WEEK 1

1. The traditional view is that justice means to give each person his due. (T/F)
2. Access to justice means access to courts. (T/F)
3. There are a number of impediments in access to justice. (T/F)
4. Without access to justice, the rule of law is meaningful. (T/F)
5. Alternative Dispute Resolution systems are unimportant for effective access to justice. (T/F)
6. The Legal Aid under Kerala rules did not include payment of fees to counsel. (T/F)
7. Outline of a scheme for Legal Aid to the poor in 1960 proposed for the constitution of the State Legal Aid Committee,
District Legal Aid Committee and Taluka or Tehsil Legal Aid Committee. (T/F)
8. the Government of India in which year wrote to provincial governments to provide free Legal Aid to poor people in both
civil and criminal matters?

a) 1946

b) 1967

c) 1978

d) 1988

9. under which chairmanship, the Government of Bombay appointed a committee to consider the question of grant of legal
aid in civil & criminal matters?

a) Justice Chandrachud

b) Justice Khanna

c) Justice P.N. Bhagwati

d) Justice Deepak Mishra

10. Gujarat committee report suggested remission of court fees instead of providing the necessary funds to the assisted
person for payment of court fees. (T/F)
11. The State Legal Aid Committee may request social service organisations like the Rotary Club, the Lions Club and also
leadership organisations like the Junior Chamber to organise _____with a view to collecting moneys for the Legal Aid
Funds

a) entertainment programmes

b) cultural programmes

c) nukkadnatak

d) legal awareness programmes

12. Gujarat committee report suggested that the State may issue Legal Aid stamps of the denomination of ___

a) Rupees 5

b) Rupees 1

c) Rupees 2

d) Rupees 4

13. EeveryVakalatnama should bear_______

a) usual court fee stamp & legal aid stamp of the domination of rupees 1

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 b) usual court fee stamp only

c) legal aid stamp of the domination of rupees 2

d) legal aid stamp of the domination of rupees 4

14. Who was appointed as a chairman of committee which was constituted in 1973 by Central Government

a) Justice PN Bhagwati

b) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer

c) Justice Khanna

d) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud

15. according to the committee, which act should be amended to declare judgment debtor insolvent on non-payment of
decree amount?

a) Provincial Insolvency act

b) Bankruptcy code

c) Civil procedure code

d) Banking regulation act

16. whosoever law graduate intended to join bar must spend at least ___ of internship in legal service organisation.

a) 1 year

b) six months

c) three months

d) seven months

17. a monthly honorarium of ____ to be given in order to be eligible for enrolment as an advocate to law graduate.

a) a monthly honorarium of ____ to be given in order to be eligible for enrolment as an advocate to law graduate.

b) 300 rs.

c) 400 rs.

d) 100 rs.

18. The expert committee report suggested that for the financial assistance of Legal Aid program State should provide funds
for legal services just as it provides for other welfare activities, including medicare. (T/F)
19. The expert committee stated that the role of voluntary professional and social Welfare agencies could be ignored in the
successful implementation of legal services programs. (T/F)
20. The Free Legal Aid Bill, 1970 aimed at enacting a law for Legal Aid to poor and needy persons involved in criminal
cases. (T/F)

WEEK 2

1. Informal justice system applies non state methods like conciliation. (T/F)
2. In the case of criminal matters, first appeal court is ___

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 a) District Court

b) High Court

c) Supreme Court

d) Session court

3. the Supreme Court of India is located in _____

a) Bombay

b) Delhi

c) Bangalore

d) Jaipur

4. The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the____ in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

a) Governor

b) President

c) Prime minister

d) Attorney general of India

5. A High Court judge holds office till he attains the age of ___years.

a) 65

b) 60

c) 62

d) 64

6. In which article of Indian Constitution, the High court has power to supervise all its subordinate courts?

a) article 226

b) article 32

c) article 30

d) article 227

7. which section of Civil Procedure Code provides that a court will have jurisdiction only over those suits, the amount or
value of the subject matter of which does not exceed the pecuniary limits of its jurisdiction?

a) sec 6

b) sec 7

c) sec 8

d) sec 9
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8. Crime is a wrong against_____

a) the individual

b) the victim

c) the guardian of victim

d) the community

9. The Supreme Court has benches all across India. (T/F)

10. In the absence of any certificate from the High Court, a person may appeal to the Supreme court by filing a Special
Leave Petition (SLP). (T/F)
11. Example for Quasi judicial authorities.

a) JMFC

b) District Court

c) High Court

d) Service Tribunal

12. which one of the orders of CPC laid down effective mode of service of notice?

a) order 6

b) order 7

c) order 5

d) order 11

13. which amendment act brought to the farmers the right to hold property and acquire own property?

a) 1st amendment act

b) 44th amendment act

c) 42nd amendment act

d) 24th amendment act

14. “Equal pay for equal work” is enshrined as___

a) fundamental right

b) fundamental duty

c) constitutional right

d) Directive principal of state policy

15. in which case Supreme Court held the right to a dignified life to all the workers who are in the unorganized sector, and
have been physically and mentally exploited over the years

a) Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India

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 b) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan

c) Keshvananda Bharti v. Union of India

d) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

16. Constitution forbids the practice of _____ and made it a criminal offence.

a) Exploitation

b) Prostitution

c) Untouchability

d) Adultery

17. where the practice, procedure, roles, functions and responsibilities of the police officer are mentioned?

a) the police manuals

b) Indian penal code

c) criminal procedure code

d) civil procedure code

18. Investigation should be completed within the ___ & ____ days.

a) sixty & seventy days

b) sixty & ninety days

c) fifty & fifty days

d) fifty & ninety days

19. according to the preamble of Indian Constitution, the sole power has been vested in_____

a) the people of India

b) the Constitution

c) the government

d) the judiciary

20. people have right to address their grievances and a right to pursue their legal remedies _____

a) in court proceedings or other informal proceedings

b) before government

c) before common public

d) before president

WEEK 3

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1. The dispute resolution process in the Early Vedic Period was governed by the principles of equity and fairness. (T/F)
2. In ancient times the role of the Panchayat was not only to facilitate to adjudicate also. (T/F)
3. how many members are there in Panchayat?

a) 5 people

b) 4 people

c) 2 people

d) 15 people

4. the proceedings in Panchayat system always conducted in ___

a) private places

b) camera proceedings

c) in court

d) in public places

5. Mahila Panchayat consist to handle matters related to

a) money matters

b) criminal matters

c) women related civil or matrimonial matters

d) property matters

6. which one of them considered as ‘Kangaroo Courts’?

a) Supreme Court

b) khap panchayat

c) panchayat

d) high court

7. which body was considered as illegal body?

a) Supreme Court

b) khap panchayat

c) panchayat

d) high court

8. in which case, the Supreme Court has given explicit instructions to the local bodies including the administration to
immediately bring an end to these bodies, and to re-establish the rule of law in these areas.

a) Arumugam Servai Case

b) Shah bano case

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 c) Vishaka case

d) NandaniSatpati case

9. Panchayat Raj Administration has now achieved a constitutional sanctity by virtue of _____

a) 91st & 92nd Constitutional Amendment act

b) 73rd and the 74th Amendment Acts

c) 44th Constitutional amendment act

d) 42nd Constitutional amendment act

10. the legislatures introduced ADRS as a part of mandatory civil procedure through____

a) CPC Amendment Act, 2002

b) CPC Amendment Act, 1939

c) CPC Amendment Act, 2000

d) CPC Amendment Act, 1999

11. Sections __and ___ of CPC enable the High Courts to make Rules

a) 25, 30

b) 122, 125

c) 29, 30

d) 132, 151

12. who is not eligible to be appointed as mediator?

a) Retired Judges of the High Court

b) Retired District and Sessions Judges or retired Judges of the City Civil Court or Courts of equivalent status

c) Retired Judges of the Supreme Court of India

d) any legal practitioner with experience of two years

13. the mediator is bound by the

a) Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

b) the Evidence Act, 1872

c) principles of fairness and justice

d) criminal procedure code

14. process of mediation should be completed within the period of__

a) ninety days

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 b) sixty days

c) thirty days

d) forty-five days

15. Appointment of mediator could be done from the panel list prepared by the Court or any person outside the enlisted
panel. (T/F)
16. Disputes like matrimonial matters, criminal, insolvency matters anti-competition matters are arbitrable. (T/F)
17. Under sec 8 of arbitration and conciliation Act the judicial authority can exercise suo moto power to refer the parties to
arbitration. (T/F)
18. Chief Justice means Chief Justice of India in -

a) International commercial arbitration

b) Domestic arbitration

c) National arbitration

d) Commercial arbitration

19. The arbitral award need not give reasons. (T/F)

20. Composition of Arbitral Tribunal must adhere to the Arbitration Agreement except -

a) When parties agree

b) When arbitrator disregards

c) To fulfil the requirement of law

d) Chief Justice

WEEK 4

1. “Laws and justice systems provide a starting point for individuals to claim their entitlements and rights”. (T/F)
2. The International Bill of Human Rights consists of UDHR and the ICCPR. (T/F)
3. The right of access to justice has been expressly mentioned in all of the human rights documents. (T/F)
4. Golder v. U.K is a significant decision that explains the right of access to justice. (T/F)
5. The International Criminal Court is an international tribunal that tries individuals for genocide and crimes against
humanity. (T/F)
6. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution provides that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law. (T/F)
7. The right to free legal service is not an essential ingredient of ‘just, fair and reasonable’ procedure. (T/F)
8. The magistrate is under an obligation to inform the accused about the right to free legal aid. (T/F)
9. To provide free legal aid in true sense we need to have well trained lawyers willing to perform free legal aid. (T/F)
10. Under Article 282 which provides that Union may make grants for any public purpose, the Union cannot give grant for
providing free legal aid. (T/F)
11. Courts are not equal to all, as they are resource based. (T/F)
12. Order 53 CPC is an enabling provision which allows filing of a suit by an indigent person without paying the court fee at
the initial stage. (T/F)
13. Section 89 of the CPC is one of the methods adopted by the CPC to avoid litigation. (T/F)
14. CPC does not provide that no suit shall be instituted against government or public officer unless two months’ notice has
been delivered. (T/F)
15. As per the CrPC, the accused enjoy the right to be represented by the pleader of his choice. (T/F)
16. Public Interest Litigation is a court proceeding filed by any public spirited person to voice out the interest of the general
public. (T/F)
17. Directive Principles are justiciable. (T/F)
18. Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice Krishna Iyer were key in bringing PILs to India. (T/F)
19. Public Interest Litigation is a cooperative litigation. (T/F)
20. S. P. Gupta v. Union of India is not related to Public Interest Litigations. (T/F)

WEEK 5
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1. National Legal Services Authority is the apex body for providing legal services under the Legal Services Authorities Act,
1987. (T/F)
2. People who are not from legal background have also been given an opportunity to be a part of the National Legal
Services Authority. (T/F)
3. One of the functions of the Legal Services Authority Act is encourage the settlement of disputes by way of negotiations,
arbitration and conciliation. (T/F)
4. Any judge of the High Court of the State can be the Patron-in-Chief of the State Legal Service Authority. (T/F)
5. The Taluka Legal services Authority works at the grass root level. (T/F)
6. Where an application is filed by the litigant to sue as an indigent person, it is the duty of the Court either to send the
matter to the concerned Legal Service Authority/Committee under the 1987 Act or the concerned authority under Rule 18
of the Order 33 of the Civil Procedure Code for grant of free legal services. (T/F)
7. The Legal Services Authority Act was enacted in furtherance of the objects and the purposes mentioned in Article 39-A
of the Constitution of India. (T/F)
8. One object of the LSA is to organize Lok Adalats to secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a
basis of equal opportunity. (T/F)
9. Huge and heavy expenses in our current justice system is not a reason why we need the Legal Services Authority Act.
(T/F)
10. Magna Carta in its 40th para has inscribed, "To no one will we sell, to no one will we refuse or delay right of justice."
(T/F)
11. Alternate dispute resolution mechanism like Lok Adalat is very beneficial for both litigant as well as court. (T/F)
12. Lok Adalat means “People’s Court”. (T/F)
13. The provisions of the Court Fees Act, 1870 are applicable to Lok Adalats. (T/F)
14. The award of the Lok Adalat is final and binding on the parties to the dispute. (T/F)
15. The Lok Adalat has jurisdiction in even non-compoundable matters. (T/F)
16. The Chairman of a Permanent Lok Adalat is either a district judge, additional district judge or a judicial officer higher
than the rank of a district judge. (T/F)
17. When the Chairman of a Permanent Lok Adalat is unable to discharge his functions owing to absence, illness or any
other cause, it is dissolved. (T/F)
18. A person who has been adjudged an insolvent may be removed from the office of a Permanent Lok Adalat. (T/F)
19. The working days of the Permanent Lok Adalat shall be the same as that of the Central Government but not State
Government. (T/F)
20. The Permanent Lok Adalat shall not have jurisdiction in the matter where the value of the property in dispute exceeds ten
lakh rupees. (T/F)

WEEK 6

1. Can magistrate of first class stop the proceedings in the interest of justice?

a) Yes

b) No

2. Alternative Dispute Resolution can be used at any time even when the case is pending before the court of law. (T/F)
3. Alternative Dispute Resolution can be terminated at any stage by any of the disputant parties. (T/F)
4. Section 74 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act makes the settlement agreement reached with the help of parties
enforceable as decree of court of law. (T/F)
5. Arbitration is the source of other alternatives not only in the substance but also in the procedural working of alternative
methods of dispute resolution. (T/F)
6. Conciliation is a procedure in which a neutral individual is appointed in order to assist the parties in reaching a mutually
satisfactory resolution of disputes. (T/F)
7. Right to speedy trial flowing from Article 21 is available at the stage of investigation, enquiry, appeal, revision and re-
trial. (T/F)
8. if a dispute referred for judicial settlement U/S 89 CPC, the court shall refer the same to a suitable institution or person
and such institution or person shall be deemed to be a lok adalat and all the provisions of Legal Services Authorities Act,
1987 shall apply as if the disputes were referred to a Lok Adalat under the provisions of that Act. (T/F)
9. where there is no pre-existing arbitration agreement between the parties, can court refer the suit to arbitration under
Section 89.

a) Yes

b) No

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10. Except arbitration other alternate dispute resolution mechanism are non-adjudicatory in nature so cases referred to such
forum does not go out of the stream of court. (T/F)
11. In every suit or proceeding to which the Government or a public officer acting in his official capacity, is a party, it shall
be the duty of the court to make in the first instance, every Endeavour, where it is possible to do so consistently with the
nature and circumstances of the case, to assist the parties in arriving at a settlement in respect of the subject matter of the
suit. (T/F)
12. In every suit or proceeding under order 32 A Rule 4 It shall be open to the court to secure the services of any person for
assisting court preferably a woman where available and such person should be related to parties. (T/F)
13. Settlement of Special suit is considered as decree of a civil court. (T/F)
14. the provisions of Order 32 Rule 4 shall apply to a suit or proceeding for:

a) matrimonial relief

b) A suit or proceeding for declaration as to the validity of the marriage

c) Matrimonial status of any person

d) A suit or proceeding in relation to the guardianship of the person

e) Only C

f) A & B

g) All are correct

15. Appeal can be filed against the decree/settlement of special suit. (T/F)
16. Summary procedure in suit based on negotiable instruments or where the plaintiff seeks to recover debt or liquidated
amount. (T/F)
17. The provisions of clause 7 are based on the recommendation of the 129th Law Commission report and Justice Malimath
Committee report. (T/F)
18. Where a dispute has been referred for arbitration or conciliation U/S 89 CPC, the provisions of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996 shall apply as if the proceedings for arbitration or conciliation were referred for settlement under
the provisions of that Act. (T/F)
19. What is the stipulated time period to apply for Leave to Defend in the Summary Procedure?

a) 7 Days

b) 10 Days

c) 15 Days

d) 21 Days

20. Which of the following cases were not considered suitable for the Alternative Dispute Resolution Process?

a) Representative suits under Order 1 Rule 8 Civil Procedure Code

b) All cases relating to trade, commerce, and contracts

c) All cases arising from strained or soured relationships

d) All consumer disputes

WEEK 7

1. A judicial writ issued by a superior court to inferior court restraining from continuing the proceedings is known as

a) Certiorari

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 b) Prohibition

c) Mandamus

d) Quo warranto

2. Traditionally power to issue writs is vested with

a) King

b) Supreme Court

c) Legislature

d) Any Court

3. What is the meaning of Quo Warranto?

a) You must have the body

b) by what authority

c) by what law

d) by what warrant

4. Supreme Court can issue writs under Article

a) 21

b) 32

c) 226

d) 227

5. Purpose of issuing writ of Certiorari is to

a) Release the person

b) to stop the public authority from abusing the power

c) to verify the qualifications

d) to keep the inferior courts within the limits of Jurisdiction

6. In which case the Supreme Court invented Curative writ?

a) Sunil batra case

b) Maneka Gandhi’s case

c) Rupa Ashok Hurra case

d) Kanusanyal case

7. Writ of Certiorari cannot be issued against

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 a) Coordinate courts

b) Superior courts

c) one bench to another bench in the same court

d) All the above

8. Quo warranto could be claimed only when the person assumed the office. (T/F)
9. Certiorari cannot be issued when the proceedings in the lower court already completed. (T/F)
10. Mandamus can be issued against Legislature to direct for making law. (T/F)
11. Top most All India Service includes

a) IFS

b) IPS

c) IAS

d) Group A

12. Lowest State Service post is Group III cadre. (T/F)

13. Principles of Natural Law are

a) Codified

b) Not Codified

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

14. Revisionary powers are vested in the hands of

a) Prime Minister

b) Chief Minister

c) President

d) Defense Minister

15. Aggrieved central government employee can prefer an appeal to ____.

a) CAT

b) MAT

c) SAT

d) BAT

16. The word ‘natural justice’ is derived from the Roan word_________

a) Justice

b) Equality

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 c) Jus Naturale

d) Dharma

17. In preliminary investigation the outside authority does not include

a) CBI

b) CVC

c) PSC

d) SBI

18. Principles of Natural Justice accepted in the days of

a) Kautilya

b) Adam

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

19. Which proviso of the Indian Constitution deals with Doctrine of Pleasure?

a) Article 309

b) Article 310

c) Article 320

d) Article 315

20. Doctrine of pleasure is adopted from

a) USA

b) UK

c) USSR

d) Germany

WEEK 8(I)

1. Access to justice is believed to have originated during the reign of Henry II in the 12th century. In case of Public Interest
Litigation, court does not insist on-

a) Henry II

b) Henry III

c) Henry IV

d) Henry IV

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2. By providing free legal aid to weaker persons, the law seeks to bring the weaker party at par with other litigants. Here
weaker party is-

a) who is able to bear the cost of litigation

b) who is not able to bear the cost of litigation

c) who has properties to bear the cost of litigation

d) who has sufficient income to bear the cost of litigation

3. the lawyers provided by the State should go up to how many cases free of cost?

a) 7 cases

b) 6 cases

c) 5 cases

d) 10 cases

4. the ___ Law Commission submitted report in 1958.

a) 10th

b) 15th

c) 12th

d) 14th

5. Which programmes should be built into the Legal Aid Scheme itself whereby such persons when they come out of the
criminal judicial process are given proper counselling, correctional treatment and vocational guidance?

a) psychiatric and rehabilitation program

b) cultural and social program

c) entertainment program

d) legal awareness program

6. In which year Law reform and legal service committee constituted by Government of Rajasthan?

a) August 1973

b) March 1999

c) April 1994

d) September 1999

7. the applicant would have to satisfy what kind of tests for availing the benefit of free Legal Aid.

a) reasonableness of suit test only

b) strict means test and reasonableness of suit test

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 c) strict means test, prima facie case test and reasonableness of suit test

8. If the Conciliation Cell is found to work satisfactorily the scope of its jurisdiction can be expanded by a suitable
amendment in the___

a) Criminal procedure code

b) Indian penal code

c) Code of civil procedure

d) insolvency code

9. In the case of criminal matters, first appeal court is ___

a) District Court

b) High Court

c) Supreme Court

d) Session court

10. The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the____ in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

a) Governor

b) President

c) Prime minister

d) Attorney general of India

11. revision powers are available under which section of criminal procedure code to the parties?

a) section 397

b) section 400

c) section 300

d) section 250

12. By virtue of the lack of access to education, the people are not even made aware of their rights that are constitutionally
sanctioned to them. (T/F)
13. Panchayat works on__

a) codified rules & regulations

b) uncodified rules

c) uniform mechanism

d) codified by-laws

14. which one of them considered as most appropriate method of dispute resolution?

a) formal ADR mechanism

15
 b) informal ADR mechanism

c) court proceedings

d) tribunal proceedings

15. which one of the person deemed to be not disqualified for being as a mediator?

a) Any person who has been adjudged as insolvent or is declared of unsound mind.

b) Any person against whom criminal charges are pending or convicted involving moral turpitude

c) Any person against whom disciplinary proceeding by appropriate authority or charges relating to moral turpitude have
been initiated which are pending or have resulted in a punishment

d) Legal practitioners with atleast 15 years standing at the Bar at the level of the Supreme Court or the High Court; or the
District Courts or Courts of equivalent status.

16. If parties fail to come to a settlement agreement, the same is reported to the ____ in writing.

a) court

b) government

c) president

d) people

17. The order of Court under section 9 is not appealable. (T/F)

18. If the challenge of lack of jurisdiction is accepted, the parties are not allowed to appeal. (T/F)
19. Universal Declaration of Human Rights 1948 acts as the yardstick for human rights and the key components of access to
justice. (T/F)
20. In criminal cases, the UDHR does not prescribe presumption of innocence. (T/F)

WEEK 8(II)

1. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution provides that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law. (T/F)
2. The right to free legal service is not an essential ingredient of ‘just, fair and reasonable’ procedure. (T/F)
3. The magistrate is under an obligation to inform the accused about the right to free legal aid. (T/F)
4. To provide free legal aid in true sense we need to have well trained lawyers willing to perform free legal aid. (T/F)
5. Courts are not equal to all, as they are resource based. (T/F)
6. Order 53 CPC is an enabling provision which allows filing of a suit by an indigent person without paying the court fee at
the initial stage. (T/F)
7. Public Interest Litigation is a court proceeding filed by any public spirited person to voice out the interest of the general
public. (T/F)
8. Directive Principles are justiciable. (T/F)
9. People who are not from legal background have also been given an opportunity to be a part of the National Legal
Services Authority. (T/F)
10. One of the functions of the Legal Services Authority Act is encourage the settlement of disputes by way of negotiations,
arbitration and conciliation. (T/F)
11. Court fees has to be paid in a Lok Adalat. (T/F)
12. The SC has held that the retired Judge can be appointed as a chairman of State Legal Service Authority but only in
exceptional circumstances. (T/F)
13. Where no award is made by the Lok Adalat because no settlement could be arrived at the case shall be returned by it to
the court from where it came. (T/F)
14. A Lok Adalat can adjudicate a matter regarding an offence punishable under Section 397 of IPC. (T/F)
15. Permanent Lok Adalat has to be guided by Principles of Natural Justice in its working. (T/F)
16. Permanent Lok Adalat is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure and the Indian Evidence Act. (T/F)
17. Conciliation is a procedure in which a neutral individual is appointed in order to assist the parties in reaching a mutually
satisfactory resolution of disputes. (T/F)

16
18. Right to speedy trial flowing from Article 21 is available at the stage of investigation, enquiry, appeal, revision and re-
trial. (T/F)
19. if a dispute referred for judicial settlement U/S 89 CPC, the court shall refer the same to a suitable institution or person
and such institution or person shall be deemed to be a lok adalat and all the provisions of Legal Services Authorities Act,
1987 shall apply as if the disputes were referred to a Lok Adalat under the provisions of that Act. (T/F)
20. where there is no pre-existing arbitration agreement between the parties, can court refer the suit to arbitration under
Section 89.

a) Yes

b) No

WEEK 9

1. Convention On The Elimination Of All Forms Of Discrimination Against Women 1979 is an international instrument for
protection of women. (T/F)
2. Women cannot be arrested after sunset and before sunrise according to the CrPC. (T/F)
3. Sexually coloured remarks are not within the definition of Sexual Harassment. (T/F)
4. Section 125 [Link] is not applicable to women. (T/F)
5. Offences against women covered under Indian Penal Code are redressable in regular criminal courts. (T/F)
6. police officer is allowed to summon women to police station for interrogation. (T/F)
7. women can avail the free legal aid under Legal Services Authorities Act. (T/F)
8. Right to child custody cannot be claimed under domestic violence Act. (T/F)
9. Police officer can receive the complaint of domestic violence be made. (T/F)
10. What are the causes of domestic violence?

a) Patriarchy

b) Illiteracy

c) Extravagance

d) Lack of maturity

11. Complaint of domestic violence can be made to District Judge under PWDVA, 2005. (T/F)
12. Protection officer under the PWDVA 2005 has the duty of assisting a victim of domestic violence. (T/F)
13. Two officers to assist domestic violence victims are Protection officer and ______.

a) Prosecutor

b) Notary

c) Service Provider

d) Doctor

14. Who acts on the basis of domestic violence report?

a) Medical practitioner

b) Magistrate

c) NGO

d) District Judge

15. Forcing to marry against the wishes of the woman also amounts to domestic violence. (T/F)
16. What kind of orders can be granted by the Magistrate under PWDVA,2005?

a) Counselling order
17
 b) Transfer order

c) Monetary relief order

d) Stay order

17. Protection order under PWDVA,2005 can include prohibiting a person from entering the place of employment of the
aggrieved woman. (T/F)
18. In relation to a child, ___________ order can be passed by the Magistrate.

a) Transfer order

b) Custody order

c) Fine

d) Order for care

19. Residence order might contain removal of abuser from the ___________ .

a) Shared household

b) rented house

c) employment

d) State

20. Maintenance can be granted under PWDVA 2005. (T/F)

WEEK 10

1. The child under the age of _______years is considered to be incapable of committing a crime as it cannot form the
requisite mens rea required for any offence.
2. Under the Indian Evidence Act, a child of tender years is not a competent witness even when such a child is intellectually
sufficiently developed to understand what he or she had seen. (T/F)
3. A child by nature is vulnerable irrespective of its class or gender. (T/F)
4. Under IPC, a child under the age of 7 years is considered to be incapable of committing a crime because he lacks mens
rea. (T/F)
5. The Legal Services Authority Act, 1987 provides for free legal assistance to certain categories of persons but it does not
include children. (T/F)
6. The Commission for Protection of Child Rights is responsible for looking into the matters of children in need of special
care. (T/F)
7. A Juvenile in conflict with the law has to be handed over to the care of which of the following?

a) Probation Officer

b) Nearest Police station

c) The magistrate

d) ‘Special Juvenile Police Unit’

8. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court laid down specific directions for the trial of child sexual abuse or
rape?

a) PUCL v. Union of India

b) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan

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 c) Delhi Women Workers Forum v. Union of India

d) Sakshi v. Union of India (UOI) and Others

9. The National and State Commissions for the Protection of Child Rights are?

a) Law-making bodies

b) Recommendatory bodies

c) Adjudicatory bodies

d) Advisory bodies

10. The age limit prescribed by the Indian Penal Code, 1860 where exemptions from culpability can be given on the basis of
the immaturity of a child is?

a) 6 - 14 years

b) 7 - 14 years

c) 7 - 12 years

d) 6 - 16 years

11. The Special Courts for the trial of Sexual Offences have been established under which of the following?

a) The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015

b) The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012

c) The Domestic Violence Act, 2005

d) The Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005

12. A Special Court can take cognizance of an offence upon?

a) Only a police report

b) Only a complaint

c) A Complaint or a Police report

d) Only upon committal of a case

13. A Special court’s power to issue commissions is prescribed under?

a) Section 284 CrPC, 1973

b) Section 285 CrPC, 1973

c) Section 200 CrPC, 1973

d) Section 247 CrPC, 1973

14. As mandated by the Supreme Court in State of Karnataka v. Shivanna, the police must take the victim of a sexual offence
to any metropolitan/preferably lady Judicial Magistrate within?

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 a) 48 hours

b) 24 hours

c) Immediately

d) 12 hours

15. State Government must establish Special Courts in consultation with?

a) The President

b) The Ministry of Home Affairs

c) The Chief Justice of India

d) The Chief Justice of the High Court

16. The Child Welfare Committee has been established under which of the following legislations?

a) Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000

b) The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

c) Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Act, 2015

d) The Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005

17. The maximum punishment for using a child for pornographic purpose is?

a) Seven years

b) Three years

c) Five years

d) Four years

18. The maximum punishment prescribed for an aggravated penetrative sexual assault is?

a) 7 years

b) 10 years

c) Rigorous punishment for 7 years

d) Life Imprisonment

19. A child cannot be charged for filing a false complaint under the Act. (T/F)
20. No doctor can conduct medical examination of a child victim of sexual abuse without FIR being lodged. (T/F)

WEEK 11

1. We have special provisions for protection of elderly people in India. (T/F)

2. Article 41 of the Indian Constitution provides for public assistance in case of old age. (T/F)
3. Under Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, parents of any age can claim maintenance from children. (T/F)
4. Under CrPC, daughters do not have a duty to maintain their parents. (T/F)

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5. The definition of 'parent' under the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 does not include
adoptive father. (T/F)
6. International law does not recognises the special rights for elderly people. (T/F)
7. The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act provides for medical support for senior citizens. (T/F)
8. Age of parent is immaterial for claiming right to maintenance from children under Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act,
1956. (T/F)
9. Muslim Law does not recognizes right to maintenance of parents. (T/F)
10. The list of SC and STs in the Constitution may vary from State to State and territory to territory. (T/F)
11. The Indian Constitution defines the term "Other Backward Classes". (T/F)
12. The against SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act provides for special Courts for the trial of offences of atrocities against
the members of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes. (T/F)
13. Article 16 (4) provides for reservations in appointments of posts in favour of Backward Classes including Scheduled
Caste and Scheduled Tribes. (T/F)
14. The National Commission for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes does not have a constitutional status. (T/F)
15. Disabilities cause injustice by limiting a person’s normal range of opportunities. (T/F)
16. A fundamental aspect of the sociological theory of disability is ‘equality.’ (T/F)
17. The Charity Model of Disability considers disability as a socially created problem. (T/F)
18. Under the Mental Health Act, 1987, the District Court can intervene with the management of the property of a mentally
ill person. (T/F)
19. The Rehabilitation Council of India Act, 1992 was created solely to regulate the training of rehabilitation professionals.
(T/F)
20. The positivist theory focuses on search for cures, means of reducing impairments or assessments of clinical interventions
to treat disability. (T/F)

WEEK 12

1. Prisoners are governed by Prison Act, 1984. (T/F)

2. Right to be released on the due date is a right available to the prisoner. (T/F)
3. Human rights jurisprudence advocates that no crime should be punished in a cruel, degrading or in an inhuman manner.
(T/F)
4. Prison is a subject under List-I of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. (T/F)
5. Prisoners are classified into civil, criminal, undertrial, sick and political prisoners. (T/F)
6. Discrimination by the State against a prisoner cannot be challenged as violation of Art.14 of the Indian Constitution.
(T/F)
7. Appropriate government can commute death sentence to life imprisonment. (T/F)
8. A person in prison is entitled to all human rights within the limitations of imprisonment. (T/F)
9. Furlough is a -

a) Right

b) Duty

c) right and duty

d) none of the above

10. Pardoning power is available with

a) Governor

b) President

c) Prime Minister

d) Both a and b

11. Victim compensation in India lacks proper motivation. (T/F)

12. The Basic Principles of Justice for Victims of Crime and Abuse of Power involves mainly victims of crime and victims
of abuse of power. (T/F)
13. The UN Declaration of Basic Principles of Justice for Victim does not lay down norms for providing for compensation
from the State. (T/F)

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14. Section 357 of Code of Criminal Procedure provides that when a court imposes a sentence of fine, the court may order
the whole or any part of the fine to be applied in the payment to any person of compensation for any loss or injury. (T/F)
15. In Swaran Singh v. State of Punjab, it was held that the object of Section 357 of CrPC is to provide compensation
payable to the persons who are entitled to recover damages from the person even though fine does not form part of the
sentence. (T/F)
16. The capacity of the offender to pay is irrelevant while awarding the compensation to a victim. (T/F)
17. The Court can award compensation to the complainant for which no limit is prescribed in s.357. (T/F)
18. Option to award compensation under S.357 of the CrPC without reference to pecuniary limits for imposing fine is
available when the fine is not part of sentence imposed by Magistrate. (T/F)
19. The Right to Reparation for Victims of Human Rights Violation 1997 also provides for victims' rights. (T/F)
20. The Declaration of 1985 provides that when compensation is not fully available from the offender or other sources, State
should provide financial compensation at least in violent crimes. (T/F)

WEEK 13

1. Labour jurisprudence insisted on separate institutions to deal with labour disputes because resolving of industrial disputes
is necessary for a stronger national economy. (T/F)
2. Only the Central Government can be the appropriate Government under the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947. (T/F)
3. The Court of Enquiry under ID Act, 1947 is established by notification in the Official Gazette. (T/F)
4. The closest authority having the inquisitorial power under the ID Act, 1947 is the Court of Inquiry. (T/F)
5. Establishment of Grievance Redressal Machinery is not mandatory for industries having more than 20 workmen. (T/F)
6. Consumer means a person who hires services for consideration. (T/F)
7. Consumer means a person who hires services for consideration. (T/F)
8. Consumer courts are available at Talukas level. (T/F)
9. CP Act, 1986 imposes a duty on the Central and State Consumer Protection Councils to spread consumer awareness.
(T/F)
10. Consumer For a can issue a relief to issue corrective advertisement to neutralize the effect of misleading advertisement at
the cost of opposite party responsible for issuing such misleading advertisement. (T/F)
11. Consumer courts are available at Talukas level. (T/F)
12. Find out the objectives of CP Act, 1986

a) Simple

b) Speedy

c) Inexpensive

d) All of the above

13. District Forum is having power to receive complaint where the value is

a) Rs. 5 lakhs

b) Rs. 10 lakhs

c) Rs. 15 lakhs

d) Rs. 20 lakhs

14. Protection of environment is available in India from ancient times. (T/F)

15. Pollution Control Boards are empowered to issue directions to close down any industry which is causing environmental
pollution. (T/F)
16. ______ provided that protection of environment was fundamental duty of every citizen of India.
17. Injunction is an order of the court restraining the commission, repetition or continuance, of a wrongful act of defendant.
(T/F)
18. Art. 48A does not impose a duty on the State to protection and improvement of environment. (T/F)
19. Right to life does not include the right to enjoyment of pollution free water. (T/F)

WEEK 14

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1. An example of access to justice is a community’s action in filing a report to the National Human Rights Commission on
caste discrimination in their village. (T/F)
2. The Constitution of India guarantees access to justice to Indian citizens only. (T/F)
3. An example of promoting access to justice is when lawyers speak on community radio programs on rights under the
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act in order to spread awareness. (T/F)
4. Community engagement entails listening, building trust, responding to questions and conversing with community
members. (T/F)
5. Stakeholders of access to justice to community include government officials, police, panchayat members, ministries, lok
adalats and Legal Services Authorities. (T/F)
6. Access to justice for rural villagers entails proper delivery of government entitlements to alleviate poverty as well as
dispute resolution mechanisms such as mediation and court adjudication. (T/F)
7. Legal empowerment does not include legal reforms. (T/F)
8. Community radio is a good tool for spreading awareness of legal aid and local legal issues in the listener community.
(T/F)
9. Documentation of important access to justice activities is of no relevance for the future. (T/F)
10. Women and children, as well as Below Poverty Level persons, are among the people entitled to free legal aid in India.
(T/F)
11. “Legal empowerment”, a term coined by Stephen Golub, is the act of hiring a lawyer to speak for a client in court. (T/F)
12. A lawyer interested in buying land in a village volunteers to assist at a legal literacy camp in that village to respond to
questions villagers have about land disputes. Confidential information that the lawyer learns may be used for his own
personal benefit in acquiring land there. (T/F)
13. The enactment of the Legal Services Authorities Act in 1987 has entitled more than 60% of the Indian population to free
Legal Aid. (T/F)
14. India has the largest number of lawyers in the world. (T/F)
15. Clinical legal education does not prepare students for the practice of law. (T/F)
16. Law Schools can play a major role in sensitizing the public about their legal rights and duties. (T/F)
17. Students can provide paralegal services such as drafting affidavits, assisting in registration of marriages, births and
deaths, electoral rolls and filling out various forms. (T/F)
18. People need lawyer’s services whether it is a simple or complex problem. (T/F)
19. Law reform is part of legal aid. (T/F)
20. To prepare to participate actively as a law student at a legal literacy camp, a law student should become familiar with the
government schemes designed to alleviate poverty. (T/F)

WEEK 15

1. By providing free legal aid to weaker persons, the law seeks to bring the weaker party at par with other litigants. Here
weaker party is-

a) who is able to bear the cost of litigation

b) who is not able to bear the cost of litigation

c) who has properties to bear the cost of litigation

d) who has sufficient income to bear the cost of litigation

2. Kerala Legal aid Rules scheduled castes and tribes were not entitled to Legal Aid in civil cases. (T/F)
3. If a settlement suggested by the Conciliation Cell is unreasonably not accepted by the applicant for Legal Aid, the
certificate of eligibility issued to the applicant would-

a) stand cancelled and he would be disentitled to Legal Aid.

b) stand as it is.

c) stand at hold.

d) stand cancelled but he would be entitled to legal aid.

4. The Supreme Court of India is located in:

a) Bombay

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 b) Delhi

c) Bangalore

d) Jaipur

5. The Court also enjoys the power to refer at any stage of the proceedings. However, this power has to be exercised with
the consent of the parties. (T/F)
6. The Arbitral Tribunal is not authorised to decide on the jurisdiction. (T/F)
7. Complaints regarding maintenance for wife or children cannot be accepted as Public Interest Litigation. (T/F)
8. A Lok Adalat can summon and enforce the attendance of any witness. (T/F)
9. Except arbitration other alternate dispute resolution mechanism are non-adjudicatory in nature so cases referred to such
forum does not go out of the stream of court. (T/F)
10. Habeas Corpus cannot be issued when a bail is not granted by the lower court. (T/F)
11. The Art. 15(3) protects the women rights. (T/F)
12. Domestic violence might at times result in death of the victim. (T/F)
13. The Act makes the following bodies responsible for implementation of the Act:

a) Local Authorities

b) Police

c) State Commission for Protection of Rights of Child

d) State Legislature

14. Fundamental Rights are available even to prisoners. (T/F)

15. State liability is mentioned in Section 357 of the CrPC. (T/F)
16. A duty is imposed on the State to protect the interest of the community when they are granting any permission to project
or industry. (T/F)
17. When a police official refuses to file a First Information Report about domestic violence by a husband against his wife, it
is not a denial of access to justice. (T/F)
18. It is the duty of National Legal Services Authority to lay down policies and principles for making legal services available
under the provisions of the Act. (T/F)
19. In which case the Supreme Court invented Curative writ:

a) Sunil batra case

b) Maneka Gandhi’s case

c) Rupa Ashok Hurra case

d) Kanusanyal case

20. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 Complaint can be made to:

a) Police officer

b) Protection Officer

c) Magistrate having jurisdiction

d) All of the above

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