60°, 60°, 45°
(4) 45°, 45°, 60°

28) If , then angle between and is :-

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

29) If = and then value of is -

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) –20
(4) 15

30) If , then angle between and is :-

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

31)

Value of is

(1) 9
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 7

32) If v = x2 – 5x + 4, find the acceleration of the particle when velocity of the particle is zero :-

(1) Zero
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None of these

33)

The relation between time and distance is t = αx2 + βx, where α and β are constants. The retardation
is :-

(1) 2αv3
(2) 2βv3
(3) 2αβv3
(4) 2β2v3

34) Area bounded by curve y = sin x, with x-axis, when x varies from 0 to is :-

(1) 1 unit
(2) 2 units
(3) 3 units
(4) 0
35) If y = sinθ, then average value of y over the interval θ = 0° to θ = 90° is :-

(1)

(2) 0

(3)

(4) 1

36) If and is perpendicular than α is :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

37) The function f is given by f = Asinαx + Bcosβt, where x is displacement and t is time. The

dimension of is :-

0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
0
(2) [M1L T–1]
0
(3) [M L–1T]
0
(4) [M L1T–1]

38) The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is given by where ℓ is about 100 cm
and is known to have 1mm accuracy. The period is about 2s. The time of 100 oscillations is measured
by a stop watch of least count 0.1 s. The percentage error in g is

(1) 0.1%
(2) 1%
(3) 0.2%
(4) 0.8%

39) If P represents radiation pressure, c represents speed of light and Q represents radiation energy
striking a unit area per second, then non-zero integers x, y and z such that PxQycz is dimensionless,
can be (Dimension of P Q and C are M1 L–1 T–2, M T–3 and L1 T–1):

(1) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1
(2) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
(3) x = –1, y = 1, z = 1
(4) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1

40)

The values of kinetic energy (K) and potential energy (U) are measured as follows
K = (100.0 ± 2.0) J and U = (200.0 ± 1.0) J
then the percentage error in the measurement of mechanical energy is :

(1) 2.5%
(2) 0.5%
(3) 1.0%
(4) 1.5%

41) Percentage error in measuring the radius and mass of a solid sphere are 1% and 2%
respectively. The error in measurement of moment of inertia (I) about its diameter is :-

(1) 9%
(2) 6%
(3) 5%
(4) 4%

42) A vernier callipers has 1mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier
scale, which match 16 main scale divisions for this least count is :-

(1) 0.02 mm
(2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.1 mm
(4) 0.2 mm

43) A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003 g, radius 0.5 ± 0.005 mm and length 6 ± 0.06 cm. The maximum
percentage error in the measurement of density is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) If the number of divisions on the circular scale is 100 and number of full rotations given to screw
is 8 and distance moved by the screw is 4mm, than what will be least count of the screw gauge ?

(1) 0.001 mm
(2) 0.005 mm
(3) 0.010 mm
(4) 0.100 mm

45) A student measured the diameter of a rod by using screw gauge with pitch 1 mm and 200 div on
circular scale. In observation the main scale reading is 5 mm and 50 division above the reference
level of circular scale then the correct diameter of ball is:

(1) 5.25 mm
(2) 5.20 mm
(3) 5.200 mm
(4) 5.250 mm

CHEMISTRY

1) In the reaction 4I– + Hg2+ → moles of made from 1 mol each of Hg2+ and I– will be :-

(1) 1 mol
(2) 0.5 mol
(3) 0.25 mol
(4) 2 mol

2) If 10 moles of CH4 reacts with 21 mol O2 at STP. The no. of moles of excess reactant that remains
unreacted after the completion of reaction will be :-
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

(1) 1 mol O2
(2) 2 mol O2
(3) 1 mol CH4
(4) 2 mol CH4

3) What is volume (in L) of oxygen required at STP to completely convert 1.5 moles of sulphur to
sulphur dioxide ?
S + O2 → SO2

(1) 43.6
(2) 33.6
(3) 11.2
(4) 23.6

4) Equal masses of O2 and N2 are reacted according to the equation : O2 + N2 —→ 2NO. Which
statement is true ?

(1) O2 is the limiting reagent and N2 is present in excess

(2) N2 is the limiting reagent and O2 is present in excess.
(3) All of O2 and N2 react and neither is in excess.
(4) Nothing can be said about the limiting reagent

5) For the reaction; 5 mole of A and 8 mole of B will produce :

(1) 5 mole of C
(2) 4 mole of C
(3) 8 mole of C
(4) 13 mole of C
6) 12 moles of each A and B are allowed to react as given 3A + 2B → C + D. If 60 gm of D is
produced then, calculate the atomic mass of D :-

(1) 30
(2) 45
(3) 60
(4) 15

7) Reaction 2H2S + SO2 3S + 2H2O.

If 11.2 L H2S is taken with 11.2 L SO2 at S.T.P. Then calculate mass of sulpher formed :-

(1) 24 g
(2) 22 g
(3) 48 g
(4) 12 g

8) When 1L of CO2 is heated with graphite, the volume of the gases collected is 1.5 L. Calculate the
number of moles of CO produced at S.T.P.:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The percentage loss in weight after heating a pure sample of potassium chlorate (KClO3) of 245g.
Molar weight of KClO3 = 122.5 Reaction is given as :
2KClO3(s) —→ 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g)

(1) 12.25
(2) 24.50
(3) 39.18
(4) 49

10) 4.0 g of caustic soda (mol mass 40) contains same number of sodium ions as are present in-

(1) 10.6 g of Na2CO3 (mol. mass 106)

(2) 58.5 g of NaCl (Formula mass 58.5)
(3) 100 ml of 0.5 m Na2SO4 (Formula mass 142)
(4) 1 mol of NaNO3 (mol. mass 85)

11) The radius of which of the following orbit is same as that of the first Bohr's orbit of hydrogen
atom
(1) He+ (n = 2)
(2) Li2+ (n = 2)
(3) Li2+ (n = 3)
(4) Be3+ (n = 2)

12) Atomic number and mass number of an element M are 25 and 52 respectively. The number of
electrons, protons and neutrons in M+2 ions are respectively :-

(1) 25, 25 and 27

(2) 25, 27 and 25
(3) 27, 25 and 27
(4) 23, 25 and 27

13) Arrange the following orbitals in decreasing order of energy ?

(A) n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0
(B) n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0
(C) n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 0
(D) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 1
The correct option for the order is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) When an electron transit from n = 4 to n = 2, then emitted line in spectrum will be :–

(1) First line of Lyman series

(2) Second line of Balmer series
(3) First line of Paschen series
(4) Second line of Paschen series

15) Wavelength for high energy EMR transition in H-atom is 91 nm. What energy is needed for this
transition ?

(1) 1.36 eV
(2) 1240 eV
(3) 13 eV
(4) 13.6 eV

16) What is the separation energy (in eV) for Be3+ in the first excited state in eV ?

(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 27.2 eV
(3) 40.8 eV
(4) 54.5 eV
17) The frequency of light emitted for the transition n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ is equal to the transition in
H–atom corresponding to which of the following?

(1) n = 3 to n = 2
(2) n = 4 to n = 3
(3) n = 3 to n = 1
(4) n = 2 to n = 1

18) Difference between nth and (n + 1)th Bohr's radius of H-atom is equal to its (n – 1)th Bohr's radius.
The value of n is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Which of the following relatios is correct for first three orbits of H-atom :-

(1) v1 : v2 : v3 = 6 : 3 : 2
(2) E1 : E2 : E3 = 1 : 4 : 9
(3) r1 : r2 : r3 = 1 : 2 : 3
(4) All of the above

20) Number of all possible sub-shell of n + l = 5 is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

21)

An electron revolving round H-nucleus in ground state absorbs 10.2 eV energy. Its angular
momentum increases by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) If the de-Broglie wavelength of electron revolving in fourth Bohr orbit of H-atom is 2Å, then the
circumference of the orbit will be :-

(1) 8 nm
(2) 2 nm
(3) 2Å
(4) 8Å

23) Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of particles momentum with de-
Broglie wavelength ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24)

If the kinetic energy of an electron is increased by four times, the de Broglie's wave length
associated with it becomes :-

(1) 4 times
(2) 16 times

(3)
times

(4)
times

25)

Find out following ratio for photon

(νmax.)Lyman : (νmax)Brackett
(1) 1 : 16
(2) 16 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

26) First and Second excitation potentials of hydrogen atom (in V) would be respectively :-

(1) 10.2, 12.09

(2) 12.09, 10.2
(3) 13.6, 3.4
(4) 3.4, 13.6

27) Elements with atomic number 10, 18, 36, 54 and 86 are all :-

(1) light metals

(2) inert gases
(3) halogens
(4) Alkaline earth metals

28) If M+3 has configuration [Ar]3d10 then M belongs to :-

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block

29) The set of non-transition elements is :-

(1) Zn, Cd, Hg

(2) Cu, Ag, Au
(3) Cr, Mo, W
(4) Ti, Zr, Hf

30) The tendency to lose electron is maximum for the element :-

(1) Be
(2) B
(3) Rb
(4) Mg

31) Which of the following electronic configuration represent representative elements :-

(1) ns1,2 np1–5

(2) ns1,2 np0–5
(3) ns1,2 np0–4
(4) ns1,2 np1–6

32) The number of elements in longest group and shortest period are respectively ?

(1) 7,18
(2) 32, 32
(3) 32, 8
(4) 32, 2

33) Element of which atomic number has highest electron affinity :-

(1) 35
(2) 17
(3) 9
(4) 53

34) Reason of lanthanoid contraction is :-

(1) Negligible screening effect of 'f ' orbitals

(2) Increasing nuclear charge
(3) Decreasing nuclear charge
(4) Decreasing screening effect

35) In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of
property indicated against it ?

(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (increasing ionic size)
(2) B < C < O < N (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
(3) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)

36)
If a,b,c,d are ionisation energies, the which of the following order is not correct –

(1) c > a
(2) b > a
(3) d > c
(4) b < d

37) Suppose an orbital may accomodate 3 electrons then number of element in IV period ?

(1) 18
(2) 27
(3) 12
(4) 45
38)

Consider the following information about element P and Q:

Period Group
Number Number

P 2 15

Q 3 2
The formula of the compound formed by P & Q is
(1) PQ
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) Which of the following statement is wrong

(1) According to Slater, Zeff in a group remains constant

(2) In a period atomic size decreases
(3) Screening effect in a period remains constant
(4) In a period atomic radius of halogen is minimum

40) Which of the following ionisation energy order is correct?

(1) Cl < F– < Cl– < F

(2) F < Cl < Cl– < F–
(3) Cl– < F– < F < Cl
(4) F– < Cl– < Cl < F

41) The incorrect statement among the following is:-

(1) Helium has the highest first I.P. in the periodic table
(2) The process O–(g)+e– → O2–(g) is endothermic
(3) The electron affinities of S and P are less than that O and N respectively.
(4) In any period, the first ionisation potential of noble gas is the highest.

42) If the Quantum no. ℓ could have the value of n also than Sc(21) would have electronic
configuration as (other rules strictly followed) :-

(1) 1s2 lp6 2s2 2p6 3s2 2d3

(2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d1 4s2
(3) 1s2 1p6 2s2 2p6 3s2 3d3
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3

43) The electronic configuration of four elements are:-

(1) [Xe]6s1 (2) [Xe]4f14 5d1 6s2 (3) [Ar]4s2 4p5 (4) [Ar]3d7 4s2 Which one of the following
statements about these elements is not correct ?

(1) 1 is a strong reducing agent

(2) 2 is a d-block element
(3) 3 has high electron affinity
(4) 4 shows variable oxidation state

44) Highest 2nd IP is of :-

(1) Mn
(2) Cr
(3) V
(4) Ti

45) The correct values of ionization enthalpies (in kJ mol–1) of Si, P, Cl and S respectively are :-

(1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256

(2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
(3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999
(4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the classification, group plants on the basis of their economical importance ?

(1) Natural
(2) Practical
(3) Empirical
(4) All the above

2) Plants and animals by Linnaeus were classified into ?

(1) Plantae and Animalia respectively

(2) Plantae, Animalia and fungi
(3) Fungi, Protista, Plantae and Animalia
(4) Protista, Plantae and Animalia

3) Term herb, shrub and tree proposed by :-

(1) Theophrastus
(2) Linnaeus
(3) Aristotle
(4) Candolle

4) Evolutionary history of an organism is known as :

(1) Paleontology
(2) Ontogeny
(3) Phylogeny
(4) Ancestry

5) In Whittaker's classification, eukaryotes are assigned

(1) Two of five kingdoms

(2) Three of five kingdoms
(3) Four of five kingdoms
(4) All the five kingdoms

6) In six kingdom classifications which kingdom is divided into two domains :

(1) Protista
(2) Monera
(3) Fungi
(4) Plantae

7)

Cell wall is :-

(1) Dead and impermeable

(2) Living and selective
(3) Living and impermeable
(4) Dead and permeable

8) Microtubules are absent in :-

(1) Axoneme of cilia

(2) Astral rays
(3) Centrosome
(4) Centromere

9) Match the columns and identify the correct option

Column I Column II

A. Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus

B. Cristae (ii) Condensed structure of DNA

C. Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous sacs in stroma

D. Chromosomes (iv) Infoldings in mitochondria

(1) (A)–(iv), B–(iii), C–(i),(D)–(ii)
(2) (A)–(iii), B–(iv), C–(i),(D)–(ii)
(3) (A)–(iii), B–(i), C–(iv),(D)–(ii)
(4) (A)–(iii), B–(iv), C–(ii),(D)–(i)

10) Match the column I with column II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II

a. Initiation of condensation of 1. Prophase

chromosomal material

b. Centromere split 2. Metaphase

c. Golgi complex and ER 3. Anaphase

reform

d. Chromosomes are moved 4.

Telophase
to spindle equator
(1) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(2) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
(3) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
(4) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2

11) The undifferentiated cell of an animal has 64 chromatids in metaphase-I. How many
chromosomes will be present in the gametes of that animal:

(1) 64
(2) 8
(3) 32
(4) 16

12) A cell synthesizes protein that are secreted from the cell. Which of the following might be the
path of protein with in the cell ?

(1) Golgi body → RER → plasma membrane

(2) SER → Golgi body → plasma membrane
(3) RER → Golgi body → plasma membrane
(4) Nucleus → RER → lysosome

13) What is the function of SER?

(1) Synthesis of Steroid hormone

(2) Synthesis of protein
(3) Synthesis of enzyme
(4) all

14) Statement 1: The content of nucleolus remain continuous with rest of cytoplasm.
Statement 2: Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in actively protein synthesizing cell.

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

(2) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
(3) Only statement 1 is correct
(4) Only statement 2 is correct

15) Mitosis is responsible for:

(1) Growth
(2) Repair
(3) Asexual reproduction
(4) All of these

16) The total number of chromosomes in humans is 46. After Meiosis I, the daughter cells will have:

(1) 46
(2) 23
(3) 92
(4) 12

17) The kinetochore is a:

(1) Protein structure

(2) DNA structure
(3) RNA structure
(4) Lipid structure

18) The number of chromosomes in the gametes of a species with 2n = 48 is:

(1) 48
(2) 24
(3) 12
(4) 96

19) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Golgi apparatus?
A) Discovered by Camillo Golgi
B) It produces cellular energy in the form of ATP
C) It modifies the protein synthesized by ribosomes on ER
D) Double membrane bound structure
E) Important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids

(1) (B) and (C) only

(2) (A), (C) and (E) only
(3) (A), (B) and (D) only
(4) (D) and (E) only

20) Which one is not characterstic of anaphase ?

(1) Joining of spindle fiber to chromosome

(2) Spliting of chromosome.
(3) Movement of chromatid toward pole
(4) Movement of chromatid away from equatorial line

21) Identify and arrange the following figures (A,B,C,D) of mitosis in correct sequence :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) A → B → C → D
(2) D → B → A → C
(3) D → C → B → A
(4) B → A → D → C

22) During meiosis, if there are 40 chromatids in a cell during prophase I, how many chromatids will
there be in each daughter cell by the end of telophase II :-

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 20
(4) 40

23) Statement-I : Lysosomes are membrane bound vesicular structures formed by the process of
packaging from the golgi apparatus.
Statement-II : The isolated lysosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in nearly all types of
hydrolytic enzymes.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(3) Both Statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

24) If chromosome number and DNA content of unfertilised egg cell is 20 and 100 pg respectively,
then how many chromosomes and how much DNA will be present during metaphase-I and
metaphase-II respectively in meiocyte?
(1) 40, 400, 20, 200
(2) 20, 200, 40, 400
(3) 40, 200, 40, 200
(4) 20, 400, 20, 200

25) Identify the stage of cell cycle shown below :-

(1) Anaphase-I
(2) Anaphase-II
(3) Telophase-I
(4) Telophase-II

26) What is the percentage of protein and lipid in the plasmalemma of RBC respectively?

(1) 58%, 40%

(2) 40%, 58%
(3) 52%, 40%
(4) 40%, 52%

27) Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F)

(I) Cells actively involved in protein synthesis have larger and more numerous nucleoli along with
RER
(II) Animal cells differ from plant cells in possessing a large central vacuole
(III) Lysosomes are reservoirs of hydrolytic enzymes
(IV) Chromatin contains DNA, histones, RNA and non-histones.

I II III IV

(1) T F T T

(2) F F T T

(3) F T F F

(4) T F F T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
28) Which of the following cell organelles in double membrane bound and found in eukaryotes?

(1) Lysosomes
(2) Ribosomes
(3) Centrioles
(4) Mitochondria

29) The main difference between active and passive transport across cell membrane is that :-

(1) Passive transport is non selective

(2) Passive transport occurs more rapidly than active transport
Passive transport occur along the concentration gradient while active transport is energy based
(3)
and occur against concentration gradient
(4) Passive transport is confined to anions while active transport is for cation

30) The graph below shows the amount of DNA in a cell during the course of asexual cell division.

Which among the following represents the S-phase in the graph?

(1) I
(2) III
(3) IV
(4) II

31) Classification based on comparative cytological studies, number of chromosomes and

behaviour of chromosomes is called

(1) Numerical taxonomy

(2) Cytotaxonomy
(3) Chemotaxonomy
(4) Artificial taxonomy

32) Fill in the blanks correctly in following paragraph with the help of given option:
Numerical taxonomy which now easily carried out using computers is based on all A and B are
assigned to all the characters and the data are then processed.

(1) A-External; B-Codes

(2) A-Observale characters; B-Numbers only
(3) A-Observale characters; B-Number and codes
(4) A-Anatornical; B-Number and codes

33) Given below are two statements. Statement I Chromosomes become gradually visible under
light microscope during leptotene stage.
Statement II The beginning of diplotene stage is recognised by dissolution of synaptonemal
complex.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are true

(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false, but statement II is true

34) Find the incorrect statement.

(1) Lower the taxa more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon share.
As we go higher from species to kingdom the number of common characteristics goes on
(2)
increasing.
(3) Order is a higher category than family.
(4) Classes with similar characters are assigned to category called division.

35) Housefly belongs to :-

(1) Order - Diptera

(2) Family - Insecta
(3) Class - Muscidae
(4) Phylum - Chordata

36) Select the correctly written scientific name of mango which was first described by Carolus
Linnaeus.

(1) Mangifera indica Linn.

(2) Mangifera indica
(3) Mangifera Indica
(4) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.

37) Given below are two statement

Statement-I : Phylogenetic classification system assumes that organisms belonging to the same
taxa have a common ancestor.
Statement-II: In natural classification plants are classified on the basis of only external features.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is false.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false
38) Assertion: Potato and brinjal are two different species but both belong to the genus Solanum
Reason: Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in
comparison to species of other genera.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False

39) Binomial nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is true
to the rules of binomial nomenclature?

(1) Biological names are given in Latin language

The first word in a biological name represents the species name, and the second is a specific
(2)
epithet
(3) The names are in English and are italicized
(4) When written by hand, the names are to be italicized

40) Which of the following is not correct for classification?

(1) Carolus Linnaeus classification is an artificial classification

(2) Large number of characters can be used in numerical classification
(3) Equal weightage is given to vegetative and reproductive characters in natural classification
(4) Aristotle classified the animals on the basis of presence or absence of red blood

41) Select the correct option, which include all that are not mentioned in Whittaker classification?

(1) Virus, Lichen and algae

(2) Viroid, Lichen and algae
(3) Viroid, Lichen, Prion and Virus
(4) Virus, Viroid, Prion and fungi

42) Select the incorrect statement:

(1) Cat and dog are included in same order

(2) Cat and tiger are included in same family
(3) Felidae and Canidae are included in order Carnivora
(4) Datura and Solanum are included in same genus

43) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column I Column II Column III

(i) Monera Eukaryotes Producer

(ii) Protista Unicellular Decomposer

(iii) Fungi Unicellular prokaryotes Decomposer

 (iv) Plantae Multicellular Producer
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

44) Arrange the following taxa in ascending order according to their rank in taxonomic hierarchy
(A) Angiospermae
(B) Anacardiaceae
(C) Mangifera
(D) Dicotyledonae

(1) A → D → B → C
(2) C → D → B → A
(3) A → B → D → C
(4) C → B → D → A

45) The given flow chart represents the hierarchy of various taxonomic categories. Identify the
missing categories (P, Q and R) and select the correct statement regarding this :-
(R)→ Phylum/Division → (Q) → order → (P)
(i) P is the taxonomic category which contains a number of related genera.
(ii) Examples of category Q are monocotyledonae, dicotyledonae, Mammalia etc.
(iii) R represents the basic unit of taxonomic categories.
(iv) Examples of category R are fungi, monera, protista, plantae etc.

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

46) Select the incorrect option for given figure of animal

(1) Digestion is both extra cellular and intra cellular

(2) Bioluminescence is well-marked
(3) Diploblastic with tissue level of organisation
(4) Fertilisation is internal

47) Assertion: Flatworms are mostly endoparasites found in animals including human beings.
Reason: Hooks and suckers are present in the Parasitic forms
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

48) Radula, shell, mantle cavity present in :-

(1) Echinus
(2) Limulus
(3) Sea hare
(4) Ctenoplana

49) Which of the following is incorrect for neoplina?

(1) Connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda

(2) Segmented mollusc
(3) Larva - Trochophora
(4) Marine

50) Which of the following belong to phylum annelida?

(1) Hirudinaria, Nereis and Wuchereria

(2) Earthworm, Aphrodite and Pila
(3) Pheretima, Leech and Nereis
(4) Aplysia, Nereis and Dentalium

51) Assertion : Bats and whales are classified as Mammals.

Reason : Bats and whales have four chambered heart.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True.

(2) Assertion is False But Reason is True.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

52) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the correct option which includes all the
correct ones only ?
(a) Notochord is mesodermally derived rod like structure formed on the ventral side during
embryonic development of chordates
(b) Notochord is mesodermally derived rod like structure formed on the dorsal side during
embryonic developement of nonchordates
(c) Notochord is mesodermally derived rod like structure formed on the dorsal side during
embryonic development of chordates
(d) Animals without notochord are know as nonchordates

(1) Statements (a) & (b)

(2) Statements (a) & (d)
(3) Statements (c) & (d)
(4) Statements (b) & (d)

53) Read the given statements and select the correct option :
Statement-1 : Cephalochordata bears notochord all along the body throughout life.
Statement-2 : Urochordate bears vertebral column only in tail region throughout the life.

(1) Both statements-1 and 2 are correct

(2) Statement-1 is correct and statement-2 is incorrect
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect and statement-2 is correct
(4) Both statement-1 and 2 are incorrect

54) Read the following statements carefully, these are correct for :-
(A) Ectoparasites on some fishes
(B) They have sucking and circular mouth without jaws
(C) Body is devoid of scales and paired fins
(D) Cranium and vertebral column is cartilagenous

(1) Herdmania
(2) Branchiostoma
(3) Petromyzon
(4) Scoliodon

55) In the given list How many animals have vertebral column, Cranium, Jaw ?
Sea horse, Herdmania, Earthworm, Frog, Hag fish, Amphioxus, Petromyzon, Snake, Torpedo

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

56) Which of the following pairs of animals have non-glandular skin ?

(1) Vipera, Rana tigrina

(2) Chemeleon, turtle
(3) Rana tigrina, Columba livia
(4) Crocodile, Panthera tigris

57) Which amphibian is limbless ?

(1) Toad
(2) Frog
(3) Salamander
(4) Ichthyophis

58) How many of the following organism have dicondylic skull and four chambered heart ?
(Crocodilus, Neophron, Chelone, Betta, Icthyophis, Felis, Naja, Equus)
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

59) Which of the following pairs of organisms posses stinging cells (nematocytes) ?

(1) Sea mouse and sea fan

(2) Sea pen and sea mouse
(3) Brain coral and sea pen
(4) Bath sponge and sycon

60) Which of the following bear 6–15 pairs of gill slits for respiration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

61) Assertion : Water vascular system helps in locomotion, capture and transport of food and
respiration.
Reason : The presence of water vascular system is most unique feature of porifera.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

62) Which of the following is incorrect for the cuboidal epithelium ?

(1) It is composed of cube like cells

(2) It is commonly found in tubular parts of nephron
(3) Its main functions are secretion and absorption
(4) It is found in lining of stomach and intestine

63) Brush-bordered appearance in epithelial cell is due to presence of :-

(1) Stereocilia
(2) Kinocilia
(3) Cilia
(4) Microvilli
64) Longitudinal canal of bone called :-

(1) Haversian canal

(2) Volkmann's canal
(3) Narrow cavity
(4) Lacunae

65) Which one of the following is not a character of compound epithelium?

(1) It is multilayered
(2) Limited role in secretion and absorption
(3) They cover the dry surface of the skin like epidermis
(4) Found in inner lining of blood vessels and lymph vessels

66) Haversian canal of mammalian compact bone contains of :-

(1) Red bone marrow

(2) Yellow bone marrow
(3) Osteocytes
(4) Blood vessels

67) Read the following statements and find out the correct statement :-

(1) The squamous epithelium is involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundary
(2) The cuboidal and columnar epithelium help in secretion and absorption
The function of ciliated epithelium is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the
(3)
epithelium
(4) All of the above

68) A student of leader course while returning home from his/her regular routine classes saw a bone
lying on the road. He/she picked it up and brought it home. The student gave the bone to his/her
teacher and asked him/her to analyse it. After analysing, the teacher made the remark. "The bone
have Haversian system" The bone which the student picked up could be of :-

(1) A parrot
(2) A frog
(3) A fish
(4) A Tiger

69) Which of the following is a transparent tissue?

(1) Tendon
(2) Fibrous cartilage
(3) Hyaline cartilage
(4) All of these

70) In phylum echinodermata, the adult echinoderms are_______a________ Whereas larva are
________b_________

(1) a - radially symmetrical, b - bilaterally symmetrical

(2) a - bilaterally symmetrical, b - radially symmetrical
(3) a - bilaterally symmetrical, b - asymmetrical
(4) a - radially symmetrical, b - asymmetrical

71) Symmetry in larva of above figure :-

(1) Bilateral
(2) Spherical
(3) Radial
(4) Asymmetry

72) Which one of the following statement about certain given animals is correct ?

(1) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates

(2) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates
(3) Molluscs are acoelomates
(4) Insects are pseudocoelomates

73) Identify the incorrect statement regarding Osteichthyes :-

(1) Skin is covered with placoid scales

(2) Air bladder is present
(3) Four pairs of gills with operculum
(4) Skin with cycloid/ctenoid scales

74) Cartilagenous fishes do not show the following character :-

(1) Mouth located terminally

(2) Notocord is persistent
(3) Teeth are modified placoid scales
(4) Air bladder is absent.

75) Identify the correct match from column I, II & III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) Taenia solium (a) Asymmetrical (i) Dimorphic

(ii) Exclusively
(2) Sponge (b) Bilateral marine
habitat
 (iii) Body have
(3) Obelia (c) Radial different
proglottids

(4) Pleurobranchia (d) Biradial (iv) Canal system

(1) 4-c-ii, 3-d-i, 2-a-iv, 1-b-iii
(2) 3-c-iii, 2-a-ii, 1-b-i, 4-d-iv
(3) 1-b-iii, 2-a-iv, 3-c-i, 4-d-ii
(4) 2-a-iv, 1-b-iii, 4-c-i, 3-d-ii

76) Read the following statements and find out the true (T) and False (F) statements from the option
given below.
(A) One of the example of unisexual annelid is Nereis.
(B) Radula is a file-like rasping organ for feeding, found in mollusca.
(C) Alimentary canal in Aschelminthes is incomplete with a well developed muscular pharynx.
(D) The body of insects consists of head, thorax and abdomen.
A B C D
(1) T T F T
(2) F T T T
(3) F T T F
(4) F T F T

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) Amphibians are considered to be intermediate between pisces and reptilia because :-
a. They possess ventral heart
b. Both gill and pulmonary respiration occur in their life history.
c. Oviparity and viviparity are represented.
d. They are poikilothermal animals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below?

(1) a and c
(2) b and d
(3) a and b
(4) c and d

78)

Cartilage is present-
a. In the tip of nose
b. Between adjacent bones of vertebral column
c. Between adjacent bones of limbs and hands in adults

(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) a and c

79) Assertion (A) : Bone & cartilage are rigid connective tissue.
Reason (R) : Blood is a connective tissue with fluid matrix.

(1) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A & R are false.

80) Identify A, B and C in the given figures and choose the correct combination of options :-

(1) A-Goblet gland, B-Multicellular gland, C-Columnar epithelium

(2) A-Unicellular gland, B-Multicellular gland, C-Multilayered cells
(3) A-Multicellular gland, B-Unicellular gland, C-Squamous epithelium
(4) A-Flattened cell, B-Multilayered cell, C-Transitional epithelium

81)

In the given four statements (a-d) select the options which includes all the incorrect ones:-
(a) Inner lining of cheeks is covered by keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
(b) Transitional epithelium cells are interconnected by interdigitation.
(c) Sebaceous glands are Apocrine gland.

(d) Glands are only mesodermal is origin.

(1) Statement (a), (b) (c)
(2) Statement (a), (c), (d)
(3) Statement (b), (c), (d)
(4) All are wrong

82) Read the following four statements(A-D)

A. Epithelium tissue has a free surface which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment.
B. Epithelium tissue provides a covering or a lining for some part of the body
C. In epithelium tissue the cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix
D. Simple epithelium consists of two or more cells layers
How many of the above statements are correct:-
(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

83) The amphibians are characterized by :-

(1) Only aquatic habit

(2) Paired fins
(3) Scaleless, smooth moist and glandular skin
(4) 2 chambered heart

84) Which one of the following has an open circulatory system ?

(1) Neries
(2) Octopus
(3) Spider
(4) Earthworm

85) In the given diagram What is (a), (b), (c)?

(1) Macrophages, fibroblast, Mast cells

(2) Mast cells, fibroblast, Macrophage
(3) Macrophage, collagen fibre, fibroblast
(4) Macrophage, collagen fibre, mast cells

86) The function of gap junction is to :-

Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer
(1)
of ions.
(2) Performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
(3) Stop substance from leaking across a tissue.
(4) Separate two cells from each other.

87)

Which of the following is not an example of Mollusca?

(1) Pinctada
(2) Dentalium
(3) Limulus
(4) Aplysia

88) Post anal tail is present in ?

(1) Ctenophores
(2) Chordates
(3) Cnidaria
(4) All of the above

89) Choose correct option about the figures (a), (b) and (c) given below :-

(a)-Acoelomate, (b)-Pseudocoelomate,
(1)
(c)-Coelomate
(a)-Pseudocoelomate, (b)-Coelomate,
(2)
(c)-Acoelomate
(a)-Coelomate, (b)-Pseudocoelomate,
(3)
(c)-Acoelomate
(a)-Coelomate, (b)-Acoelomate,
(4)
(c)-Pseudocoelomate

90) Pneumatic bones assist in flight of birds by :-

(1) Reducing air drag on wings

(2) Providing Lift
(3) Streamlines the body
(4) Reduces the body weight.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 1 4 1 2 2 2 3 4 1 2 2 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 2 2 2 4 3 1 3 2 1 1 1 1 3 4 3 3 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 4 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 2 1 2 1 1 3 3 3 4 4 2 2 4 4 4 4 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 4 3 2 1 2 2 1 3 2 4 2 1 3 4 2 3 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 2 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 3 3 3 2 4 4 2 4 4 3 1 4 4 2 1 2 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 1 1 3 1 4 3 4 2 3 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 4 4 3 4 1 3 1 3 1 3 2 3 2 2 4 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 4 1 4 4 4 4 3 1 1 2 1 1 3 1 2 1 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 3 3 1 1 3 2 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) y = –5x2 + 20x + 4

= –10x + 20 = 0 ⇒x=2

= –10
∴ y is max. at x = 2

2) cos (74°) = cos (2 × 37°)

= cos237° – sin2 37°

3) Question Explanation : In this question we have to find the value of cos(106º)

Concept : Trigonometric Identity
Formula : cos(2θ) = 2cos2(θ) – 1
Solution :
cos(106º) = cos(2 × 53º)
cos(106º) = 2cos2(53º) – 1

cos(106º) =

cos(106º) = –1

cos(106º) =
Final Answer : Option (2)

4)

Explanation Question:
Given acceleration-time graph, find times when particle velocity is zero, starting from rest.
Concept:
This question is based on Velocity = area under acceleration-time curve; zero velocity when
net area = 0
Solution:
Particle is initially at rest. Velocity at any time t is integral of acceleration:

From the a-t graph, particle returns to rest when total area under curve sums to zero.
Observing the graph, this occurs a t = 0, 2, 4 seconds.
​Final Answer: (2)
 5) Explain Question: we need to find the ratio of average velocity and average speed
Concept : Average velocity, Average speed , kinematics
Solution :
Displacement: initial position (0,0) final position (8,0)

Total Distance : The particle morse from (0,0) to (4,3)

distance covered =
The particle maves from (4,3) to (8,0)

distance covered =
Total distance travelled = 5+ 5 = 10 m

Average velocity = = 4 m/s

Average speed =
Ratio of Average velocity to average speed

The ratio of average velocity and overage speed is 4/5

Final answer ; correct option (2)

6)

Explanation Question: We have to select the following having uniformly accelerated motion
Concept: This question is based on uniformly accelerated motion
Solution:

t2 = ⇒ x = a + bt2
⇒ constant accelerated motion

Final Answer
The correct option is (3)

7)
Let after time t, B catches C.
So, SB = SC + d
⇒ VB × t = 10t + d

t=
at this instant seperation between A and C is 3d
⇒ (3d – 2d) = SC – SD
d = 10 × t – 5t

⇒ d = 5t = ⇒ (VB – 10) = 5
⇒ VB = 15 m/s

8)

x component of velocity of both the ships are same.

v cos 37 = 20

v × = 20
v = 25

9)

distance travelled in t = 0 to t = 10 sec

=
distance travelled t = 10 to t = 20 sec

=
Avg. speed is same in t = 0 to t = 10.
& t = 10 to t = 20 sec

10) Question Explanation : For two cars moving with 12 m/s and 10 m/s, to calculate
minimum acceleration of car C2 so that they do not collide.
Concept : This question is based on relative motion in one-dimension.
Solution :
v2 = u2 – 2as
0 = 4 – 2 × a × 200

a= m/s2

a = 1 cm/s2
Final answer : option (1)

11) Explain the question : If x = 7, t = 3t2 than find average velocity for time interval t = 0 to
t = 4 sec.
 Concept : This question is based on average velocity.
Solution : at t = 0, x = 0
at t = 4, x = 7 × 4 – 3 × 42 = –20

= –5 m/s
Final answer : 2

12)

Explain Question: Find the ratio of the horizontal distance (x) to the vertical height (y) for a
projectile launched at 50 m/s at an angle of 37∘ and hitting a wall after 1 second.
Concept: collision of projectile from a wall
Formula : Horizontal distance x = vxt

Vertical displacement :
Horizontal velocity : vx = v cos θ
vertical velocity : vy = v sin θ
Solution :

Given Time t = 1 sec

⇒ x = 40 m

and also
y = 25 m

∴
Final Answer : 2

13)

Flag will flutter in a direction of velocity of wind with respect to flag.

14)

Question Explanation: This problem asks to find the speed of an object striking the ground
after being thrown horizontally from a power.
Concept : This question is based on Projectile motion.
Solution:
The horizontal component of velocity always remains unchanged.
The vertical component of Velocity as it reaches ground.

V=

The correct option is (3)

15) Question Explanation:

The problem asks for the average velocity of an object between t = 0 and t = 15 seconds based
on a given position-time (x-t) graph. Average velocity is a measure of the net displacement
over the total time interval, regardless of the path taken in between. Concept: Average

Velocity
Solution: Displacement:
The straight-line change in position. On a graph, this is the difference between the final y-
value (x) and the initial y-value (x).
Identify Initial State (t = 0): Looking at the graph, at time .

Identify Final State (t = 15): Looking at the graph, at time

.
Calculate Displacement :
Calculate Average Velocity :

Final Answer:
Option (4)

16) x = at + bt2 + ct3

= a + 2bt + 3ct2

17)

Explain question : A man want to swim along shortest path then time taken to cross the
river.
Concept: This question is based on river-boat problems (relative motion)
Solution :
VmR sinθ = VR
10 sin θ = 5

sin θ =
θ = 30°

Final Answer: Option (2)

18)

Question Explanation:
The question asks to find the time for which velocity is uniform in the given (v-t) graph.

Concept:
Graphical analysis of (v-t) graph.

Solution: Slope of v-t graph gives the acceleration

Acceleration a = Slope = tan θ = tan 45º = 1 m/s2
From starting point to A
By the equation

Similarly

The Motion is uniform from A to B and overall time of journey is 10 sec.

Hence,

Final Answer: Option (2)

19)

20)

On differentiating with respect to time the velocity v will be

= V = 6t2 – 6t
t=0;V=0
 21) Question Explanation:
The problem asks to find the horizontal range of a projectile if a particle passes two points A
and B at same height after 3s and 6s of its projection. (Given distance AB = 150 m)

Concept:
This question is based on projectile motion.

Solution:
Total time of flight (T) = 3 + 6 = 9s
Δt = 3s

ux = = = 50 m/s
Range (R) = Ux⋅T = 50 × 9 = 450 m

Final Answer:
The correct option is (4)

22)
θ = 37°
d = 10 sin37°
=6m

23)

Range is maximum at 45°

∴ range increases from 30° to 45° and decreases from 45° to 60°.
time of flight and maximum height depends on sinθ which increases with increase in θ

both increases

24)

25)

Explain Question:
A vector of magnitude makes 45° angle with the x-axis; we need to find its component
form.
Concept:
Vector resolution into components

Solution:
Resolving vector A into its components, i.e.
.

Final answer: option (2)

26) Explain Question: Find using given magnitudes and the angle between them.

Concept: Subtraction of vectors.

Solution:

Given:

Final answer: option (4)

27)

Question Explanation:
A vector is given. We need to find the angle it makes with the x, y and z axes.

Concept Based:
Direction Cosines

Formula Used:

, cosθx = , cosθy = , cosθz =

Calculation:
Components: υx = 1, υy = 1, υz =

Magnitude: = =2
Angles:
cosθx = ⇒ θx = 60°,

cosθy = ⇒ θy = 60°,

cosθz = ⇒ θz = 45°

Final Answer: Option 3

60°, 60°, 45°

28) θ
PQ = PQ cosθ
cosθ = 1
θ = 0°

29)

Question Explanation : In this question, we are given with the two vectors and . We have
to find the value of .

Concept : This question is based on Dot product of two vectors

Solution : Dot product of two vectors and is

.

Final answer : Option (3)

30) Question Explanation: In this question we have to find the angle and if

Concept: Application of cross product

Solution: By the formula of cross product of two vectors

(Given in the questions)

 Final Answer: Option (2)

31)

⇒ 8 – (0 – 1)
⇒ 9

32)

v = x2 – 5x + 4 = 0
x2 – 4x – x + 4 = 0
x = 1, 4

a=
a = (x2 – 5x + 4)(2x – 5)

ax=1 = 0, ax=4 = 0

33) = 2αx + β ⇒ v =

∴ a=

a= = –2α . v . v2 = –2αv3 ∴ Retardation = 2av3

34) y = sinx

Area =

=
⇒

⇒
⇒ 1

35)
36)

Question Explanation : In this question we have to find the value of 'α' such that the vector
and are perpendicular.

Concept : This question is based on application of dot product.

Solution : If two vector and are perpendicular then their dot product is 0

If θ = 90° ∴ 0
given here

=0
⇒ 2 + 6+ (–α) = 0
⇒8–α=0
⇒α=8

Final answer : Option (4)

37)

Explain Question : To find dimension of

Given expression
f = A sinαx + B cosβt
where
x = Displacement
t = time.

Concept : Dimension of unknown using law of homogeneity.

Solution :

sin(αx) :
0 0 0
[αx] = M L T

Similarly cos(βt) :
0 0 0
[βt] = M L T

⇒ [T–1]
Final Answer : option (3)

38) ⇒ T2 = 4π2 ℓ/g = g =

Here % error in ℓ=

and % error in T =
∴ % error in g = % error in ℓ + 2(% error in T)
= 0.1 + 2 × 0.05 = 0.2 %

39) Question Explanation:

Determining the integer values x, y, z that make the product dimensionless using
dimensional analysis.
Concept:
Dimensional Homogeneity.
Solution:
The dimensions of the given quantities are:

For to be dimensionless :

Equating the powers:

Mass (M):
Length (L):
Time (T):
If we choose x = 1, then y = -1 and z = 1.
Checking Time: .
The values match Option 2: .
Final Answer:
Option (2)

40) Explaining : Find percentage error in mechanical energy.

Concept : This question is based on propagation of errors.
Solution : E = K + U = 100 + 200 = 300.0 J
ΔE = ΔK + ΔU = 2.0 + 1.0 = 3.0 J

Final Answer : (3)

41)
Explain Question : Moment of Inertia (M.O.I) of a solid sphere about its diametrical axis ⇒ I

Percentage Error in measurement of its radius

Percentage Error in measurement of its Mass

Percentage Error in calculation of its M.O.I

Concept : This question is based on percentage error in mathematical opertions.
Solution : Here, I ∝ M1R2

So

= 2% + 2%
= 4%
Final answer : 4

42) M = 1 mm
b = 20
a = 16

LC =
= 0.2 mm

43)

1+2+1=4

44)

45) Explain Question:

Calculate the diameter of a rod using screw gauge parameters (pitch, circular scale divisions,
and readings).

Concept:
Diameter = Main Scale Reading + (Circular Scale Division × Least Count)

Solution:
Least Count = Pitch / Number of circular scale divisions
Least Count = 1 mm / 200
 Least Count = 0.005 mm
Diameter = MSR + (CSD × Least Count)
Diameter = 5 mm + (50 × 0.005 mm)
Diameter = 5 mm + 0.250 mm
Diameter = 5.250 mm

​Final Answer: Option (4)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explain the Question :

Determine the maximum moles of the product formed when 1 mol of Hg2+ and 1 mol of
I– are reacted according to the equation
Concept :
This question is based on limiting reagent and Stoichiometry (ICE Table)
Solution :
1. L.R. check :

For I– :

For Hg2+ :
Since 0.25 < 1.0, I– is the limiting reagent and dictates the product yield.
Reaction : 4I– + Hg2+ →
Initial (I) : 1 1 0
0 0.75 0.25

Moles of formed = 1 mol I– ×

Final Answer : 3

47)

Explain the Question : We are asked to find the number of moles of excess reactant left after
the complete reaction of CH4 and O2.
Concept : This question is based on limiting reagent and stoichiometry.
Solution : Balanced reaction : CH4 + 202 → CO2 + 2H2O
Form stoichiometry :
1 mol CH4 requires 2 mol O2
10 mol CH4 requires 10 × 2 = 20 mol O2
Given :
CH4 = 10 mol
O2 = 21 mol
So, CH4 is limiting reagent.
O2 required = 20 mol
O2 available = 21 mol
Excess O2 = 21 – 20 = 1 mol
Final answer : 1
48)

Explain the Question : Evaluate two statements : I (gram-atom in 1 atom) and II (electrons
added to convert O atoms to O2– ions).
Concept : This question is based on mole concept : 1 mole = NA atoms = 1 gram-atom.
Solution : Statement I Evaluation :

1 atom = gram-atom. The claim that 1 atom = NA gram-atom is incorrect.

Statement-l is Incorrect.
Statement II Evaluation :
Reaction : O + 2e– → O2–.

1. Moles of O-atom :
2. Moles of e– added : 2.
3. Number of electrons : 4 × NA. The statement claims 4NA electrons are added. This is
correct.
Statement-II is correct.
Final answer : 2

49) Explain the Question :

Determine the limiting reagent when equal masses of O2 and N2 are reacted according to the
equation O2 + N2 → 2NO.
Concept :
This question is based on limiting reagent determination (smallest mole ratio)
Solution :
1.

2. Initial moles :

3. Limiting reagent is the reactant with the smallest ratio of (Stoich. Coeff. is 1
for both).

4. Comparison : Since
Final Answer : 1

50) Explanation the Question :

We are asked to find how many moles of C are produced in the reaction:
A + 2B → C, given 5 moles of A and 8 moles of B.
Concept :
This question is based on limiting reagent determines the maximum product formed.
Solution :
Limiting reagent = (Moles ÷ Stoichiometric coefficient)
A: 5 ÷ 1 = 5
B: 8 ÷ 2 = 4 → smaller value → B is limiting reagent
Moles of C produced = moles of limiting reagent × (product coefficient ÷ reagent coefficient)
Moles of C produced = 8(1 ÷ 2)
Moles of C produced = 4 mole
Final Answer : 2

51)

(L.R.)

3A + 2B → C + D
12 mol 12 mol

Moles of D =

52) Question Explanation : We are asked to calculate the mass of sulfur formed when 11.2 L
of H₂S reacts with 11.2 L of SO₂ at STP in the reaction:
2H2S + SO2 → 3S + 2H2O
Concept :
This question is based on limiting reagent formula: limiting reagent = (Moles ÷ Stoichiometric
coefficient)
Number of moles of gas at STP: 1 mole = 22.4 L
Mass of sulfur = moles × atomic mass
Solution
Moles of H2S = 11.2 ÷ 22.4 = 0.5 mol
Moles of SO2 = 11.2 ÷ 22.4 = 0.5 mol
Limiting reagent calculation:
H2S: 0.5 ÷ 2 = 0.25
SO2: 0.5 ÷ 1 = 0.5
smaller = H2S → limiting reagent
Moles of S produced = 0.25 × 3 = 0.75 mol
Mass of S = 0.75 × 32 = 24 g
Final Answer : option (1)

53) CO2(g) + C → 2CO(g)

1L – -
1–x 2x
Total ⇒ 1 – x + 2x = 1.5L ⇒ (x = 0.5L)

VCO = 2x = 1L & nCO = mole at STP

54)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

55)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

56)

57)

Correct answer is D

58)

Explanation Question: Find order of energy

Concept: This question is based on rule
Solution: Higher the value of , higher will be energy. If are same then higher the
value of ‘n’ higher will be energy

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Order of energy D > B > C > A

Final Answer

The correct option is (2)

59)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

60) E =

61) For Be3+ E∞ – E2 = +13.6

62)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

63)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

 64)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

65)

Question Explanation: We need all possible subshells where n + l = 5. Each subshell is

defined by quantum numbers n and l.

Concept: Quantum numbers

Solution:
Principal quantum number = n

Azimuthal quantum number = l, where l < n

Subshell type depends on l : l = 0 → s, l = 1 → p, l = 2 → d, l = 3 → f

Condition: n + l = 5

n = 5, l = 0 → 5s

n = 4, l = 1 → 4p

n = 3, l = 2 → 3d

Hence total subshells = 3

Final Answer: Option 2

66) Question Explanation - An electron in the ground state of hydrogen absorbs 10.2 eV
energy. Find the increase in its angular momentum.
Concept - Bohr Model of Hydrogen Atom
Solution - In the hydrogen atom, the energy required for transition from n = 1 to n = 2 is 10.2
eV. Therefore, after absorbing 10.2 eV, the electron jumps from the first orbit to the second
orbit. According to Bohr's quantization rule, angular momentum is given by: L = nh/2π

Increase in angular momentum:

ΔL = L₂ − L₁
= (2h/2π) − (h/2π)
= h/2π
Final Answer - Option (1)

67)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

68)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

69)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

70)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

71)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

72) Explain Question:

Check given atomic number belongs to long form of P.T.

Concept:
Electronic configuration,

Solution:

Thus we can conclude that the given atomic no's 10, 18, 36, 54, 86 belongs to inert gas group.

Final Answer : option (2).

73) Explain Question: Check electronic configuration of ion belongs to which block

Concept: Electronic configuration

Solution:
M+3 → [Ar]3d10 (It is ion E.C.)
M → [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p1 and it belongs to p-block.

Final Answer: Option (2)

74)
NCERT Page # 217

75)

Explain the Question : Identify the element that most easily loses an electron.
Concept : This question is based on Ionization Energy.
Solution : The tendency to lose an electron increases down a group and decreases across a
period. Rubidium is lowest and farthest left, thus having the lowest ionization energy.
Final answer : 3

76)

Representative element ⇒ s-block and p-block elements excepts noble gases.

E.C. ⇒ ns1,2 np0–5

77)

Longest grooup → 3rd → number of element → 32

shortest period → 1st → number of element → 2

78) Explanation the Question : Identify which element, by atomic number, has the highest
electron affinity.
Concept : This question is based on electron affinity.
Solution: The atomic numbers 9 (F), 17 (Cl), 35 (Br), and 53 (I) are all halogens. Chlorine (17)
has a higher electron affinity than Fluorine (9) due to F's small 2p orbital causing high
electron repulsion. Chlorine has the highest EA in the group and the entire periodic table.
Final Answer: 2

79)

Question Explanation: What is the primary reason for the lanthanide contraction effect?
Concept: Lanthanoid Contraction
Solution: As electrons fill the inner 4f orbitals, their diffuse shape provides very poor
shielding. This ineffective screening allows the increasing nuclear charge to pull the outer
electrons closer.
Final Answer: Option (1)

80) Question Explanation : Identify the statement that lists an incorrect periodic trend
order.
Concept: This question is based on periodic trends (Electron Gain Enthalpy)
Solution: The statement (3) I < Br < Cl < F is incorrect. "Increasing electron gain enthalpy"
(magnitude of
energy released) is wrong. Chlorine (Cl) releases more energy than Fluorine (F) due to its
larger 3p orbital causing less electron-electron repulsion. The correct order of magnitude is I
< Br < F < Cl.
Final Answer : 3
 81)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

82)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

83)

Compound

84) Explanation the question : Identify incorrect statement based on periodic trends and
shielding.
Concept: This question is based on effective nuclear charge (Zeff).
Solution: In a period, screening effect slightly increases due to added electrons, so it does not
remain
constant. Hence, statement 3 is wrong.
Final Answer: 3

85)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

86)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

87)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

88)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

89)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

90)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

BIOLOGY
91)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

92) NCERT XI Page # 16

93)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

94)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

95)

Explanation :
In Whittaker's five-kingdom classification, eukaryotes are found in:

A. Protista

B. Fungi

C. Plantae

D. Animalia

Only Monera includes prokaryotes. Hence, eukaryotes are assigned to four of the five
kingdoms.
Final Answer: (3)

96)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

97)

NCERT XI Pg # 132

98)

Microtubules are proteinaceous structures.

99)

(A)–(iii), B–(iv), C–(i),(D)–(ii)

100)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

101)

Question Explanation: a diploid animal has 64 chromatids in metaphase 1 then how many
chromosomes present in the gamete of that animal?
Concept: metaphase 1
Solution: Diploid animal cell i.e. '2n'
2n = 64 chromatids
2n = 32 chromosomes at metaphase - I
Number of chromosomes is half in gametes,
hence n = 16

Final answer: 4

102)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

103)

Explain Question: The question is asking about the function of SER.

Concept: ER

Solution: The function of SER is synthesis of steroid hormones.

So, the correct answer is: 1.

Final answer: 1.

104)

Question explanation: Evaluate the statements about the nucleolus and its activity in cells.
Concept: Cell Biology – Nucleolus

Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

A. Statement 1: "The content of nucleolus remain continuous with rest of cytoplasm."

This is incorrect. The nucleolus is a distinct nuclear structure and is not continuous
with the cytoplasm. It is enclosed within the nucleus.
 B. Statement 2: "Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in actively protein
synthesizing cells."
This is correct. Cells that synthesize large amounts of protein (like liver or secretory
cells) have larger and more nucleoli, because nucleoli are the sites of rRNA
synthesis and ribosome assembly.

Final answer: Option 4

105) NCERT Pg: 164

106) NCERT Pg: 170

107) NCERT Pg: 166

108) NCERT Pg: 171

109)

NCERT [Link]. 96

110)

NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2.3

111)

Explain Question: The question asks to identify and arrange the given figure of mitosis in the
correct sequence.

Concept: Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Solution:

D (Prophase):

Chromosomes condense and become visible.

B (Metaphase):

Chromosomes align at the center of the cell.

A (Anaphase):

Sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles.

C (Telophase):
 Two new nuclei form.

So, the correct answer is: 2. D → B → A → C

Final answer: 2.

112)

XI NEW NCERT Pg # 128

113) Hint : Statement - I : Lysosomes are membrane bound vesicular structures formed by
the process of packaging "in" the golgi apparatus.
Statement - II : The isolated lysosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in "almost"
all types of hydrolytic enzymes. (NCERT Pg.134)

114)

SOLUTION—
Unfertilized egg cell (haploid) = 20 chromosomes, 100 pg DNA
→ So, diploid meiocyte = 2n = 40 chromosomes, and before meiosis starts
(S-phase completed), DNA is doubled → 400 pg.
At Metaphase-I:
Chromosomes: 40 (still diploid) DNA: 400 pg (since DNA was replicated
in S-phase, and homologous chromosomes are paired)

At Metaphase-II:
Each cell has 20 chromosomes (haploid, but still in duplicated sister
chromatid form)

DNA: 200 pg (because each of the 2 daughter cells has 20 chromosomes,

and each has two chromatids)

The correct answer is: OPTION(1)40, 400, 20, 200

115) NCERT Pg. # 169 Fig 10.3 (c)

116) Question Explanation: The question asks about the percentage composition of protein
and lipid in the human erythrocyte (RBC) membrane.
Concept: The question is based on cell membrane structure .
Solution:
 A. The human erythrocyte membrane contains ~52% protein and ~40% lipid.
B. This composition ensures structural stability and flexibility for RBCs to pass through narrow
capillaries.

Final answer: Option 3

117) NCERT pg no.129,134,138,139

118)

XI NEW NECERT Pg # 96

119)

XI NEW NECERT Pg # 94

120)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

121)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

122)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

123)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

124)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

125)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

126)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

127)
 Correct Answer is Option (1).

128)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

129)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

130)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

131)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

132)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

133)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

134)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

135)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

136)

Explain Question : Select the incorrect statement about the given animal.

Concept : The question is based on ctenophora.

Solution :

A. Ctenophora are diploblastic, show both extracellular & intracellular digestion, may show
bioluminescence, and usually have external fertilization.
B. Option 1, 2 and 3 describe known traits of chenophora correctly. Option 4 is incorrect because
fertilization in these animals is typically external, not internal.
Final Answer : option (4) Fertilisation is internal

137) NCERT XII Page No. # 51

138)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

139)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

140) NCERT XI Pg # 52, 54

141)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

142)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

143)

Explain Question : Identify the correctness of two statements about chordate subphyla.
Concept : This question is based on Chordata (Urochordata).

Solution :

A. Statement-1: True — Cephalochordata (e.g., Amphioxus) has a notochord along the

entire body throughout life.

B. Statement-2: False — Urochordata has a notochord (not vertebral column) only in the
larval tail and it is lost in adults.

Final answer : Option (2) Statement-1 is correct and Statement-2 is incorrect.

144) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 56, Ist Para

145) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 57-58

146)
Correct Answer is Option (2).

147) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 57 last para

148) NCERT Pg. # 57,58

149) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50

150) Question Explanation:

This question is asking which group of vertebrates has 6–15 pairs of gill slits for respiration.
Concept:
Vertebrata – Cyclostomata (Agnatha) and their respiratory structures

Explanation:
Cyclostomata (jawless fishes like Lamprey and Hagfish) have 6–15 pairs of gill slits used for
respiration.

Final Answer: Option 1

151) NCERT XI Page No. # 52

152)

Explain Question : Incorrect about cuboidal epithelium ?

Concept : This question is based on Epithelium tissue.

Solution : Incorrect is option (4)

Because living of stomach and Intestine contain columnar epithelium.

Final Answer : option (4)

153)

The correct answer is 4. Microvilli.

Here's why:Microvilli are tiny, finger-like projections of the cell membrane that increase the
surface area of the cell.

154)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

155)

Question explanation: Identify the statement that is not a characteristic of compound

epithelium.

Concept: Epithelium – Compound (stratified) epithelium

Solution:

A. (1) It is multilayered → Correct. Compound epithelium consists of multiple layers of

cells.

B. (2) Limited role in secretion and absorption → Correct. Its main role is protection.

C. (3) They cover the dry surface of the skin like epidermis → Correct. Epidermis is
keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

D. (4) Found in inner lining of blood vessels and lymph vessels → Incorrect. This
lining is made of simple squamous epithelium (endothelium), not compound
epithelium.

Final answer: Option 4

156)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

157)

Question Explanation: The question asks which statements about types of epithelial tissue
and their functions are correct.

Concept: Types of epithelium

Solution: Epithelial tissues have different structures adapted to specific functions:

A. Squamous epithelium allows diffusion and filtration.

B. Cuboidal and columnar epithelium are mainly involved in absorption and secretion.

C. Ciliated epithelium helps move substances like mucus or particles in a particular

direction.

So, all the given statements are correct.

Final answer: Option 4

158)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

159)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

160)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

161)

Explain Question:
The question asks about the type of symmetry found in the larva of the echinoderm shown in
the figure.
Concept: This question is based on Symmetry – Echinodermata development
Solution: The correct answer is option 1. While adult echinoderms have radial symmetry,
their free-swimming larval stage exhibits bilateral symmetry before metamorphosis.
Final Answer: 1. Bilateral

162)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

163)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

164) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 47

165) Explain the Question : This question is asking about correctly matching organisms with
their symmetry and special characteristics based on NCERT classification.
Concept : This question is based on animal kingdom – symmetry, habitat, body organisation
and special features of different phyla.
Solution : Taenia solium is bilaterally symmetrical with different proglottids; sponges are
asymmetrical with a canal system; Obelia shows radial symmetry and is dimorphic (polyp and
medusa); Pleurobranchia is exclusively marine.
Final answer : 3

166)

Explain Question:
Identify which statements (A, B, C, D) are true or false about annelids, mollusca,
aschelminthes, and insects.
Concept:
Animal reproduction and digestive system

Solution:
• (A) True – Nereis is unisexual (dioecious).
• (B) True – Radula is a rasping organ found in mollusca.
• (C) False – The Alimentary canal in Aschelminthes is complete, not incomplete.
• (D) True – In have body parts: head, thorax, and abdomen.
So, A = T, B = T, C = F, D = T.

Final answer: Option (1)

167)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

168) NCERT XIth Pg.#104, Ist Para

169) NCERT XI Pg # 104

170) Explanation Question:The question asks to identify structures labeled A, B, and C in

given histological figures and match them with their correct options.

Concept : Compound epithelium and glands

Solution :
A is a goblet-shaped cell embedded in epithelium, which indicates a unicellular gland.

B shows a cluster of cells forming a glandular structure, which corresponds to a multicellular

gland.

C depicts multilayered compound epithilium.

Final Answer : Option 2 A-Unicellular gland, B-Multicellular gland, C-Multilayered cells

171)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

172)

Correct Answer is Option (4).

173)
Correct Answer is Option (3).

174)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

175)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

176)

Correct Answer is Option (1).

177)

Correct Answer is Option (3).

178)

Correct Answer is Option (2).

179) New NCERT Update

180)

Correct Answer is Option (4).