Namma Kalvi [Link].

in

12 – COMMERCE
Little Flower Matriculation Higher Secondary School
Contents
Nathakkarai, Thalaivasal – 636 112 UNIT – I MANAGEMENT PROCESS

12 - Commerce Chapter - 1 Principles of Management 1

Chapter - 2 Functions of Management 4
English Medium – Study Material Chapter - 3 Management By Objectives (MBO) and 9
Management By Exception (MBE)
Book Back & Book Inside One Mark
UNIT - II FINANCIAL MARKETS – I
Chapter - 4 Introduction to Financial Markets 13
Chapter - 5 Capital Market 18
Chapter - 6 Money Market 22

UNIT - III FINANCIAL MARKETS – II

Chapter - 7 Stock Exchange 26
Chapter - 8 Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI) 31

UNIT - IV HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT

Chapter - 9 Fundamentals of Human Resource Management 35
Chapter - 10 Recruitment Methods 39
Chapter - 11 Employee Selection Process 42
Chapter - 12 Employee Training Method 45

UNIT - V ELEMENTS OF MARKETING

Chapter - 13 Concept of Market and Marketer 48
Chapter - 14 Marketing and Marketing Mix 51
Chapter - 15 Recent Trends in Marketing 55

UNIT - VI CONSUMER PROTECTION

Chapter - 16 Consumerism 58
Chapter - 17 Rights, Duties & Responsibilities of Consumers 62
Chapter - 18 Grievance Redressal Mechanism 65
Chapter - 19 Environmental Factors 68
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce UNIT - VII Business Environment
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] Chapter - 20 Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization 71
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699

 [Link] [Link]

UNIT - VIII THE SALE OF GOODS ACT 1930 AND THE NEGOTIABLE INSTRUMENTS 12 – Commerce
ACT 1881
Book Back & Book Inside
Chapter - 21 The Sale of Goods Act 1930 74 One Mark Question and Answer
Chapter - 22 The Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 77
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
UNIT - IX ENTREPRENEURSHIP DEVELOPMENT PG Assistant in Commerce
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
Chapter - 23 Elements of Entrepreneurship 80
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
Chapter - 24 Types of Entrepreneurs 83
Chapter - 25 Government Schemes for Entrepreneurial Development 87 Unit – I Management Process
Chapter 1 - Principles of Management
UNIT – X COMPANY LAW AND SECRETARIAL PRACTICE
I. Choose the correct answers
Chapter - 26 Companies Act 2013 90
Chapter - 27 Companies Management 93 1. Management is what a _____________ does?
Chapter - 28 Company Secretary 96 (a) Manager (b) Subordinate (c) Supervisor (d) Superior

2. Management is an _____________.
(a) Art (b) Science (c) Art and Science (d) Art or Science
Thank You
3. Scientific management is developed by ____________.
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link]., (a) Fayol (b) Taylor (c) Mayo (d) Jacob
PG Assistant in Commerce
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] 4. Dividing the work into small tasks is known as ____________.
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 (a) Discipline (b) Unity (c) Division of Work (d) Equity

5. With a wider span, there will be _____________ hierarchical levels.

(a) More (b) Less (c) Multiple (d) Additional

6. The founder of scientific management was ____________.

(a) Peter [Link] (b) Frederick Taylor (c) Henry Fayol (d) Elton

7. The first management principles were developed by ____________.

(a) Victor Meldrew (b) Charles (c) Henry Fayol (d) Taylor

8. Studying the future and arranging the means for dealing with it is part of the process of
(a) Organizing (b) Controlling (c) Coordinating (d) Planning

9. Principles of management are not _____________.

(a) Absolute (b) Flexible (c) Behavioural (d) Universal

10. The principles of management are significant because of ____________.

(a) Changing technology (b) Utilisation of resources (c) Increase in efficiency (d) Initiative

11. Henry Fayol was a ____________.

(a) Social scientist (b) Accountant (c) Production Engineer (d) Mining Engineer

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12. Which of the following is not a function of management? 26. Which one of the following is not included in the 4 M’s of Management Principles?
(a) Staffing (b) Planning (c) Controlling (d) Cooperation (a) Men (b) Machine (c) Method (d) Material

13. Find the odd one out. 27. Which of the following approach emphasizes dynamic nature of management process in an
(a) Board of Directors (b) Chief Executive (c) Foremen (d) Shareholders ever changing business environment?
(a) Contingency approach (b) Systems approach (c) Behavioral approach (d) None
14. Which of the following is not true?
(a) Management is universal (b) Management is an art 28. “Management is the art of getting things done through other people” – This
(c) Management is a social process (d) Management is always bureaucratic Statement comes under which part of Management process?
(a) Co-ordination Process (b) Purposive Process (c) Social Process (d) All the above
15. Modern managers are:
(a) Action oriented (b) Able to build a sense of shared values 29. A change in the attitude of workers and management towards each other is known as
(c) Able to manage changes efficiently (d) All of the above ________________.
(a) Mental Revolution (b) Co-operation (c) Both a & b (d) None
16. The father of Scientific Management is ____________.
(a) [Link] (b) Henry Fayol (c) Luther Gullick (d) Urwick 30. Which of the following feature does not form one of Fayol’s 14 principles of management?
(a) Esprit de Corps (b) Individualism (c) Initiative (d) Order
17. The father of Modern Management is ____________.
(a) [Link] (b) Henry Fayol (c) Luther Gullick (d) Urwick
Thank You
18. Henry Fayol has developed _____________ principles of management.
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 16
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
19. The Scientific Management was confined to ____________ function only. PG Assistant in Commerce
(a) Sales (b) Accounting (c) Production (d) Finance E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
20. The most misinterpreted word in management is _____________.
(a) Planning (b) Controlling (c) Delegating (d) Organizing

21. Under Scientific Management Scientific task setting includes________________.

(a) Time Study (b) Motion Study (c) Method Study (d) All the above

22. “Management is a multiple purpose organ that manages a business, manages a Manager
and manages workers and work” – Who said this?
(a) Harold Konntz (b) Peter Drucker (c) Kenneth O’ Donell (d) Henry Fayol

23. Authority, discipline, unity of command and unity of direction are _______________.
(a) Taylor’s four principles of management (b) Principles of human relations movement
(c) Elements of Weber’s ideal bureaucratic structure
(d) Four of Fayol’s fourteen principles of management

24. Which one of the following is not a basic function of the management process?
(a) Controlling (b) Organising (c) Motivating (d) Working

25. The recent emerged type of managerial job is _____________.

(a) Top Manager (b) Middle Manager (c) First Line Manager (d) None of the above

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3

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12 – Commerce 10. Following are some of the statements related with management.
(a) Management is essential in all organizations as well as at all levels of an organization.
Unit – I Management Process
(b) Management makes policy and administration carries it out
Chapter 2 – Functions of Management
(c) In modern times, management can be replaced by the computer.
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link]., (d) Top Management is also known as administrative management
PG Assistant in Commerce The correct statements are:
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
11. Which of the following skills is equally important at all levels of management?
I. Choose the correct answers (a) Technical skill (b) Human Relation skill (c) Conceptual skill (d) All of the above

1. Which is the primary function of management? 12. Which principle of management emphasizes replacement of rule of thumb method?
(a) Innovating (b) Controlling (c) Planning (d) Decision-making (a) Decision Theory (b) Administrative Theory
(c) Scientific Management Theory (d) Contingency Theory
2. Which of the following is not a main function? .

(a) Decision-making (b) Planning (c) Organising (d) Staffing 13. The number of subordinates a superior can effectively handle is called _____________.
(a) Organizing people (b) Span of Control (c) Co-ordination (d) Direction
3. Distribution of work in group wise or section wise is called as _____________.
(a) Co-ordinating (b) Controlling (c) Staffing (d) Organising 14. “Espirit De Corps” principle was enunciated by ______________.
(a) Earnest Dale (b) Chestor Bernard (c) Henry Fayol (d) None of the above
4. Which of the following is verification function?
(a) Planning (b) Organising (c) Staffing (d) Controlling 15. Which of the following is not the management function?
(a) Co-operation (b) Planning (c) Organising (d) Controlling
5. Which of the following functions or activities requires recruiting and placing qualified
personnel needed for the organization so that it may achieve its objectives and goals? 16. Empirical Approach of management is also known as __________ approach of management.
(a) Planning (b) Staffing (c) Organizing (d) Controlling (a) Traditional (b) Contingency (c) systems (d) behavioural

6. _____________ is concerned with marshalling the human and other resources of the 17. “The principles of scientific management” book is published by [Link] in the
organization. year_____________.
(a) Planning (b) Organizing (c) Directing (d) Controlling (a) 1911 (b) 1921 (c) 1931 (d) 1941

7. Which of the following management functions involve analyzing information, setting goals, 18. Administration is concerned with thinking function while management is concerned with
and making decisions about what needs to be done? _____________ function.
(a) Planning (b) Organizing (c) Directing (d) Controlling (a) Planning (b) Auditing (c) Doing (d) Developing

8. The word ____________ denotes a function, a task, and a discipline. 19. POSDCORB means_____________.
(a) Management (b) Leadership (c) Motivation (d) None of the above (a) Planning, Organising, Directing, Controlling, Report Writing
(b) Planning, Organising, Staffing, Directing, Controlling, Reporting and Budgeting
9. Span of management may be larger in the case of ________________. (c) Planning, Organising, Staffing, Directing, Costing, Reconciliation and Budgeting
(a) Hard working subordinates (b) Loyal subordinates (d) None of the above
(c) Centralised works and less responsibility (d) Repetitive work and clear responsibility
20. Assertion (A): When span of control is wide co-ordination and control becomes difficult.
Reason (R): In a narrow span, levels of authority reduce.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2

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(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 34. Selection and placement of competent personnel is known as ______________.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (a) Communicating (b) Innovating (c) Motivating (d) Staffing

21. Management functions are called as ____________. 35. _____________ is performed to evaluate the performance of employees.
(a) Managerial process (b) Cyclical process (a) Staffing (b) Controlling (c) Selecting (d) Training
(c) Psychological process (d) Accounting process
36. Goals are achieved with the help of _____________.
22. Nothing can be performed without _____________. (a) Motivation (b) Depreciation (c) Evaluation (d) Examination
(a) Organising (b) Staffing (c) Planning (d) Controlling
37. Nothing can be performed without _____________.
23. Consumers are satisfied through ______________. (a) Planning (b) Motivating (c) Controlling (d) Co-ordination
(a) Coordination (b) Motivation (c) Innovation (d) Representation
38. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
24. Which of the following is not a function of management? (a) Planning – Work assigned (b) Representation – Right man for the right job
(a) Budgeting (b) Profit earning (c) Staffing (d) Planning (c) Motivation – Fair treatment (d) Co-ordination – Communication

25. Which among the following is not a subsidiary function of management? 39. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Communication (b) Innovation (c) Motivation (d) Decision-making (a) Controlling – Remedial Training (b) Innovation – New Techniques
(c) Communication – Representative (d) Staffing – Selection
26. Co-ordination means _____________.
(a) Organising activities (b) Directing activities (c) Synchronizing activities (d) All of these 40. Distribution of work in group wise or section wise is called as _____________.
(a) Co-ordinating (b) Controlling (c) Staffing (d) Organising
27. Strategic planning is done by ____________.
(a) Top managers of the firm (b) Middle managers 41. Find the odd one out:
(c) Supervisory managers (d) Non supervisory employees (a) Primary Function (b) Harmonious Relationship
(c) Evaluate the performance (d) Developing new materials
28. Empowerment is related to _____________.
(a) Planning (b) Organizing (c) Directing (d) Controlling 42. Find the odd one out:
(a) Representative of a company (b) Opinion from one person to another
29. Supervisory management spends most of his/her time _____________.
(c) Synchronization of the actions of all individuals (d) Decision makings
(a) Planning and Controlling (b) Directing and Controlling
(c) Planning and Organizing (d) Organizing and Controlling 43. Match List I with List II

30. Coordinating people and human resources to accomplish organizational goals is the process List – I List – II
of _____________. i Planning 1 Guiding and Communicating
(a) Planning (b) Directing (c) Management (d) Leadership ii Innovation 2 Performance employees
iii Controlling 3 Face the changes
31. Which is the Secondary Function of Management? iv Directing 4 Think Before you Act
(a) Innovation (b) Planning (c) Motivation (d) Controlling
(a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1 (b) i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2
32. “Look Before you Leap” is an usual traditional proverb which provides a basis or logic for (c) i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3 (d) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
(a) Organising (b) Planning (c) Controlling (d) Decision Making

33. ______________ is the process of establishing harmonious relationship among the members
of an organisation.
(a) Staffing (b) Directing (c) Organising (d) Co-ordination

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 4

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44. Match List I with List II 12 – Commerce

List – I List – II Unit – I Management Process
i Organising 1 Transmission of human thoughts Chapter – 3 Management By Objectives (MBO)
ii Co-ordination 2 Representative of a Company Management By Exception (MBE)
iii Representation 3 Integration of actions
iv Communication 4 Placement of personnel [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce
(a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1 (b) i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-2 E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
(c) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1 (d) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2 Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
45. Match List I with List II I. Choose the correct answers
List – I List – II
1. _____________ System gives full Scope to the Individual Strength and Responsibility.
i Decision making 1 Writing a book
(a) MBO (b) MBE (c) MBM (d) MBA
ii Motivating 2 Selection
iii Staffing 3 Incentive 2. Which is the First step in Process of MBO?
iv Planning 4 Smooth functioning (a) Fixing Key Result Area (b) Appraisal of Activities
(a) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4 (b) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1 (c) Matching Resources with Activities (d) Defining Organisational Objectives
(c) i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3 (d) i-1, ii-4, iii-2, iv-4 3. ____________ keeps Management Alert to Opportunities and Threats by Identifying Critical
46. Assertion (A): Placement of right person in the right jobs. Problems.
Reason (R): The success of any enterprise depends on performance of staffing. (a) MBA (b) MBE (c) MBM (d) MBO
(a) (A) is True (R) is False
(b) (A) is False (R) is True 4. Delegation of Authority is easily done with the Help of _____________.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are True (a) MBM (b) MBE (c) MBO (d) MBA
(d) Both (A) and (R) are False
5. MBO refers to _____________.
47. Assertion (A): Planning is the primary function of management. (a) Management By Objective (b) Management By Officers
Reason (R): Anything can be performed without planning. (c) Management By Orders (d) Management By Organisation
(a) (A) is True (R) is False
6. MBE refers to _____________.
(b) (A) is False (R) is True
(a) Management By Exception (b) Management By Expectation
(c) Both (A) and (R) are True
(c) Management By Excitement (d) Management By Employment
(d) Both (A) and (R) are False
7. It is based on the belief that an attempt to control everything results in controlling nothing.
(a) MBA (b) MBM (c) MBO (d) MBE
Thank You
8. KRA refers to _____________.
(a) Key Result Areas (b) Key Reference Action
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link]., (c) Known Result Areas (d) Knowledge Resource Aim
PG Assistant in Commerce
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] 9. Which is the second step in MBO?
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 (a) Guided setting of objective (b) Out going Performance discussion
(c) Develop performance standards (d) Review job and agreement

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 5 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1

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10. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? 22. Objectives are the _____________ of the management action.
(a) MBO – Management by Objective (b) MBA – Master of Business Administration (a) Design (b) End points (c) Starting points (d) Planning
(c) MBM – Master of Business Management (d) MBE – Management By Extraordinary
23. MBO is also known as ______________.
11. What is MBO? (a) Management by results (b) Management by goals
(a) Managerial Business objects (b) Management by objectives (c) Management by planning (d) Management by evaluation
(c) Management by organization (d) Management of Business organisation
24. MBO was developed by _____________.
12. MBO is popularised in ____________. (a) [Link] (b) Chester Bernard (c) Fayol d) None
(a) USA (b) Japan (c) India (d) UK
25. MBO offers the basis for assessing the _____________.
13. MBO is a/an ____________. (a) Operations (b) Performance (c) Equality (d) None
(a) Philosophy (b) Training (c) Principle (d) Management system
26. _____________ is a time consuming process.
14. Systematic evaluation of performance is made with the help of (a) MBE (b) KRA (c) MBO (d) None of these
(a) MBO (b) KRA (c) MBE (d) MBA
27. _____________ can avoid uniformed and impulsive action.
15. Management by objective is ____________. (a) MBO (b) MBE (c) KRA (d) HRM
(a) Goal oriented (b) work oriented (c) both (d) None of these
28. ______________ is taken by the management very quickly.
16. Second step is process of management by objectives is to ____________. (a) Decision (b) Planning (c) Motivation (d) Staffing
(a) Guided setting of objective (b) Ongoing performance discussion
(c) Review job and agreement (d) Develop performance standards 29. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) MBO - Management By Objectives (b) MBE - Management By Exception
17. Management by objective (MBO) is also known as _____________. (c) KRA - Key Results Area (d) MBO - Management By Organisation
(a) Management by results (b) Management by goals
30. ______________ focuses managerial attention on major problems.
(c) Management by planning (d) Management by evaluation
(a) MBA (b) HRA (c) MBE (d) MBO
18. Management by objective is a ______________.
(a) Set of rules (b) Series of procedure 31. Assertion (A): Strategies necessarily need to be changed over time to suit environmental
(c) Way of thinking about management (d) All of the above changes.
Reason (R): To remain competitive, organisations develop those strategies that create value
19. Objectives are decided by _____________. for customers.
(a) Superior (b) Subordinates Codes:
(c) Mutual consultations of both superior and subordinates (d) None of these (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct
20. The following is/are the disadvantages of Management by objective (MBO) ____________. (C) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct (D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(a) Inflexibility (b) Lack of relevant skill 32. Assertion (A): KRA indicates the strength of an organisation.
(c) Lack of individual motivation (d) All of the above Reason (R): Objectives are expressed in a meaningful manner.
21. Which one of the following is not true for MBO? (a) (A) is True (R) is True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is True (R) is False but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(a) It acts an effective performance appraisal tool
(c) (A) and (R) are False
(b) The superior evaluate the individual concerned
(c) It forces the management to plan the activities in a systematic way (d) (A) and (R) are True
(d) Better management and improved communication

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3

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33. Match List I with List II 12 – Commerce

List – I List – II Unit – II Financial Markets - I
i Matching Resources 1 Subordinate objective fixed. Chapter – 4 Introduction to Financial Markets
ii Appraisal of Activities 2 Framed on the basis of resources.
iii Periodical Review 3 Discussion between superiors and subordinates [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
iv Targets 4 Hold meeting periodically PG Assistant in Commerce
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
(a) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1 (b) i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(c) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 (d) i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2
I. Choose the correct answers

Thank You 1. Financial market facilitates business firms _____________.

(a) To rise funds (b) To recruit workers
(c) To make more sales (d) To minimize fund requirement
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce 2. Capital market is a market for ____________.
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] (a) Short Term Finance (b) Medium Term Finance
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 (c) Long Term Finance (d) Both Short Term and Medium Term Finance

3. Primary market is also called as _____________.

(a) Secondary market (b) Money market (c) New Issue Market (d) Indirect Market

4. Spot Market is a market where the delivery of the financial instrument and payment of cash
occurs ______________.
(a) Immediately (b) In the future (c) Uncertain (d) After one month

5. How many times a security can be sold in a secondary market?

(a) Only one time (b) Two time (c) Three times (d) Multiple times

6. Primary and Secondary markets ______________.

(a) Compete with each other (b) Complement each other
(c) Function independently (d) Control each other

7. In primary markets, first time issued shares to be publicly traded, in stock markets is
considered as ______________.
(a) Traded offering (b) Public markets (c) Issuance offering (d) Initial public offering

8. In primary markets, property of shares which made it easy to sell newly issued security is
considered as _____________.
(a) Increased liquidity (b) Decreased liquidity (c) Money flow (d) Large funds

9. Money market where debit and stocks are traded and maturity period is more than a year is
classified as _____________.
(a) Short term markets (b) Long term markets (c) Capital markets (d) None of these

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10. Type of structured market through which funds flow with help of financial instruments 24. Stock Exchange Market is also called _______________.
such as bonds and stocks is classified as ____________. (a) Spot Market (b) Local market (c) Securities Market (d) National Market
(a) Financial markets (b) Flow markets (c) Funds markets (d) Capital markets
25. The basic purpose of financial management is ______________.
11. The first issues are floated in _____________. (a) Assets Maximization (b) Sales Maximization
(a) Primary market (b) Secondary market (c) Commodity market (d) Regulated market (c) Wealth Maximization (d) All of the above

12. Type of market in which securities with less than one year maturity are traded, is classified 26. Finance functions are ______________.
as ______________. (a) Planning of funds (b) Raising of funds (c) Allocation of Resources (d) All of the above
(a) Money market (b) Capital market (c) Transaction market (d) Global market
27. Which of the following is the limitation of profit maximization?
13. Process of selling and buying of stocks and bonds is classified as ______________. (a) Financial management ignores time value of money
(a) e-trade (b) stock trade (c) both a and b (d) None of these (b) Financial management overlooks quality
(c) Ignores social responsibility of business (d) All of these
14. ______________ for productive purposes is also made possible.
(a) Saving mobilization (b) Investment (c) Flow of funds (d) None of these 28. ______________ is the financial market for trading in Equity Shares of Companies.
(a) Equity Market (b) Capital Market (c) Primary Market (d) None of the above
15. _____________ is the market for securities that are already issued.
(a) Primary market (b) Secondary market (c) Debt market (d) Equity market 29. Which of the following are dealt with Money Market?
(a) Treasury Bills (b) Commercial Paper (c) Certificates of Deposit (d) All of the above
16. _____________ Market has physical existence.
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Cash (d) Forward 30. Which of the following is Marketable Assets?
(a) Shares of Listed Companies (b) Government Securities
17. _____________ Assets are those which can be easily transferred from one person to another.
(c) Bonds of Public Sector Undertakings (d) All of these
(a) Marketable (b) Non-Marketable (c) Tangible (d) Fixed
31. Raising funds for short-term purpose is ____________.
18. ______________ Market is for long term financial claim.
(a) Economical (b) costly (c) beneficial (d) None of these
(a) Money Market (b) Capital Market (c) Future Market (d) Spot Market
32. Payment after a specific date is ____________ in case of bank credit.
19. __________ Assets are those which cannot be easily transferred from one person to another.
(a) Compulsory (b) Not compulsory (c) Undefined (d) None of these
(a) Marketable (b) Non-Marketable (c) Current (d) Non-current
33. Public deposit cannot be for more than _____________.
20. Building is bought for residence purpose, it becomes _____________ Asset.
(a) one year (b) two year (c) three year (d) four year
(a) Financial (b) Fixed (c) Physical (d) NOTA
34. The finance manager is responsible for _____________.
21. Building is bought for hiring purpose, it becomes ______________ Asset.
(a) Proper utilization of funds (b) Arrangement of financial resources
(a) Financial (b) Tangible (c) Physical (d) All of these
(c) Acquiring capital assets of the organization (d) Efficient management of capital
22. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
35. Assertion (A): Accounting information refers to only events which are concerned with
(a) Financial Asset – For hiring purpose (b) Physical Asset – For residence Purpose
business firm.
(c) Marketable Asset – Can be transferred
Reason (R): Accounting information is presented in financial statements.
(d) Non Marketable Asset – Government Securities
Codes:
23. Pick the odd one out: (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(a) Debt Market (b) NIM (c) Equity Market (d) Niche Market (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

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36. Assertion (A): Sinking fund is a charge against Profit and Loss Account. 41. Match List I with List II
Reason (R): Sinking fund is created for repayment of a long term liability. List – I List – II
In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct? i Debt Market 1 Short term finance
Codes: ii Money Market 2 Government Bonds
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong. iii Future Market 3 Stock Exchange
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct. iv Secondary Market 4 Time framed in future
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong. (a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1 (b) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
(c) i-3, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1 (d) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
37. Assertion (A): As the proportion of one variable factor in a combination with fixed factor is
increased, after a point the marginal product of the factor will diminish. 42. Find the odd one out:
Reason (R): Beyond the level of optimum combination of inputs leads to this. (a) Money Market (b) Capital Market (c) Over-the-counter Market (d) Primary Market
Codes:
43. Find the odd one out:
(A) (R) is appropriate reason of (A).
(a) Regulators (b) Financial Institutions (c) Financial Services (d) Debt market
(B) (R) is not appropriate reason of (A).
(C) (A) and (R) are not related with each other. 44. Find the odd one out:
(D) (A) is independent of (R). (a) Planning of funds (b) Raising of funds
(c) Allocation of Resources (d) Sales Maximisation
38. Statement A: An Equity market i also know as a Stock market.
Statement B: An equity market is a market in which shares are issued and traded either
through exchanges or over the counter markets. Thank You
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct
PG Assistant in Commerce
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
39. Assertion (A): Exchange Traded Market I a centralized organization with standardized Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
procedures.
Reason (R): All the financial markets are considered for savings mobilization
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong

40. Match List I with List II

List – I List – II
i Spot Market 1 Long term finance
ii Primary Market 2 Settlement immediately
iii Capital Market 3 Equity Market
iv Equity Shares 4 Issued first time

(a) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3 (b) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1
(c) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1 (d) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4

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12 – Commerce 12. Which of the following does financial services industry consist of?
I. Tele communication II. Insurance III. Funds Management IV. Trusts
Unit – II Financial Markets – I
(a) I and II (b) III and IV (c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
Chapter – 5 Capital Market
13. Stock exchange _____________ speculation in shares.
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(a) Does not allow (b) Discourage (c) encourage (d) Prohibits
PG Assistant in Commerce
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] 14. Primary market is concerned with _____________.
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 (a) Increase in shares (b) Decrease in shares (c) Issue of new shares (d) None of these

I. Choose the correct answers 15. The players in the capital market are _____________.
(a) Individuals (b) Banks (c) Government (d) All of these
1 Capital market do not provide ____________.
(a) Short term Funds (b) Debenture Funds (c) Equity Funds (d) Long term Funds 16. Channelling savings of small investors into productive investment is called _____________.
(a) Mutual Fund (b) Bond (c) Equity (d) Stocks
2 When the NSEI was established _____________.
1990 (b) 1992( c) 1998 (d) 1997 17. How to determine the price of the securities in capital market ______________.
(a) Investment (b) Savings (c) Deposits (d) Demand and Supply
3 Primary market is a Market where securities are traded in the _____________.
(a) First Time (b) Second Time (c) Three Time (d) Several Times 18. Capital market provides ______________ Funds.
(a) Short term (b) Long term (c) Medium Term (d) Quick
4 Participants in the capital market includes _____________.
(a) Individuals (b) Corporate (c) Financial Institutions (d) All of the above 19. Primary Market facilitates ______________.
(a) Capital formation (b) Trade (c) Funds (d) Securities
5. Right issue refers to the shares issued to ______________.
(a) Employees (b) public (c) Existing directors (d) Existing shareholders 20. Securities sold to public is known as ______________.
(a) Right issue (b) public issue (c) offer for sale (d) Bonus shares
6. Which market facilitates capital formations?
(a) Primary market (b) Secondary market (c) Debt market (d) Money market 21. The capital market is also known as ________
(a) Factoring (b) Commodity market (c) Securities Market (d) Foreign Market
7. The existence of a capital market enables companies to raise ____________.
(a) Capital formation (b) Permanent capital (c) Industrial growth (d) All of these 22. Pick the odd one out:
(a) Mutual Funds (b) Venture Funds (c) OTCEI (d) Reserve Funds
8. Which markets make possible to generate foreign capital?
(a) Primary market (b) Secondary market (c) Money market (d) Capital market 23. Which one is not correctly matched?
(a) Foreign Exchange Market – All Currencies (b) Deviation Market – Indian Currency
9. NSEI was established in ______________.
(c) Hard Commodities Market – Iron and Ore
(a) 1990 (b) 1992 (c) 1996 (d) 1998
(d) Soft Commodities Market – Coffee and Sugar
10. The NSDL was setup in the year _____________.
24. Which one is correctly matched?
(a) 1990 (b) 1992 (c) 1996 (d) 1998
(a) Venture Fund – Hi-technology projects (b) Mutual Fund – Sale of account receivables
11. Which of the following instruments are traded in capital market? (c) Factoring – Scripless and floor less (d) NSEI – Savings of Small investors
(a) Government agency securities (b) Negotiable Bank CDs
25. How many times a security can be sold in a secondary market?
(c) Repurchase agreements (d) Commercial papers
(a) Only One Time (b) Two Time (c) Three Times (d) Multiple Times

26. The capital market is also called as _______________.

(a) Securities Market (b) Spot Market (c) Primary Market (d) None
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27. The method of raising capital by new companies through sale of securities to the public is a b c d
known as______________. (a) 4 3 1 2
(a) Private Issue (b) Right Issue (c) Public Issue (d) None (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 2 1 4
28. The existing company raise additional capital by which one of the following method?
(d) 4 3 2 1
(a) Private Issue (b) Right Issue (c) Public Issue (d) None
38. Match List I and List II
29. Credit Rating was introduced by _______________.
List - I List - II
(a) SIDBI (b) WTO (c) TDICI (d) SEBI
(a) WTO 1. Provides loans to address short term BOP
30. National Stock Exchange of India Limited was established in the year __________. (b) RBI 2. Multilateral trade negotiating body
(a) 1992 (b) 1982 (c) 1977 (d) 1968 (c) IMF 3. Facilitating lending and borrowing for reconstruction and development
(d) IBRD 4. Central Bank of India
31. Which of the following are Hard Commodities?
a b c d
(a) Gold (b) Oil (c) Rubber (d) All the above
(a) 2 4 1 3
32. The NSDL was set up in the year _____________. (b) 4 3 2 1
(a) 1992 (b) 1982 (c) 1996 (d) 1968 (c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
33. Money market where debt and stocks are traded and maturity period is more than a year is
classified as _____________. 39. Match List I and List II
(a) Global Market (b) Capital Market (c) Counter Market (d) Long term market List - I List - II
(a) Authorised capital 1. A registered Capital
34. Type of market in which securities with less than one year maturity are traded, is classified (b) Issued Capital 2. Which is issued for public
as _____________. (c) Subscribed Capital 3. Which is purchased by the capital
(a) Money Market (b) Capital Market (c) Counter Market (d) Long term market (d) Paid-up Capital 4. That part has been paid by the shareholders
35. The short term financial instruments traded in money market are commonly called as___. a b c d
(a) Bonds (b) Commercial Papers (c) Shares (d) Debentures (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
36. Match List I with List II (c) 1 3 4 2
List – I List – II (d) 2 3 4 1
i NSDL 1 Stock Holding Corporation
40. Assertion (A): Government has liberalised FDI in the country.
ii SHCIL 2 Transparent System of Securities Trading
Reason (R): It brings foreign capital and technologies.
iii NCDS 3 Dematerialisation
(a) (A) is True (R) is False
iv NSEI 4 National clearing system
(b) (A) is False (R) is True
(a) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2 (b) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3 (c) Both (A) and (R) are True
(c) i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1 (d) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4 (d) Both (A) and (R) are False

37. Match the Following: 41. Assertion (A): Many specialized financial institutions promoted their own venture capital
List - I List - II Funds.
(a) NCDS i Over the Counter Exchange of India Reason (R): These include IFCI, IDBI, SIDBI venture Funds.
(b) NSEI ii Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (a) (A) is True (R) is also True
(c) SHCIL iii National Stock Exchange of India Limited (b) (A) is False (R) is True
(d) OTCEI iv National Clearance and Depository System (c) (A) is True (R) is False
(d) Both (A) and (R) are False

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12 – Commerce 11. Treasury bills and Commercial bills are the example of ____________.
(a) Money market (b) Capital market (c) Debt market (d) Debt market
Unit – II Financial Markets – I
Chapter – 6 Money Market 12. Which market deals with shares and debentures?
(a) Money market (b) Capital market (c) Debt market (d) Primary market
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce 13. A market for the purchase and sale of Treasury bills are known as ____________.
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] (a) Treasury bills market (b) Call loan market (c) Bill market (d) None of these
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
14. Certificate of Deposits are issued in the form of usance ____________.
I. Choose the correct answers (a) Bills of exchange (b) Promissory notes (c) Commercial bills (d) None of these
1. The money invested in the call money market provides high liquidity with ____________. 15. The Issuers of certificate of Deposits are _____________.
(a) Low Profitability (b) High Profitability (c) Limited Profitability (d) Medium Profitability (a) Drawer (b) Treasure bills (c) Commercial banks (d) Corporations
2. A major player in the money market is the _________________. 16. Bills that are accompanied by documents of title to goods are called _____________.
(a) Commercial Bank (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) State Bank of India (d) Central Bank (a) Foreign bills (b) Indigenous bills (c) Documentary bills (d) Demand bills
3. Money Market provides_______________. 17. Certificate of deposits which are usually negotiable are issued by ______________.
(a) Medium-term Funds (b) Short-term Funds (c) Long-term Funds (d) Shares (a) Banks (b) stock exchange (c) business corporation (d) financial markets
4. Money Market Institutions are _____________. 18. Negotiable deposit certificate are traded in _____________.
(a) Investment Houses (b) Mortgage Banks (a) Primary market (b) Direct market (c) Indirect market (d) secondary market
(c) Reserve Bank of India (d) Commercial Banks and Discount Houses
19. Maximum maturity days of holding commercial paper are _____________.
5. Risk in the Money Market is _____________. (a) 170 days (b) 270 days (c) 120 days (d) 100 days
(a) High b) Market Risk (c) Low Credit and Market Risk (d) Medium Risk
20. Certificate of deposits which are usually negotiable are issued by _____________.
6. Debt Instruments are issued by Corporate Houses are raising short-term financial resources (a) Banks (b) Financial market (c) Stock exchange (d) Business corporations
from the money market are called _____________.
(a) Treasury Bills (b) Commercial Paper (c) Certificate of Deposit (d) Government Securities 21. Who Regulates the Money Market?
(a) Central Bank (b) Commercial Bank (c) Private Sector Banks (d) NOTA
7. The market for buying and selling of Commercial Bills of Exchange is known as __________.
(a) Commercial Paper Market (b) Treasury Bill Market 22. Government of different countries are the participants of _______________.
(c) Commercial Bill Market (d) Capital Market (a) Capital Market (b) Money Market (c) Securities Market (d) All of these

8. A marketable document of title to a time deposit for a specified period may be referred to as 23. _______________ Bills are drawn without accompanying any document.
a _____________. (a) Clean (b) Documentary (c) Inland (d) Foreign
(a) Treasury Bill (b) Certificate of Deposit (c) Commercial Bill (d) Government Securities
24. _______________ Bills are governed by native custom or usage of Trade.
9. Treasury Bills commands _____________. (a) Accommodation (b) Inland (c) Supply (d) Indigenous
(a) High Liquidity (b) Low Liquidity (c) Medium Liquidity (d) Limited Liquidity
25. Pick the odd one out:
10. Government Securities are issued by agencies such as ______________. (a) Drawer (b) Drawee (c) Payee (d) Proprietor
(a) Central Government (b) State Governments
26. Pick the odd one out:
(c) Semi-government Authorities (d) All of the above
(a) Endorser (b) Endorsee (c) Grace days (d) Creditor

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27. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? 35. Assertion (A): Treasury Bills enjoy higher degree of liquidity since they are issued by
(a) Demand Bill - Payable immediately (b) Accomodation Bill - Genuine transaction Government.
(c) Indigenous Bill - Native custom (d) Documentary Bills - Railway Receipt Reason (R): The Government promises to pay the specific amount on the due date
(a) (A) is True (R) is False
28. Commercial paper issued with low interest rate thus commercial paper is categorized as (b) (A) is False (R) is True
_______________. (c) Both (A) and (R) are False
(a) Payables rating (b) Commercial rating (c) Poor Credit Rating (d) Better Credit rating (d) Both (A) and (R) are True
29. Maximum maturity days of holding Commercial paper are ______________. 36. Assertion (A): A demand bill is one where in no specific time of payment is mentioned.
(a) 180 days (b) 91 days (c) 270 days (d) None of the above Reason (R): So, it has to be payable immediately on demand.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
30. Which of the following is a sub-market?
(b) Both (A) are (R) are incorrect
(a) Acceptance Market (b) Cash Market (c) Primary Market (d) None
(c) A is correct
31. Which of the following are the issuers of Certificate of Deposits? (d) R is incorrect
(a) Commercial Banks (b) Financial Institutions (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None

32. A Bill wherein no specific time of payment is mentioned is known as ______________. Thank You
(a) Indigenous Bill (b) Clean Bill (c) Demand Bill (d) Post Dated Bill

33. Match List I with List II [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,

List – I List – II PG Assistant in Commerce
i Treasury Bill Market 1 Short term Funds E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
ii CD Market 2 Long term Funds Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
iii Money Market 3 Higher degree of liquidity
iv Capital Market 4 Issued by Commercial Banks
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 1 3 2

34. Match List I with List II

List – I List – II
i Inland Bills 1 Documents attached
ii Documentary Bills 2 No documents attached
iii Clean Bills 3 Drawn in India
iv Foreign Bills 4 Drawn outside India
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 4 1 2

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12 – Commerce 11. Amsterdam stock exchange was established in the year _____________.
(a) 1602 (b) 1604 (c) 1666 (d) 1680
Unit – III Financial Markets – II
Chapter – 7 Stock Exchange 12. Which of the following securities are bought and sold are recorded and made public?
(a) Protection to investors (b) Capital formation (c) Market quotations (d) None of these
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce 13. People like to invest in the shares of such companies which yield ______________.
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] (a) Goodwill (b) Good profits (c) Financial position is high (d) Services
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
14. Stock exchange requires recognition from the _______________.
I. Choose the correct answers (a) State government (b) Central government (c) Commercial bank (d) Financial institutions
1. ____________ is the oldest stock exchange in the world. 15. Stock exchange encourages ______________.
(a) London Stock Exchange (b) Bombay Stock Exchange (a) Raising fund (b) Capital formation (c) Divert resources (d) Bargaining strength
(c) National Stock Exchange (d) Amsterdam Stock Exchange
16. Jobbers are also called as ______________.
2. There are _____________ stock exchanges in the country. (a) Taravaniwalas (b) Gambling (c) Speculation (d) Bear
(a) 21 (b) 24 (c) 20 (d) 25
17. The prices of different securities traded are shown on ________________.
3. Stock exchanges deal in ______________. (a) State Boards (b) Central Boards (c) Electronic Boards (d) None of these
(a) Goods (b) Services (c) Financial Securities (d) Country’s Currency
18. Who act as intermediaries between buyers and sellers of securities?
4. Stock exchange allow trading in _____________. (a) Authorised clerks (b) Brokers (c) Jobbers (d) Speculation
(a) All types of Shares of any Company (b) Bonds issued by the Govt
(c) Listed Securities (d) Unlisted Securities 19. Tejiwala is an ______________.
(a) Pessimistic speculator (b) Optimistic speculator (c) Premium hunter (d) Taravaniwalas
5. Jobbers transact in a stock exchange _____________.
(a) For their Clients (b) For their Own Transactions 20. A bear is a _____________.
(c) For other Brokers (d) For other Members (a) Premium hunter (b) Optimistic speculator (c) Pessimistic speculator (d) Tejiwala

6. A pessimistic speculator is ______________. 21. A cautious speculator is _______________.

(a) Stag (b) Bear (c) Bull (d) Lame Duck (a) Bull (b) Bear (c) Stag (d) Lame Duck

7. An optimistic speculator is ______________. 22. A Bear operator believes in _______________.

(a) Bull (b) Bear (c) Stag (d) Lame duck (a) Increase in Price (b) Decrease in Price (c) Stability in Price (d) No Change in Price

8. A bull operator believes in _____________. 23. ______________ Speculator is also know as “Premium Hunter”.
(a) Increase in Prices (b) Decrease in Prices (c) Stability in Prices (d) No change in Prices (a) Stag (b) Lame Duck (c) Bull (d) Bear

9. ______________ means the price at which securities are bought and sold are recorded and 24. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
made public. (a) Jobbers - India pendent operators (b) Brokers - Intermediatries
(a) Market Quotations (b) Trade Quotations (c) Business Quotations (d) Buyers Quotations (c) Authorised clerks - Employee (d) Bull – Mandiwala

10. The rules and regulations of Stock exchange are framed by _______________ guide lines. 25. Pick the odd one out:
(a) RBI (b) Central Government (c) SEBI (d) BSE (a) Bull (b) Bear (c) Stag (d) Swan

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26. Pick the odd one out : 38. The literal translation of Dalal in Marathi is _____________.
(a) Khazimar Street (b) Dalal Street (c) Wall Street (d) Lombard Street (a) Broker (b) Intermediary (c) Both A & B (d) None

27. Choose the correct statement. 39. What is the full form of SENSEX?
(i) Future market is an Auction Market (a) Sensitivity Index (b) Stock Index (c) Securities Index (d) None
(ii) Right to sell security is called “Put Option”
(iii) Right to buy security is called “Call Option” 40. Which stock exchange is also called as Big Board?
(a) (i) is correct (a) New York Stock Exchange (b) Bombay Stock Exchange
(b) (ii) is correct (c) Delhi Stock Exchange (d) Tokyo Stock Exchange
(c) (iii) is correct
41. Orders that are transacted at best available prices are classified as ______________.
(d) All (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(a) Post Order (b) Available order (c) Market order (d) None
28. Amsterdam Stock Exchange was established in the year ____________.
42. Which of the following might you see roaming a stock market?
(a) 1602 (b) 1702 (c) 1802 (d) 1902
(a) Goats (b) Cows (c) Mice (d) Bulls
29. The first stock exchange was established in the year ________________. 43. Which of the following term is used to describe a payout made to shareholders representing
(a) 1947 (b) 1957 (c) 1998 (d) 1988 the share of a corporation’s profit?
(a) Profit (b) Interest (c) Dividend (d) None
30. Most popular stock exchange in the world is _______________.
(a) Tokyo Stock Exchange (b) Singapore Stock Exchange 44. In options Market, the right to sell a security is called as _______________.
(c) Dubai Stock Exchange (d) London Stock Exchange (a) Put Option (b) Call Option (c) Sell Option (d) None
31. The prices at which securities are bought and sold and made public are known as ________.
45. In options market, the right to buy a security is known as _______________.
(a) Market Quotations (b) Skimming Price (c) Market Prices (d) None of the above
(a) Put Option (b) Call Option (c) Sell Option (d) None
32. The Interconnected Stock Exchange of India Limited has been promoted by _____________
46. Jobbers are also called as _____________ in India.
regional stock exchanges in the country.
(a) Tejiwala (b) Mandiwala (c) Taravaniwala (d) None
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 45 (d) 15
47. _____________ does not perform economic function.
33. ______ are the security merchants dealing in shares, debentures as independent operators.
(a) Speculation (b) Gambling (c) Both a & b (d) None
(a) Jobbers (b) Brokers (c) Both A & B (d) None
48. Assertion (A): A company should pay minimum dividend to its shareholders.
34. A _____________ is a cautious speculator in the stock exchange. Reason (R): Dividends are heavily taxed than capital gains.
(a) Lame Duck (b) Bull (c) Bear (d) Stag Codes:
35. Which of the following is correct? (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(a) Bull speculator is also known as Tejiwala (B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(b) Bear speculator is also known as Mandiwala (C) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
(c) Both A & B (d) None (D) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

49. Assertion (A): Stock exchange helps an investor to convert his shares into cash quickly.
36. The government of India enacted the Depositories Act in the year _______________.
Reason(R): Stock Exchange is an organized market for the purchase and sale of industrial
(a) 1996 (b) 1986 (c) 1886 (d) 1896
and financial security.
37. _______________ is the index of the stocks in Bombay Stock Exchange. Codes:
(a) SENSEX (b) NIFTY (c) STTI (d) None (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(C) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
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(D) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong. 12 – Commerce

50. Assertion (A): Gold, Silver, Oil, Natural Gas Agriculture are tradable commodities under Unit – III Financial Markets – II
commodity exchange. Chapter – 8 Securities Exchange Board of India
Reason(R): A commodity exchange is an exchange where commodities are traded. (SEBI)
Codes:
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
PG Assistant in Commerce
(B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
(C) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(D) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
I. Choose the correct answers
51. Match List I with List II
List – I List – II 1. Securities Exchange Board of India was first established in the year _____________.
i Bull 1. Premium Hunter (a) 1988 (b) 1992 (c) 1995 (d) 1998
ii Bear 2. Taraveniwala
iii Jobber 3. Mandiwala 2. The headquarters of SEBI is _______________.
iv Stag 4. Tejiwala (a) Calcutta (b) Bombay (c) Chennai (d) Delhi

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 3. In which year SEBI was constituted as the regulator of capital markets in India?
(a) 4 3 2 1 (a) 1988 (b) 1992 (c) 2014 (d) 2013
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 2 4 3 1 4. Registering and controlling the functioning of collective investment schemes as __________.
(d) 1 4 2 3 (a) Mutual Funds (b) Listing (c) Rematerialisation (d) Dematerialization

5. SEBI is empowered by the Finance ministry to nominate _______________ members on the

Governing body of every stock exchange.
Thank You (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 7

[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link]., 6. The process of converting physical shares into electronic form is called _______________.
PG Assistant in Commerce (a) Dematerialisation (b) Delisting (c) Materialisation (d) Debarring
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
7. Trading is dematerialized shares commenced on the NSE is _______________.
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(a) January 1996 (b) June 1998 (c) December 1996 (d) December 1998

8. _______________ was the first company to trade its shares in Demat form.
(a) Tata Industries (b) Reliance Industries (c) Infosys (d) Birla Industries

9. _______________ enables small investors to participate in the investment on share capital of

large companies.
(a) Mutual Funds (b) Shares (c) Debentures (d) Fixed deposits

10. PAN stands for _______________.

(a) Permanent Amount Number (b) Primary Account Number
(c) Permanent Account Number (d) Permanent Account Nominee

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11. Securities and Exchange Board of India was first established in the year ____________. 27. Pick the odd one out:
(a) 1980 (b) 1986 (c) 1988 (d) 1990 (a) Voter ID (b) PAN (c) ID card (d) Post Card

12. SEBI is an apex body that maintains and regulate our _____________. 28. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Capital market (b) Mutual funds (c) Share capital (d) None of these (a) DEMAT - Dematerialisation (b) PAN - Proof
(c) SEBI - 12 members (d) HQ – Bendrakurla
13. The capital market is meaningless in the absence of the _____________.
(a) Brokers (b) Investors (c) Owners (d) Employees 29. Choose the correct statement.
(i) SEBI Act was passed in the year 1992 in Indian Parliament.
14. SEBI issues Guidelines and Instructions to business concerning _____________.
(ii) It protects the interest of the Investors.
(a) Credit issues (b) Capital issues (c) Capital market (d) Share capital
(iii) It regulates and controls the stock exchange.
15. Registering and controlling the functioning of collective investment schemes such as ______. (a) (i) is correct
(a) Mutual funds (b) Securities (c) Bonds (d) Debentures (b) (ii) is correct
(c) (iii) is correct
16. Stock exchange deals in _______________. (d) All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(a) Goods (b) Services (c) Financial securities (d) Country’s currency
30. Trading in dematerialized shares commenced on NSE in ______________.
17. Number of recognised stock exchange in India _____________. (a) December 1996 (b) July 1996 (c) December 1969 (d) July 1969
(a) 2 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 24
31. Trading in dematerialized shares commenced on BSE in _____________.
18. SEBI has the following number of members including chairman. (a) December 1997 (b) July 1997 (c) December 1979 (d) July 1997
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
32. _____________ Industries was the first company to trade its 100 shares in demat form.
19. Where is the headquarters of the SEBI? (a) TATA (b) Reliance (c) Banking (d) None
(a) Delhi (b) Bengalure (c) Chennai (d) Mumbai
33. In the process of Demat the investors have to open an account with a ______________.
20. A stock market is also called _____________. (a) Depository Participant (b) Joint account (c) Online account (d) None
(a) Free market (b) Open market (c) Equity market (d) Sports market
34. ______________ is the unique 10 – digit alphanumeric identity number.
21. In which year SEBI Act being passed by the Indian Parliament? (a) PAN (b) VAN (c) LAN (d) None
(a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1993
35. Match List I with List II
22. ______________ is the foremost objective of SEBI.
List – I List – II
(a) Security (b) Regulate (c) Control (d) NOTA
i SEBI 1 Dematerialization
23. DEMAT is done at the request of ______________. ii DEMAT 2 A Supervisory Body
(a) Investors (b) Brokers (c) Speculators (d) NDTA iii PAN 3 Buying and Selling by Directors
iv Insider Trading 4 Permanent Account Number
24. Which is an Apex body that maintain and Regulates capital market?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) Stock Exchange (b) SEBI (c) OTCEI (d) NSE
(a) 2 1 4 3
25. Mention the documents required for a Demat A/c. (b) 3 4 2 1
(a) Address proof (b) ID proof (c) Photo (d) All of these (c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
26. SEBI has the following number of members including chairman.
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

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36. Assertion (A): DEMAT is done at the request of the investor. 12 – Commerce
Reason (R): A DEMAT A/c holder can buy or sell any amount of shares.
Unit – IV Human Resource Management
(a) (A) is True (R) is True
Chapter – 9 Fundamentals of Human Resource
(b) (A) and (R) are False
Management
(c) (A) is True (R) is False
(d) (A) is False (R) is True [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce
37. Assertion (A): SEBI is a supervisory (Apex) Body.
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
Reason (R): So, It cannot regulate and control the stock exchange.
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(a) (A) is True (R) is False
(b) (A) is False (R) is True I. Choose the correct answers
(c) Both (A) and (R) are True
1. Human resource is a _____________ asset.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are False
(a) Tangible (b) Intangible (c) Fixed (d) Current
38. Which of the following statement is not correct about the SEBI?
2. Human Resource management is both _____________ and _____________.
(a) At present it is a non statutory body
(a) Science and art (b) Theory and practice
(b) At present it is a statutory body
(c) It got statutory powers by an ordinance in 1992 (c) History and Geography (d) None of the above
(d) SEBI is managed by 6 members 3. Planning is a _____________ function.
39. Assertion (A): A demat account holds all the shares that are purchased in electronic or (a) Selective (b) pervasive (c) both a and b (d) none of the above
dematerialized form.
4. Human resource management determines the _____________ relationship.
Reason(R): Every share holder should have a dematerialized account for the purpose of
(a) internal, external (b) employer, employee
transacting.
(c) Owner, Servant (d) Principle, Agent
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. 5. Labour turnover is the rate at which employees ____________ the organisation
(C) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct. (a) Enter (b) leave (c) Salary (d) None of the above
(D) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
6. The Human resource is the most important element in any ____________.
(a) Organisation (b) Industry (c) Commerce (d) Business
Thank You
7. Human resource can work as a _____________.
(a) Unity (b) Reliable (c) Team (d) None of these
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
8. Human resource management has _____________.
PG Assistant in Commerce
(a) Irrelevant (b) universal relevance (c) temporarily (d) permanent
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 9. Human resource management helps improve ____________.
(a) Production (b) Productivity (c) Profit (d) Power

10. In modern scenario a company’s long term advantage lies in _____________.

(a) Technology (b) Business location (c) New market (d) Human resource

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 4 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1

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11. Human resource management refers to _____________. 25. The HR manager focuses his attention in providing and improving welfare facilities for
(a) All managerial activities (b) concepts and techniques ____________.
(c) the management of people in organizations (d) None of these (a) Customers (b) Stake Holders (c) Employees (d) All of the above

12. The focus of Human resource management revolves around ____________. 26. Statement (i): Labour always gets a major share of productivity gains.
(a) Machine (b) Money (c) Men (d) None of these Statement (ii): Partial stoppage of work by workers amounts to strike.
(A) Statement (i) is true but (ii) is false.
13. Human resource management function does not involve ______________.
(B) Statement (ii) is true but (i) is false.
(a) Retirement (b) Selection (c) Cost control (d) Training
(C) Both statements are true.
14. The objectives of HRM are categorized as _____________. (D) Both statements are false.
(a) Personal objectives (b) Functional objectives
27. Match List I with II
(c) Organisational and social objectives (d) All of these
List - I List - II
15. The term used before the language of modern HRM was ______________. (i) Human Resource Development (1) Training
(a) Labour relations (b) Personnel management (ii) Compensation Management (2) Job - Evaluation
(c) Industrial management (d) All of the above (iii) Human Relation (3) Motivation
(iv) Human Resource Accounting Management (4) Human Resource
16. The features of human resources are ______________ in nature.
Codes:
(a) Heterogeneous (b) Homogeneous (c) Compliance (d) None
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
17. Identify the managerial function out of the following functions of HR managers. (a) 1 2 3 4
(a) Procurement (b) Development (c) Organizing (d) None (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 1 4 2
18. Human resource management is normally _______________ in nature. (d) 2 4 1 3
(a) Combative (b) Reactive (c) Proactive (d) None
28. Match List I with II
19. Human Resource process includes _______________.
List - I List - II
(a) Role clarity (b) Work Planning (c) Better Communication (d) All of the above
(i) Human Resource (1) Planning
20. Mr. X a manager of the company delegates the responsibility of a project to Mr. Y his (ii) Human Resource Management (2) Procurement
subordinate. Mr. X involved in _________________ function of the management process (iii) Managerial Function (3) Goal Oriented
(a) Planning (b) Organising (c) Controlling (d) All of the above (iv) Operative Function (4) Movable
Codes:
21. ___________ refers to the management of people in an organization.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) HR (b) HRM (c) HRD (d) All the above
(a) 4 3 1 2
22. The Operative functions are known as ____________ functions. (b) 1 2 3 4
(a) Management (b) Administrative (c) Advisory (d) None (c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 1 4 3
23. The human resource functions have social and ___________ objectives.
(a) Informative (b) Customer oriented (c) Financial (d) Ethical

24. HRM is the systematic approach to accomplish organizational goal through most
advantageous use of _____________.
(a) Technology (b) Machines (c) Skilled Employees (d) Funds

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3

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29. Match List I with II 12 – Commerce

List - I List - II
Unit – IV Human Resource Management
(i) Planning (1) Delegation of authority
Chapter – 10 Recruitment Methods
(ii) Organising (2) Motivation
(iii) Directing (3) Rectify Deviations [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(iv) Controlling (4) Systematic Operation PG Assistant in Commerce
Codes: E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(a) 1 2 3 4 I. Choose the correct answers
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 3 4 1 1. Recruitment is the process of identifying ____________.
(d) 3 4 1 2 (a) Right man for right job (b) Good performer (c) Right job (d) All of the above

2. Recruitment bridges gap between _____________ and ____________.

Thank You (a) Job seeker and job provider (b) Job seeker and agent
(c) Job provider and owner (d) Owner and servant
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link]., 3. Advertisement is a _____________ source of recruitment.
PG Assistant in Commerce (a) Internal (b) External (c) Agent (d) Outsourcing
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 4. Transfer is an ____________ source of recruitment.
(a) Internal (b) External (c) Outsourcing (d) None of the above

5. E recruitment is possible only through ___________ facility.

(a) Computer (b) internet (c) Broadband (d) 4G

6. Poaching is also called _____________.

(a) Raiding (b) Unsolicited application (c) Profession (d) Tutor

7. Rate which is used to represent that organization is successful at hiring conditions is

classified as ______________.
(a) Selection rate (b) Yield rate (c) Acceptance rate (d) Success base rate

8. In recruitment cost, costs such as salaries of operating managers and public relation
managers are classified as _____________.
(a) Direct costs (b) Marginal costs (c) Indirect costs (d) Labour costs

9. In recruitment costs, agency fees, recruitment advertisement and salaries of recruiters is

classified as _____________.
(a) Direct cost (b) Indirect cost (c) both (d) None of the above

10. Comparison between numbers of applications at each preceding stage of recruitment

process is classified as _____________.
(a) Initialization ratio (b) Resultant ratio (c) Yield ratio (d) Application ratio

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 4 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1

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11. The recruitment and selections process aimed at right kind of people _____________. 25. How may stages does the recruitment process comprise of?
(a) At right place (b) At right time (c) To do right things (d) All of the above (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 5

12. The following is a source of recruitment ______________. 26. Which among the following are parts of job description?
(a) Advertisement (b) Reference (c) Employment agency (d) All of the above i. Duties performed
ii. Job summary
13. Which mode of recruitment is through advertisements, newspapers and want ads? iii. Job identification
(a) Direct (b) Indirect (c) Both (d) None of the above iv. Supervision given
14. Identifying the right people in rival companies, offering them better terms and luring them v. Delegation of authority
away is popularly called as ______________. (a) i, ii,iii and iv (b) ii, iii, iv and v
(a) Competition (b) Acquisition (c) Poaching (d) None of the above (c) i, iii, iv and v (d) i, ii, iii and v

15. The following is concerned with developing a pool of candidates in line with the human 27. Match List I with II
resources plan _____________. List - I List - II
(a) Development (b) Training (c) Recruitment (d) None of these (i) Transfer (1) Merits of the employees
(ii) Upgrading (2) Managing to learn
16. The primary aim of recruitment is to ______________.
(iii) Job rotation (3) Lower position to higher position
(a) High labour turn over (b) Hire the best individual (c) Both a & b (d) None of the above
(iv) Promotion (4) Deficit staff
17. Recruitment is widely viewed as a ______________ process.
Codes:
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Both a & b (d) None of the above
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
18. The Recruitment process aimed at right kind of people_____________. (a) 4 3 2 1
(a) at right place (b) at right time (c) to do right things (d) all of the above (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
19. Recruitment process is the first step in the employment of ____________.
(d) 2 1 3 4
(a) Labour (b) Management (c) Both a & b (d) None of the above
28. Match List I with II
20. Sources used for internal recruiting includes______________.
(a) Organisational data base (b) Job posting (c) Job transfers (d) All of the above List - I List - II
(i) Advertisement (1) Poaching
21. ____________ is a process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to (ii) Walkins (2) Online method
apply for jobs. (iii) Rival firms (3) Source of requirements
(a) Selection (b) Induction (c) Recruitment (d) Orientation (iv) e-recruitment (4) Nature of work
22. Promotion is the _____________ source of recruitment. Codes:
(a) Suitable (b) Internal (c) External (d) Hierarchy level (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 3 4 2 1
23. Speed of Hiring is an advantage of _____________.
(b) 1 2 3 4
(a) Internal Source of recruitment (b) External Source of recruitment
(c) 4 3 1 2
(c) Both a & b (d) None of the above
(d) 2 1 4 3
24. ______________ refers to the process of identifying and attracting job seekers so as to build a
pool of qualified job applicant. Thank You
(a) Selection (b) Training (c) Recruitment (d) Induction

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12 – Commerce 11. Selection process helps in _____________.

(a) Locating candidates (b) Determining the suitability of the candidates
Unit – IV Human Resource Management
(c) Preparing employees for training (d) None of these
Chapter – 11 Employee Selection Process
12. The process of placing the right man on the right job is called ____________.
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(a) Training (b) Placement (c) Promotion (d) Transfer
PG Assistant in Commerce
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] 13. Probation/Trial period signifies ______________.
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 (a) one year to two years (b) one year to three years
(c) Two years to four years (d) None of the above
I. Choose the correct answers
14. Job first man next is one of the principles of _____________.
1. The recruitment and Selection Process aimed at right kind of people.
(a) Test (b) Interview (c) Training (d) placement
(a) At right people (b) At right time (c) To do right things (d) All of the above
15. The main aim of selection process is to find out the suitable candidate for _____________.
2. The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on ______________ and supervision.
(a) More job (b) Higher salary (c) Specific job (d) None of these
(a) Training (b) Recruitment (c) work quality (d) None of these
16. Which of the following test to measure suitability of the candidates for the post/role?
3. _____________ refers to the process of identifying and attracting job seekers so as to build a
(a) Verbal reasoning test (b) Spatial reasoning test
pool of qualified job applicants.
(c) Aptitude test (d) Mechanical reasoning test
(a) Selection (b) Training (c) Recruitment (d) Induction
17. Which of the following test provides information about candidate’s numerical aptitude?
4. Selection is usually considered as a _______________ process
(a) Verbal reasoning test (b) Numerical reasoning test
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Natural (d) None of these
(c) Mechanical reasoning test (d) Diagrammatic reasoning test
5. Which of the following test is used to measure the various characteristics of the candidate?
18. Which test measures the candidate’s ability to find logic in a series or pattern?
(a) Physical Test (b) Psychological Test (c) Attitude Test (d) Proficiency tests
(a) Number sequence test (b) Vocabulary test
6. Which of the following orders is followed in a typical selection process? (c) Mental arithmetic test (d) Verbal reasoning test
(a) Application form test and or interview, reference check and physical examination
19. The first modern intelligence test was developed in _____________.
(b) Application form test and or interview, reference check, and physical examination
(a) 1961 (b) 1911 (c) 1904 (d) 1857
(c) Reference check, application form, test and interview and physical examination
(d) Physical examination test and on interview application term and reference check 20. Which tests assesses the reliability and innate characters of the candidate concerned?
(a) Attitude test (b) Interest test (c) Personality inventory test (d) Interview
7. The purpose of an application blank is to gather information about the ____________.
(a) Company (b) Candidate 21. An atmosphere for free and frank interaction is created in the _____________.
(c) Questionnaire or Interview Schedule (d) Competitors (a) High salary (b) Earned money (c) Interview environment (d) None of these

8. Identify the test that acts as an instrument to discover the inherent ability of a candidate. 22. Proper selection of candidates contributes to _____________.
(a) Aptitude Test (b) Attitude Test (c) Proficiency Test (d) Physical Test (a) Low labour turnover (b) Good talent (c) Better efficiency (d) Job motivation

9. The process of eliminating unsuitable candidate is called _____________. 23. Proper selection of candidates reduces ____________.
(a) Selection (b) Recruitment (c) Interview (d) Induction (a) Good talent (b) Labour turnover (c) Absenteeism (d) None of these

10. Scrutiny of application process is the ______________. 24. The process of selection of employees is usually influenced by ____________.
(a) Last step in Selection process (b) First step in Selection process (a) Principles and programmes (b) Rules and regulations
(c) Third step in Selection Process (d) None of the above (c) Strategies and objectives (d) All of these

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25. The following is concerned with developing a pool of candidates in line with the human 12 – Commerce
resources plan ___________.
Unit – IV Human Resource Management
(a) Development (b) Training (c) Recruitment (d) All of the above
Chapter – 12 Employee Training Method
26. The emotional state of an employee or manager towards his work is called____________.
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(a) Motivation (b) Leadership (c) Morale (d) None of the above
PG Assistant in Commerce
27. “The key for us number one, has always been hiring very smart people” – said by ________. E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
(a) Bill Gates (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Indira Noyee (d) None Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699

28. Who said the following quote? “You cannot push anyone up the ladder unless he is willing I. Choose the correct answers
to climb it.
1. Off the Job training is given ____________.
(a) Bill Gates (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Indira Noyee (d) None
(a) In the class room (b) On off days (c) Outside the factory (d) In the playground
29. Match List I with II
2. Vestibule training is provided _____________.
List - I List - II (a) On the job (b) In the class room
(i) Job First, Man Next 1) Probation period (c) In a situation similar to actual working environment (d) By the committee
(ii) Job offer 2) Wrong or lapse
(iii) Loyalty and co-operation 3) Man based on his qualification 3. Improves Skill Levels of employees to ensure better job performance ____________.
(iv) Aware about the penalties 4) No compromise on the requirements (a) Training (b) Selection (c) Recruitment (d) Performance appraisal

Codes: 4. When trainees are trained by supervisor or by superior at the job is called ____________.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) Vestibule training (b) Refresher training (c) Role play (d) Apprenticeship training
(a) 1 2 3 4
5. _____________ is useful to prevent skill obsolescence of employees.
(b) 4 3 1 2
(a) Training (b) Job analysis (c) Selection (d) Recruitment
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 4 2 1 6. Training methods can be classified into training ______________ training
30. Match List I with II (a) Job rotation and Job enrichment (b) On the Job and Off the Job
(c) Job analysis and Job design (d) Physical and mental
List - I List - II
(i) Good Talent (1) Indian Police Service 7. Elaborate discussion on specific topic comes under _____________ method of training.
(ii) Better efficiency (2) Clerical and other physical jobs (a) Under study (b) Coaching (c) Conferences (d) Counselling
(iii) Nature of post (3) Better quality of work
8. A person who is learning and practicing the skills of particular job is called ____________.
(iv) Number of candidates (4) Improved productivity and profitability
(a) trainee (b) trainers (c) training (d) none of these
Codes:
9. Which department should decide the level of training to be imparted to the employees?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) Public (b) Private (c) Training (d) All of these
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1 10. Which method is superior plays the role of coach or guide and an instructor?
(c) 3 4 1 2 (a) Mentoring method (b) Job rotation method
(d) 4 3 1 2 (c) Apprenticeship method (d) Coaching method

Thank You

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11. Which method gain more knowledge by observing and participating in decision making Codes:
process? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) Coaching method (b) Committee Assignment method (a) 1 2 3 4
(c) Apprenticeship method (d) Job rotation method (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
12. E-learning is all about ______________.
(d) 3 4 2 1
(a) computers and computing (b) electronics
(c) experience (d) being-technology-driven 21. Match List I with II
13. The process of enhancing the technical skills of workers in a short period is called ________. List - I List - II
(a) training (b) development (c) education (d) none of these (i) Lecture method 1 Theoretical knowledge
(ii) Group discussion method 2 Management and union leader
14. Laboratory training is also known by the name ____________. (iii) Case study method 3 Discuss particular subject
(a) Sensitivity training (b) Job instruction training (iv) Role play method 4 Manufacturing concern
(c) Apprenticeship training (d) None of the these
Codes:
15. Which one of the following is a source of assessing training needs? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) Performance evaluation (b) Advisory panel (a) 1 2 3 4
(c) Attitude survey (d) All of these (b) 2 3 1 4
16. The planned use of networked information and communications technology for the (c) 3 4 2 1
delivery of training is called ______________. (d) 4 3 1 2
(a) e-learning b) role playing c) case study d) programmed learning

17. In which type of analysis are corporate goals and plans compared with the existing Thank You
manpower inventory to determine the training needs?
(a) Organisation analysis (b) Operation analysis
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(c) Individual analysis (d) None of the above
PG Assistant in Commerce
18. Case study method is _____________ type of trainee. E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
(a) Only theoretical training (b) Both theory and practical training Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(c) Hands on training (d) Abservation Training

19. ____________ enable the employees to guide their behaviour.

(a) Training (b) Staffing (c) Controlling (d) Motivating

20. Match List I with II

List - I List - II
(i) Coaching method (1) Division for a particular period
(ii) Mentoring method (2) Participating in decisions making process
(iii) Job rotation method (3) Process of sharing knowledge
(iv) Committee assignment (4) Guides the new employee

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12 – Commerce 12. _____________ is an international market.

(a) Money market (b) Future market (c) Regulated market (d) Foreign exchange market
Unit – V Elements of Marketing
Chapter – 13 Concept of Market and Marketer 13. ______________ is also known as securities market.
(a) Stock market (b) National market (c) International market (d) Commodity market
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce 14. ______________ is the most valuable product that can be marketed today.
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] (a) Persons (b) Places (c) Information (d) Ideas
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
15. Marketing refers to the _____________.
I. Choose the correct answers (a) Sale of product (b) Goods distribution
(c) Goods and services are exchanged to each other (d) All of these
1. One who promotes (or) Exchange of goods or services for money is called as ___________.
(a) Seller (b) Marketer (c) Customer (d) Manager 16. Bullion Market classified on the basis of ______________.
(a) Geographical Area (b) Goods (c) Time (d) Volume
2. The marketer initially wants to know in the marketing is ____________.
(a) Qualification of the customer (b) Quality of the product 17. Pick the odd one out.
(c) Background of the customers (d) Needs of the customers (a) Money market (b) Stock market (c) Instigator (d) Foreign exchange market

3. The Spot market is classified on the basis of ____________. 18. Match the following:
(a) Commodity (b) Transaction (c) Regulation (d) Time
(1) Bullion Market (i) On the basis of Importance
4. Which one of the market deals in the purchase and sale of shares and debentures? (2) Perfect Market (ii) On the basis of Geographical area
(a) Stock Exchange Market (b) Manufactured Goods Market (3) Family Market (iii) On the basis of Commodities
(c) Local Market (d) Family Market (4) Terminal Market (iv) On the basis of Economics
(a) (1)-(i), (2)-(ii), (3)-(iii), (4)-(iv) (b) (1)-(ii), (2)-(iii), (3)-(iv), (4)-(i)
5. Stock Exchange Market is also called ______________.
(c) (1)-(iii), (2)-(i), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iv) (d) (1)-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i)
(a) Spot Market (b) Local Market (c) Security Market (d) National Market
19. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
6. The words market is derived from the Latin word ______________.
(a) Goods – Consumer durables (b) Service – Banking and insurance
(a) Marks (b) Marcatus (c) Mars (d) Marcus
(c) Experience – Amusement park (d) Events – Mutual funds
7. Which market is regulated and controlled by certain rules?
20. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Commodity market (b) Produce exchange market (c) National market (d) World market
(a) Whole sale market – Small quantities (b) Retail market – Bulk quantities
8. Which type of market deals with the purchase or sale of goods and silver? (c) Primary market – Metropolitan area (d) Secondary market – Semi finished goods
(a) Capital market (b) Commodity market (c) Bullion market (d) Perfect market
21. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
9. Which types of market where short term securities are exchanged? (a) Regulated market – Commission (b) Unregulated market – Stock Exchange of Mumbai
(a) Bullion markets (b) Manufactured goods market (c) Money market (d) Spot market (c) Capital market – Leather exchange market (d) Bullion market – Gold and Silver

10. Which concept of marketing is product oriented? 22. Pick the odd one out.
(a) Old concept of marketing (b) Modern concept of marketing (a) Primary market (b) Secondary market (c) Terminal market (d) Transportation
(c) Entity concept of business (d) None of these

11. Sub-division of marketing is called as _____________.

(a) market segmentation (b) decision of market (c) allocation of market (d) none of these

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2

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23. Match List I with II 12 – Commerce

List - I List - II
Unit – V Elements of Marketing
(i) Family market (1) Demand throughout the country
Chapter – 14 Marketing and Marketing Mix
(ii) Local market (2) Boundaries of a nation
(iii) National market (3) Close member [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(iv) International market (4) Town or village PG Assistant in Commerce
Codes: E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(a) 1 2 3 4 I. Choose the correct answers
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4 1. The initial stage of Marketing system is _____________.
(d) 3 4 1 2 (a) Monopoly system (b) Exchange to Money (c) Barter system (d) Self producing

24. Match List I with II 2. Who is supreme in the Market?

List - I List - II (a) Customer (b) Seller (c) Wholesaler (d) Retailer
(i) Produce exchange market (1) Purchase or sale of gold and silver
3. In the following variables which one is not the variable of marketing mix?
(ii) Manufactured goods market (2) Financial intermediaries
(a) Place Variable (b) Product Variable (c) Program Variable (d) Price Variable
(iii) Bullion market (3) Leather exchange market
(iv) Money market (4) Cotton exchange market 4. Marketing mix means a marketing program that is offered by a firm to its target __________
Codes: to earn profits through satisfaction of their wants.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) Wholesaler (b) Retailer (c) Consumer (d) Seller
(a) 1 2 3 4
5. Which one is the example of Intangible product?
(b) 4 3 1 2
(a) Education (b) Mobiles (c) Garments (d) Vehicles
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 4 2 1 6. Storage function of marketing creates _____________.
(a) possession utility (b) time utility (c) form utility (d) place utility
25. Match List I with II
List - I List - II 7. Marketing helps to increase the ______________.
(i) Foreign exchange market (1) Physical delivery of goods (a) individual income (b) nation’s income (c) productivity (d) none of these
(ii) Stock market (2) Settlement on different dates
8. Which is the value of a product expressed in monetary terms?
(iii) Spot market (3) Securities market
(a) Product (b) Price (c) Promotion (d) Place
(iv) Future market (4) International market
Codes: 9. Marketing is a process which aims at _____________.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) Production (b) Profit making (c) Satisfaction of customer needs (d) Selling products
(a) 1 2 3 4
10. Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use or consumption that
(b) 2 3 4 1
might satisfy a want or need is called ______________.
(c) 4 3 1 2
(a) Demand (b) Price (c) Product (d) Service
(d) 3 4 2 1
11. This company is well known for Technology innovation, Great value and act as a game
Thank You changer.
(a) Nokia (b) HTC (c) Samsung (d) Apple

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1

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12. The promotion “P” of marketing is also known as _____________. 24. Which of the following risks are bore by a marketer?
(a) Product differentiation (b) Distribution (c) Cost (d) Marketing communication (a) Time risk (b) Human risk (c) Political risk (d) all the above

13. The concept of marketing mix was developed by _____________. 25. Assertion (A): Customers buy products
(a) [Link] (b) Philip Kotler (c) Stanton (d) [Link] Reason(R): Consumers use products
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
14. Which one of the following is not element of marketing mix?
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(a) Promotion (b) Place (c) Product (d) None of these
(c) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
15. Warehousing removes the hindrances of _____________. (d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(a) Time (b) Place (c) Finance (d) Form
26. Which of the following elements which one is related marketing mix?
16. After considering the following arrange them in correct sequences: (a) Place (b) Production (c) Consumption (d) Trade

i. Pricing objectives ii. Pricing Methods 27. ____________described seven functions of marketing.
iii. Pricing Strategies iv. Pricing decisions (a) Adam smith (b) WJ Stanton (c) G.B. Giles (d) Converse
(a) i, iii, ii ,iv (b) i, iv, iii, ii
28. Pick the odd one out.
(c) ii, i, iv, iii (d) iv, ii, iii, i
(a) Private warehouse (b) Bonded warehouse (c) Transport (d) Public warehouse
17. Marketing must be understood in a new sense that can be characterized as _____________.
29. Pick the odd one out.
(a) Get there first with the most (b) Management of youth demand
(a) Product (b) Packing (c) Price (d) Promotion
(c) Satisfying customer needs (d) Telling and selling
30. Pick the odd one out.
18. ______________ means classification of standardized product into certain well defined
(a) Grading (b) Branding (c) Pricing (d) Product
classes or groups.
(a) Gradation (b) Segmentation (c) Standardization (d) Specification 31. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Product – Main element of marketing (b) Price – Amount charged for the product
19. Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use or consumption that
(c) Place – Movement of products (d) Promotion – Marketing decisions
might satisfy a want or need is called _____________.
(a) Demand (b) Idea (c) Product (d) Service 32. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Internal factors – Organisation objectives (b) External factors – Legal factors
20. Highest percentage of ideas for new products originates from which of the following
(c) Financing – Short term finance (d) Risk bearing – Elements of marketing mix
sources?
(a) Competitors (b) Customers (c) Employees (d) All the above 33. Match List I with II

21. Marketing is a process which aims at ______________. List - I List - II

(a) Production (b) Profit making (c) Satisfaction of customer needs (d) Selling product (i) Barter system (1) Dominant factor
(ii) Production Orientation (2) Large scale sales promotion
22. _______________ is the father of Modern Marketing (iii) Sales Orientation (3) Consumer preference
(a) Peter Drucker (b) Philip Kotler (iv) Marketing Orientation (4) Medium of exchange
(c) Lester Wunderman (d) None of the above
Codes:
23. _______________ are the form of human needs take as shaped by culture & individual (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
personality. (a) 1 2 3 4
(a) Wants (b) Demands (c) Needs (d) Social needs (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 4 2 1

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3

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34. Match List I with II 12 – Commerce

List - I List - II Unit – V Elements of Marketing
(i) Transportation (1) Seven functions Chapter – 15 Recent Trends in Marketing
(ii) Storage (2) Storing the goods
(iii) Warehousing (3) Preservation of goods [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(iv) G.B. Giles (4) Moving goods PG Assistant in Commerce
Codes: E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 1 2 3 4 I. Choose the correct answers
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 1. Selling goods/ services through internet is ____________.
(d) 2 3 1 4 (a) Green marketing (b) E- business (c) Social marketing (d) Meta marketing

2. Which is gateway to internet?

(a) Portal (b) CPU (c) Modem (d) Webnaire
Thank You
3. Social marketing deals with:
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link]., (a) Society (b) Social Class (c) Social change (d) Social evil
PG Assistant in Commerce
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] 4. Effective use of Social media marketing increase conversion rates of _____________.
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 (a) Customer to buyers (b) Retailer to customers
(c) One buyer to another buyer’s (d) Direct contact of marketer

5. A company’s products and prices is visually represented by ____________.

(a) Shopping cart (b) Web portal (c) Electronic catalogue (d) Revenue model

6. Pure play retailers are called ____________.

(a) Market creators (b) Transaction brokers (c) Merchants (d) Agents

7. The boundaries of nations are disappearing for exploiting the opportunities of ___________.
(a) Business (b) Industry (c) Commerce (d) Accounts

8. All the business transaction carried out through internet and other online tools is called __.
(a) E-Tailing (b) E-Marketing (c) E-Business (d) E-Commerce

9. E-Tailing is also called ____________.

(a) Online business (b) Online trading (c) Green marketing (d) None of these

10. Green marketing is also known as _____________.

(a) E-Tailing (b) E-Marketing (c) Traditional market (d) Environmental marketing

11. The multilevel marketing is also called as _____________.

(a) Electronic marketing (b) Green marketing (c) Referral marketing (d) None of these

12. Which of the following describes e-commerce?

(a) Doing business electronically (b) Doing business (c) Sale of goods (d) All of the above

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 4 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1

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13. E-commerce involves the application of _____________. 26. Match List I with II
(a) Knowledge Management Systems (b) Product Management Systems List - I List - II
(c) Services Management Systems (d) All of the above (i) E-commerce 1 Telecommunication network
(ii) E-business 2 More manpower
14. Green marketing is a part of ______________.
(iii) E-marketing 3 Online tool
(a) Social marketing (b) Service marketing (c) Relationship marketing (d) rural marketing
(iv) Traditional Marketing 4 Branch of commerce
15. _____________ is suited to small companies. Codes:
(a) Multilevel marketing (b) Guerrilla marketing (c) Social marketing (d) Service marketing (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 1 2 3 4
16. _____________ are networks that connect people within a company to each other and to the
(b) 2 3 4 1
company network.
(c) 4 3 1 2
(a) Intranets (b) Extranets (c) Internets (d) None of these
(d) 3 2 4 1
17. _____________ is well known that business is a branch of commerce
27. Match List I with II
(a) E-commerce (b) E-business (c) E-marketing (d) E-tailing
List - I List - II
18. ____________ is a business to consumer transaction model. (i) E-tailing (1) Quality of life
(a) E-Tailing (b) Green marketing (c) Electronic commerce (d) Traditional marketing (ii) Green marketing (2) Movement of rural products
(iii) Social marketing (3) Environmental marketing
19. ____________ is a new marketing tool.
(iv) Rural marketing (4) Online retailing
(a) Social marketing (b) Service marketing
(c) Rural marketing (d) Environmental marketing Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
20. ____________ help to eradicate social evils that affect the society and quality of life.
(a) 1 2 3 4
(a) Service marketing (b) Social marketing (c) Niche marketing (d) Viral marketing
(b) 2 3 4 1
21. ____________ is a specialised branch of marketing. (c) 3 2 4 1
(a) E-marketing (b) E-Tailing (c) Social marketing (d) Service marketing (d) 4 3 1 2

22. Pick the odd one out.

(a) Green marketing (b) Social marketing (c) Staffing (d) Viral marketing Thank You

23. Pick the odd one out.

(a) Niche marketing (b) Referral marketing (c) E-Tailing (d) Motivation [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce
24. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
(a) Referral marketing – Word-of-mouth marketing Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(b) Content marketing – Non-interruption marketing
(c) Multilevel marketing – Down line
(d) Guerrilla marketing – Environmentally marketing

25. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Guerrilla marketing – Advertisement strategy (b) Ambush marketing – New technique
(c) Viral marketing – Sustainable marketing (d) Online retailing – E-tailing

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3

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12 – Commerce 11. The term consumerism in the early _____________.

(a) 1950 (b) 1954 (c) 1956 (d) 1960
Unit – VI Consumer Protection
Chapter – 16 Consumerism 12. Producers, sellers and service providers give importance to the _____________.
(a) Workers (b) Managers (c) Consumers (d) Owners
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce 13. Which has been very responsive to the consumer needs through legislative actions?
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] (a) Private (b) Government (c) Financial institutions (d) None of these
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
14. Caveat emptor means ____________.
I. Choose the correct answers (a) Let the buyer beware (b) Let the seller beware (c) both (d) None of these

1. The term ‘consumerism’ came into existence in the year _____________. 15. Caveat venditor means ____________.
(a) 1960 (b) 1957 (c) 1954 (d) 1958 (a) Let the buyer beware (b) Let the seller beware (c) both (d) None of these

2. Who is the father of Consumer Movement? 16. The consumer protection Act is referred in short as _____________.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Mr. Jhon F. Kennedy (c) Ralph Nader (d) Jawaharlal Nehru (a) CPA (b) COPRA (c) CAT (d) None of these

3. Sale of Goods Act was passed in the year? 17. Consumer protection Act is applicable to _____________.
(a) 1962 (b) 1972 (c) 1930 (d) 1985 (a) Immovable goods (b) Movable goods
(c) Specific goods and services (d) all goods and services
4. The main objective of all business enterprises is _____________.
(a) Providing service (b) Providing better standard of life 18. The minimum age limit for being a member of district forum as per consumer protection act
(c) Providing necessities to the society (d) Earn profit is _____________.
(a) 65 (b) 35 (c) 40 (d) 30
5. The Consumer Protection Act came into force with effect from ____________.
(a) 1.1.1986 (b) 1.4.1986 (c) 15.4.1987 (d) 15.4.1990 19. Pick the odd one out.
(a) Adulteration (b) Duplicate (c) Artificial scarcity (d) Equity market
6. _____________ of every year is declared as a Consumer Protection Day to educate the public
about their rights and responsibilities. 20. Pick the odd one out.
(a) August 15 (b) April 15 (c) March 15 (d) September 15 (a) Avoidance of Hoarding (b) Avoidance of price hike
(c) Marketable assets (d) Product information
7. Any person who buys any goods or avails services for personal use, for considerations
called ____________. 21. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Customer (b) Consumer (c) Buyer (d) User (a) Adulteration – Mixing of stones with grains
(b) Spurious goods – Automobile spare parts
8. The General Assembly of United Nations passed resolution of consumer protection
(c) Artificial scarcity – Cinema houses (d) Sub-standard – Black market
guidelines on _____________.
(a) 1985 (b) 1958 (c) 1986 (d) 1988 22. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi emphasized – Consumer protection
9. New products appeared and consumer’s dependence of business ______________.
(b) Consumer Legislation – Sale of Goods Act 1930
(a) increased (b) decreased (c) both (d) none of these
(c) Father of consumer movement – Ralph Nadar
10. Which causes heavy loss to the consumers? (d) A statutory body – Consumer Guidance Society of India
(a) Spurious goods (b) Warranty (c) False advertisement (d) Adulteration

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2

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23. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? 32. Match List I with II
(a) United Nations Guidelines for consumer protection – April 9, 1985 List - I List - II
(b) Sale of Goods Act - 1930 (i) Sale of Goods Act (1) 1955
(c) Indian Contract Act – 1980 (d) Consumer Protection Act – 1986 (ii) The Indian Contract Act (2) 1937
(iii) The Essential Commodities Act (3) 1982
24. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(iv) The Agricultural products grading and marketing Act (4) 1930
(a) Sub-standard – Defective or damaged items (b) Product risk – No stock
(c) Warranty and services – Exorbitant charges Codes:
(d) False advertisement – Quality and compositions (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 1 2 3 4
25. The consumer was referred to as poor consumer by ____________. (b) 2 3 4 1
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Richard H. Bukirk (c) Ralph Nader (d) John F. Kennedy (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
26. ____________ and____________ are the two sides of a coin.
(a) Consumer dependency, Social responsibility (b) Social activity, Consumer satisfaction
(c) Consumer dependency, Business responsibility (d) None of these
Thank You
27. ____________ is quite common in food articles.
(a) Adulteration (b) Warranty (c) Duplicate (d) Scarcity [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce
28. The national consumer disputes redressal commission is a ____________ E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
(a) Legislative machinery (b) Bureaucratic machinery Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(c) Quasi-judicial machinery (d) Judicial machinery

29. In a consumer court cases are disposed of within _____________.

(a) Reasonable time (b) 30/68 days (c) 90 / 150 days (d) no-time limit is prescribed

30. ____________ is applicable to public sector, financial and cooperative enterprises.

(a) Consumer Protection Act (b) Sale of Goods Act
(c) Weights and Measures Act (d) Trademark Act

31. Match List I with II

List - I List - II
(i) The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act (1) 1999
(ii) Weights and Measures Act (2) 2002
(iii) The Trademark Act (3) 1958
(iv) The Competition Act (4) 1937
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 4

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12 – Commerce 12. Consumerism has been defined as _____________.

(a) environmental problems (b) an improved quality of life
Unit – VI Consumer Protection
(c) grievances of consumers (d) none of these
Chapter – 17 Rights, Duties & Responsibilities
of Consumers 13. Which of the following does not fall under consumer rights?
(a) rights to the informed (b) rights to choose
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(c) rights to seek government help (d) rights to represent the consumer court
PG Assistant in Commerce
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] 14. The total number of rights given to consumers as per consumer protection act is _________.
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

I. Choose the correct answers 15. The former President of the USA, [Link] [Link] summed up the basic consumer
rights are _____________.
1. The final aim of modern marketing is ______________.
(a) Right to Safety (b) Right to be informed (c) right to Choose (d) All of the above
(a) Maximum profit (b) Minimum profit (c) Consumer satisfaction (d) Service to the society
16. ____________ should be conscious of his duties.
2. _____________ is the king of modern marketing.
(a) Worker (b) Producer (c) Consumer (d) Wholesalers
(a) Consumer (b) Wholesaler (c) Producer (d) Retailer
17. ____________ should make purchase judiciously and should not misuse his rights.
3. As the consumer is having the rights, they are also having ____________.
(a) Employers (b) Consumer (c) Retailers (d) Wholesalers
(a) Measures (b) Promotion (c) Responsibilities (d) Duties
18. _____________ and ____________ are two sides of the same coin.
4. Which of the following is not a consumer right summed up by John F. Kennedy
(a) Duties, responsibilities (b) Rights, responsibilities
(a) Right to safety (b) Right to choose (c) Right to consume (d) Right to be informed
(c) Powers, duties (d) Powers, rights
5. It is the responsibility of a consumer that he must obtain _____________ as a proof for the
19. _____________ and ____________ on the package should provide information to buyers.
purchase of goods.
(a) Advertising, labelling (b) Labelling, motivating (c) Planning, labelling (d) None of these
(a) Cash receipt (b) Warranty card (c) Invoice (d) All of these
20. The number of member in District Forum, State Commission and National Commission are
6. Satisfaction of consumer needs is stated to be supreme objective of a
_____________ respectively.
(a) business (b) industry (c) commerce (d) economics
(a) 3, 3, 5 (b) 3, 3, 3 (c) 1, 3, 5 (d) 3, 2, 4
7. Who cheat consumer by using unfair weight and measure?
21. Duties of consumers are _____________.
(a) Producers (b) Employees (c) Sellers (d) Workers
(a) Rights to safety (b) Reading the label carefully
8. The consumer should discharge his duties as responsible _____________. (c) Misleading schemes (d) Buying from reputed shops
(a) citizen (b) workers (c) both (d) none of these
22. Consumers rights are ______________.
9. The consumer must get cash receipt as a proof of goods purchased from the ____________. (a) Right to safety (b) Right to be informed (c) Right to choose (d) Misleading schemes
(a) buyer (b) seller (c) both (d) none of these
23. Penalty for the violation of the orders of the forum commission is ______________.
10. The most important law is the _____________. (a) A fine or imprisonment or both (b) Imprisonment up to 3 year
(a) Consumer Protection Act, 1986 (b) Sales of Goods Act, 1930 (c) Fine up to Rs.50000 (d) Fine up to Rs.15000
(c) Weights and Measures Act, 1958 (d) Trade Mark Act, 1999

11. Consumer satisfaction is the ultimate aim of _____________.

(a) Marketing (b) Business Ethics (c) Modern Marketing (d) None of these

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2

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24. Match List I with II 12 – Commerce

List - I List - II Unit – VI Consumer Protection
(i) Right of safety (1) Advertising, labelling Chapter – 18 Grievances Redressal Mechanism
(ii) Rights to be informed (2) Quality, design
(iii) Right to choose (3) Grievances of consumers [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(iv) Right to be heard (4) Emulsifiers, preservatives PG Assistant in Commerce
Codes: E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 1 2 3 4 I. Choose the correct answers
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 1 2 3 1. The Chairman of the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Council is ____________
(d) 3 2 4 1 (a) Serving or Retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India
(b) Prime Minister (c) President of India (d) None of the above

Thank You 2. The Chairman of the State Consumer Protection Council is ______________
(a) Judge of a High Court (b) Chief Minister (c) Finance Minister (d) None of the above
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce 3. The Chairman of the District Forum is ______________
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] (a) District Judge (b) High Court Judge (c) Supreme Court Judge (d) None of the above
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 4. The State Commission can entertain complaints where the value of the goods or services
and the compensation, if any claimed exceed ____________.
(a) ` 2 lakhs but does not exceed ` 5 lakhs (b) ` 20 lakhs but does not exceed ` 1 crore
(c) ` 3 lakhs but does not exceed ` 5 lakhs (d) ` 4 lakhs but does not exceed ` 20 lakhs

5. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission has jurisdiction to entertain

complaints where the value of goods/services complained against and the compensation, if
any, claimed is ____________.
(a) Exceeding ` 1 crore (b) Exceeding ` 10 lakhs
(c) Exceeding ` 5 lakhs (d) Exceeding ` 12 lakhs

6. The District Forum can entertain complaints where the value of goods or services and the
compensation if any claimed is less than _____________.
(a) Below ` 10,00,000 (b) Below ` 20,00,000 (c) Below ` 40,00,000 (d) Below ` 50,00,000

7. The International Organisation of Consumers Unions (IOCU) was first established in _____.
(a) 1960 (b) 1965 (c) 1967 (d) 1987

8. Consumer awareness covers the following:

(a) Consumer awareness about Maximum Retail Price
(b) Consumer awareness about Fair Price Shop
(c) Consumer awareness about price, quality, and expiry date of the product
(d) All of the above

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1

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9. Complaints can also be filed by the ______________. 22. The District council shall held _____________ meetings every year.
(a) Central Government (b) State Government (a) one (b) three (c) two (d) four
(c) A group of consumers (d) All of the above
23. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
10. A consumer has to be protected against ______________. (a) DCA – Department of Consumer Affairs (b) CWF – Consumer Welfare Fund
(a) Defects of product (b) Deficiencies of product (c) VCO – Voluntary Consumer Organisation
(c) Unfair and restrictive trade practices (d) All of the above (d) IOCU – International Organisation of Consumers Unity

11. In a country like India there is a shortage of many _____________. 24. Match List I with II
(a) Workers (b) Products (c) Skills (d) None of these List - I List - II
(i) Mahatma Gandhi (1) Section 9
12. Complaints can be filed with the forum by a ____________.
(ii) Consumer councils (2) New Delhi
(a) Consumer (b) Channel of members (c) Suppliers (d) Competitors
(iii) District forum (3) Consumer awareness
13. The National Consumer Disputes redressal Commission (NCDRC) at the apex is situated at (iv) National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (4) Customer
(a) Calcutta (b) New Delhi (c) Bombay (d) Chennai
Codes:
14. For the District consumer Forum, is a value of upto ____________. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) ` 20 lakhs (b) ` 15 lakhs (c) ` 25 lakhs (d) ` 10 lakhs (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 2 3 1
15. For the State Commission, is a value above ____________.
(c) 4 3 1 2
(a) ` 5 lakhs and ` 50 lakhs (b) ` 20 lakhs and ` 1 crore (d) 3 4 2 1
(c) ` 20 lakhs and ` 5 crore (d) ` 10 lakhs and ` 1 crore
25. Match List I with II
16. The state consumer protection council is also known as ____________.
List - I List - II
(a) National Commission (b) Consumer Awareness Act
(i) District Consumer Forum (1) State Consumer Protection Council
(c) Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (d) All of the above
(ii) State Commission (2) National Consumer Disputes Redressal
17. Formal written complaint of employees is called ____________. Commission
(a) Grievance arbitration (b) Grievance strike (iii) National Commission (3) Protect their rights and interests
(c) Grievance (d) employee ownership (iv) Voluntary organizations for consumer (4) Rs.20 lakhs
awareness
18. Members of state consumer protection council should not exceed ____________.
Codes:
(a) two (b) five (c) ten (d) three
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
19. The chairman of the district consumer protection council is (a) 1 2 3 4
(a) District Magistrate (b) Collector of the District (c) MP of the District (d) None of these (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
20. President of district forum is _____________.
(d) 3 4 1 2
(a) Collector the district (b) A person who are qualified as advocate
(c) A person who are qualified to be a district judge (d) None of these Thank You

21. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the District forum may prefer an appeal such [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
order to the state commission within ____________. PG Assistant in Commerce
(a) 60 Days (b) 90 Days (c) 5 Month (d) 30 Days E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3

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12 – Commerce 11. Organisations have realised the importance of nurturing and maintaining good relationship
with the _____________.
Unit – VII Business Environment
(a) competitors (b) financier (c) customers (d) suppliers
Chapter – 19 Environmental Factors
12. The aim of any business is to satisfy the needs of its ______________.
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(a) customers (b) suppliers (c) financiers (d) public
PG Assistant in Commerce
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] 13. Customer relationship management aims at creating and sustaining cordial relations with
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 (a) suppliers (b) customers (c) financiers (d) competitors

I. Choose the correct answers 14. Business is a part of _____________.

(a) society (b) economic activity (c) both a and b (d) none of these
1. VUCA stands for ______________, _______________, ______________, _____________.
(a) Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity, and Ambiguity 15. The development in the IT and telecommunications has created a ______________.
(b) Value, Unavoidable, Company and Authority (a) rural market (b) global market (c) urban market (d) none of these
(c) Volatility, Uncontrollable, Company and Auction (d) All of the above
16. Every business has to take ______________.
2. GST stands for _______________. (a) strategic decisions (b) dynamic decisions (c) both (d) none of these
(a) Goods and Social Tax (b) Goods and Services Tax
(c) Goods and Sales Tax (d) Goods and Salary Tax 17. External environment of business is _______________.
(a) Physical (b) Demographical (c) Economic (d) All of these
3. Factors within an organisation constitute _________________environment.
(a) Internal Thinker (b) External Thinker (c) Fellow human beings (d) All of the above 18. The economic environment of a business includes _______________.
(a) Economic system (b) Economic policies (c) Economic conditions (d) All of these
4. Macro Environment of business is an _________________ factor.
(a) Uncontrollable (b) Controllable (c) Manageable (d) Immanageable 19. An analysis of the external environment enables a firm to identify.
(a) Strengths and opportunities (b) Strength and weakness
5. The two major types of business environment are _____________ and ______________. (c) Weakness and threats (d) Opportunity and threats
(a) Positive and Negative (b) Internal and External
(c) Good and Bad (d) Allowable and Unallowable 20. In which of the following basic categories can business environment be divided?
(a) Legal and Regional (b) Regional and National
6. _______________environment includes weather and climatic conditions. (c) Internal and External (d) Financial and Non-financial
(a) Micro (b) Macro (c) Minimum (d) Maximum
21. Micro environment is also called as ______________.
7. A business is an integral part of the _______________. (a) General environment (b) Operating environment
(a) Social system (b) Economic system (c) Psychological system (d) None of these (c) Economics environment (d) Political environment

8. The analysis of business environment helps a business to identify _______________. 22. Pick out odd one out.
(a) New opportunities (b) New employees (c) Profit maximization (d) None of these (a) CGST (b) SGST (c) IGST (d) Technology

9. Internal environment factors can be changed or altered are known as ______________. 23. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) external factors (b) controllable factors (c) uncontrollable factors (d) none of these (a) Socio-cultural environment – Beliefs and values
(b) Political and legal environment – Executive and judiciary
10. The success of an enterprise is solely dependent on its _______________.
(c) Geo-physical environment – Weather and climate conditions
(a) manpower (b) skills (c) quality (d) right attitude
(d) Economic environment – Physical boundaries

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2

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24. Which one of the following is correctly matched? 12 – Commerce

(a) GST – Goods and Service Tax (b) CGST – Corporate Goods and Services Tax
Unit – VII Business Environment
(c) SGST – Service Goods Standard Tax (d) IGST – International Goods and Services Tax
Chapter – 20 Liberalization, Privatization and
25. GST is the ______________ tax levied on goods and services across the country. Globalization
(a) direct (b) indirect (c) both (d) none of these
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
26. Match List I with II PG Assistant in Commerce
List - I List - II E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
(i) Value system (1) Decision making Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(ii) Vision and objectives (2) Raising finance I. Choose the correct answers
(iii) Management structure (3) Strategic decisions
(iv) Company image (4) Suppliers and distributors 1. _____________ is the result of New Industrial Policy which abolished the ‘License System’.
(a) Globalization (b) Privatization (c) Liberalization (d) None of these
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 2. ___________ means permitting the private sector to setup industries which were previously
(a) 1 2 3 4 reserved for public sector.
(b) 2 3 1 4 (a) Liberalization (b) Privatization (c) Globalization (d) Public Enterprise
(c) 4 3 1 2
3. ____________ownership makes bold management decisions due to their strong foundation
(d) 3 4 2 1
in the international level.
27. Match List I with II (a) Private (b) Public (c) Corporate (d) MNC’s
List - I List - II
4. ____________ results from the removal of barriers between national economies to encourage
(i) Suppliers 1 King
the flow of goods, services, capital and labour.
(ii) Customers 2 National and global
(a) Privatization (b) Liberalization (c) Globalization (d) Foreign Trade
(iii) Competitors 3 Wholesalers and retailers
(iv) Channel members 4 Stock/inventory 5. New Economic Policy was introduced in the year ______________.
Codes: (a) 1980 (b) 1991 (c) 2013 (d) 2015

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 6. India is one among such nations to commit itself to the New Economic Policy in _________.
(a) 1 2 3 4 (a) 1991 (b) 1995 (c) 1990 (d) 1986
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 3 4 1 7. Liberalization is the result of New Industrial policy which abolished the ______________.
(d) 3 4 1 2 (a) Rules and Regulation (b) License system (c) Panchayat system (d) none of these

8. Investment limit of the small scale industries have been raised to ______________.
Thank You
(a) ` 50 lakhs (b) ` 25 lakhs (c) ` 1 cr (d) ` 5 cr

[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link]., 9. If a country liberalises its trade, it will make the country more attractive for _____________.
PG Assistant in Commerce (a) inward investment (b) exchange reserve (c) consumption (d) price
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
10. The removal of tariff barriers can lead to lower prices for _____________.
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(a) suppliers (b) consumers (c) competitors (d) none of these

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1

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11. Which of the following reduces the dependence on external commercial borrowings by 25. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
attracting more foreign investments? (a) Lack of welfare – Free medical treatment (b) Foreign Trade Policy - GATS
(a) Privatization (b) Liberalization (c) Globalization (d) None of these (c) Repatriate – One’s own country (d) Brain drain – Advantages of privatisation

12. The trade liberalization often benefits developed countries rather than developing ________. 26. Match List I with II
(a) nations (b) sector (c) economies (d) none of these List - I List - II
(i) IMF 1 Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization
13. A number of multinational companies started operating worldwide including ___________.
(ii) NEP 2 International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(a) India (b) China (c) America (d) London
(iii) LPG 3 New Economic Policy
14. Memorandum of understanding system was introduced in ______________. (iv) IBRD 4 International Monetary Fund
(a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1994 Codes:
15. Globalisation has posed major challenges for ______________. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) big producers (b) small producers (c) rural poor (d) none of these (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
16. ____________ refers to laws or rules being liberalized or relaxed by a government. (c) 4 3 1 2
(a) Globalisation (b) Privatisation (c) Liberalisation (d) Nationalisation (d) 2 1 4 3

17. Globalisation has created new opportunities of ______________. 27. Match List I with II
(a) employment (b) emerging multinational (c) providing services (d) all of the above
List - I List - II
18. By which act government checks restrictive trade? (i) Industrial Licensing 1 1991
(a) Industrial Policy Act 1991 (b) MRTP Act (c) FEMA Act (d) None of these (ii) Invest limit of small industries 2 Human resources and technology
(iii) Foreign Exchange reforms 3 Rs.1 crore
19. Currently, only____________ industries are under compulsory licensing. (iv) Export and import transactions 4 Six specific industries
(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five
Codes:
20. _____________ industry has been liberalised. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) Drugs and pharmaceuticals (b) Hazardous chemicals (a) 2 3 1 4
(c) Tobacco products (d) Defence equipment (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 4 2 1
21. _____________ started selling shares of PSUs to Public and Financial institution.
(d) 4 3 1 2
(a) Indian Government (b) State Government (c) Central Government (d) None of these

22. Pick the odd one out. Thank You

(a) Liberalization (b) Privatization (c) Goods (d) Globalization
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
23. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
PG Assistant in Commerce
(a) MRTP Act – 1969 (b) Foreign investment – Buy and sell goods
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
(c) GATS – General Association Tariff Service (d) PSU – Public service units
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
24. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Trade liberalisation – Grater competition from abroad
(b) Foreign collaboration – Latest outcome of liberalisation
(c) Public service units – PSUs (d) MOU – 1991

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3

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12 – Commerce 12. A contract of sale involves ______________.

(a) one parties (b) three parties (c) two parties (d) more than five parties
Unit – VIII The Sale of Goods Act 1930 and
the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 13. The subject matter of contract of sale must be _____________.
Chapter – 21 The Sale of Goods Act 1930 (a) goods (b) cash (c) credit (d) all of these

[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link]., 14. The monetary consideration for the goods sold is called ______________.
PG Assistant in Commerce (a) Price (b) Goods (c) Both a and b (d) none of these
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 15. Which of the following determined with reference to the terms and conditions of the
contract?
I. Choose the correct answers (a) Condition (b) Warranty (c) Both a and b (d) none of these

1. Sale of Goods Act was passed in the year _____________. 16. Section 2, the sale of goods act is about ______________.
(a) 1940 (b) 1997 (c) 1930 (d) 1960 (a) Principles (b) Definitions (c) Exceptions (d) None of the above

2. Which of the below constitutes the essential element of contract of sale? 17. The voluntary transfer of possession form one person to another is called _____________.
(a) Two parties (b) Transfer of property (c) Price (d) All of the above (a) Transfer (b) Change of possession (c) Delivery (d) None of these

3. Which of the below is not a good? 18. Definition of unpaid seller is provided in section of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 __________.
(a) Stocks (b) Dividend due (c) Crops (d) Water (a) 45 (b) 46 (c) 47 (d) None of these

4. In case of the sale, the ____________ has the right to sell 19. The possession of the finder of lost goods is that of _______________.
(a) Buyer (b) Seller (c) Hirer (d) Consignee (a) Bailee (b) Bailor (c) Creditor (d) True owner

5. The property in the goods means the _____________. 20. Which of the following does not fall in the category of “Goods”?
(a) Possession of goods (b) Custody of goods (c) Ownership of goods (d) Both (a) and (b) (a) Stock and Shares (b) Money and actionable claims
(c) Growing crops and grass (d) None of these
6. Specific goods denote goods identified upon the time of ______________ of sale:
(a) Agreement (b) Contract (c) Order (d) Obligation 21. Which of the following is not a good under sale of goods act?
(a) Stocks (b) Outstanding wages (c) Crops (d) Water
7. In which of the following types, the ownership is immediately transferred to buyer?
(a) When goods are ascertained (b) When goods are appropriate 22. A contract of sale may be made:
(c) Delivery to the carrier (d) Sale or return basis (a) A in writing or by word of mouth (b) Partly in writing of partly by word of mouth
(c) By the implied conduct of parties (d) All of the above
8. _______________ is a stipulation which is collateral to main purpose of contract:
(a) Warranty (b) Condition (c) Right (d) Agreement 23. Which of the following is not a subject matter in sale of goods Act?
(a) Trade mark (b) Goodwill (c) Money (d) Water
9. Unpaid seller can exercise his right of lien over the goods, where he is in possession of the
goods as _____________. 24. In case of sale the risk is associated with _____________.
(a) Owner of goods (b) Agent of buyer (c) Bailee for buyer (d) All of these (a) money (b) goods (c) ownership (d) possession

10. The unpaid seller can exercise his right of stoppage of goods in transit where the buyer 25. Existing goods can be classified as _____________.
(a) Becomes insolvent (b) Refuses to pay price (c) Payment of price (d) Both (b) and (c) (a) Ascertained (b) Generic (c) Both a and b (d) Nor a neither b

11. Sale of Goods Act was passed in the year _____________. 26. _____________ goods represent undertrained goods.
(a) 1986 (b) 1930 (c) 1982 (d) 1955 (a) Contingent (b) Generic (c) Specific (d) Future

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2

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27. ______________ is of secondary importance to the contract. 12 – Commerce

(a) Warranty (b) Condition (c) Quiet Possession (d) Agreement
Unit – VIII The Sale of Goods Act 1930 and
28. The Sale of goods Act deals only with goods which are _____________ in nature. the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881
(a) immovable (b) movable (c) specific (d) all of the above Chapter – 22 The Negotiable Instruments Act
1881
29. Sale under sale of goods act is/an _____________ contract.
(a) Executory (b) Executable (c) Executed (d) None of these [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce
30. ____________ is termed as consideration in a contract of sale: E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
(a) Exchange money (b) Barter money (c) Price (d) Reward Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699

31. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? I. Choose the correct answers
(a) Specific goods – Time of contract of sale
(b) Ascertained goods – Formation of the contract 1. Negotiable Instrument Act was passed in the year ______________.
(c) Generic goods – Future goods (d) Contingent goods – Part of future goods (a) 1981 (b) 1881 (c) 1994 (d) 1818

32. Match List I with II 2. Negotiable Instrument is freely transferable by delivery if it is a______________ instrument.
(a) Order (b) Bearer (c) Both a & b (d) None of the above
List - I List - II
(i) Condition (1) Bill of exchange 3. The transferee of a Negotiable Instrument is the one ___________
(ii) Warranty (2) Perishable in nature (a) Who transfer the instrument (b) On whose name it is transferred
(iii) Unpaid seller (3) Collateral to the main purpose (c) Who enchases it (d) None of the above
(iv) Right of resale (4) Essential to the main purpose
4. Number of parties in a bill of exchange is _____________.
Codes:
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 4
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 1 2 3 4 5 Section 6 of Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 deals with _____________.
(b) 2 3 4 1 (a) Promissory Note (b) Bills of exchange (c) Cheque (d) None of the above
(c) 4 3 1 2
6. _____________ cannot be a bearer instrument.
(d) 3 1 2 4
(a) Cheque (b) Promissory Note (c) Bills of exchange (d) None of the above
33. Match List I with II
7. When crossing restrict further negotiation ______________.
List - I List - II
(a) Not negotiable crossing (b) General Crossing (c) A/c payee crossing (d) Special crossing
(i) Two parties 1) Movable property
(ii) Transfer of property 2) Monetary consideration 8. Which endorsement relieves the endorser from incurring liability in the event of dishonour
(iii) Goods 3) Does not amount to sale (a) Restrictive (b) Facultative (c) Sans recourse (d) Conditional
(iv) Price 4) Seller and buyer
9. A cheque will become stale after ______________ months of its date:
Codes: (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 1
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 3 4 2 1 10. Document of title to the goods excludes _______________.
(b) 2 3 4 1 (a) Lorry receipt (b) Railway receipt (c) Airway bill (d) Invoice
(c) 1 2 3 4 11. The law relating to negotiable instruments is dealt in the _____________.
(d) 4 3 1 2 (a) Sale of Contract Act 1930 (b) Indian Contract Act 1872
(c) Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 (d) None of these

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1

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12. The cheque is to be signed by the ______________. 28. Pick the odd one out.
(a) drawee (b) banker (c) drawer (d) none of these (a) Partial endorsement (b) Sans recourse endorsement
(c) Promissory note (d) Special endorsement
13. An instrument which is not inland instrument is called _____________.
(a) Foreign instrument (b) Bearer instrument 29. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(c) Inland instrument (d) Ambiguous instrument (a) Bearer cheque – Pay Murugan or bearer (b) Order cheque – Pay Murugan or order
(c) General crossing – Not negotiable (d) Special crossing – Parallel lines are necessary
14. Promissory Note, Bill of Exchange or cheque is payable to order is called _____________.
(a) Bearer Instrument (b) Order instrument (c) Inland instrument (d) Foreign instrument 30. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Reserve Bank of India Act – 1934 (b) MICR – Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
15. Negotiable instrument means a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque, payable to (c) IFSC – Indian Financial System Code (d) Negotiable Instrument Act – 1930
(a) bearer (b) order (c) either to bearer or order (d) neither bearer nor order
32. Match List I with II
16. When an instrument has been lost it is presumed that it was _____________.
List - I List - II
(a) expired (b) duly stamped (c) stolen (d) misplaced
(i) Negotiable (1) Transferability
17. The number of parties to a bill of exchange is ______________. (ii) Instrument (2) Duly stamped
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 3 (iii) Negotiable instrument (3) Written document
(iv) Assignability (4) Return for consideration
18. The number of parties to a promissory note is ______________.
Codes:
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 6
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
19. Section 4 negotiable instrument act 1880 deals with ______________. (a) 1 2 3 4
(a) Promissory Note (b) Bill of Exchange (c) Cheque (d) None of the above (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
20. In the case of Bill of Exchange drawee is the ______________.
(d) 3 4 1 2
(a) Maker (b) Payee (c) Acceptor (d) None of these

21. When the loss of cheque is intimated is the bank. It is advisable to get the cheque. 27. Match List I with II
(a) dishonoured (b) cancelled (c) stalled (d) countermanded List - I List - II
(i) Bill of Exchange (1) Section 123
22. A written document by which some legal rights are created in favour of some person. (ii) Cheque (2) Section 124
(a) Endorsement (b) Instrument (c) Promissory note (d) Negotiation (iii) General Crossing (3) Section 6
(iv) Special Crossing (4) Section 5
23. ____________ means the bill to which no document of title to the good is attached.
(a) Documentary bill (b) Clean bill (c) Time instrument (d) None of these Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
24. ______________ is found at the bottom of the cheque.
(a) 3 4 1 2
(a) MICR code (b) Bearer cheque (c) Crossed cheque (d) None of these
(b) 1 2 3 4
25. IFSC is a ____________ character code. (c) 4 3 1 2
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (d) 2 3 4 1

26. Acceptance is ____________ in case of bill of exchange.

Thank You
(a) compulsory (b) optional (c) not compulsory (d) none of these

27. Pick the odd one out. [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(a) Ambiguous instrument (b) Time instrument (c) Inchoate instrument (d) Entrepreneur Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3

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12 – Commerce 12. CWEI was registered as a civil society in the year ____________.
(a) 1990 (b) 1992 (c) 1996 (d) 1998
Unit – IX Entrepreneurship Development
Chapter – 23 Elements of Entrepreneurship 13. The first and foremost function of entrepreneur is _____________.
(a) idea generation (b) determination (c) investigation (d) preparation of business plan
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce 14. Name the institution which was setup in 1982 to promote integrated rural development.
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] (a) NSIC (b) NABARD (c) SIDBI (d) NCEUS
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
15. Name the institution which is setup as an apex bank to provide direct or indirect financial
I. Choose the correct answers assistance under difference scheme.
(a) SIDBI (b) NSIC (c) NABARD (d) CWEI
1. Which of the below is a factor of production?
(a) Land (b) Labour (c) Entrepreneurship (d) All of the above 16. Entrepreneurs are classified into ____________ groups
(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five
2. Entrepreneur is not classified as _____________.
(a) Risk Bearer (b) Innovator (c) Employee (d) Organizer 17. Women constitute ____________ of the economic enterprise.
(a) one third (b) two third (c) one fourth (d) two fourth
3. What are the characteristics of an entrepreneur?
(a) Spirit of enterprise (b) Flexibility (c) Self Confidence (d) All of the above 18. ____________ is accredited by Government of India.
(a) STEP (b) CWEI (c) DIC (d) TREAD
4. Which of the below is not classified into managerial functions?
(a) Planning (b) Marketing (c) Organizing (d) Controlling 19. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) SHG – Self Help Groups (b) FIWE – Federation of Indian Women Entrepreneurs
5. Which of the below is a commercial function?
(c) SIDO – Small Industrial Development Organisation
(a) Accounting (b) Coordination (c) Discovery of idea (d) Planning
(d) SEWA – Self Employed World Association
6. The person who establishes business is termed ____________.
20. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Entrepreneur (b) Intrapreneur (c) Promoter (d) Manager
(a) WEPA – Women Entrepreneurs Promotion Association
7. The output of an entrepreneurial process ends up in establishing an ____________. (b) WEAT – Women Entrepreneurs Association of Tamil Nadu
(a) environment (b) enterprise (c) organization (d) none of these (c) PMRT – Prime Ministers Rural Yojana
(d) DWCRA – Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas
8. An Irishman described the entrepreneur to be a person who assumes risk inherent in the
venture started by him – who said these words? 21. Match List I with II
(a) Jean Baptize (b) Knight (c) Schumpeter (d) Richard Cantillon List - I List - II
(i) Entrepreneur (1) Military expeditions
9. “Entrepreneurship is essentially a creative activity” – who said these words? (ii) Musical Institution (2) Realm of economics
(a) Schumpeter (b) Richard (c) Knight (d) Jean Baptize (iii) Sixteenth century (3) Oxford Dictionary
10. Women entrepreneurship is gaining importance in India in the wake of economic ________. (iv) Eighteenth century (4) French language
(a) Liberalisation (b) Globalisation (c) (a) or (b) (d) (a) and (b) Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
11. “Women who innovate, imitate or adopt a business activity are known as women
(a) 1 2 3 4
entrepreneurs” ____________.
(b) 2 3 4 1
(a) Jean Baptize (b) Knight (c) Richard (d) Schumpeter
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 1 2 4

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2

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22. Match List I with II 12 – Commerce

List - I List - II
Unit – IIX Entrepreneurship Development
(i) Spirit of enterprise (1) Rigid fashion
Chapter – 24 Types of Entrepreneurs
(ii) Flexibility (2) Manpower, technology
(iii) Resource mobilisation (3) Sympathy and empathy [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(iv) Leadership (4) Setbacks or frustrations PG Assistant in Commerce
Codes: E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(a) 4 1 2 3
I. Choose the correct answers
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 1 4 1. Choose the type of entrepreneur that isn’t based on function:
(d) 3 4 2 1 (a) Innovative (b) Classical (c) Fabian (d) Drone

2. Choose the type of Entrepreneur that is not based on Motivation:

Thank You
(a) Pure (b) Corporate (c) Spontaneous (d) Induced

[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link]., 3. Which of the following is the Activity of a Business Entrepreneur?
PG Assistant in Commerce (a) Production (b) Marketing (c) Operation (d) All of the above
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
4. Find the odd one out in context of Trading Entrepreneur.
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(a) Selling (b) Commission (c) Buying (d) Manufacturing

5. Corporate Entrepreneur is also called as _____________

(a) Intrapreneur (b) Promoter (c) Manager (d) Shareholder

6. Poultry, Flowers, Fruits etc are called allied Products of _____________ entrepreneur.
(a) Corporate (b) Retail (c) Trading (d) Agricultural

7. ______________ Entrepreneur Supply Services Unlike.

(a) Hoteliers (b) Banking (c) Airlines (d) Livestock

8. Motive of a Pure Entrepreneur is ______________.

(a) Rendering service (b) Earning profit (c) Attaining status (d) Both b & c

9. Which of these is based on Technology?

(a) Modern (b) Professional (c) Corporate (d) Industrial

10. Which of the below is not a Characteristic of a Fabian Entrepreneur?

(a) Conservative (b) Risk adverse (c) Sceptical (d) Adaptive

11. Which of the following entrepreneur is simply imitates existing skill, knowledge or
technology already in place in advanced countries?
(a) Fabian entrepreneur (b) Innovative entrepreneur
(c) Imitative entrepreneur (d) Drone entrepreneur

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1

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12. Narsus coffee is an example of _____________. 24. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Innovative entrepreneur (b) Imitative entrepreneur (a) Urban entrepreneur – Corporate entrepreneur (b) Rural entrepreneur - Promoter
(c) Fabian entrepreneur (d) Drone entrepreneur (c) Private entrepreneur – To earn profit (d) State entrepreneur – Company

13. Gopal tooth powder is an example of _____________. 25. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Fabian entrepreneur (b) Corporate entrepreneur (a) Induced entrepreneur – Nominal rate of interest
(c) Imitative entrepreneur (d) Drone entrepreneur (b) Motivated entrepreneur – Life timers
(c) Spontaneous entrepreneur – Natural inclination to start venture
14. Business entrepreneur is called ______________. (d) First generation entrepreneur – Self made entrepreneur
(a) Solo entrepreneur (b) Trading entrepreneur
(c) Industrial entrepreneur (d) Agricultural entrepreneur 26. Match List I with II
List - I List - II
15. Which of the following entrepreneurs who restrict themselves to buying and selling
(i) Innovating entrepreneur (1) Nursus Coffee
finished goods?
(ii) Imitative entrepreneur (2) Niche market
(a) Business entrepreneur (b) Trading entrepreneur
(iii) Fabian entrepreneur (3) Redesign the products
(c) Industrial entrepreneur (d) Innovative entrepreneur
(iv) Drone entrepreneur (4) Introducing a new project
16. Corporate entrepreneur is called ______________. Codes:
(a) Promoter (b) Buyer (c) Founder (d) None of these
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
17. Which of the following entrepreneur demonstrates their creative talents by producing (a) 1 2 3 4
innovative products? (b) 2 3 4 1
(a) Technical entrepreneur (b) Innovative entrepreneur (c) 4 3 1 2
(c) Imitative entrepreneur (d) Fabian entrepreneur (d) 3 1 2 4

27. Match List I with II

18. Which of the following entrepreneurs are those motivated to take up venture by the desire
for self fulfilment? List - I List - II
(a) Motivated (b) Spontaneous (c) Classical (d) Modern (i) Business entrepreneur (1) Promoter
(ii) Trading entrepreneur (2) Small, medium and large entrepreneur
19. Which of the following entrepreneur starts his own venture as a family business? (iii) Industrial entrepreneur (3) Commission and marketing
(a) Agricultural entrepreneur (b) Fabian entrepreneur (iv) Corporate entrepreneur (4) Solo entrepreneur
(c) Drone entrepreneur (d) Classical entrepreneur
Codes:
20. Entrepreneurs from the business families are called _____________. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) State entrepreneur (b) Joint entrepreneur (a) 1 2 3 4
(c) Urban entrepreneur (d) Classical entrepreneur (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 1 4
21. Pick the odd one out.
(d) 3 4 2 1
(a) Fabian entrepreneur (b) Drone entrepreneur (c) Recruitment (d) Imitative entrepreneur
28. Match List I with II
22. Pick the odd one out.
(a) Business (b) Trading (c) Industrial (d) Interview List - I List - II
(i) Agricultural entrepreneur (1) Different products of different brands
23. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? (ii) Retail entrepreneur (2) Manpower supplier
(a) Non-technical entrepreneur – Channel members and end consumers (iii) Service entrepreneur (3) Small ventures
(b) Professional entrepreneur – Manager or as a owner (iv) Technical entrepreneur (4) Insecticide, water technology
(c) Pure entrepreneur – T.V. sundaram Iyengar (d) Induced entrepreneur – Self Fulfilment
[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3

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Codes: 12 – Commerce
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Unit – IX Entrepreneurial Development
(a) 1 2 3 4 Chapter – 25 Government Schemes for
(b) 4 1 2 3 Entrepreneurial Development
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 3 1 4 [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
Thank You Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699

I. Choose the correct answers

[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce 1. The ___________ initiative was launched to modernize the Indian economy to make all
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] governments services available electronically.
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 (a) Standup India (b) Startup India (c) Digital India (d) Make in India

2. _____________ is designed to transform India to a global design and manufacturing hub.

(a) Digital India (b) Make in India (c) Start up India (d) Design India.

3. ___________ is the Government of India’s endeavour to promote culture of innovation and

entrepreneurship.
(a) AIM (b) STEP (c) SEED (d) AIC

4. ___________ should cover aspects like sources of finance, technical know-how, source of
labour and raw material, market potential and profitability.
(a) Technical Report (b) Finance Report (c) Project Report (d) Progress Report

5. _____________ has to include the mechanism for managing venture in the project report.
(a) Banker (b) Government (c) Lending Institutions (d) Entrepreneur

6. Make in India initiative was launched in ___________.

(a) April 2014 (b) September 2014 (c) may 2014 (d) None of these

7. Stand-up India was launched in ____________.

(a) 2015 (b) 2016 (c) 2017 (d) 2018

8. National Skill Development Mission was unveiled in _____________.

(a) March 2014 (b) September 2014 (c) March 2015 (d) July 2015

9. Entrepreneur has to include the mechanism for managing the venture in the _____________.
(a) Project report (b) Statutory license (c) Both a and b (d) None of these

10. Entrepreneur has to apply for _______________.

(a) Statutory license (b) Project report
(c) Provisional Registration Certificate (d) Permanent Registration Certificate

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 4 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1

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11. _____________ is a foremost challenge facing India. Codes:

(a) New programmes (b) Innovation (c) Job Creation (d) None of these (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
12. _____________ has to choose suitable plot of accommodating his venture. (a) 1 2 3 4
(a) Entrepreneur (b) Intrapreneur (c) Manager (d) Promoter (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 4 2 1
13. _____________ has to determine the source of finance for funding the venture. (d) 4 3 1 2
(a) Intrapreneur (b) Manager (c) Entrepreneur (d) Promoter
21. Match List I with II
14. Entrepreneur has to obtain ______________ from the authority concerned. List - I List - II
(a) Municipal License (b) Project report (i) JAM (1) Schedules castes and scheduled Tribes
(c) Provisional Registration Certificate (d) None of these (ii) Digital India (2) India’s underprivileged women
(iii) Stand-up India (3) Modernize the Indian economy
15. Entrepreneur requires ______________ types of finance.
(iv) TREAD (4) Eliminating all intermediaries
(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) six
Codes:
16. Pick the odd one out.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) Startup India (b) Make in India (c) Atal innovation mission (d) Management
(a) 1 2 3 4
17. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? (b) 4 3 1 2
(a) AIM – Atal Innovation Mission (c) 3 1 4 2
(b) STEP – Support to Training and Employment Programme for women (d) 2 4 1 3
(c) JAM – Jan Dhan – Aadhaar – Mobile (d) NITI – National Institutions for Training India

18. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? Thank You
(a) TREAD – Non-government organizations (b) PMKVY – Skill certification
(c) National Skill Development Mission – Oct 2015 [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(d) Selection of site – Infrastructure facilities PG Assistant in Commerce
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
19. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(a) Technical feasibility – Quality control measures
(b) Economic viability – Suitable price structure
(c) Financial viability – Probable cost of production
(d) Managerial competency – Six months duration

20. Match List I with II

List - I List - II
(i) Startup India (1) Grand challenges
(ii) Make in India (2) Horticulture, food processing
(iii) AIM (3) Foster innovation, develop skills
(iv) STEP (4) Fund of Funds

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3

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12 – Commerce 11. Which company shares can be freely transferable?

(a) Private company (b) Public company (c) both a and b (d) None of these
Unit – X Company Law and Secretarial Practice
Chapter – 26 Companies Act 2013 12. Minimum number of members required to apply for incorporation certificate in a Public
Limited company is ____________.
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 7 (d) 50
PG Assistant in Commerce
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] 13. The second stage in the formation of the company is ______________.
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 (a) Promotion (b) Registration (c) Capital subscription (d) Commencement of business

I. Choose the correct answers 14. The second most important document which is required at the time of registration is ____.
(a) Memorandum of Association (b) Prospectus (c) Articles of Association (d) None of these
1. The Company will have to issue the notice of situation of Registered Office to the Registrar
of Companies within ____________ days from the date of incorporation. 15. A debenture, in which no specific time is specified by the companies to pay back the money
(a) 14 days (b) 21 days (c) 30 Days (d) 60 Days is called an ______________.
(a) Registered debentures (b) Bearer debentures
2. How does a person who envisages the idea to form a company called?
(c) Irredeemable debentures (d) None of these
(a) Director (b) Company Secretary (c) Registrar (d) Promoter
16. The articles of association needs to be signed by ______________.
3. For which type of capital a company pays the prescribed fees at the time of registration?
(a) All proposed directors (b) Registrar
(a) Subscribed Capital (b) Authorized Capital
(c) Subscribers of memorandum (d) None of the above
(c) Paid-up Capital (d) Issued Capital
17. The person who envisages the idea is called a _______________.
4. Which of the following types of shares are issued by a company to raise capital from the
(a) Promoter (b) Manager (c) Director (d) Member
existing shareholders?
(a) Equity Shares (b) Rights Shares (c) Preference Shares (d) Bonus Shares 18. If minimum subscription is not received application money should be refunded with in
_____________ days.
5. Specify the type of resolution to be passed to choose the location of Registered Office of the
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 10
company within the town or village or city.
(a) Ordinary (b) Special (c) Either Ordinary (d) Board or Special 19. Minimum subscription should be received within _____________ days.
(a) 130 (b) 125 (c) 120 (d) 150
6. Who can issue stock?
(a) Public (b) Private (c) One Person (d) Small 20. The _____________ is the charter of a company.
(a) Memorandum of Association (b) Articles of Association
7. Specify the document which comes under the Negotiable Instrument Act.
(c) Both a and b (d) None of the above
(a) Share Certificate (b) Share (c) Share Warrant (d) Stock
21. Which one of the following is not a correct pair?
8. The shares which are offered to the existing shareholder at free of cost is known as _______.
(a) Sweat Equity Shares – Can be issued at discount
(a) Bonus Share (b) Equity Share (c) Right Share (d) Preference Share
(b) Holder of Share Warrant – Generally they cannot be considered members of a company
9. The shares which are offered first to the existing shareholder at reduced price is known as (c) Bonus shares – Issuing new shares (d) Debentures – Internal sources of fund
__________.
22. Which one of the following is not a correct correctly matched?
(a) Bonus Share (b) Equity Share (c) Right Share (d) Preference Share
(a) CLB – Company Law Board (b) NCLT – National Company Law Tribunal
10. The Companies Act 2013 prohibits the issue of shares at ______________ to the public. (c) BIFR – Board of International and Financial Registration
(a) Premium (b) Par (c) Discount (d) Both at par and Premium (d) SICA – Sick Industrial Companies Act

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2

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23. Which one of the following is not a correct correctly matched? 12 – Commerce
(a) Body corporate – Legal existence
Unit – X Company Law and Secretarial Practice
(b) Promoter – Section 2(69)
Chapter – 27 Companies Management
(c) Incorporation – Second stage
(d) Capital subscription – First stage [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
24. Match List I with II PG Assistant in Commerce
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
List - I List - II
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(i) Registered debentures (1) Irredeemable debentures
(ii) Bearer debentures (2) Charge on the fixed assets I. Choose the correct answers
(iii) Perpetual debentures (3) Negotiable instrument
1. A person shall hold office as a director in _____companies as per the Companies Act, 2013.
(iv) Secured debentures (4) Issued in the name of a particular person
(a) 5 companies (b) 10 companies (c) 20 companies (d) 15 companies
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 2. Which _________ Director is appointed by a financial institution.
(a) 2 3 4 1 (a) Nominee (b) Additional (c) Women (d) Shadow
(b) 4 3 1 2
3. A Private Company shall have a minimum of _____________.
(c) 3 4 2 1
(a) Seven directors (b) Five directors (c) Three directors (d) Two directors
(d) 1 2 3 4
4. A Public Company shall have a minimum of ______________ Directors.
25. Match List I with II
(a) Twelve (b) Seven (c) Three (d) Two
List - I List - II
(i) Issue of shares at par (1) Except sweat equity share 5. A Public Company having a paid up Share Capital of Rs. ___________ or more may have a
(ii) Issue of shares at premium (2) Reserves and surplus Director, elected by such small shareholders.
(iii) Issue of securities at discount (3) Write off preliminary expenses (a) One crore (b) Three crore (c) Five crore (d) Seven crore
(iv) Bonus shares (4) No legal restrictions
6. Under the companies Act, which one of the following powers can be exercised by the Board
Codes: of Directors?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) Power to sell the company’s undertakings (b) Power to make call
(a) 1 2 3 4 (c) Power to borrow money in excess of the paid up capital
(b) 2 3 1 4 (d) Power to reappoint an auditor
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2 7. Which director need not hold qualifying shares?
(a) Directors appointed to Central Government (b) Directors appointed to Shareholders
(c) Directors appointed to Managing Director (d) Directors appointed to Board of Directors
Thank You
8. What is the statue of Directors who regulate money of the company?
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link]., (a) Banker (b) Holder (c) Agent (d) Trustees
PG Assistant in Commerce
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] 9. According to Companies Act, the Directors must be appointed by the ______________.
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 (a) Central Government (b) Company Law Tribunal
(c) Company in General Meeting (d) Board of Directors

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 1

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10. The Board of Directors can exercise the power to appoint directors in the case of _________. 23. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Additional Directors (b) Filling up the Casual vacancy (a) Whole time director – Personal interest
(c) Alternate Directors (d) All the above (b) Managing director – Control of the board
(c) Executive director – Managing director of an organisation
11. The group of human beings who undertake the responsibility to run the business of the
(d) Non-executive director – One-third directors
company are known as _______________.
(a) Board of directors (b) Shareholders (c) Debenture holders (d) None of these 24. Match List I with II
List - I List - II
12. The overall performance of any company is vested with the _______________.
(i) Board of directors (1) 3
(a) debenture holders (b) directors (c) both a and b (d) None of these
(ii) Minimum number of directors (2) 15
13. The directors are expected to act in _______________. (iii) Maximum directors (3) 2013
(a) utmost care (b) good faith (c) delegate work (d) none of these (iv) KMP (4) Director of a company
Codes:
14. The directors should conduct their work with _______________.
(a) good faith (b) utmost care (c) delegate work (d) none of these (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 1 2 3 4
15. The definition of the term key managerial personnel contained in _______________. (b) 2 3 4 1
(a) Section 2(13) (b) Section 2(18) (c) Section 2(50) (d) Section 2(51) (c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
16. The Governing body of a company incorporated under companies Act called ____________.
(a) Board (b) Policy c) MOA d) AOA 25. Match List I with II

17. Public companies which have paid-up share capital _______________. List - I List - II
(i) To act in good faith (1) Company secretary
(a) ` 5 Crores (b) ` 10 Crores or more (c) ` 50 Crores (d) ` 25 Crores
(ii) To act with utmost care (2) Directors
18. Public companies which have Turnover ______________. (iii) Group of individuals (3) Act with prudence
(a) ` 25 Crores (b) ` 50 Crores (c) ` 75 Crores (d) ` 100 Crores or more (iv) Key Managerial personnel (4) Secret profits
Codes:
19. The alternative director is not a representative or agent of _______________.
(a) Original director (b) Shadow director (c) Additional director (d) Nominee director (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 1 2 3 4
20. The minimum requirement of Director is ______________. (b) 4 3 2 1
(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five (c) 2 3 4 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
21. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Public company – Minimum number of 3 directors
Thank You
(b) Private company – Minimum number of 4 directors
(c) Qualification of directors – Of unsound mind
(d) Disqualifications of a director – Solvent person [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce
22. Which one of the following is correctly matched? E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
(a) Women director – Every listed company Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
(b) Additional director – Paid up share capital
(c) Alternate director – Who is not the member
(d) Shadow director – Less than three months

[Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 2 [Link] / E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] / Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699 / Page: 3

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12 – Commerce 12. The word secretary has originated in _______________.

(a) French (b) Latin (c) Tamil (d) None of these
Unit – X Company Law and Secretarial Practice
Chapter – 28 Company Secretary 13. The Latin word secretaries which means _______________.
(a) Secretary (b) Sector (c) Secret (d) None of these
[Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
PG Assistant in Commerce 14. Some information should be kept very confidential in all the ______________.
E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link] (a) Companies (b) Private institutions (c) Industries (d) Owners
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
15. Every unlisted company and every private company having a paid up capital of _________.
I. Choose the correct answers (a) ` 3 crore (b) ` 50 lakhs (c) ` 5 crore (d) ` more than 10 crores
1. Mention the status of a Company Secretary in a company. 16. To deliver share certificate of allotment within ______________.
(a) A member (b) A director (c) An independent (d) An employee contractor (a) 30 days (b) 2 months (c) 3 months (d) 5 months
2. Who can become a secretary for a company? 17. The company secretary must serve in the best interests of the ______________.
(a) Individual person (b) Partnership firm (c) Co-operative societies (d) Trade unions (a) Board of directors (b) Debenture holders (c) Shareholders (d) All of the above
3. Which meeting will be held only once in the life time of the company? 18. The meeting held with the shareholders of the company is called ______________.
(a) Statutory (b) Annual General (c) Extra – ordinary (d) Class General (a) Board meeting (b) Committees meetings (c) Shareholders meetings (d) None of these
4. Board Meetings to be conducted minimum __________ times in a year. 19. First general meeting of the Public company is called the _______________.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (a) Statutory meeting (b) Annual General meeting
(c) Committee meetings (d) Board meetings
5. Who is not entitled to speak at the annual general meeting of the company?
(a) Auditor (b) Shareholder (c) Proxy (d) Directors 20. Meetings of directors are called ____________.
(a) Special meetings (b) Board meetings (c) Committee meetings (d) None of these
6. Mention the company which need not convene the Statutory Meeting.
(a) Widely held public (b) Private Limited 21. The total managerial remuneration payable by a public limited company to its director or
(c) Public Limited (d) Guarantee having a share capital manager should not exceed ____________ of the net profits of that financial year.
(a) 3% (b) 5% (c) 9% (d) 11%
7. From the date of its incorporation the First Annual General Meeting is to be conducted
within __________ months. 22. The quorum for a general meeting of members of public company is ____________
(a) Twelve (b) Fifteen (c) Eighteen (d) Twenty one (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 15

8. What percentage of shareholders is needed to pass special resolution? 23. Statutory meeting must be held not later than ____________ and not earlier than __________
(a) It must be unanimous (b) Not less than 90% (c) Not less than 75% (d) More than 50% from the date on which a public company is entitled to commence business.
(a) 5 months, 1 month (b) 6 months, 2 months (c) 6 months, 1 month (d) none of these
9. A special resolution must be filed with the Registrar within
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 30 days (d) 60 days 24. A statutory report must be sent to every member of the company at least ____________ days
before the meeting are to be held.
10. A special resolution is required to ________________.
(a) 21 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) more than 50
(a) Redeem the debentures (b) Declare dividend (c) Appoint directors (d) Appoint auditor
25. Auditors are generally appointed and their remuneration, fixed at the __________ meeting.
11. The person who is responsible for the general performance of an organization is called
(a) Annual General (b) Statutory (c) Articles of Association (d) none of these
(a) Company secretary (b) Resolution (c) Voting (d) Poll

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26. When a proposal placed before the meetings are passed by the meeting, it becomes a Codes:
____________. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) Agenda (b) Minute (c) Resolution (d) Quorum (a) 1 2 3 4
27. The liabilities of Director to third parties come under ____________. (b) 3 4 2 1
(a) criminal liabilities (b) civil liabilities (c) both a and b (d) none of these (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
28. Subsequent directors are elected by shareholder at the ____________.
(a) Annual General Meetings (b) Memorandum of Association Thank You
(c) Statutory Meetings (d) Company Meetings

29. To prepare minutes of every general and Board meetings of every committee of the Board [Link], [Link]., [Link]., [Link].,
within ____________ days. PG Assistant in Commerce
(a) 30 (b) 60 (c) 90 (d) 100 E-mail: mvaradarajan76@[Link]
Mobile: 9786868699 & 9842868699
30. An abstract of receipt and payments upto a date within ____________ days of the report.
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7

31. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Ordinary resolution – Supported by a simple majority
(b) Quorum – Minimum number of members necessary for meeting
(c) Minutes – Record of the proceedings of a meeting
(d) Proxy – Notice of twenty one days

32. Match List I with II

List - I List - II
(i) By the promoters (1) Income Tax
(ii) By the first board of directors (2) Agent of directors
(iii) Statutory functions (3) New company secretary
(iv) Non-statutory functions (4) Articles of Association
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 3 4 1

25. Match List I with II

List - I List - II
(i) Statutory Meeting (1) 30 days
(ii) Annual General Meetings (2) Vigil mechanism
(iii) Board Meetings (3) Eighteen months
(iv) Committee Meetings (4) 21 days

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