Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

SBI CLERK MAINS-2026

MODEL TEST - 2
GENERAL AND FINANCIAL AWARENESS
1. As per the NPCI’s revised UPI guidelines, a UPI user is permitted to manually

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check their bank account balance up to 50 times per day per application, what is
the maximum number of times a UPI application can list and fetch the linked
bank accounts of a user in a single day?
1) 10 times 2) 20 times 3) 25 times 4) 30 times 5) 40 times
2. The joint military exercise ‘MAITREE’ is conducted annually to enhance
cooperation, share best practices, and improve interoperability between India

3.
1) Thailand
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and which of the following countries?
2) Myanmar 3) Vietnam 4) Malaysia 5) Indonesia
The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas has extended the “National PNG
Drive 2.0” beyond its original schedule to maintain the momentum of PNG
expansion across India. Till which date has this initiative now been extended as

1) 31 December 2026

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per the latest update in 2026?
2) 30 April 2026
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3) 31 May 2026 4) 30 June 2026 5) 31 July 2026
4. The International Malaria Conference (IMC) 2026, organised by the ICMR–National
Institute of Malaria Research (ICMR–NIMR) under the Indian Council of Medical
ee

Research (ICMR), was held with participation from scientists, public health experts
and policymakers from India and across the world. Under which theme was the
International Malaria Conference (IMC) 2026 organised?
1) Research, Response and Recovery: Reinventing Malaria Control
2) Collaborative Strategies for Tropical Disease Elimination
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3) Prevention, Protection and Progress: Pathway to a Malaria-Free World
4) Innovation, Integration and Impact: Towards Global Malaria Eradication
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5) Discovery, Development and Delivery: Driving Malaria Elimination and Beyond

5. The National Housing Bank (NHB) recently launched a "Unified Digital
Marketplace" specifically designed to simplify and digitize home loan access for
Defence and Government personnel. What is the name of this portal?
1) Gruh Sugam Portal 2) Awas Seva Portal
3) Gruh Saksham Portal
4) Nivas Digital Gateway 5) Housing Bharat Portal
6. Who among the following was awarded the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences in
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2025?
1) Esther Duflo, Abhijit Banerjee and Michael Kremer
2) Paul Romer and William Nordhaus
3) Joel Mokyr, Philippe Aghion and Peter Howitt
4) Claudia Goldin 5) Angus Deaton
7. The Indian Army has executed its first-ever capital procurement contract through
the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) platform for the supply of Telescopic Handlers
under the Buy (Indian) category. This contract has been signed with which of the
following companies?
1) Larsen & Toubro 2) Tata Advanced Systems 3) JCB India Ltd
4) Mahindra Defence Systems 5) Bharat Electronics Limited
8. The Central Know Your Customer (CKYC) framework, maintained by the Central
Registry of Securitisation Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest of India
(CERSAI), enables financial entities to access verified customer details from a
unified database. Under this system, individuals are assigned a unique
identification number. What is the length of the CKYC Number allotted to each
individual upon completion of the CKYC process?
1) 10 digits 2) 12 digits 3) 14 digits 4) 15 digits 5) 16 digits

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

9. The book titled “Believe: What Life and Cricket Taught Me” is the autobiography
of which prominent former Indian cricketer?
1) Yuvraj Singh 2) Sourav Ganguly 3) Kapil Dev 4) VVS Laxman 5) Suresh Raina
10. The National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) is an autonomous society
tasked with developing indigenous technologies for the exploration and utilization
of ocean resources. Under which Union Ministry of the Government of India does
this premier research body function?
1) Ministry of Science and Technology 2) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
3) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
4) Ministry of Earth Sciences 5) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
11. The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) is implementing
the National Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe Hub (NSSH) Scheme to promote
entrepreneurship among SCs/STs. One of the key objectives of this scheme is to

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ensure fulfillment of what percentage of mandatory public procurement from
SC/ST MSEs under the Government of India’s procurement policy?
1) 2% 2) 4% 3) 3% 4) 5% 5) 10%
12. The “Hurun Global Rich List 2026” highlighted the number of billionaires across
different countries and their global ranking. According to the report, India now
has 308 billionaires. What is India’s global rank in terms of the number of
billionaires as per the Hurun Global Rich List 2026?
13.
1) 1st
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2) 2nd 3) 3rd 4) 4th 5) 5th
Narendra Modi, who has been serving as the Prime Minister of India since May
2014, is the ______ Prime Minister of the country.
1) 12th 2) 13th 3) 14th 4) 15th 5) 16th
14.

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Under the revised capital market exposure framework, the Reserve Bank of India
has increased the individual borrowing limit for subscribing to Initial Public
Offerings (IPOs) and Employee Stock Option Plans (ESOPs). What is the new
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ceiling for such subscriptions per individual across the banking system?
1) Rs.25 lakh 2) Rs.15 lakh 3) Rs.10 lakh 4) Rs.50 lakh 5) Rs.1 crore
15. According to the written reply provided in the Lok Sabha on March 16, 2026,
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which specific financial year recorded the highest volume of loan write-offs by
Indian banks, totaling Rs.1.59 lakh crore?
1) FY18 2) FY19 3) FY20 4) FY21 5) FY22
16. The National Turmeric Board (NTB), officially inaugurated in 2025 to promote the
cultivation, research, and export of the "Golden Spice," is headquartered in which
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of the following cities?
1) Nizamabad, Telangana 2) Erode, Tamil Nadu
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3) Warangal, Telangana 4) Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu 5) Sangli, Maharashtra

17. Under the provisions of Section 45ZB of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, who
among the following serves as the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Monetary Policy
Committee (MPC) as of April 2026?
1) The Union Finance Minister 2) The Deputy Governor in charge of Monetary Policy
3) The Chief Economic Adviser to the Government of India
4) The Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs
5) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
18. Under the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Scale-Based Regulation (SBR) framework,
C
which of the following asset size thresholds serves as the primary boundary to
classify a Non-Deposit taking NBFC (NBFC-ND) from the Base Layer (NBFC-BL)
to the Middle Layer (NBFC-ML)?
1) Assets of Rs.100 crore and above 2) Assets of Rs.250 crore and above
3) Assets of Rs.500 crore and above
4) Assets of Rs.1,000 crore and above 5) Assets of Rs.5,000 crore and above
19. In the context of interest rate benchmarks used by banks in India, the term
MCLR (Marginal Cost of Funds-based Lending Rate) refers to the minimum interest
rate below which banks are generally not permitted to lend. MCLR was introduced
by the Reserve Bank of India in which year?
1) 2014 2) 2015 3) 2016 4) 2017 5) 2018
20. The Ministry of Education, in collaboration with IIT Kanpur, has introduced the
‘SATHEE’ app as a free digital learning initiative to assist students in preparing
for competitive exams. What does the acronym 'SATHEE' stand for?
1) Self-Assessment, Test and Help for Entrance Exams
2) Student Assistance for Technical Higher Education Entrance
3) System for Academic Training and Higher Education Evaluation
4) Scholastic Aptitude Test for Higher Education Entrance
5) Support for Academic Training and Higher Education Excellence

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

21. NITI Aayog released the report on “Water Budgeting in Aspirational Blocks” to
strengthen local-level planning for water security by analysing demand–supply
scenarios across 18 Aspirational Blocks situated in 8 agro-climatic zones of 11
States. The exercise uses a web-based platform to support integrated water resource
management through data-driven assessment. What is the name of this platform?
1) Varuni 2) JalDarpan 3) JalRakshak 4) NeerSetu 5) JalSuchak
22. In January 2026, India’s first fully paperless district court was inaugurated by
the Chief Justice of India, marking the complete digital transformation of all
courts in the judicial district with AI-based tools for evidence, summaries, voice
to text transcription and secure digital signatures. This first fully paperless district
court is located in which place?
1) Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala 2) Kalpetta, Kerala

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3) Ernakulam, Kerala 4) Kozhikode, Kerala 5) Thrissur, Kerala
23. Which of the following is a type of banking application which authorises a bank to
block a specific sum of money in an individual's bank account to be invested in an
Initial Public Offer (IPO)?
1) Prefunded cheques 2) NEFT 3) RTGS 4) SCSB 5) ASBA
24. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM) scheme
and benefits?
ha
as of 2026, which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding its eligibility

1) The scheme is open to all Indian citizens within the age group of 18 to 50 years.
2) The central government contributes 75% of the monthly premium, while the
subscriber pays the remaining 25%.

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3) An unorganized worker is eligible only if their monthly income is Rs.15,000 or less.
4) In the event of the subscriber's death after the age of 60, the nominee (including
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children) receives 100% of the pension.
5) Membership in EPFO, ESIC, or NPS does not disqualify a worker from joining
the scheme.
ee

25. The Prambanan Temple complex, also known locally as “Roro Jonggrang,” is one
of the largest Hindu temple complexes in Southeast Asia and a UNESCO World
Heritage Site. It is located in which of the following countries?
1) Thailand 2) Indonesia 3) Cambodia 4) Vietnam 5) Malaysia
26. Under the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, members of the Central Board
C
of Directors who are appointed or nominated by the Government of India serve
for a specified term to ensure continuity in governance. For how many years are
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these board members typically appointed/nominated?

1) Two years 2) Three years 3) Four years 4) Five years 5) Six years
27. The Stockholm Water Prize, often described as the "Nobel Prize for Water," is a
global award presented annually for outstanding water-related achievements. In
which year was this prestigious prize first established?
1) 1985 2) 1991 3) 1995 4) 2000 5) 2010
28. Which digital tool introduced by the National Dam Safety Authority is designed for
tracking and reviewing regulations and inspection reports using Artificial Intelligence?
C
1) Jal Darpan 2) DHARMA 3) NETRA 4) Dam Suraksha Portal 5) Aqua Track
29. During the 4th edition of India Energy Week (IEW 2026) in Goa, India signed a
Joint Statement on Energy Cooperation with which country to relaunch their
Ministerial Energy Dialogue and explore partnerships in critical minerals like
lithium and cobalt?
1) Australia 2) United States 3) Germany 4) Canada 5) France
30. Article 324(5) of the Indian Constitution provides a strong security of tenure to
the Chief Election Commissioner by linking the removal process to that of a
specific high constitutional authority in India. In like manner and on like grounds
as which authority can the Chief Election Commissioner be removed from office?
1) The President of India 2) The Attorney General of India
3) The Prime Minister
4) A Judge of the High Court 5) A Judge of the Supreme Court
31. The Government of India launched a dedicated digital platform in 2020 to simplify
the registration process and promote ease of doing business for Micro, Small and
Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). Which portal was introduced for this purpose?
1) GeM Portal 2) Udyam Portal 3) e-NAM Portal
4) Startup India Portal 5) PM Gati Shakti Portal

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

32. The 'FTSE 100' is a highly significant benchmark share index that tracks the
performance of the 100 highest-capitalized blue-chip companies listed on a major
global exchange. In which of the following countries is this stock market index
primarily based?
1) United Kingdom 2) Germany 3) United States 4) Japan 5) France
33. Myanmar is a Southeast Asian country with a strategically important geopolitical
position in the region. What is the capital city of Myanmar?
1) Yangon 2) Mandalay 3) Naypyidaw 4) Bagan 5) Taunggyi
34. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has recently approved the acquisition
of a 53.4% shareholding in Krosaki Harima Corporation by a leading Japan-based
steelmaker. Which of the following corporations is the acquirer in this transaction?
1) JFE Steel Corporation 2) Mitsubishi Heavy Industries

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3) Toyota Tsusho Corporation 4) Nippon Steel Corporation 5) Kobe Steel, Ltd.
35. Razorpay launched the world's first 'Agent Studio' at the FTX 2026 event, which
was built using the Claude Agent SDK from which AI company that developed the
underlying technology powering this platform?
1) Anthropic 2) Google DeepMind 3) Microsoft Azure AI 4) OpenAI 5) Meta AI
36. In March 2026, “Project GANGA” (Government Assisted Network for Growth &
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Advancement) was launched to bridge the digital divide by expanding rural
broadband infrastructure. Under this project, the government partnered with
OneOTT Intertainment Limited to provide high-speed broadband connectivity to
about 20 lakh rural households. Which state government launched this Project
GANGA initiative?
37.
1) Bihar

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2) Uttar Pradesh 3) Rajasthan 4) Madhya Pradesh 5) Jharkhand
The "Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses," approved by the Union Cabinet for
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implementation from 2025–26 to 2030–31, seeks to eliminate import dependency. To
achieve this, the mission has set a specific target year to make India fully self-
reliant in the production of Tur (Arhar), Urad, and Masoor. What is this target year?
ee

1) December 2026 2) March 2030

3) December 2028 4) March 2029 5) December 2027
38. At the recently held BCCI Naman Awards 2026, which prominent Indian cricketer
was honored with the 'Polly Umrigar Award' for the Best International Cricketer
in the men’s category for the 2024-25 season?
C
1) Shubman Gill 2) Virat Kohli
3) Rohit Sharma 4) Yashasvi Jaiswal 5) Rishabh Pant
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39. Gulfood 2026, recognised as one of the world’s largest annual food and beverage
trade exhibitions, brought together global participants to showcase innovations
and strengthen international agri-food trade. The event was held in which of the
following countries?
1) Saudi Arabia 2) Qatar 3) Oman 4) Kuwait 5) UAE
40. According to the statutes and latest official guidelines of the Ministry of Home
Affairs, which of the following describes the correct ribbon specification for the
Padma Vibhushan award?
C
1) A white ribbon with a central broad pink stripe.
2) A pink ribbon with two vertical white stripes.
3) A saffron ribbon with a white central line.
4) A plain lotus pink riband, 32 mm in width.
5) A tricolour ribbon reflecting the National Flag.
41. NITI Aayog’s Frontier Tech Hub has released a roadmap titled “Reimagining
Agriculture: A Roadmap for Frontier Technology Led Transformation” in
Gandhinagar, Gujarat. Developed in collaboration with knowledge partners BCG,
Google, and CII, the roadmap aims to leverage advanced technologies such as
digital twins, precision agriculture, and agentic AI. What is the primary vision
that this roadmap contributes to achieving?
1) Make in India 2030 2) Atmanirbhar Krishi Mission 2040
3) Digital India 2035 4) Viksit Bharat 2047 5) Mission Kisan Shakti 2035
42. Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 as applicable in India (latest official
law and judicial interpretation as of 2026), the maximum penalty (fine) that a
court may impose for a cheque bounce (dishonour of cheque) under Section 138 is:
1) Rs.10,000 2) Fine not exceeding the original cheque amount plus Rs.25,000
3) Rs.50,000 4) Up to twice the amount of the cheque 5) Rs.2,00,000

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

43. Which Maharatna public sector enterprise has received the “Great Place to Work”
certification for the period February 2026 to February 2027, marking the third
consecutive recognition after a companywide assessment?
1) Steel Authority of India Limited 2) National Mineral Development Corporation
3) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited
4) Coal India Limited 5) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
44. According to RBI guidelines, how many free withdrawals per month are allowed
in a Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA)?
1) Two free withdrawals per month 2) Three free withdrawals per month
3) Four free withdrawals per month
4) Five free withdrawals per month 5) Unlimited free withdrawals per month
45. Under the guidelines of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for call/notice money

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market operations, what is the maximum percentage of a cooperative bank’s
aggregate deposits (from the previous year-end) that its lending outstanding in
the call money market shall not exceed on any single day?
1) 1% 2) 3% 3) 2% 4) 4% 5) No limit
46. According to the latest NPCI operational guidelines effective as of April 2026,
what is the updated per-transaction limit for UPI payments made towards

47.
ha
Insurance Premium payments to verified merchants?
1) Rs.1,00,000 2) Rs.2,00,000 3) Rs.3,00,000 4) Rs.5,00,000 5) Rs.10,00,000
The Ministry of Rural Development has launched a real-time ‘Internal Audit
Portal’ to enhance transparency and accountability in rural governance. Which
organisation developed this portal?

E
1) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
2) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)
d
3) National e-Governance Division (NeGD)
4) Digital India Corporation 5) Software Technology Parks of India (STPI)
48. According to the official notification for the 2nd edition of the 5G Innovation
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Hackathon 2026, what is the specific amount earmarked as the dedicated seed
funding pool to support selected teams in converting their ideas into working
prototypes?
1) Rs 10 Lakh 2) Rs 25 Lakh 3) Rs 50 Lakh 4) Rs 75 Lakh 5) Rs 1 Crore
49. The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare recently constituted the National
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Dental Commission (NDC) to overhaul the dental education framework. Who has
been appointed as the first Chairperson of this newly formed Commission?
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1) Dr. Mousumi Goswami 2) Dr. Chandrashekhar Janakiram

3) Dr. Sanjay Tewari
4) Lt. Gen. (Retd.) Nanda Kishore Sahoo 5) Dr. Dibyendu Mazumdar
50. The "Paripally Gajamela," a spectacular annual pageant featuring a massive
procession of caparisoned elephants as a votive offering to the deity, is a world-
renowned cultural event celebrated at the Sree Bhadrakali Temple in which
state?
1) Karnataka 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Kerala 4) Odisha 5) Andhra Pradesh
C
GENERAL ENGLISH
Directions (51-54): The sentence has a blank which indicates something has
been omitted. Which of the following words given against the sentence, fits the
blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully?
51. Despite his reputation for being meticulous, the scientist’s notes were surprisingly
________, containing several errors that would be uncharacteristic for someone
so careful.
1) precise 2) haphazard 3) methodical 4) comprehensive 5) scrupulous
52. The professor’s lecture on quantum mechanics was so ________ that even students
with strong mathematical backgrounds struggled to grasp the key concepts.
1) lucid 2) abstruse 3) coherent 4) elementary 5) transparent
53. Though widely admired for her philanthropy, the politician’s motives were
sometimes questioned as being ________, more concerned with public recognition
than genuine altruism.
1) aesthetic 2) self-serving 3) magnanimous 4) benevolent 5) philanthropic
54. The scientist’s argument was elegant, but ultimately ________, failing to account
for significant anomalies in the data.
1) sound 2) specious 3) cogent 4) plausible 5) robust

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

Direction (55-61): In the passage given below, there are blanks, each followed by
a phrase given in bold. Every blank has four alternative phrases given in options.
Find the phrase which best suits the place. If the given phrase suits the blank,
mark 'no correction required' as the answer.
The use of online learning platforms has ______(55)_____ grown rapidly in
last few years, transforming the traditional classroom experience. How
______(56)_____ it affecting the attention span of students remains a concern.
On the ______(57)_____ both sides, there are advantages and disadvantages.
Students can ______(58)_____ access on unlimited resources, enabling them to
learn at their own pace. Teachers, however, find it challenging to ______(59)_____
adapt for digital tools quickly. Many experts ______(60)_____ warns that excessive
screen time may affect mental health. Hence, the education ______(61)_____

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require reforms urgently to balance technology and learning.
55. 1) grown rapidly in the last few years 2) grows rapid in last years
3) No correction required 4) rapidly grow in last few years
5) growing rapidly in the last few years
56. 1) it affects 2) it is affecting
3) No correction required 4) it will affect 5) it will be affect
57.

58.
1) both side
ha
3) No correction required
1) access unlimited resources
2) other sides
4) either sides 5) neither sides
2) access to unlimited resources
3) No correction required
4) accesses unlimited resources 5) access by unlimited resources
59.

E
1) adapt to digital tools quickly
3) No correction required
2) adapting digital tools quickly
d
4) adapt with digital tools quickly 5) adapt to digital tools quick
60. 1) warn that 2) worn that
3) No correction required 4) warning that 5) is warning that
ee

61. 1) requires reforms urgently 2) require urgent reforms

3) No correction required
4) requiring reforms urgently 5) required reforms urgently
Directions (62-63): In the following questions, two columns are given, each
containing three sentences. In the first column, the sentences are labeled A, B,
C
and C, and in the second column, they are labelled D, E, and F. A sentence from
the first column may or may not be combined with a sentence from the second
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column using a suitable connector to form a grammatically and contextually

correct sentence. The options show possible pairs along with the connectors that
can correctly join them. Choose the option(s) that form a meaningful and
grammatically correct sentence.
62. Column I
(A) Plastic packaging remains popular across industries
(B) Many people adopt minimalism for sustainability
(C) Recycling programs often fail
C
Column II
(D) consumer awareness is low.
(E) it harms the environment.
(F) some do it for aesthetic reasons.
1) Only A–E (though) & B–F (while) 2) Only B–F (since) & C–D (unless)
3) Only A–E (because) & B–F (and)
4) Only A–D (if) & C–F (though) 5) Only A–E (yet) & C–D (while)
63. Column I
(A) Artificial Intelligence can enhance efficiency
(B) Data collection practices are increasing rapidly
(C) Consumers demand greater transparency
Column II
(D) it also raises ethical concerns.
(E) they fear misuse of their information.
(F) companies rely on predictive algorithms.
1) Only A–D (but) & B–F (since) 2) Only A–E (because) & C–D (though)
3) Only A–D (too) & C–E (as)
4) Only B–F (at last) & C–E (instead) 5) Only A–D (and) & B–E (but)

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

Direction (64): In the following question, a set of simple sentences is given.

Combine them to form a single, coherent, and grammatically correct sentence
without changing the meaning. Choose the option that best combines all the
given sentences meaningfully and correctly.
A. The new smartphone model features an advanced camera system.
B. Tech reviewers praised its innovative design.
C. Consumers are eager to buy it after positive reviews.
1) The new smartphone features advanced camera system, tech reviewers praised
innovative design, and consumers are eager to buy it after positive reviews.
2) Tech reviewers smartphone new model camera praised and innovative design,
positive reviews buy eager consumers.
3) Consumers are eager smartphone camera features, reviewers praised design

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innovative new model.
4) Innovative design praised, new smartphone camera features tech reviewers
eager consumers positive reviews.
5) After positive reviews new smartphone model advanced camera features and
tech reviewers praised buy eager consumers.
Direction (65-66): Read the following passages and answer the questions.
65. Passage 1
ha
Artificial Intelligence (AI) is increasingly transforming healthcare globally.
Hospitals and clinics are leveraging AI-powered diagnostic tools to improve
accuracy, reduce human error, and streamline patient care. From analyzing

E
medical images to predicting disease outbreaks, AI enables faster and more
informed decision-making.
d
Healthcare providers are also using AI for personalized treatment plans,
optimizing drug dosages, and monitoring patient vitals remotely. While the
technology promises increased efficiency and better outcomes, experts caution
ee

about ethical considerations, data privacy, and potential biases in AI algorithms.

Regulatory frameworks are being developed to ensure safe and equitable
implementation.
The adoption of AI in healthcare is viewed as a paradigm shift, potentially
reducing costs while improving the accessibility and quality of care. Countries
C
investing in AI infrastructure are likely to gain a competitive edge in medical
innovation and public health management.
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Passage 2
Governments and private enterprises worldwide are increasingly investing in
renewable energy sources to meet climate targets and ensure energy security.
Solar, wind, and hydroelectric projects are being scaled up, and innovations in
energy storage and smart grids are enhancing efficiency.
These initiatives aim to reduce reliance on fossil fuels, curb greenhouse
gas emissions, and promote sustainable economic growth. Policymakers emphasize
international collaboration, technology sharing, and public-private partnerships
C
to accelerate the energy transition. While upfront costs are high, long-term benefits
include environmental protection, job creation, and resilient energy systems.
Renewable energy adoption is not only an environmental imperative but also an
economic and strategic necessity, ensuring that countries remain competitive in
the global energy landscape.
What is the common theme of the two passages?
1) The rise of AI in every sector globally
2) Technological and strategic innovations addressing global challenges
3) Government regulation in emerging industries
4) Ethical concerns in modern technology
5) Investment in healthcare infrastructure
66. Passage 1
India is witnessing a surge in electric vehicle (EV) adoption, driven by government
incentives, improved charging infrastructure, and environmental concerns. EVs
reduce dependency on fossil fuels and help cut carbon emissions. Several Indian
states are promoting EV manufacturing and encouraging public-private
partnerships to develop battery technology and charging networks.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

Passage 2
The Smart Cities Mission aims to develop urban areas that use digital technology
to enhance service delivery, reduce energy consumption, and improve citizen
engagement. Cities are integrating IoT devices, data analytics, and sustainable
urban planning to create efficient, livable environments.
What is the common theme of the two passages?
1) Urban congestion and traffic management
2) Government-led technological initiatives promoting sustainability
3) Challenges in adopting new technologies
4) Private investment in infrastructure 5) Policy reforms in taxation
Directions (67-71): In this question, four sentences (A), (B), (C), and (D) are

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given. Decide which sentence(s) is/are INCORRECT with regard to grammar,
meaning, or usage, and mark your answer accordingly.
67. A) The manager spoke angrily to the staff after the project failed.
B) He is enough qualified to handle complex negotiations.
C) The company will begin production in June next year.

68.
ha
D) The report was completed well before the deadline.
1) Only A & C 2) Only B 3) Only B & D 4) Only A & D 5) All correct
A) The teacher looked angrily at the students for being late.
B) The shipment has been delayed because of the storm.

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C) He explained the concept clearly so that everyone understood.
D) The new tax policy affects the small businesses severely last year.
d
1) Only A & D 2) Only D 3) Only C & D 4) Only A, C & D 5) All correct
69. A) The government is keen on promoting renewable energy investments.
B) She completed the task more efficiently than anyone else.
ee

C) The meeting was postponed due to heavy rainfall.

D) He drives very fastly on highways, which is quite dangerous.
1) Only D 2) Only B & C 3) Only A & D 4) Only C & D 5) All incorrect
70. A) She has been working here since five years without a promotion.
C
B) The proposal was carefully reviewed before final approval.
C) The CEO appeared calm and confident during the press briefing.
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D) They arrived at the airport just in time for boarding.

1) Only A 2) Only B & D 3) Only A & C 4) Only A & D 5) All incorrect
71. A) Rising inflation has badly hit the purchasing power of consumers.
B) The board members are highly satisfied with the quarterly performance.
C) She spoke to me in confidence about the issue.
D) The prices of crude oil has fluctuated significantly this quarter.
1) Only D 2) Only A & B 3) Only C & D 4) Only B & C 5) All correct
C
Directions (72-81): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The United States has intensified its diplomatic efforts to counter China’s
decision to tighten export restrictions on rare earth minerals—critical components
used in electronics, defense, and renewable energy technologies. U.S. Treasury
Secretary Scott Bessent described China’s move as “provocative,” asserting that
Beijing is weaponizing its dominance over a vital supply chain. He stated that the
U.S. expects India, European nations, and other democracies to join in a
coordinated response aimed at securing global access to these resources.
China currently dominates the rare earths market, accounting for nearly
70% of global mining and over 85% of processing capacity. These minerals—
essential for semiconductors, electric vehicles, and missile systems—have become
a new front in the geopolitical rivalry between the two largest economies. Analysts
suggest that Beijing’s decision to impose tighter controls may be an attempt to
leverage economic power amid growing U.S.-led technology restrictions.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

Interestingly, while the U.S. is seeking India’s partnership to diversify supply

chains and reduce dependency on China, Washington still maintains high tariffs
on Indian goods, a policy widely criticized for being counter productive. Despite
this tension, both nations have overlapping interests in critical mineral
development and have discussed joint exploration projects in Africa and Australia.
Bessent hinted that “everything is on the table,” suggesting that the U.S. could
respond through retaliatory tariffs or international arbitration. He warned that
continued restrictions might push the global economy toward a “de-risking”
phase—where countries deliberately reduce exposure to China’s supply chains—
if not a complete decoupling. The situation underscores how control over rare
earths has evolved from a technical issue into a strategic instrument of power.
72. What is the central theme of the passage?

r’s
1) The impact of China’s rare earth monopoly on global electronics
2) The growing economic partnership between India and China
3) The U.S. effort to build a coalition against China’s trade dominance
4) The rise of renewable energy and its mineral requirements
5) The decline of global trade cooperation
73. Which of the following best describes China’s strategy, as per the passage?
ha
1) Defensive protection of its domestic market
2) A retaliatory measure against U.S. tariffs
3) An attempt to assert economic control through supply-chain leverage
4) A cooperative effort to stabilize rare earth prices
5) A policy shift to promote environmental sustainability
74.

E
Choose the word which expresses the same meaning of the given word “provocative”
1) stimulating 2) aggressive 3) cautious 4) conciliatory 5) innovative
d
75. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
1) Rare earth minerals are critical for modern defense and technology.
2) The U.S. and India have already launched joint mining projects in Africa.
ee

3) The U.S. maintains tariffs on Indian products.

4) China controls a majority of the world’s rare earth processing capacity.
5) The issue of rare earths has become geopolitically strategic.
76. What does the term “de-risking” imply in the context of global trade?
1) Countries completely isolating themselves from global supply chains
C
2) Diversifying supply sources to reduce dependency on one nation
3) Reducing investment in renewable energy sectors
Sr

4) Imposing sanctions on trading partners 5) Abandoning technological cooperation altogether

77. Which of the following assumptions can be inferred from the passage?
1) Rare earth minerals will soon lose economic importance.
2) The U.S. is willing to compromise on tariffs to strengthen alliances.
3) Control of rare earth supply chains directly translates to geopolitical influence.
4) India depends entirely on China for its mineral imports.
5) China’s export restrictions are purely environmental.
78. What tone does the author adopt throughout the passage?
C
1) Optimistic and persuasive 2) Analytical and critical
3) Emotional and persuasive 4) Neutral and descriptive 5) Sarcastic and dismissive
79. Which of the following statements best reflects the paradox in U.S. policy?
1) The U.S. condemns China’s tariffs while imposing its own on India.
2) The U.S. exports rare earths while depending on China for imports.
3) The U.S. supports free trade but restricts technology access.
4) The U.S. promotes decoupling while increasing imports from China.
5) The U.S. is dependent on India for semiconductor manufacturing.
80. The phrase “everything is on the table” implies—
1) The U.S. has exhausted all possible actions.
2) All diplomatic and economic options are being considered.
3) The U.S. has decided to launch a trade war immediately.
4) Negotiations between the nations have failed. 5) The U.S. will withdraw tariffs on allies.
81. What could be an appropriate title for this passage?
1) “Decoupling in the Digital Era” 2) “Tariff Tensions between India and the U.S.”
3) “China’s Rare Earth Monopoly and Global Resistance”
4) “Trade Wars and the Future of Semiconductor Technology”
5) “The New Cold War in Clean Energy”

9
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

Directions (82-84): In the following question a statement is given. From the

given options identify the statement that doesn't logically fit with the overall
theme.
82. Despite rapid economic growth, many emerging economies continue to face
challenges in healthcare delivery, particularly in rural areas. ________
1) Governments are investing in mobile health units and telemedicine to reach
remote populations.
2) Vaccination campaigns and preventive care programs are being expanded to
underserved communities.
3) Many hospitals have adopted electronic health records to improve patient care
coordination.

r’s
4) Urban infrastructure development is a priority, including roads and smart
cities initiatives.
5) Non-governmental organizations are partnering with local authorities to
enhance healthcare access.
83. The global shift towards renewable energy has accelerated in recent years due
to climate concerns and technological advancements. ________
ha
1) Solar and wind energy projects are being scaled up in multiple countries.
2) Innovations in energy storage and smart grids are enhancing efficiency and
reliability.
3) Fossil fuel subsidies continue to discourage investment in clean energy.

E
4) International cooperation on technology sharing is enabling faster adoption.
5) Electric vehicles are increasingly contributing to the decarbonization of
d
transportation.
84. Artificial Intelligence (AI) is transforming industries by automating routine tasks
and providing data-driven insights. ________
ee

1) AI tools are being used in healthcare to assist in diagnostics and patient

monitoring.
2) In finance, AI algorithms detect fraud and optimize investment strategies.
3) Many companies are integrating AI to improve supply chain efficiency.
C
4) Traditional printing presses are seeing a resurgence in demand.
5) Retailers use AI to personalize customer recommendations and enhance
Sr

shopping experiences.
Directions (85-86): Read the passage given below carefully and answer the
question that follows.
85. With rising environmental concerns, several governments are providing incentives
for electric vehicle (EV) adoption. Studies show that subsidies and tax breaks
significantly increase EV sales. However, industry experts warn that without
expanding charging infrastructure, high adoption rates may not be sustainable
in the long term.
C
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the passage?
1) Subsidies alone can solve environmental problems.
2) EV adoption depends on both financial incentives and infrastructure availability.
3) Charging stations are already sufficient in most countries.
4) Electric vehicles are cheaper than conventional vehicles.
5) Government incentives are ineffective in influencing consumer behavior.
86. A recent survey suggests that employees working from home report higher job
satisfaction but lower productivity compared to office-based work. Experts argue
that hybrid models, combining remote and in-office work, may offer an optimal
balance between well-being and efficiency.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the passage?
1) Remote work reduces productivity in all industries.
2) Job satisfaction is inversely proportional to productivity.
3) Hybrid work models can balance employee well-being and efficiency.
4) Employees prefer office work over remote work.
5) Remote work should be banned for efficiency.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

Directions(87-88): In each of the following sentences, a blank has been given.

The same word from the options can suitably fill all the blanks to make the
sentences meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the option that best
fits all the blanks.
87. A. The university has launched new workshops to ____ students’ problem-solving skills.
B. Digital tools were introduced to ______ online learning experiences.
C. People believe that computer skills will ______ their job opportunities or
promotion opportunities.
D. Food is there to keep you healthy and ______ your enjoyment of life.
E. This low sensitivity rate has encouraged the use of instruments to ______ cell exfoliation.
1) rehab 2) tarnish 3) stress 4) enhance 5) hasten
88. A. The city council implemented strict regulations to ______ air pollution.

r’s
B. Farmers are adopting modern irrigation techniques to ______ water wastage.
C. Today police launched a campaign to ______ road accidents.
D. Immerse your foot in ice cold water to ______ the swelling.
E. I really believe that it is possible to both improve customer satisfaction and
______ costs.
1) supplement 2) dilate 3) humble 4) cashier 5) reduce
ha
Direction (89): In this question, there are three statements which are summarised
into a single statement without adding or omitting any information or changing the
meaning. Decide upon which of the following contextually and meaningfully
summarises all the given statements, and mark the option which denotes the answer.
[Link] are studying the effects of climate change on coral reefs.

E
B. Rising sea temperatures are causing coral bleaching.
C. Environmentalists urge immediate action to protect marine ecosystems.
d
1) Researchers study climate change effects on coral reefs, rising sea temperatures
cause bleaching, and environmentalists urge immediate action to protect marine
ecosystems.
ee

2) Rising sea temperatures coral bleaching, researchers and environmentalists

urge action marine ecosystems protect.
3) Climate change effects researchers study, bleaching coral sea rising, urge
environmentalists immediate protection.
4) Environmentalists urge researchers rising sea temperatures coral reefs
C
bleaching climate change protect.
5) Immediate action to protect marine ecosystems is urged while rising
Sr

temperatures and researchers bleaching coral study.

Directions (90): Read the given passage carefully. It is followed by a set of
statements. Select the option that is irrelevant or does not logically fit with the
central idea or context of the passage.
The rise of remote work has altered corporate culture and employee expectations,
emphasizing flexibility and work-life balance. ________
1) Companies are adopting hybrid work models to accommodate both in-office and
remote employees.
C
2) Employee engagement programs are being redesigned to suit virtual environments.
3) Cybersecurity measures are being enhanced to protect remote operations.
4) Urban real estate markets are unaffected by changes in office occupancy.
5) Communication tools like video conferencing are widely adopted to maintain collaboration.
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction (91-92): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions based on it.
I) a2 – 19a + 84 = 0, where p and q are roots of equation (p > q)
q+2
II) 2b2+ b (2x – 9) – 9x = 0, Where is one of the roots of equation.
2
III) pc2 + (y – 8)2 = 0
91. Find the value of x.
1) 6 2) 4.5 3) 8 4) 3 5) Can’t be determined
92. Find the possible value of (p – c + y).
1) 12 2) 22 3) 20 4) 18 5) Can’t be determined

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

Direction (93-94): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions based on it.
Column-I Column-II
1) X2-14X+J = 0 a and b are roots of equation, I. One of them is either
14 perfect square or perfect
such that sum of reciprocal of a and b is .(a>b)
45 cube
2) Y2-8Y+K=0, c and d are roots of equation, II. Difference of square of the
where d-c=-24 roots is exactly divisible by 4
3) Z2-16Z-L=0, e and f are roots of equation,
where multiplication of reciprocal of roots is - III. Negative root is < -10

r’s
1/(960). Value of f is negative.(e>f)
93. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
b 1
I) = II) unit digit of (c – f)8 is 1. III) (K + 253) is a perfect cube
e 8
1) Only I and II are true 2) Only III is true

94.
3) Only II and III are true
ha
4) Only I and III are true
Which of the following combination(s) is/are true?
5) None of these

A) 1 – I, 2 – II, 3 – III B) 1 – II, 2 – I, 3 – I C) 1 – II, 2 – III, 3 – III

1) A and B only 2) A and C only 3) B and C only
4) A, B, and C

E
5) None of these
Direction (95-99): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
d
question.
The data represents the number of people visited different Gyms –Fit zone,
Fit tribe, Fitness fuel, and Fitness pulse either morning or evening.
Number of males visited gyms Fit zone and Fit tribe is 60% and 80% of total
ee

number of people visited gyms Fit zone and Fit tribe respectively, while number
of males those visited Fitness pulse gym is 40% of total people visited Fitness
pulse gym. Number of people visited Fitness pulse gym in morning is (100y).People
visited Fitness fuel gym in morning is sum of number of people visited gyms Fit
C
zone and Fit tribe together in morning. Number of males and females those
visited Fitness fuel gym are equal, number of people visited Fitness fuel gym in
Sr

morning (100x) is highest as compared to other gyms in morning. People visited

gym Fit zone in morning is twice as that of people visited gym Fit tribe in morning.
Note: 4x + 3y = 63, where ‘x’ and ‘y’ are natural number and in each gym number
of people visited in morning is not less than or equal to 300.
95. People visited Fit tribe gym in morning is twice as that of people visited gyms in
evening Fitness pulse, people visited morning is same as that of people visited in
evening, then find the difference between number of females visited gyms Fit
tribe and Fitness pulse?
C
1) 240 2) 120 3) 480 4) 360 5) None of these
96. Number of people visited Fitness fuel gym in morning is 20% more than total
males visited Fitness fuel gym, while total number of people visited gyms Fitness
fuel and Fit zone together in evening is same as number of people visited Fitness
fuel gym in morning, then find number of females visited Fit zone gym, is what
percent of number of females visited Fitness fuel gym?
1) 48% 2) 52% 3) 36% 4) 54% 5) None of these
97. In Fit tribe gym, people visited in morning is same as that of people visited in
evening, then find number of females visited in evening, if number of males
visited in morning is 340?
1) 60 2) 80 3) 120 4) 100 5) 160
98. Find the total number of females in all the gyms together, if number of evening
visitors in Fit zone, fitness fuel are 50% and 40% of morning respectively, total
visitors in fit tribe in morning and evening are equal and in morning visitors of
fitness pulse is 60% less than that of evening visitors.
1) 2000 2) 2160 3) 2530 4) 2250 5) 2680
99. What is average of morning visitors in all gyms together?
1) 705 2) 715 3) 755 4) 765 5) 725

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

Direction (100-104): What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
100. 6.022% of 652 - 100.05 % of ? = 5.953
1) 105 2) 190 3) 240 4) 120 5) 150
101. 234.2+182.1-156.5+192.1 = ?-712.1
1) 1064 2) 1264 3) 1164 4) 1134 5) 864
102. 24.01×160÷320 = 145×?2÷436
1) 6 2) 4 3) 2 4) 8 5) 10
103. 602% of 40.01+699% of 29.985 = 5×?
1) 10 2) 30 3) 50 4) 70 5) 90

r’s
3 3
170 511.98 2 1728.05
104.  -? =
13.01 4 2
1) 9 2) 5 3) 1 4) 3 5) 13
Direction (105-107): Each question below is followed by two statements I and II.
ha
You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for
answering the question.
105. A shopkeeper sold an item after giving two successive discounts of ‘x%’ and ‘x +
10’%. Find the profit amount earned by him.

E
Statement I: Item is marked 60% above cost price and profit percent earned is
15.2%.
d
Statement II: Item is marked ‘6x%’ above cost price and sold at Rs 1728.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in II alone
is not sufficient.
ee

2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in I alone
is not sufficient.
3) The data in both statements together is sufficient to answer.
4) The data in both statements together is not sufficient to answer.
C
5) The data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer.
Sr

106. Three persons A, B, and C are employed in a work. Find the time taken by person
A alone to finish the work.
Statement I: All the three persons together can finish the work in 12 days.
Statement II: Person C is 50% more efficient than person B
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in II alone
is not sufficient.
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in I alone
is not sufficient.
C
3) The data in both statements together is sufficient to answer.
4) The data in both statements together is not sufficient to answer.
5) The data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer.
107. Find the speed of the boat in still water.
Statement I: Time taken by boat to go 42 km upstream and comes back to the
same point is 5.1 hours.
Statement II: Time taken by boat to go 28 km downstream is 1.4 hours and speed
of stream is 3 km/h.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in II alone
is not sufficient.
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in I alone
is not sufficient.
3) The data in both statements together is sufficient to answer.
4) The data in both statements together is not sufficient to answer.
5) The data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer.

13
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

Direction (108-109): In the given question two quantities are given, one as
Quantity I and another as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship between
two Quantities and choose the appropriate option.
5
108. Quantity I: Age of Q is 5 % less than age of P. P is 12 years younger than S.
9
Ratio of age of P and R is 3:4 and ratio of R and S is 4:5. Find the sum of ages of
P after 4 years and age of Q after 3 years?
Quantity II: Age of A is 5 years less than age of D. Age of B is 43.75% more than
age of A who is 10 years younger than C who is 5 years older than D. Difference
of age of B and A is 7 years. Find the sum of ages of B and D?
1) Quantity I  Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I < Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II

r’s
5) Quantity I = Quantity II (or) relationship cannot be establish
109. Quantity I: A person invests Rs.14000 in 20% CI for three years, Rs.12000 in
10% CI for 2 years and Rs.15000 in 15% SI for three years. Find the average
interest earned by the person from the deposits?
Quantity II: A person invests Rs.14200 in 20% CI for 2 years, Rs.13000 in 10% CI
for 3 years and Rs.12000 in 20% SI for three years. Find the average interest
earned by the person?
ha
1) Quantity I  Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I < Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II (or) relationship cannot be establish
32, 8, 4, 4, 8, 64, 256, Q

E
110. A series is given with one wrong term in it.
If P is the wrong term of the series and Q is the next term of the series, then
d
find the relation between P and Q?
1 1 1 1 1
1) P = Q 2 + 64 2) P = 2 × Q 2 3) P = Q 2 + 16 4) P = Q 2 5) P = Q 2 - 64
ee

Direction (111-113): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions based on it.
There are 8000 employees in a company, out which 25% have CTC more than 20
LPA. Percentage of female employees in the company is 100% more than that percentage
C
of females have CTC less than or equals to 20 LPA. Numbers of male employees have
CTC more than 20 LPA is same as that of number of females have same CTC.
Sr

111. Which of the following statement(s) is are definitely true?

I). Number of males is thrice as that of females
II). Number of females getting CTC less than or equals to 20 LPA is 20% of males
those getting CTC less than or equals to20 LPA
III). Difference between male and female employees in the company is 4000.
1) Only I and II are true 2) Only II and III are true
3) Only I and III are true 4) All I, II, and III are true 5) None of these
112. What percentage of male employees out of total number of male employees getting
C
CTC less than or equals to 20 LPA?
2 1 1 1 1
1) 16 % 2) 83 % 3) 87 % 4) 62 % 5) 7 %
3 3 2 2 7
113. What is the difference between the total male employees and males less than or
equals to 20 LPA CTC?
1) 1000 2) 5000 3) 1500 4) 500 5)100
114. Three series (I), (II) and (III) are given with missing terms P, Q and R in series (I),
(II) and (III) respectively.
I). 1400, 376, 120, 56, ?, 36 II). 3780, 420, 60, 12, ?, 4 III). 103, 67, 42, 26, 17, ?
Find that the value of (P × Q – R) is nearest to the square of which of the
following number?
1) 12 2) 16 3) 13 4) 15 5) 14
115. In a container, mixture of milk and water is 4:3. 21L mixture is taken out and
the same amount of milk is added. Then again 11.2 L mixture is taken out and
the same amount of water is added. Final quantity of milk is 10L more than the
initial quantity of water and final quantity of water is 1L less than the initial
quantity of water, then find the quantity of initial mixture?
1) 63 L 2) 56 L 3) 70 L 4) 91 L 5) 84 L

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

116. In a school A, number of boys is 45 which is 25% more than number of girls.
Number of girls in school B is same as number of girls in school A and number of
boys in school B is 50% more than number of girls in same school. Average age of
all students of school A is 15 years and the average age of all students of school
B is 18 years. Find the average age of all the students of two schools?
(Rounded off to two decimals)
1) 17.35 years 2) 15.33 years 3) 10.33 years 4) 14.33 years 5) 16.57 years
117. A and B together can complete a work in 12 days and B alone can complete the
work in 20 days. A and B together start the work after some days B left the work,
and A finished the rest of work with double of his efficiency in 2.5 days. How
many days did A and B work together?
1) 12 days 2) 10 days 3) 15 days 4) 5 days 5) 11 days
118. A person has Rs. 72,000. 40% of his money invests at 20% simple interest for 2

r’s
years, and the rest of his money invests at 25% compound interest for 2 years. If
total interest again invests at r% interest for 2 years and simple interest after 2
years is Rs. 10746, then find the value of r?
1) 15% 2) 12% 3) 16% 4) 19% 5) 20%
119. The ratio of the speed of boat P and boat Q is 2:3. The Speed of the stream of the
river A is 2 km/hour. Boat P covers 54 km downstream in river A in 3 hours. The
ha
speed of the stream of river B is 60% more than the speed of the stream of river
A. Find the approximate total time taken by boat Q to cover 72 km downstream
in river A and 64 km upstream in river B?
1) 6 hours 2) 9 hours 3) 4 hours 4) 11 hours 5) 2 hours
Direction (120-124): Study the table carefully and answer the given question.

E
There are five villages- Nandigama, Somavaram, Bheemali, Magallu, Dharmavaram
and Lingavaraopalem in which elections are held.
d
The table shows the difference between the winning candidate and runner-up
candidate of elections in each village.
Difference between the winning candidate and
Villages
ee

runner-up candidate of elections in each village

Nandigama 2590
Somavaram 2196
Bheemali 1738
Maagalu 1634
C
Dhramavaram 1437
Lingavaraopalem 1892
Sr

120. In Bheemali village, 80% of the population cast their votes, and 15% of the casted
votes were declared invalid. The winning candidate gets 48% of the total casted
votes. Find the population of Bheemali village.
1) 18725 2) 19250 3) 17220 4) 19750 5) 18750
121. In Maagalu village, the winning candidate gets 52% of total casted votes. Then
Find the total number of voters in Maagalu village, if 15% of casted votes are
invalid, if all the people in that village are eligible and all are casted their votes?
1) 8500 2) 7250 3) 7500 4) 6280 5) 8600
122. The winning candidate of somavaram village gets 15900 more votes than the
C
winning candidate of Dharmavaram village. The ratio of the number of votes got
by the winning candidate of Dharmavaram village to the runner-up candidate of
village Somavaram is 2:3. Find the number of votes got by the runner-up candidate
of Dharmavaram village.
1) 25971 2) 32476 3) 26721 4) 25520 5) 30256
123. In Lingavaraopalem village, there are three candidates – P, Q, and R in the
election. The ratio of votes P, Q, and R get in the election is 6 : 4 : b. Q gets 946
votes more than R. Find the value of b.
(Note: P is the winner of the election in the village and Q is the runner-up of the
election in the village)
1) 8 2) 4 3) 7 4) 3 5) 1
124. In Nandigama village, 70% of casted voters are literate and the rest are illiterate.
The winning candidate gets 60% votes out of the total votes casted, of which 60%
votes are literate voters. Find the number of illiterate voters who cast their votes
to runner-up candidate.
(Note: There are only two candidates in the election in Nandigama village and all
the eligible voters cast their vote and all votes are valid.)
1) 623 2) 777 3) 552 4) 912 5) 824

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

125. X bought a saree and a kurti for Rs. ________ and Rs. 1500 respectively. She
marked the saree 20% above the cost price and the kurti 25% above the cost
price and allowed a discount of Rs. 125 on the kurti. She sold the saree for Rs.
_________ and the profit earned on the saree is equal to the profit earned on the
kurti.
Which of the following option satisfies the two blanks in the question?
i). 1000 and 1200 ii). 1600 and 1850 iii). 1300 and 1560 iv). 1400 and 1650
1) Only i and iii 2) Only iii and iv 3) Only ii and iv 4) Only i and ii 5) All false
126. In a cone, if diameter is increased by __% and height is increased by __% then
the volume will be increased by __%. Find the correct option to fill the blanks in
order to make the statement correct, if height and diameter of cone are 32cm
and 24 cm, respectively?

r’s
i). 12, 25, 56.8 ii). 20, 5, 51.2 iii). 10, 20, 44 iv). 5, 20, 32.3
1) i only 2) i and iii only 3) i, ii and iv only 4) i and ii only 5) ii and iv only
Direction (127-131): Study the bar graph and answer the following questions.
The given bar graphs show the total number of people who participated in three
different sports [High, long and triple jump] from six different complexes such as
A, B, C, D, E and F.
ha TOTAL NUMBER OF PARTICIPANTS

160
140
120

E
d
100
80
ee

60
40
20
C
0
Sr

A B C D E F
The given table shows the percentage of the number of people who participated in
the long jump out of total number of people who participated from respective
complex and the number of people who participated in the high jump from those
complexes
percentage of the number of people number of people who
complex
who participated in the long jump participated in the high jump
A 10Y% -
C
B - 10X
C 25X% -
D - 8Y
E 20Y% -
F - 6Y
Note: The number of people who participated in the long jump from C is 60 and
the ratio of the number of people who participated in the long jump from A to in
the high jump from B is 6:5.
127. The number of people who participated in the high jump from A is 50% more than
the number of people who participated in the long jump from A. The number of
people who participated in the triple jump from B is 8X. The weight of each
participants in the long, high, and triple jump from A is 48 kg, 54 kg, and 62 kg,
respectively, and the weight of each participants in the long, high, and triple
jump from B is 52 kg, 56 kg, and 58 kg, respectively. Find the approximate
average weight of all the people who participated in the all sports from complexes
A and B together?
1) 45 2) 38 3) 55 4) 50 5) 62

16
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

128. The ratio of the number of people who participated in the long jump to triple jump
from C is 12:5. The ratio of the number of male to female who participated in the
long jump and triple jump from C is 3:2 and 3:2 respectively. The average number
of male who participated in the long jump and high jump in C is 24. The total
number of male who participated from C is what percent of total number of people
who participated from C?
1) 44.32% 2) 54.32% 3) 57.32% 4) 52.50% 5) 59.32%
129. The number of people who participated in the triple jump from D is 10y. The
number of people who participated in the long jump from G is 25% more than the
number of people who participated from D in the long jump, and the number of

r’s
people who participated in the triple jump from G is 20% more than that of D. If
the total number of people who participated from G is 10% more than that of D,
find the difference between the total number of people who participated in the
high jump from G and D?
1) 7 2) 6 3) 8 4) 9 5) 10
ha
130. From D, 45% of the people participated, from F 25% of the people participated
and from C, 50% of the people participated. If the total number of people who did
not participate from D, C, and F together is [AX + Y] then find the value of A?
1) 233.5 2) 234.5 3) 258.3 4) 267.2 5) 255.7

E
131. 37.5% of the total number of people participated in the triple jump from F. The
ratio of the number of people who participated in the long jump to discuss throw
d
from F is 2:3. The number of people who participated in the high jump from F is
what percent of the number of people who participated in the discus throw from
ee

F?
1) 37.5% 2) 32.5% 3) 36.5% 4) 45.3% 5) 52.26%
132. Three inlet pipes A, B and C and one outlet pipe D are connected to a tank. Pipes
A and B together can fill a tank in 15 minutes, and pipes A and C together can fill
C
the tank in 9.6 minutes. If the ratio of efficiency of pipe B to that of pipe D is 2: 1
and the ratio of efficiency of pipe C to that of pipe D is 5: 1, then in what time pipe
Sr

D alone can empty the 64% part of the full filled tank?
1) 48 minutes 18 seconds 2) 51 minutes 12 seconds
3) 42 minutes 24 seconds 4) 39 minutes 48 seconds 5) 45 minutes 36 seconds
133. Volume of right angle cylinder is equal to volume of cuboid whose length, breadth
and height are 22 cm, B cm and 28 cm respectively and the radius is cylinder is
4 cm less than the breadth of the cuboid, find the value of 2B.
(Where height of cylinder is 18 cm)
C
1) 12 2) 36 3) 24 4) 48 5) 60
134. X purchased two articles P and Q at Rs.5,000 and Rs.2,000 respectively and he
Y
marked article P at Y% above the cost price and he marked article Q at %
3
above the cost price and gave 12.5% and 10% respectively, then find the value of
Y and given that the total profit amount obtained by X is Rs.2160?
1) 25 2) 50 3) 60 4) 65 5) 75
135. A shopkeeper has two jars P and Q containing milk in the ratio 2: 3 respectively.
He mixes '3x' litres and '2x' litres of water in P and Q, respectively, after which
the percentage of water in jar P becomes 80% more than that in jar Q. If mixtures
from jar P and jar Q are then mixed in the ratio of 2: 3, what will be the percentage
of water in the resultant mixture?
1) 32.5 2) 26.4 3) 25 4) 35.8 5) 42.8

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

Direction (136-140): Refer to the graph and answer the given question:
The line graph shows the total number of votes casted (Valid and Invalid),
the table shows the difference between valid and invalid voters, and the ratio of
valid voters to invalid voters in four villages in 2013.

165(y/x)

60x

1380

r’s
1000

ha A B C D

Ratio of valid to Difference between

Villages
invalid voters valid and invalid voters
A - 180
B 4:1 1080
C
D

E 22:3
3:2
Y+160
-
d
136. If the ratio of number of valid votes in village A to that village D is 10 : 33
respectively. Number of male valid votes is 60% of the male invalid votes and
number of female invalid votes in company A is 20 more than the valid female
ee

votes in the company. What is the difference between number of male valid votes
and invalid female votes in village A?
1) 180 2) 140 3) 210 4) 220 5) 150
137. Total number of valid votes in four villages together is ‘a’ and sum of difference
C
between invalid votes in villages C and D together and that of B is ‘b’. Which of
the following can be true?
Sr

A) a + b = 6460 B) b : a = 47 : 127 C) a = 6640 – b

1) Only A 2) Both A and B 3) Only C 4) Either A or C 5) All are true
138. If the total number of voters (valid + invalid) in village E is 181 more than 'a', and
the number of invalid voters in villages B and D together is the same as the valid
voters in village E, then what is the value of ' a ' ? (Note: The number of invalid
voters is equal to the smallest three-digit prime number.)
1) 1600 2) 90 3) 30 4) 40 5) 900
C
139. If in 2013, 60% of the total population of village B cast their votes, and in 2018,
1
the valid votes from village A were 133 % more than the invalid votes cast in
3
2013 from village A. If the number of invalid votes cast in village A in 2018 was
50% of the total population, how many fewer people in village A in 2013 did not
cast their votes compared to 2018?
1) 985 2) 760 3) 1000 4) 960 5) Can’t be determined
140. If in 2018, in village B, two parties, X and Y, contested the election, and the ratio
of invalid votes cast in village B in 2013 to 2018 is 3:1. If the number of invalid
3
votes cast in village B in 2018 is th of the total votes cast that year, and party
50
X won the election by 80 votes, then what is the number of votes party Y received
in village B in 2018?
1) 840 2) 750 3) 900 4) 800 5) 650

18
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

REASONING ABILITY AND COMPUTER APTITUDE

Direction: (141-145) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Eight old friends -A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are invited for get together party
at Bhagi’s functional hall. They are sitting around a dining table. After that only
six of them sit around a table to play cards. Dining table and playing cards table
are in circle form.
B eats Pasta and he is second to the right/left of C in the playing cards
table. In the dining table, the one who eats Veg-biryani sits third to the left of D,
who eats Mater paneer. A neither sits adjacent to B nor G in the playing cards
table. D is to the immediate right of the person who eats Momos in the dining
table. The persons eat Khichdi and Smoked chicken are sitting opposite to each

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other in the dinner table. The one who eats Chicken tikka is not E and doesn’t sit
adjacent to C in the playing cards table. D is one of the persons who play the
game. A eats Momos and faces Pasta in the dining table. In the dining table, one
who eats Chicken tikka is third to the left of C, who is not sitting immediate left
of F in play cards table. C and F are immediate neighbors on both tables. E and G
are immediate neighbors in the dining table. H doesn’t eat Smoked chicken. One

141.
ha
person eats Cheese pizza.
Who amongst the following Eat Smoked chicken?
1) B 2) E 3) G 4) H 5) C
142. Who sits immediate left of the one who eats Veg biryani in the playing cards
table?
1) B 2) E

E 3) G 4) H 5) C
d
143. Who amongst the following are immediate neighbors of the one who eats Cheese
pizza in the playing cards table?
1) A,G 2) A,B 3) F,B 4) G,F 5) A,F
ee

144. Who amongst the following doesn’t play the game?

1) H,E 2) G,H 3) E,G 4) A,E 5) H,F
145. Who sits 2nd left of one who eats Cheese pizza in dining table?
1) One who eats Smoked chicken 2) One who eats Pasta
C
3) One who eats Veg biryani
4) One who eats Momos 5) One who eats Mater paner
Sr

146. Read the given information and answer the question.

A very expensive drug - Xephilia 21 has been launched in country ‘A’ last year for
the treatment of a life threatening disease- ‘Zenpholis’. It was observed that the
sales of the said drug had skyrocketed in six months after its launch. A recent
survey also suggests that the sales of all other drugs for treating Zenpholis have
dropped by around 40% since this drug has been launched.
Which of the following may not be a reason for such high sales of the said drug in
country A ?
1) At present, Xephilia 21 is the most effective drug available in country ‘A’ for
C
the treatment of Zenpholis.
2) Xephilia 21 has a higher curing rate as compared to any other drug available
in country A for the treatment of Zenpholis.
3) When Xephilia 21 was launched, many severe cases of Zenpholis in country ‘A’
were given the drug and they recovered miraculously.
4) Although Xephilia 21 takes longer to treat patients as compared to other drugs
available in the market, it has a lower disease relapse rate as compared to any
other drug available in country A.
5) Xephilia 21 is most effective when administered intravenous (I.V.) as the
enzymes in the stomach are likely to break it down if administered orally.
Direction: (147-151) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
147. Statements: A few Bats are Balls Only a few Wickets are Balls
Conclusions: I. All Balls being Wickets is a possibility
II. Some Bats are not Balls III. Some Wickets are Bats
1) Only I follows 2) Both I and II follow
3) All I, II and III follows 4) Only II follows 5) Only III follows

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

148. Statements: Only a few Students are Girls Only a few Girls are Painters
Conclusions: I. Some Students not Girls is a possibility
II. Some Painters not Girls is a possibility
III. Some Painters are not Students
1) Only I follow 2) Both I and II follow
3) All I, II and III follows 4) Only II follows 5) Only I and III follows
149. Statements: All Pencils are Pens Only a few Pens are Erasers
Conclusions: I. All Pencils being Erasers is a possibility
II. Some Pencils are Erasers
III. All Erasers being Pens is not a possibility
1) Only I follows 2) Both I and II follow
3) All I, II and III follows 4) Only II follows 5) Only III follows

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150. Statements: Only few Fans are Bottles No Bottles are Books
Conclusions: I. All Fans being Books is a possibility
II. All Books being Fans is a possibility
III. The Fans which are not Bottles being books is a possibility
1) Only I follows 2) Both I and III follow
3) All I, II and III follows 4) Only II follows 5) Both II and III follow
151.
ha
Statements: Only a few Mobiles are Pages Some Pages are Boxes
Conclusions: I. All Mobiles being Pages is a possibility
II. Some Boxes being Mobiles is a possibility
III. All Pages being Mobiles is a possibility
1) All follow
3) Only II and III follows

E 2) Either I or III follows

4) Only II follows 5) Only I and II follows
d
Direction: (152-156) Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Ten friends i.e. Aaron, Kaira, Alisha, Nagesh, Madhu, Rajan, Induj, Balraj,
ee

Lalit and Tanav sit in a restaurant for dinner purpose on two parallel rows. Each
row contains six seats. At row 1, Nagesh, Madhu, Lalit, Alisha and Tanav sit,
facing towards South and one seat is vacant. Similarly Rajan, Kaira, Balraj,
Aaron and Induj sit at row 2, facing North and again one seat is vacant. They
have different branded mobiles i.e. Honor, Realme, Vivo, Oppo, Redmi -7, Samsung,
C
Nokia, Speria, Apple and Panasonic but not in same order.
The one who has Samsung sits at second position of a row from left end.
Sr

There are two persons sit between Aaron and vacant seat, which is immediate
neighbor of the one who faces the one who has Samsung. The one who has Honor
does not sit at any extreme end. The one who faces the vacant seat of row 2, sits
second left of vacant seat of row 1. There are three seats between Alisha and
Tanav. Tanav faces the one who sits 3rd right of Kaira, who has Apple. The one,
who has OPPO, is immediate neighbor of vacant seat. The one who has Speria
mobile faces the one who sits second to the left of the one who has Panasonic
mobile. There is no friend sit between Rajan and the one who has Panasonic
C
mobile. Balraj sits second to the left of Induj. The one who has Honor mobile
faces the one who sits third to right of Madhu. The one who has Nokia mobile
faces the one who has Vivo mobile, who sits second to the right of vacant seat.
Lalit faces the vacant seat and does not have Redmi-7 mobile.
152. Who amongst the following has Panasonic mobile?
1) Madhu 2) Alisha 3) Aaron 4) Rajan 5) Induj
153. How many friends sit between the one who has Realme and the one who faces
the one who has Vivo mobile?
1) Four 2) Five 3) Three 4) One 5) Two
154. Who amongst the following faces the one who sits immediate right of the vacant
seat of row 1?
1) Rajan 2) Aaron 3) Kaira 4) Balraj 5) Induj
155. If Nagesh is related to Redmi-7 and Tanav is related to Balraj, then who is
related to Kaira?
1) Redmi -7 2) Induj 3) Nokia 4) Lalit 5) Aaron
156. Who amongst the following has Realme?
1) Lalit 2) Induj 3) Madhu 4) Nagesh 5) Aaron

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

157. Read the following information carefully and answer the question.
In an accident involving two cars, while car A suffered serious dents to its
exteriors, car B was largely intact without even a single scratch. It can therefore,
be concluded that one should go for car B for better safety.
Which of the following statements proves that the conclusion is wrongly drawn
from the given circumstance ?
1) While all occupants of car B suffered minor cuts and bruises, two occupants of
Car A suffered from fractures
2) Car A’s interiors are fitted with only two airbags while car B is fitted with six
airbags including two sideward airbags for better protection
3) While the driver of Car B was driving at 85 kmph, well under the specified
speed limit of 100 kmph, the driver of Car A was driving at 90 kmph

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4) The more the dents on a car post impact, the more the energy of the crash is
dissipated away from the occupants onto the frame of the car itself
5) Occupants of both front and the rear seats in both the cars were wearing seat
belts at the time of impact
Direction: (158-161) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
ha
Seven persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V have different height and weight
such that the tallest one is not the heaviest one.
S is taller than P but not heavier than V. Q is heavier than T but not as
much tall as R. U is heavier than Q and T but shorter than R and Q. S is not
taller than U. V is not taller than P and also not heavier than T. P is not lighter

E
than R, who is heavier than Q. R is shorter than only one person. U is not the
second heaviest and is lighter than R.
d
158. How many persons are there between S and T according to height?
1) Three 2) Five 3) Four 4) Two 5) One
159. Which of the following person got same height and weight?
ee

1) S 2) T 3) P 4) R 5) Q
160. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way hence form a group which one
doesn’t belongs to that group?
1) T-P 2) Q-U 3) U-Q 4) V-S 5) R-Q
161. How many persons are shorter than Q?
C
1) Three 2) Two 3) One 4) No one 5) Four
Direction: (162-166) Read the following information carefully and answer the
Sr

questions given below.

Sara, Veer, Rudra, Arya, Naina, Rahul and Fatima are working in Mumbai
in the same company. They have to go seven different branches, i.e. Pune, Nashik,
Mumbai, Surat, Delhi, Kochi and Bhopal but not necessarily in the same order.
They go there on different days of the week from Monday to Sunday but not
necessarily in the same order. They go there by different mode of transport viz –
Bicycle, Metro, Auto, Train, Car, Motor Cycle and Cab but not necessarily in the
same order.
C
Rudra goes to Pune but not on Tuesday. Fatima goes on Monday but not to
Mumbai and Bhopal. Rahul goes to Delhi on Friday. The one who goes to Pune goes
by Car. Veer goes to Surat on Wednesday. Two people go on the days between the
days on which the one who go by Car and the one who goes by Motor Cycle to
different branches. Arya, who goes by Motor Cycle but does not go to Pune or Mumbai
and goes on the next day of the day on which Naina goes, who travels to Kochi. The
one who goes by Train goes on the day just before the day on which Rudra goes and
three people go on the days between the days on which the one who goes by Bicycle
and the one who goes by Cab travel. The one who goes by Metro goes just before the
day on which the one who goes by Bicycle goes and the one who goes by Auto goes
after the day on which the person who goes by Bicycle goes.
162. Which of the following combinations of person-City-day and mode of transport is
correct?
1) Fatima – Nashik – Wednesday- Auto 2) Sara – Nashik – Monday – Metro
3) Fatima – Mumbai – Monday – Car
4) Fatima – Bhopal – Sunday – Motor Cycle 5) Veer –Surat – Wednesday - Train
163. Rudra goes to the company branch on which day?
1) Saturday 2) Sunday 3) Tuesday 4) Thursday 5) Monday

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

164. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they from a group.
Which one of the following does not belongs to that group?
1) Fatima, Bicycle 2) Surat, Car 3) Mumbai, Train 4) Rudra, Auto 5) Naina, Cab
165. Which of the following person goes by Metro?
1) Naina 2) Arya 3) Rahul 4) Rudra 5) Fatima
166. If Fatima is related to Surat- Auto in the same way as Veer is related to Delhi-
Motor [Link] the same pattern, find out Sara is related to which of the
following?
1) Surat – Auto 2) Nashik – Train 3) Pune – Car 4) Mumbai – Bicycle 5) Pune – Cab
167. Read the following information and answer the question :
"Flybest airlines reduced its airfare after the launch of new airlines-Mefly in the
market". - a statement.

r’s
Which of the following can be a reason for the reduction in airfare by Flybestairlines
?
1) Mefly airlines has adopted a pricing policy as per industry norms.
2) Flybest airlines is worried about losing its customers to Mefly airlines.
3) A good number of Flybest’s crew members switched from Flybest to Mefly as
they found Mefly more lucrative.
ha
4) Flybest airline's profit increased by 15% in previous financial year.
5) Maximum number of passengers are expected to avail the discount given by
Flybest airlines.
Direction: (168-170) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.

E
! V 7 N @ Y 9 W # M $ K 2 L % S ^ X 5 T & A * H 8 B Z 1 E 3
Q 4 X 6 C
d
168. If all the letters are arranged in the alphabetical order from the left end in the
same place where the alphabets are originally arranged then find out which is
sixth to the right of M?
ee

1) * 2) & 3) N 4) Q 5) S
169. If all the digits are arranged in descending order from left-end and all the letters
are arranged in reverse alphabetical order from right-end, then find out, what is
the position of “&” from right-end?
C
1) 19th 2) 18th 3) 20th 4) 17th 5) 21st
170. If all the digits and vowels are deleted from above arrangement, then which one
Sr

is sixth to the right of 8th from the left-end?

1) L 2) V 3) X 4) ^ 5) S
Direction: (171-175) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Eight members of a family are sitting in a straight line facing North direction.
In this family, all the persons related to P. each couple has at-least one child. P’s
Son is sitting second to the right of P’s Wife. Only three persons sitting between
P’s Grand-daughter and P’s Grand-son and either of the persons one of them
sitting at one of the ends of the line. P’s Daughter is sitting an immediate
C
neighbor of P’s Wife and P’s Son-in-law. P is sitting to the right of his Grand-son.
P is an immediate neighbor of his Daughter-in-law. Only one of the couples is
sitting each other. P’s Son’s Nephew is sitting immediate to P’s son. P’s Grand-
daughter is sitting left of P’s Daughter.
171. Who is sitting fourth to the right of P’s Daughter?
1) P 2) P’s Wife 3) P’s Son 4) P’s Daughter 5) P’s Grand-Son
172. Who is sitting at extreme ends of the line?
1) Grand-Son 2) Daughter 3) Son 4) Son-in-law 5) Daughter-in-law
173. What is the positionof P with respect to his Grand-Daughter?
1) Immediate right 2) Second to the right
3) Third to the right 4) Fourth to the left 5) Sixth to the right
174. How many persons sitting between P’s Daughter-in-law and P’s Son-in-law?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
175. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way hence form a group which one
doesn’t belongs to that group according to the sitting arrangement?
1) P – P’s Grand-son 2) P’s Daughter – P’s Grand-daughter
3) P – P’s Son 4) P – P’s Wife 5) P – P’s Son-in-law

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

176. Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.
Market analysts have predicted an increase in the number of private cars by
about 20% in city A. The civic authorities are worried as there would be increased
traffic jams and pollution throughout the week in the city.
Which of the following situations may weaken the prediction made by the market
analysts ?
1) Many environmentalists and NGOs are protesting against the increased
pollution in city A because of the increased number of private vehicles
2) Company A, a popular automobile manufacturer is facing some legal issues
and has to temporarily stop producing cars
3) The prices of fuel increased a little more than what was estimated by economic
analysts

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4) There has been a 5% increase from last year in the number of accidents
reported on the highway of city A
5) 45% of the parking space in three major malls of the city is being converted
into banquet halls
Direction: (177-181) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given question.
ha
Ten persons buy ten different items i.e. Pen, TV, Phone, Bike, Car, Box,
Table, Chain, Pencil and Bag in different months from January to October in the
same year but not necessarily in the same order.
G buys Chain and only one person buys after G. Four persons buy between

E
G and D, who buys Bag. A buys Phone in the month which having least number
of days. Three persons buy between A and the one who buys Pencil. H does not
d
buy Pen. The number of persons buy between G and the one who buys Pencil as
same as A and I, who buys TV. No person buys after C, who doesn’t buy Pen and
Bike. E buys before D but not immediately. The ones who buy Table and Box buy
ee

immediately each other. The persons buy before H is same as buy after B, who
buys Box. J does not buy before F.
177. Who buys immediately before the one who buys Pencil?
1) D 2) J 3) F 4) I 5) H
178. H buys in which of the following month and what he buys?
C
1) March, Car 2) August, Bike
3) March, Bike 4) February, Phone 5) March, Phone
Sr

179. How many persons buy after the one who buys Bag?
1) Five 2) Four 3) Six 4) Seven 5) Three
180. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way so form a group, which of the
following doesn’t belong to that group?
1) H 2) J 3) B 4) G 5) E
181. How many persons buy between A and the one who buys Chain?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five 5) Six
Direction: (182-185) Study the following information carefully and answer the
C
questions given below.
RCP AND KUV TBS HPX DGN
182. If the first letter of all words changed to immediate next letter and the last letter
of all words changed to previous letter according to English alphabetical order,
then find how many words having two vowels?
1) Three 2) Two 3) One 4) Four 5) Five
183. If each vowel is replaced with immediate next letter and each consonant is
replaced with immediate previous letter, then how many words formed without a
vowel?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
184. If all the letters arranged in alphabetical order within the word and then arrange
in an alphabetical order from right end then find which one is third from the left
end?
1) DGN 2) HPX 3) RCP 4) AND 5) KUV
185. How many meaningful words can be formed if we add letter P in every word
starting?
1) One 2) Three 3) Two 4) None 5) More than three

23
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2026 MT - 2

186. Irked with acute water shortage residents of Jhumpa district staged a peaceful
protest at the water supply department of the Municipal Corporation’s office on
Friday
Which of the following will strengthen the step taken by the residents of
Jhumpadistrict ?
1) The residents of Jhumpa district are known for making mountains out of
molehills
2) The government is planning to send tankers of water to districts which face
problem of water shortage
3) The meteorology department has predicted that this year the country may
experience less-than-normal rainfall which may lead to problem of water shortage
4) The local police arrested two Municipality Officials who were involved in illegally

r’s
supplying water from Jhumpa district to the nearby two star hotels
5) People from Jhumpa district are becoming more non-violent and adopting more
silent methods of protesting in order to express their discontent
Direction: (187-190) Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
Input: he 16 went 78 to 41 seat 32 alone 65
ha
Step 1: alone he went 78 to 41 seat 32 65 16
Step 2: alone went he 78 to 41 seat 65 16 32
Step 3: alone went seat he 78 to 65 16 32 41
Step 4: alone went seat to he 78 16 32 41 65

E
Step 5: alone went seat to he 16 32 41 65 78
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
d
questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: all 12 29 of 71 the 53 above 61 super
187. What will be the position of ‘12’ in the last but one step?
ee

1) Seventh from the right 2) Sixth from the left 3) Fourth from the left
4) Extreme right end 5) Seventh from the left
188. Which word/number would be the fourth from the left end in step III?
1) the 2) all 3) 61 4) of 5) 12
C
189. In step 4, if ‘super’ is related to ‘61’ and ‘the’ is related to ‘29’ in a certain way,
then ‘all’ is related to which of the following?
Sr

1) 12 2) above 3) 71 4) 29 5) the
190. How many words/ numbers are between ‘all’ and ‘29’ in step 2?
1) One 2) Five 3) Three 4) Two 5) Six
KEY
1.3 2.1 3.4 4.5 5.1 6.3 7.3 8.3 9.5 10.4
11.2 12.3 13.3 14.1 15.3 16.1 17.5 18.4 19.3 20.1
21.1 22.2 23.5 24.3 25.2 26.3 27.2 28.3 29.4 30.5
C
31.2 32.1 33.3 34.4 35.1 36.2 37.5 38.1 39.5 40.4
41.4 42.4 43.1 44.3 45.3 46.4 47.1 48.3 49.3 50.3
SCAN QR FOR
51.2 52.2 53.2 54.2 55.1 56.2 57.3 58.2 59.1 60.1
OUR RESULTS
61.1 62.1 63.1 64.1 65.2 66.2 67.2 68.2 69.1 70.1
71.1 72.3 73.3 74.2 75.2 76.2 77.3 78.2 79.1 80.2
81.3 82.4 83.3 84.4 85.2 86.3 87.4 88.5 89.1 90.4
91.5 92.3 93.4 94.5 95.3 96.1 97.4 98.3 99.5 100.2
101.3 102.1 103.5 104.4 105.3 106.4 107.2 108.3 109.2 110.4
111.4 112.2 113.1 114.1 115.1 116.5 117.2 118.1 119.1 120.4
121.5 122.1 123.4 124.2 125.3 126.3 127.3 128.4 129.2 130.1
131.1 132.2 133.2 134.3 135.2 136.2 137.4 138.4 139.5 140.3
141.2 142.1 143.5 144.1 145.1 146.5 147.1 148.4 149.1 150.5
151.3 152.5 153.4 154.2 155.4 156.1 157.3 158.1 159.4 160.5
161.5 162.5 163.4 164.5 165.5 166.5 167.2 168.5 169.3 170.4
171.1 172.5 173.5 174.5 175.4 176.5 177.4 178.3 179.3 180.4
181.5 182.3 183.2 184.1 185.4 186.5 187.5 188.2 189.1 190.5

24