CPP-04

ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Zoology
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Evolution Theories and Evidences

1. Best fossils are obtained from 8. Pouter, Jacobin and Fantail are the breeds of
(1) Sedimentary rock (2) Igneous rock __A__ produced by ___B__
(3) Metamorphic rock (4) Any type of rock Choose the correct option for A and B
2. Unit of natural selection is _______ and unit of A B
evolution is ______. 1 Fowl Natural selection
(1) Individual, population 2 Leghorn Hybridisation
(2) Population, individual
3 Rock pigeon Artificial selection
(3) Species, population
4 Fringilla Adaptive radiation
(4) Individual, individual
9. At a particular locus frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.6
3. Which of the following is not a reptilian character of and of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be the frequency of
Archaeopteryx ? heterozygotes in a random mating population at
(1) The bones are not pneumatic equilibrium ?
(2) Presence of weak sternum (1) 0.36 (2) 0.16
(3) An intimate fusion of skull bones (3) 0.24 (4) 0.48
(4) Jaws bear teeth 10. Following diagram represents the operation of
4. Which of the following is an incorrect match of natural selection on different traits, represented as
period of geological time scale with the events of A, B and C. Find the appropriate example for A, B
evolution of history of life ? and C from the table
(1) Ordovician – Age of Invertebrates
(2) Devonian – Age of Reptiles
(3) Carboniferous – Age of Amphibians
(4) Permian – Origin of Mammals A
5. The ancestor of man who first started cave painting
is
(1) Australopithecus
(2) Java Ape man
B
(3) Peking man
(4) Cro-Magnon man
6. Who was the first hominid ?
(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo sapiens
(3) Australopithecus (4) Dryopithecus C
7. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
events in the origin of new species according to A B C
Darwin ? Existence of both tall
Heterozygotes of
(1) Natural selection, variation and their inheritance, Industrial
and dwarf
sickle cell anaemia
survival of fittest, struggle for existence, high rate 1 individuals but not
melanism in moth enjoy malaria
medium height
of reproduction individuals
resistance

(2) Enormous fertility, variation and their inheritance, G6PD deficiency Development of
in relation to antibiotic resistant Banding pattern of
struggle for existence and survival of fittest
2 malaria bacteria british land snail
(3) High rate of reproduction, struggle for existence, Development of Development of
variation and their inheritance, survival of fittest, DDT resistant antibiotic resistant Industrial melanism
natural selection 3 mosquito bacteria in moth
Heterozygotes of
(4) Survival of the fittest, variation and their Industrial
Development of
sickle cell anaemia
4 DDT resistant
inheritance, struggle for existence, enormous melanism in moth enjoy malaria
bacteria
fertility resistance
11. A condition under which nature eliminates the iii. Homo sapiens c. Cave painting
intermediate type and favours both extremes is
neanderthalensis d. First use of fire
called
iv. Homo sapiens fossilis
(1) Stabilizing selection
(1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
(2) Progressive selection
(2) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(3) Disruptive selection
(3) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(4) Directional selection
(4) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
12. The ratio of CH 4 : H 2 : NH 3 in Urey-Miller’s
experiment was 20. Selection of antibiotic resistant bacteria is an
example of
(1) 2 : 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 2 : 1
(1) Balancing natural selection
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 (4) 1 : 1 : 2
(2) Directional natural selection
13. Which of the following is a pair of homologous
organs ? (3) Disruptive natural selection
(1) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita (4) Normalizing natural selection
(2) Eye of octopus and of mammals 21. The two concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution
are
(3) Limbs of arthropods and frogs
(1) Variation and survival of fittest
(4) Wings of bat and butterfly
(2) Survival of fittest and natural selection
14. Which of the following is a missing link ?
(3) Struggle for existence and survival of fittest
(1) Euglena (2) Neopilina
(4) Branching descent and natural selection
(3) Balanoglossus (4) Archaeopteryx
22. Which of the following cannot be considered as
15. In a population individuals showing dominant
vestigial organ ?
phenotype is 64%. If population size is 500
individual, find the number of individuals that are (1) Plica semilunaris, coccyx
heterozygous
(2) Splint bone in horse and wisdom teeth in human
(1) 80 (2) 240
(3) Additional mammae and dense body hair
(3) 180 (4) 320
(4) Vermiform appendix, panniculus carnosus
16. Selection of heterozygotes (Hb A /Hb S ) is an
23. The diversification of a common life form into varied
example of
life forms that spread into various habitats is called
(1) Stabilising selection
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Disruptive selection
(2) Parallel evolution
(3) Directional selection
(3) Adaptive convergence
(4) Antibiotic resistance
(4) Co-evolution
17. First homonid was
24. Fossils remains of Archeopteryx indicates that
(1) Neanderthal man (2) Erect man
(1) It was a flying reptile from triassic
(3) Handy man (4) True man
(2) It was a flying reptile from permian
18. Which of the following buried their loved ones with
(3) Reptiles gave rise to birds during permian
flower and tools ?
(4) Reptiles gave rise to birds during jurassic
(1) Erect man (2) Handy man
25. The first living organism were
(3) Neanderthal man (4) Cro-Magnon man
(1) Chemoautotrophs
19. Match the columns and choose the correct option
(2) Chemoheterotrophs
Column A Column B
(3) Autotrophs
i. Homo habilis a. Religious
(4) Eukaryotes
ii. Homo erectus b. First tool maker
26. Dryopithecus was more ______ and Ramapithecus (4) Neanderthal man is direct ancestor of modern
was more ______ primates who existed about man
_____ million years ago
33. Which of the following amino acids was not initially
(1) Ape like, man like, 15 synthesized in Miller’s experiment ?
(2) Man like, ape like, 25 (1) Glycine (2) Aspartic acid
(3) Ape like, man like, 2 (3) Glutamic acid (4) Alanine
(4) Man like, ape like, 2 34. Find out the incorrect statement
27. The cranial capacity of which fossils is closest to (1) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is applicable to large
modern human ? randomly mating population
(1) Neanderthal man (2) Cro-magnon man (2) Sewall-W right effect is applicable to large
inbreeding population
(3) Java man (4) Heidelberg man
(3) Hybrid inviability causes death of hybrid
28. Choose the true one with respect to human
evolution (4) Ethological isolation is due to differences in
courtship pattern between closely related species
(1) Neanderthal and Homo habilis were living at the
same time 35. Two related population occupying geographically
separate area are
(2) Australopitheus was living in Australia
(1) Sympatric population
(3) Homo erectus had a larger brain capacity than
Neanderthal man (2) Allopatric population
(4) Extinct human ancestor who ate only fruits and (3) Parapatric population
hunted with stone weapons was Australopitheus
(4) Saltational population
29. Which of the following experiments suggests that
36. A population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a
simplest living organisms could not have originated
gene with 2 alleles. If gene frequency of dominant
spontaneously from non-living matter ?
allele D is 0.6 then the genotype frequency of
(1) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter carriers would be
(2) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept (1) 0.24 (2) 0.42
sealed in a vessel
(3) 0.36 (4) 0.48
(3) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
37. The appearance of DDT resistant variety of
(4) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic mosquito amongst the sensitive ones during
matter increased exposure to DDT is an example of
30. Select the correct one w.r.t Jurassic period of the (1) Disruptive selection
mesozoic era.
(2) Stabilizing selection
(1) Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds
appear (3) Directional selection

(2) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal like (4) Artificial selection
reptile 38. Find the odd one out.
(3) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms
(1) Sweet potato and potato
appear
(2) Wings of birds and insects
(4) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear
(3) Eyes of octopus and mammals
31. Darwin’s finches are excellent example of
(4) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
(1) Brood parasitism (2) Connecting links
39. Which of the following arrangement of periods of the
(3) Adaptive radiation (4) Seasonal migration
Paleozoic era gives a correct sequence from
32. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? earliest to the latest?
(1) Cromagnon man was having perfect orthognathus (1) Devonian  Carboniferous  Permian
face
(2) Carboniferous  Devonian  Permian
(2) Ramapithecus was on direct line of human
(3) Permian  Devonian  Carboniferous
evolution
(4) Triassic  Jurassic  Cretaceous
(3) Only heritable variations form the raw material for
evolution
40. Choose avian character of Archaeopteryx. (3) I - a, II - b, III - d, IV - c
(1) Non pneumatic bones (4) I - a, II - b, III - c, IV - d
(2) Presence of free caudal vertebrae 45. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(3) Presence of weak sternum (1) Mutation theory - De vries
(4) Jaws modified into beak (2) Theory of germplasm - Weismann

41. Which of the following is incorrect match? (3) Neutral theory of evolution - Darwin
(4) Survival of the fittest - H. Spencer
(1) Carboniferous period – Age of amphibians
46. If 64% of the individuals in a population are homozygous
(2) Jurassic period – Age of dinosaurs recessive for a character then calculate the percentage
(3) Tertiary period – Age of invertebrates of heterozygous individuals in this population:

(4) Devonian period – Age of fishes (1) 36% (2) 0.04%

(3) 0.8% (4) 32%
42. W hich of the following is not a postulate of
Lamarckian theory? 47. Which of the following is an example of connecting link
species?
(1) Development and power of action of an organ is
directly proportional to its use (1) Lobe fish (2) Dodo bird

(2) Internal vital forces tend to increase size of the (3) Sea weed (4) Tyranosaurus rex
body 48. Reactants of Urey-Miller experiment include
(3) All changes acquired by the organism during its (1) Ammonia & methane
life are transmitted to the offsprings
(2) Methane & methionine
(4) The populations remain nearly stable in size
during seasonal fluctuations (3) Hydrogen & nucleic acid

43. Read the following statements(A - E): (4) Water & phenylalanine
A - S.L. Miller created electric discharge in a closed 49. Common origin of ape and humans are best shown
flask containing CH4, H2 & NH3. by
B - Miller observed the formation of Amino acids in (1) Binocular vision
flask like Arginine, Alaninine & glutamic acid.
(2) Cranial capacity
C - The first non-cellular form of life could have
originated 3 billion years back. (3) Chromosomal banding pattern
D - Earth was supposed to have been formed about (4) Dentition
4.5 million years back.
50. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is not applicable for
E - Primitive atmosphere was reducing.
(1) Large randomly mating population
How many above statements are true ?
(2) Population exposed to natural selection
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) Population without any mutation
(3) 3 (4) 2 (4) Population without any migration
44. Match the column A with column B & select the correct 51. Which of the following is not a feature of mutation
options: theory?
(1) Mutations may occur in any direction
Column A Column B
(2) Mutations are large and sudden
Wing of Bird s & Saltation & result
I. a. (3) Mutations are non-heritable, having no role in
Butterfly speciation
Australian evolution
II. b. Darwin's laboratory
marsupials
(4) Mutations are source of discontinuous variations
III. Galapagos Island c. Adaptive radiation
52. If 64% of individuals in populations are
Single large step Convergent homozygous recessive for a character, then
IV. d.
mutation Evolution calculate the percentage of individuals in this
Options are: population who exhibit the dominant trait

(1) I - d, II - c, III - a, IV - b (1) 48% (2) 36%

(2) I - d, II - c, III - b, IV - a (3) 4% (4) 32%

53. Which of the following is not a reptilian character (2) According to Darwin, any population has built in
in Archaeopteryx? variation in characteristics

(1) Each finger terminates in a claw (3) Darwin highlighted the importance of small and
gradual changes in evolution, whereas, de Vries
(2) Jaws with teeth focussed on abrupt and drastic changes as the
cause of origin of species
(3) Long tail with free caudal vertebrae
(4) Evolution at genetic level like sickle cell anaemia
(4) Hind limb built on the typical avian plan is macroevolution
54. Choose the incorrect option 60. How many of the following structures are made
(1) Evolution of different species of finches in vestigeal/redundant due to adaptation of the
Galapagos are examples of convergent evolution organism to new environment?
(2) Mutations are discontinuous variations Hind limbs of Python, Muscles of external
ear in humans, Tail bone in humans,
(3) Small isolated populations are susceptible to
Wisdom teeth, Flipper of whales
genetic drift
(1) Four (2) Three
(4) Isolation & natural selection are important factors
(3) Five (4) Two
of evolution
61. Sweet potato and potato are an example of
55. Find the mismatch of different categories of humans
with their corresponding character. (1) Analogous organs
(1) Homo habilis – Brain capacity 650–800cc (2) Homologous organs
(2) Australopithecus – Lived in East African (3) Adaptive convergence
grasslands
(4) Divergent evolution
(3) Homo sapiens – Arose between 75,000–
62. Darwin explained that adaptive radiation gave rise to
10,000 mya
variety of marsupials in Australia in the same
(4) Dryopithecus – Existed about 15 mya process as found in
and was more like apes
(1) Placental mammals in other continents
56. Mark the biggest land reptiles which were of about
(2) Finches in Galapagos islands
20 feet in height, had huge dagger like teeth and
disappeared about 65 mya (3) Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf-marsupial
(1) Brachiosaurus (2) Stegosaurus (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Tyrannosaurus (4) Triceratops 63. Which of the following amino acids was not found
to be synthesised in Miller’s experiment?
57. In Lederberg’s replica plating experiment,
streptomycin resistant strain can develop by using (1) Alanine (2) Glycine
(1) Minimal medium with streptomycin (3) Aspartic acid (4) Glutamic acid
(2) Complete medium with streptomycin
64. Find the incorrect statement
(3) Only minimal medium (1) Excess use of pesticides resulted in selection of
(4) Only complete medium resistant varieties is an example of evolution by
anthropogenic action
58. Population crashes leading to drastic reduction in
(2) Evolution is a stochastic process based on
population size, can cause change in allele
chance events in nature and chance mutation in
frequencies, such effect is
organisms
(1) Gene Flow (3) Mutations are random and directional
(2) Genetic recombination (4) Alfred Wallace worked in Malay Archipelago
(3) Genetic drift 65. Sickle cell anaemia is an example of
(4) Gene migration (1) Stabilising selection
59. Find the incorrect statement (2) Directional selection
(1) The fitness of an individual is referred to as its (3) Diversifying selection
reproductive fitness
(4) Disruptive selection
66. At a particular locus, frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.3 e. Gene flow
and that of ‘a’ is 0.7, what will be the frequency of
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c
heterozygotes in random mating population at
equilibrium? (3) c only (4) c and e

(1) 0.48 (2) 0.21 74. Read statements A and B and choose the option
with correct statements
(3) 0.42 (4) 0.9
Statement A: If the both peripheral characters are
67. Unit of natural selection is selected rather than the mean
(1) Individual (2) Population character it is Disruptive selection

(3) Species (4) Mutation Statement B: This can be characterised by sickle

cell anaemia in African population
68. Sudden reappearance of a certain ancestral
structure that has completely disappeared or (1) A and B (2) Only B
reduced is called (3) Neither A nor B (4) Only A
(1) Atavism 75. Find the correct sequence of human evolution
(2) Convergent evolution A. Cro-magnon man B. Homo erectus
(3) Divergent evolution C. Australopithecus D. Homo habilis
(4) Speciation (1) D  A  B  C (2) B  C  D  A
69. Industrial melanism is an example of (3) C  B  D  A (4) C  D  B  A
(1) Directional selection 76. Read the following statements (A – F)
(2) Mutation A. Fossils are one of most acceptable evidences in
support of evolution
(3) Balancing selection
B. Excreta preserved in form of fossils are called
(4) Disruptive selection palynofossil
70. In ‘Stanley Miller’s experiment’ the ratio of methane, C. Fossils are mostly obtained from sedimentary
ammonia and hydrogen are rocks
D. Elephant like mammoths obtained from Siberia
(1) 3 : 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 : 2
are examples of petrified fossils
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 5 : 4 : 1 F. Most fossils are unpetrified fossils
71. The human ancestor who first used fire was How many of the above statements are true ?
(1) Australopithecus (2) Homo erectus (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Cro-Magnon man (4) Neanderthal man (3) 3 (4) 4
72. Mutations are X while Darwinian variation are Y. X 77. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option
and Y are ___a___ is the unit of natural selection and ___b___
is the unit of evolution
(1) X  Small and directional
(1) a - population, b - individual
Y  Random and directionless
(2) a - individual, b - population
(2) X  Small and directional
Y  Random and directional (3) a - species, b - phylum

(3) X  Random and directionless (4) a - subspecies, b - subphylum

Y  Small and directional 78. Given below are few characters of Archaeopteryx.
Select the reptilian characters
(4) X  Random and directional
a) Jaws modified into beak
X  Small and directional
b) Fused skull bones
73. Which of the following factor/s do not change the
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? c) Free caudal vertebrae
a. Gene migration d) Scales present
b. Genetic recombination e) Non pneumatic bones
c. Random mating (1) a, b and e (2) b, c and d
d. Genetic drift (3) b, c, d and e (4) c, d and e
79. Choose the correct option aa. Then what will be the frequency of allele A in the
population ?
Statement A : Mixture of CH 4, NH 3 and H 2 was
taken in 2:1:2 ratio in Miller’s (1) 0.7 (2) 0.6
experiment
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.4
Statement B : Alanine, glycine and aspartic acid
were obtained at the end of the 84. Choose the incorrect statement
experiment (1) Cranial capacity of Cro-magnon man was more
(1) Only statement A is correct than modern man

(2) Only statement B is correct (2) Neanderthal man is called as first true man
(3) Australopithecus afarensis is called ‘Tuang baby”
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Dryopithecus was more ape-like, Ramapithecus
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
was more man-like
80. Match Column A with Column B and choose the
85. The closest ancestor of modern man is
correct option
(1) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
Column - A Column - B
A. Lucy (i) Homo sapiens fossilis
(2) Homo sapiens fossilis

B. Handy man (ii) Australopithecus (3) Homo sapiens erectus

C. Peking man (iii) Homo habilis (4) Homo sapiens heidelbergensis

D. Cro-magnon man (iv) Homo erectus 86. Wallace line is in between
A B C D (1) Oriental and Australian region
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (2) Oriental and Ethiopean region
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (3) Australian and Ethiopean region
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) Oriental and Nearctic region
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 87. Read the following statements and choose the
81. Common origin of man and chimpanzee can be correct option
shown most accurately by Statement A : Single step large mutation is called
(1) Same number of chromosomes in both saltation
(2) Blood proteins are same in both Statement B : Evolution is a directed process in
(3) Lumbar curvature is same in both the sense of determinism

(4) Banding pattern of chromosome 3 and 6 is same (1) Both the statements are correct
in both
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
82. Choose the correct option (3) Only statement A is correct
Statement A : Artificial selection is similar to (4) Only statement B is correct
natural selection except that it is 88. Selection of antibiotic resistant bacteria is an
an anthropogenic process example of

Statement B : Plants like Cabbage, Broccolli, (1) Directional selection

Cauliflower etc. has been (2) Stabilising selection
produced from wild mustard by (3) Balancing selection
selective breeding
(4) Disruptive selection
(1) Only statement A is correct
89. In case of MN-blood group system, the frequencies
(2) Only statement B is correct of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3 respectively. The
expected frequency of MN blood group bearing
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
organisms is likely to be
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) 42% (2) 49%
83. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belongs to
(3) 9% (4) 58%
genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to
90. Mutations are X while Darwinian variations are Y. 95. Evolution of Australian marsupians and placental
Here X and Y are mammals are better examples of
(1) X  Small and directional (1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Convergent evolution
Y  Random and directionless
(3) Coevolution
(2) X  Small and directional (4) Mega evolution
Y  Random and directional 96. Study the given diagrammatic representatiln of the
operation of natural selection on different traits and
(3) X  Random and directionless
select the correct option
Y  Small and directional
(4) X  Random and directional
Y  Small and directional
91. Which theory of evolution explains that “Evolution is (A)
sudden and random process” ?
(1) Lamarck’s theory
(2) Theory of natural selection
(3) Mutation theory
(4) Modern theory of evolution (B)
92. Match the following w.r.t. to periods and origin or
age of different group of animals. Choose the
correct option
Column I Column II
(i) Ordovician (A) Age of amphibia
(C)
(ii) Devonian (B) Age of reptiles
(iii) Carboniferous (C) Age of fishes
(iv) Permian (D) Age of invertebrates (1) A – Industrial melanism
(E) Origin of mammals like (2) B – Malaria in relation to sickle cell anaemia
reptiles (3) C – G6-PD deficiency in relation to malaria
(1) (i) - (D), (ii) - (A), (iii) - (E), (iv) - (C) (4) A – Malaria in relation to sickle cell anaemia
among some population of Africa
(2) (i) - (C), (ii) - (A), (iii) - (D), (iv) - (B)
97. If nature selects more individuals with intermediate
(3) (i) - (D), (ii) - (C), (iii) - (A), (iv) - (E) characteristics compared to extremes, which kind of
(4) (i) - (D), (ii) - (B), (iii) - (C), (iv) - (A) selection is said to be operating ?
(1) Stabilising (2) Directional
93. How many of the following are essential to keep
genetic equilibrium constant ? (3) Disruptive (4) Diversifying
98. For a long time it was believed that life came out
(a) Selective mating (b) Natural selection
of non living decaying and rotting matter like straw,
(c) Random mating (d) No gene flow mud etc. This was the theory of
(e) Genetic drift (f) No genetic (1) Special creation
recombination (2) Catastrophism
(g) No mutation (3) Spontaneous generation
(1) Three (2) Four (4) Panspermia
99. W hich of the following statements is correct
(3) Five (4) Seven
regarding evolutionary theories ?
94. Adaptive radiation is best shown by
(1) Lamarck’s theory was supported by Weismann
(a) Darwin finches (b) Host-parasites (2) Darwinian variations are directionless
(c) Australian marsupials (3) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt
(1) a only (2) c and b and get selected by nature
(4) Theory of Inheritance of Acquired characters was
(3) c only (4) and and C
given by Hugo de Vries
100. Fossils provide which type of evidence of evolution ? (4) Brain of vertebrates

(1) Anatomical and morphological 107. According to Modern Synthetic Theory of evolution,
the factor that does not contribute to evolution process
(2) Embryological
is
(3) Palaeontological
(1) Genetic recombination
(4) Biogeographical
(2) Inheritance of Acquired characters
101. All are examples of living fossils, except
(3) Natural selection
(1) Neopilina (2) Limulus
(4) Reproductive isolation
(3) Locusta (4) Sphenodon
108. The allelic frequency of recessive allele is 0.4. Find
102. Tendrils of Cucurbita and thorns of Bougainvillea are out the number of heterozygous individuals in a
(1) Homologous organs that have evolved due to population of 500
convergent evolution (1) 80 (2) 240
(2) Homologous organs that have evolved due to (3) 180 (4) 120
divergent evolution
109. What was the most significant trend in the evolution
(3) Analogous organs that have evolved due to
of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
convergent evolution
ancestors ?
(4) Analogous organs that have evolved due to
divergent evolution (1) Increasing cranial capacity

103. How many of the given animals represent (2) Upright posture
discontinuous distribution of closely related species? (3) Absence of tail
(a) Egg laying mammals (b) Marsupials (4) Binocular vision
(c) Lung fishes 110. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t
(1) One (2) Two evolution ?

(3) Three (4) None (1) Darwinian variations are large but directional

104. Find the incorrect match (2) Hugo de Vries believed mutation caused
speciation
(1) Lucy – Australopithecus africanus
(3) Unit of natural selection is individual
(2) Java ape man – Homo erectus erectus
(4) Unit of organic evolution is population
(3) Skillful man – Homo habilis
111. Read the following (A–F)
(4) Burial of dead – Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
(A) Free atoms
105. In recent years, DNA sequences of mitochondrial DNA
(B) Formation of organic molecules
and Y-chromosomes were considered significant to
study and understand human evolution because (C) Formation of inorganic molecules

(1) They can be obtained from any living or dead (D) Formation of Eobionts
human (E) Eukaryotes
(2) They are only present in humans (F) Prokaryotes
(3) They are small in size and easy to study Choose the correct sequence according to modern
(4) They are uniparental in inheritance and do not theory of origin of life
take part in recombination (1) ABCDEF
106. Which of the following is not an example of convergent (2) ACBDEF
evolution ?
(3) ACBDFE
(1) Wings of insect, bird and bat
(4) ABCDFE
(2) Flippers of Penguins and dolphins
(3) Similarity in Australian marsupials and placental
mammals
112. Read the following statements (A – E) (3) Lemur – Tasmanian wolf
(A) Presence of a short tail in newborn babies is an (4) Bat – Flying phalanger
example of atavism
118. Selection of DDT-resistant mosquitoes is an
(B) The rate of appearance of new forms has no link example of _________selection
to the life span
(1) Directional
(C) Those animals which are better fit undergo natural
selection (2) Stabilising

(D) Evolution is not a directed process in the sense (3) Disruptive

of determinism (4) Balancing
(E) According to Darwin, evolution is a rapid, single-
119. Arrange the following in correct order for human
step process
evolution
How many of above statements are correct ?
(A) Homo erectus (B) Homo habilis
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five (C) Modern man (D) Australopithecus

113. Choose odd one w.r.t vestigial organs in humans (E) Cro magnon man
(1) Vermiform appendix (2) Wisdom teeth (1) D  B  A  E  C
(3) Body hair (4) Epiglottis (2) D  A  B  E  C
114. Read the statements (A and B) and choose the (3) D  A  C  B  E
correct option
(4) D  B  C  A  E
Statement A : After industrialisation lichens did
120. Match the columns and choose the correct option
not grow abundantly on tree trunks
Column - I Column - II
Statement B : After industrialisation, Biston
betularia decreased in number, and (A) Cretaceous (i) Amphibians dominant ;
Biston carbonaria increased in origin of reptiles
number
(B) Jurassic (ii) Age of fishes ; origin of
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
amphibians
(2) Statement A is correct and B is wrong
(C) Carboniferous (iii) Angiosperms appear,
(3) Statement A is wrong and B is correct dinosaurs disappear

(4) Both statements are wrong (D) Devonian (iv) Dinosaurs and
gymnosperms dominate
115. Pick out the odd one w.r.t. homologous organs
(1) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
(1) Hand of man and flippers of whale
(2) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (iv), D - (i)
(2) Brains in vertebrates
(3) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)
(3) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
(4) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)
(4) Thorn and spine
121. How many of the following statements are false ?

116. Euglena, Neopilina, Balanoglossus, a) Homo habilis had a brain size of around 900 cc
Proterospongia, Peripatus
b) Homo erectus had a brain size of 650 – 800 cc
How many of the above are connecting links ? c) The Neanderthal man had a brain size of 1400 cc
(1) Two (2) Three d) Dryopithecus was more ape like than
Ramapithecus
(3) Four (4) Five
e) Australopithecus is the connecting link between
117. Identify correct match w.r.t. convergent evolution of apes and man
marsupials and placental mammals in Australia
(1) 2 (2) 5
(1) Anteater – Numbat
(3) 4 (4) 3
(2) Bobcat – Spotted cuscus
122. Natural selection can lead to ____(i)____, (3) Life appeared 200 million years after the formation
___(ii)_____, ___(iii)____ of earth
(1) (i) Reproductive isolation, (ii) Polyploidy, (iii) (4) Oparin and Haldane proposed that the first life
Linkage could have come from pre-existing non-living
organic molecules
(2) (i) Stabilization, (ii) Directionless change, (iii)
Hybridization 129. Read the following statements and identify them as
True(T) or False(F)
(3) (i) Stabilization, (ii) Directional change, (iii)
Disruption (I) Genetic drift results in changed frequency of
genes and alleles in future generation
(4) (i) Reproductive isolation, (ii) Polyploidy, (iii)
Hybridization (II) In disruptive natural selection more individuals
acquire peripheral characters value at both end
123. Placental mammals in Australia have variable forms of distribution curve
which appear to be similar to a corresponding
(III) During ice age between 75,000 – 10,000 years
marsupial. This is the case of
ago modern Homo sapiens arose
(1) Adaptive radiation and divergent evolution (IV) The most successful story in the evolution of man
(2) Adaptive radiation and convergent evolution is language skill and self-consciousness
(3) Anthropogenic evolution I II III IV
(4) Divergent evolution (1) T F T T
124. Which of the following evidences does not favour
(2) F T F T
the Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired (3) T T F T
characteristics ? (4) T T T T
(1) Absence of limbs in snakes 130. W hich of the following is incorrect pair w.r.t.
analogous organs ?
(2) Lack of pigment in cave-dwelling animals
(1) Retina of Octopus Retina of vertebrates
(3) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
(4) Melanization in peppered moth (2) Sting of honey bee Sting of scorpion

125. Survival of the fittest was proposed by __A___ and (3) Sweet potato Potato
according to Darwin fitness refers to __B__ only (4) Forelimbs of cheetah Forelimbs of whale
A B
131. Find the incorrect match?
(1) Darwin Environmental
adaptation Colomn I Column II
(2) Spencer Reproductive fitness (1) Lamarck Appetency
(3) Hugo de Vries Mutation (2) Charles Darwin Descent with
modification
(4) Darwin Reproductive fitness
(3) Alfred Wallace Theory of Pangenesis
126. W hich of the following is the correct set of
(4) Oparin Origin of life
pouched mammals w.r.t. adaptive radiation in
Australia ? 132. Hugo de Vries, based on his work on __A__
brought forth the idea of mutation. Mutations are
(1) Sugar glider, Tiger cat, Marsupial rat
random and __B__ while Darwinian variations are
(2) Lemur, Flying squirrel, Bobcat small and ___C___. Evolution for Darwin was
(3) Mouse, Mole, Wolf gradual while de Vries believed large mutation
causes speciation and hence called it __D__.
(4) Bobcat, Lemur, Anteater
Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks
127. Two key concepts of Darwinism are A, B, C and D
(1) Branching descent, Saltation (1) A - Evening Primrose (2) A - Evening Primrose
(2) Adaptive radiation, Branching descent B - Directional B - Directional
(3) Natural selection, Adaptive radiation C - Directionless C - Directionless
(4) Branching descent, Natural selection D - Saltation D - Natural selection

128. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. origin of life (3) A - Garden pea (4) A - Evening Primrose
B - Directionless B - Directionless
(1) Universe is almost 2.5 billion years old
C - Directional C - Directional
(2) Earth was formed almost 3.5 billion years back D - Saltation D - Saltation
133. All the following are correct about ‘Genetic Drift’ 137. W hich of the following is not correct about
except Australopithecus?
(1) Genetic drift, also called as Sewall Wright Effect, (1) Probably lived in East African Grasslands
is more likely to occur in a small population
(2) 1st bipedal man
(2) If change in gene frequency occurs by chance it
is called genetic drift (3) Cranial capacity : 500 cc

(3) Two ramifications of genetic drift are Bottle neck (4) Human like teeth and orthognathous face
phenomenon and Founder’s effect 138. In the Negroid population in South Africa, with
(4) Genetic drift is a directional factor respect to sickle cell anaemia which of the following
is applicable?
134. The first hominid which probably did not eat meat,
having cranial capacity 650 - 800 cc was (A) Balancing selection

(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo sapiens (B) Stabilizing selection

(3) Australopithecus (4) Dryopithecus (C) Directional selection

135. Find the incorrect statement (D) Diversifying selection

(1) Analogous organs are the result of convergent (E) Heterozygote superiority
evolution in separate lineages (1) A, B and E only (2) A and E only
(2) Evolution is a stochastic process based on (3) C, D only (4) B, D and E only
chance events in nature and chance mutations
in organisms 139. Select the incorrect match
(3) During the course of evolution chemoautotrophs (1) Dryopithecus – Common ancestor of
evolved first ape and man

(4) Branching descent and natural selection are two (2) Homo habilis – Able man
key concepts of Darwin’s theory (3) Homo erectus – The tool maker man
136. Pouched mammals are present in Australia only (4) Homo sapiens fossilis – Direct ancestor of living
modern man
(1) Due to lack of placental mammals
(2) Due to continental drift, pouched mammals in
Australia survived
(3) Lack of competition from any other mammals
(4) More than one option is correct

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 CPP-04
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (3)

8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (4)

15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (4)

22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (4)

29. (2) 30. (1) 31. (3) 32. (4) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (2)

36. (4) 37. (3) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (4) 41. (3) 42. (4)

43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (3)

50. (2) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (3) 56. (3)

57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (4) 60. (1) 61. (1) 62. (4) 63. (4)

64. (3) 65. (1) 66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (1) 69. (1) 70. (2)

71. (2) 72. (3) 73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (4) 76. (2) 77. (2)

78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (3) 81. (4) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (3)

85. (2) 86. (1) 87. (3) 88. (1) 89. (1) 90. (3) 91. (3)

92. (3) 93. (2) 94. (4) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (1) 98. (3)

99. (3) 100. (3) 101. (3) 102. (2) 103. (3) 104. (1) 105. (4)

106. (4) 107. (2) 108. (2) 109. (1) 110. (1) 111. (3) 112. (2)

113. (4) 114. (1) 115. (4) 116. (4) 117. (1) 118. (1) 119. (1)

120. (1) 121. (4) 122. (3) 123. (2) 124. (4) 125. (2) 126. (1)

127. (4) 128. (4) 129. (4) 130. (4) 131. (3) 132. (4) 133. (4)

134. (1) 135. (3) 136. (4) 137. (4) 138. (1) 139. (3)

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