15-07-2026

7101CMD303035260001 MD

PHYSICS

1) In case of concave mirror, the minimum distance between a real object and its real image is-

(1) f
(2) 2f
(3) 4f
(4) zero

2) Time taken to cross a 4 mm window glass of refractive index 1.5 will be-

(1) 2 x 10–8 sec

(2) 2 x 108 sec
(3) 2 x 10–11 sec
(4) 2 x 1011 sec

3) A bubble in glass slab [μ = 1.5] when viewed from one side appears at 5 cm and 2 cm from other
side then thickness of slab is-

(1) 3.75 cm
(2) 23 cm
(3) 10.5 cm
(4) 1.5 cm

4) An object is placed at 24 cm distance above the surface of a lake. If water has refractive index of
4/3, then at what distance from lake surface, a fish will sight the object :

(1) 32 cm above the surface of water

(2) 18 cm over the surface of water
(3) 6 cm over the surface of water
(4) 6 cm below the surface of water

5) The focal length of a concave mirror is 20 cm. Determine where an object must be placed to form
an image magnified two times when the image is real :

(1) 30cm from the mirror

(2) 10cm from the mirror
(3) 20cm from the mirror
(4) 15cm from the mirror

6) A converging lens of focal length 5 cm is placed in contact with a diverging lens of focal length 10
cm. The focal length of combination is
(1) 10 cm, converging lens
(2) 20 cm, diverging lens
(3) 5 cm, diverging lens
(4) 15 cm, converging lens

0
7) The refractive index of the material of a prism is and its refracting angle is 30 . One of the
refracting surfaces of the prism is silvered. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from
the other face will retrace its path after reflection from the silvered surface if its angle of incidence
on the prism is

0
(1) 60
0
(2) 0
0
(3) 30
0
(4) 45

8) A point object is placed at a distance of 10 cm and its real image is formed at a distance of 20 cm
from a concave mirror. If the object is moved by 0.1 cm towards the mirror, the image will shift by
about

(1) 0.4 cm away from the mirror

(2) 0.4 cm towards the mirror
(3) 0.8 cm away from the mirror
(4) 0.8 cm towards the mirror

9) A double convex lens of focal length 'f' is cut into two equal parts along the vertical axis. The focal
length of each part will be

(1) 2f
(2) f

(3)

(4) 4f

10) When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid it acts as a plane
sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index

(1) Greater than that of glass

(2) Less than that of glass
(3) Equal to that of glass
(4) Less than one

11) A glass prism is dipped in liquid as shown in figure. A light ray is incident
normally on the surface AB. It reaches the surface BC after totally reflected, if
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None

12) What should be the value of distance d so that final image is formed on the object itself. (focal

lengths of the lenses are written on the lenses).

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) None of these

13) The objective lens of a compound microscope produces magnification of 10. In order to get an
overall magnification of 100 when image is formed at 25 cm form the eye, the focal length of the eye
lens should be-

(1) 4 cm
(2) 10 cm

(3)

(4) 9 cm

14) Figure shows PO as the ray of light incident normally on the mirror AB. The mirror is then
turned through 30° to the position CD. What will be the angle between the incident ray and the

reflected ray?

(1) 15°
(2) 30°
(3) 300°
(4) 120°

15) Deviation of 5° is observed from a prism whose angle is small and whose refractive index is 1.5.
The angle of prism is

(1) 7.5°
(2) 10°
(3) 5°
(4) 3.3°

16) An object is gradually moving away from the focal point of a concave mirror along the axis of the
mirror. The graphical representation of the magnitude of linear magnification (m) versus distance of
the object from the mirror (x) is correctly given by (Graphs are drawn schematically and are not to
scale).

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

17) A ray of light passes through an equilateral glass prism in such a manner that the angle of
incidence is equal to the angle of emergence and each of these
angles is equal to 3/5 of the angle of the prism. The angle of deviation is

(1) 45°
(2) 39°
(3) 20°
(4) 12°

18) The two lenses shown are illuminated by a beam of parallel light from the left. Lens B is then
moved slowly towards lens A. The beam emerging from lens B is : -

(1) always diverging

(2) initially parallel and then diverging
(3) always parallel
(4) initially converging and then parallel

19) An optical instrument is placed along y–axis & principal axis is along x–axis as shown in the
figure. For an object is placed in 2nd quadrant. Match the following possible combinations for
various locations of image I in list–I & optical instrument in list–II.

List–I List–II
 (P) I is in 1st quadrant (1) convex lens

(Q) I is in 2nd quadrant (2) concave mirror

(R) I is in 3rd quadrant (3) both convex & concave mirror

(S) I is in 4th quadrant (4) both convex & concave lens

Codes :
P Q R S

(1) 2 3 1 4

(2) 1 2 3 4

(3) 3 4 2 1

(4) 4 3 2 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Water (with refractive index = ) in a tank is 18 cm deep. Oil of refractive index lies on water
making a convex surface of radius of curvature ‘R = 6 cm’ as shown. Consider oil to act as a thin
lens. An object ‘S’ is placed 24 cm above water surface. The location of its image is at ‘x’ cm above

the bottom of the tank. Then ‘x’ is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm
respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a
distance :-

(1) 37.3 cm
(2) 46.0 cm
(3) 50.0 cm
(4) 54.0 cm

22) For shown concave mirror, velocity of images will be correctly represented by
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A car is fitted with a convex side - view mirror of focal length 20 cm. A second car 2.8 m behind
the first car is overtaking the first car at a relative speed of 15m/s. The speed of the image of the
second car as seen in the mirror of the first one is :-

(1)
m/s

(2)
m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 15 m/s
24)

Choose the correct ray diagram of an equi convex thin lens which is cut as shown
(paraxial condition satisfied) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Figure shows a plane mirror onto which a light ray is incident. If incident ray is turned by 5° and

the mirror by 10°, as shown, the angle turned by the reflected ray is :-

(1) 15°, clockwise

(2) 25°, clockwise
(3) 35°, clockwise
(4) 25°, Anticlockwise

26) Two thin lenses, when in contact, produce a combination of power +10 diopters. When they are
0.25 m apart, the power reduces to +6 diopters. The focal length of the lenses are

(1) 0.5 m, 0.125 m

(2) 0.1 m, 0.125 m
(3) 0.5 m, 0.5 m
(4) 0.2 m, 0.5 m

27) Figure shows graph of deviation δ versus angle of incidence for a light ray striking a prism.

Angle of prism is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

28) What is the position and nature of image formed by lens combination shown in figure? (f1, f2 are

focal lengths)

(1) 70 cm from point B at left; virtual

(2) 40 cm from point B at right; real

(3)
cm from point B at right, real
(4) 70 cm from point B at right, real

29) In a compound microscope, the intermediate image, in normal use is

(1) Virtual, erect and magnified

(2) Real, erect and magnified
(3) Real, inverted and magnified
(4) Virtual, inverted and magnified

30) An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distance objects. The
separation between the objective and the eye-piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at infinity.
the focal length f0 of the objective and fe of the eye-piece are

(1) f0 = 45 cm and fe = – 9 cm
(2) f0 = 50 cm and fe = 10 cm
(3) f0 = 7.2 cm and fe = 5 cm
(4) f0 = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm

31) A disc is placed on a surface of pond which has refractive index 5/3. A source of light is placed 4
m below the surface of liquid. The minimum radius of disc needed so that light is not coming out is

(1) ∞
(2) 3 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 4 m

32) An object approaches a convex mirror of focal length 25 cm with speed 20 m/s what will be
velocity of image when object is 25 cm from the mirror :-

(1) –2.5 ms–1

(2) –5ms–1
(3) –7 ms–1
(4) –12.5 ms–1

33) A mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm and an object which is placed at a distance of 15 cm are
both moving with velocities 1 cm/s and 10 cm/s as shown in fig. Find the velocity of image.

(1) 45 cm/s
(2) 75 cm/s
(3) 10 cm/s
(4) 20 cm/s

34) When a light wave goes from air into water, the quality that remains unchanged is its

(1) Speed
(2) Amplitude
(3) Frequency
(4) Wavelength

35) In the figure shown the angle made by the light ray with the normal in the medium of refractive

index √2 is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) None of these

36) The distance between an object and the screen is 80 cm. A lens produces an image on the screen
when the lens is placed at either of the positions 20 cm apart. Focal length of the lens is :-

(1) 18.75 cm
(2) 20.5 cm
(3) 10.5 cm
(4) 24.5 cm
37) A convex lens makes a real image 4 cm long on a screen. When the lens is shifted to a new
position without disturbing the object, we again get a real image on the screen which is 16 cm tall.
The length of the object must be :-

(1) 1/4 cm
(2) 8cm
(3) 12 cm
(4) 20 cm

38) A equiconvex lens of R = 20 cm is silvered from one side. Equivalent focal length will be :-

(1) 4 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 10 cm

39) Two similar plano-convex lenses are combined together in three different ways as shown in the
adjoining figure. The ratio of the focal lengths in three cases will be :-

(1) 2 : 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 2
(4) 2 : 1 : 1

40) Assertion : The twinkling of stars is due to the fact that refractive index of the earth's
atmosphere fluctuates.
Reason : In cold countries, the phenomenon of looming (i.e ship appears in the sky) takes place,
because refractive index of air decreases with height.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

41) Statement-I: An object is placed inside a liquid and seen through air perpendicularly, appear to
be at shorter depth than its actual depth.
Statement-II: When light passes from denser medium to rarer medium, it deviates away from
normal.

(1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true and it is correct explanation for Statement-I
(2) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true but it is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true

42) Match the column-I with column-II. (m = magnification) :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) m = –2 (a) convex mirror

Concave
(B) (b)
mirror

(C) m=+2 (c) Real image

(D) (d) Virtual image

(1) A→b,c, B→b,c, C→b,d, D→a, d

(2) A→a,c, B→a,d, C→a,b, D→c, d
(3) A→a,d, B→a,d, C→b,d, D→b, c
(4) A→a,d, B→b,c, C→b,d, D→b, c

43) A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. if the refractive index of the material of the
lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is :-

(1) +20 D
(2) +5D
(3) infinity
(4) +2D

44) A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a
plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from

it, the final image would be formed at a distance of :

(1) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.

(2) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
(3) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.
(4) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.
45) The ray diagram could be correct

(1) If n1 = n2 = ng
(2) If n1 = n2 and n1 < ng
(3) If n1 = n2 and n1 > ng
(4) Under no circumstances

CHEMISTRY

1) How many litres of oxygen gas at STP will be required to burn completely 2.2 g of propane (C3H8)
gas :

(1) 11.35 L
(2) 22.7 L
(3) 5.675 L
(4) 45.4 L

2) A gaseous mixture is composed of equal number of moles of CH4, C2H6 and C2H2. Determine the
average molecular mass of mixture (in amu).

(1) 24
(2) 28
(3) 30
(4) 18

3) Calculate the density (in g/mL) of aqueous NaOH solution of which molarity & (%w/w) are equal :

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

4) 2g of impure sample of CaCO3 on heating produces 0.84g of CaO. The percentage purity of CaCO3
sample is: (Atomic masses of Ca-40u, O-16u, C-12u)

(1) 75%
(2) 84%
(3) 42%
(4) 50%

5) An unknown amino acid has 0.032% by wt. sulphur. If each molecule has one S atom only, then 1
gm of amino acid has ______ molecules :-

(1) 6.02×1018
(2) 6.02 × 1019
(3) 6.02×1024
(4) 6.02×1023

6) 16 g of an ideal gas SOx occupies 5.6 L. at STP. The value of x is :

(1) x = 3
(2) x = 2
(3) x = 4
(4) none

7) Consider the following reaction

NH3 + O2 NO2 + H2O
Find sum of mass of all the product (in g), if 68 g NH3 reacts with 256 g O2 in a closed container.
[N-14, O-16]

(1) 184
(2) 108
(3) 292
(4) 68

8) Mole fraction (X) of any constituent in solution is equal to.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) How many neutrons are present in 9.0 g water? Assume that all the hydrogen atoms are H1 atoms
and all the oxygen atoms are O16 atoms.

(1) 5 NA
(2) 4 NA
(3) 3 NA
(4) 6 NA

10) The amount of sugar (C12H22O11) required to prepare 2 L of its 0.1 M aqueous solution is:

(1) 68.4 g
(2) 17.1 g
(3) 34.2 g
(4) 136.8 g

11) Volume at N.T.P. of 0.22 g of CO2 is same as that of

(1) 0.01 g of hydrogen

(2) 0.085 g of NH3
(3) 320 mg of gaseous SO2
(4) All the above

12) 0.01 mole of iodoform (CHI3) reacts with Ag to produce a gas whose volume at NTP is
2CHI3 + 6Ag → 6AgI(s) + C2H2(g)

(1) 224 mL
(2) 112 mL
(3) 336 mL
(4) None of these

13) Two volumes of ammonia, on dissociation gave one volume of nitrogen and three volumes of
hydrogen. How much hydrogen will be obtained from the dissociation of 10 litre of NH3 ?

(1) 30 litre
(2) 10 litre
(3) 15 litre
(4) 20 litre

14) For the reaction : 7A + 13 B + 15 C → 17 P if 15 moles of A, 26 moles of B and 30.5 moles of C

are taken initially, then limiting reagent is

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) None

15) If O2(g) is bubbled through water at 293 K. Calculate the millimoles of O2(g) which would
dissolve in 10 mol of water at oxygen gas pressure of 0.5 atm (KH(O2) at 293 K is 3.5 × 104 atm).

(1) 0.143
(2) 0.234
(3) 1.2
(4) 14.3

16) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

(a) 4.48 litres of O2 at STP (i) 0.2 moles

 12.022 × 1022 molecules 12.044 × 1023
(b) (ii)
of H2O molecules

(c) 96 g of O2 (iii) 6.4 g

67.2 litres at
(d) 88 g of CO2 (iv)
STP
(Given : Molar volume of a gas at STP =22.4L) Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i)., (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

17)

The maximum number of molecules are present in

(1) 15 L of H2 gas at STP

(2) 5 L of N2 gas at STP
(3) 0.5 g of H2 gas
(4) 10 g of O2 gas

18) On analysis, a certain compound was found to contain iodine and oxygen in the ratio of 254 : 80.
The formula of the compound is :(At mass I = 127, O = 16)

(1) IO
(2) I2O
(3) I5O2
(4) I2O5

19) Total no. of electrons present in 4.4 g oxalate ion is: (NA = Avogadro’s no.)

(1) 0.05 NA
(2) 2.3 NA
(3) 2.2 NA
(4) 2.1 NA

20) Cortisone is a molecular substance containing 21 atoms of carbon per molecules. The mass
percentage of carbon in cortisone is 69.98%. What is the molecular mass of cortisone?

(1) 180.05
(2) 360.1
(3) 312.8
(4) 205.8
21) A quantity of 2.76 g of silver carbonate on
being strongly heated yields a residue weighing (Ag = 108)

(1) 2.16 g
(2) 2.48 g
(3) 2.32 g
(4) 2.64 g

22) 2.16 grams of Cu on reaction with HNO3 followed by ignition of the nitrate gave 2.7 gm of
copper oxide. In another experiment 1.15 gm of copper oxide upon reduction with hydrogen gave
0.92 gm of copper. This data illustrate the law of:

(1) Multiple Proportions

(2) Definite Proportions
(3) Reciprocal Proportions
(4) Conservation of mass

23) A sample of ammonium phosphate (NH4)3PO4 contains 3.18 mol of H atoms. The number of moles
of O atoms in the sample is :

(1) 0.265
(2) 0.795
(3) 1.06
(4) 3.18

24) An organic compound is composed of 4.58% H, 40.92% C and 54.50% oxygen. What would be
the empirical formula of the compound ?

(1) C3H4O3
(2) C3H5O
(3) C4H8O
(4) CH2O

25) Number of oxygen atoms in 8g of ozone is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Assertion (A) :- RBC when placed in pure water will swell up and burst.
Reason (R) :- When RBC is placed in pure water endo osmosis will take place and pressure inside
RBC will increase.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

27) The freezing point of a solution containing 0.2 g of acetic acid in 20.0 g benzene is lowered by
0.45°C. Calculate the degree of dimerization of acetic acid in benzene. Kf for benzene is 5.12 K mol–1
kg :-

(1) 0.527
(2) 0.80
(3) 0.945
(4) None of these

28)

How many moles of sucrose should be dissolved in 500 gms of water as to get a solution which has a
difference of 103.57°C between boiling point and freezing point :-
(Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1, Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1)

(1) 0.5 moles

(2) 0.9 moles
(3) 0.75 moles
(4) 0.65 moles

29) 1 mole of liquid A and 2 moles of liquid B make a solution having observed vapour pressure of 42
torr. The vapour pressure of pure A and pure B are 45 torr and 36 torr respectively. The described
solution :-

(1) Is an ideal solution

(2) Shows negative deviation
(3) Is a minimum boiling azeotrope
(4) Has volume less than the sum of individual volumes of both components

30) Assertion : A solution which contains one gram equivalent of solute per litre of the solution is
called a normal solution.
Reason : A normal solution means a solution in which the solute does not associate or dissociate.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

31) Vapour density of PCl5(g) dissociating into PCl3(g) and Cl2(g) is 100. Hence, van't Hoff factor for
the case :
PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

(1) 1.85
(2) 3.70
(3) 1.085
(4) 1.0425

32) Consider following cases :

(P) 2 M CH3COOH solution in benzene at 27° C where there is dimer formation to the extent of
100%.
(Q) 0.5 M KCl aq. solution at 27° C, which ionises 100%.
Which is true regarding P and Q.

(1) Both are isotonic

(2) P is hypertonic
(3) Q is hypotonic
(4) None is correct

33) Calculate mass of the final solution obtained on heating a solution comprising of 0.5 moles of
urea in 2000 g of H2O to a temperature of 101°C if

(1) 250 g
(2) 280 g
(3) 1030 g
(4) 530 g

34) The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of urea in 250 g of water (Р1), 10 g of
NaCI in 250 g of water (P2) and 10 g of glucose in 250 g of water (P3). The right option for
decreasing order of freezing point of these solutions is

(1) P3 > P1 > P2

(2) P2 > P1 > P3
(3) P1 > P2 > P3
(4) P2 > P3 > P1

35) A concentrated aqueous solution is 98% H2SO4 by mass and density 1.8 g/ml. The volume of this
acid required to make 500 ml of 0.2 M H2SO4 solution is

(1) 11.55 ml
(2) 55.5 ml
(3) 25.5 ml
(4) 5.55 ml

36) The mixture which shows negative deviation from Raoult's law is

(1) Benzene + Toluene

(2) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
(3) Acetone + Chloroform
(4) Carbon disulphide + Acetone

37) Which of the following terms is temperature independent?

(1) Molarity
(2) Molality

(3)

(4) Normality

38) Assuming 100% ionisation, which of the following has same van't Hoff factor as K4[Fe(CN)6]?

(1) CaSO4
(2) A 2(SO4)3
(3) CaC 2

(4) A C 3

39) At constant temperature and pressure, which of the following is not true for ideal solution?

(1) ΔGmix < 0

(2) ΔSmix > 0
(3) ΔVmix = 0
(4) ΔHmix < 0

40) Statement I: Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold waters than warm waters.
Statement II: The solubility of gases in liquid decreases with decrease in temperature. In the light
of above statements choose the correct option.

(1) Statement I is correct and statement II incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect and statement Il is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

41) Which of the following colligative property is widely used to determine molar masses of proteins
and polymers?

(1) Relative lowering in vapour pressure

(2) Elevation in boiling point
(3) Depression in freezing point
(4) Osmotic pressure

42) Select the incorrect statement regarding azeotropes.

(1) Same composition in liquid and vapour phase

(2) Not possible to separate components by fractional distillation
Large positive deviation from raoult's law form maximum boiling azeotrope at a specific
(3)
composition
(4) A mixture of 68% HNO3 and 32% H2O by mass form maximum boiling azeotrope

43) Which of the following shows positive deviation from Raoult's law :
(i) Chloroform and acetone
(ii) Carbondisulphide and acetone
(iii) Ethanol and Acetone
(iv) Phenol and Aniline

(1) i and ii
(2) ii and iii
(3) i and iv
(4) ii and iv

44) The amount of Na2CO3 present in 250 mL of 0.25 M solution is

(1) 6.225 g
(2) 66.25 g
(3) 6.0 g
(4) 6.625 g

45) What will be the molality of the solution made by dissolving 10 g of NaOH in 100 g of water?

(1) 2.5 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 1.25 m

BIOLOGY

1) Organisms which breed only once in their life is :-

(1) Pacific salmon fish

(2) Pacific tuna fish
(3) Pacific shark
(4) Lion

2) In a population birth rate is 0.15 and death rate is 0.08 during a unit time period what is the value
of r (intrinsic rate of natural increase) for given population ?

(1) 0.23
(2) 0.07
(3) 0.05
(4) 0.25
3) In a pond, population density of fishes is expressed in terms of :-

(1) Number
(2) Biomass
(3) Number caught per trap
(4) Per cent cover

4) The population size is more technically called :-

(1) Population gradient

(2) Population census
(3) Population pressure
(4) Population density

5) The inherent maximum capacity of an organism to reproduce or increase in number in called as :-

(1) Biotic potential

(2) Ecosystem
(3) Vitality
(4) Edge Effect

6) Which of the following is most important factor determining population growth if a habitat is just
being colonised :-

(1) Emigration
(2) Birth rate
(3) Death rate
(4) Immigration

7) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In a field experiment, the removal of all starfish from an enclosed intertidal area led to
the extinction of more than 10 species of invertebrates within a year due to inter-specific
competition.
Statement II: Predators in nature are not 'prudent' and do not overexploit their prey, which is why
prey species do not need to evolve various defences.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

8) According to Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’, what happens when two closely related
species compete for the same resources?

(1) They co-exist by sharing the resources equally.

(2) They evolve mechanisms that promote co-existence.
(3) The competitively inferior species will eventually be eliminated.
(4) They form a symbiotic relationship.

9) The prickly pear cactus introduced into Australia in the early 1920s caused havoc by spreading
rapidly into millions of hectares of rangeland. Because :-

(1) There was no competition

(2) Due to less interspecific competition
(3) Absence of natural predator
(4) Availability of high nutrient

10) Which is most potent force for organic evolution?

(1) Predation
(2) parasitism
(3) Interspecific competition
(4) Intraspecific competition

11) When we remove the barnacle Balanus from the rocky intertidal regions of Scotland then the
barnacle Chathamalus increase in number and cover more area. This is the example of which of the
following

(1) Amensalism
(2) Competition
(3) Resource partitioning
(4) Competitive release

12) What is sex ratio?

(1) Number of males per 1000 females

(2) Number of females per 1000 males
(3) Number of males per 100 females
(4) Number of females per 100 males

13) Cardiac glycosides are produced by which plant ?

(1) Cuscuta
(2) Calotropis
(3) Cinchona
(4) Mango

14) Statement-I :- An individual may have birth and death but a population has birth rates and death
rate.
Statement-II :- The size of a population for any species is not a static parameter.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

15) If (N) represents population in above diagram then the correct order for B, I, D, E could be

(1) Mortality, Immigration, Natality, Emigration

(2) Natality, Immigration, Mortality, Emigration
(3) Immigration, Emigration, Mortality, Natality
(4) Emigration, Natality, Mortality, Immigration

16)

(1) a = Logistic plot, b = Exponential plot c = Carrying capacity

(2) a = Exponential plot, b = Logistic plot, c = Carrying capacity
(3) a = Carrying capacity,b = Exponential plot, c = Logistic plot
(4) a = Carrying capacity, b = Logistic plot, c = Exponential plot

17) Match the following given symbols with interactions:-

(a) + / + (i) Predation
(b) – / – (ii) Commensalism
(c) + / – (iii) Competition
(d) + / 0 (iv) Mutualism

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

18) Assertion : Plants have evolved diverse morphological and chemical defenses against herbivory.
Reason : Unlike animals, plants cannot run away from their predators.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
19) In a month of January siberian cranes migrate from Russia to India for breeding, a survey was
done
Till December total population of Siberian Cranes = 1200
Birth rate = 400
Mortality rate = 200
Number of cranes immigrated = 600
Number of cranes emigrated = 300
Calculate the total population

(1) 1500
(2) 1000
(3) 2000
(4) 1700

20) Starfish pisaster is

(1) Parasite
(2) Hemi parasite
(3) Predator
(4) Prey of invertebrate

21) In laboratory experiments, two species of the protist Paramecium were grown alone and in the
presence of the other species. The following graphs show growth of species 1 (left) and species 2

(right), both along and when in mixed culture.

Interpretation of these graphs shows that

(1) Competitive exclusion occurred in these experiments

(2) Both species are affected by interspecific competition but species 1 is less affected.
(3) Both species are affected by interspecific competition but species 2 is less affected.
(4) Both species are affected equally by interspecific competition

22) In which of the following interaction both interacting species get benefited ?

(1) Competition
(2) Predation
(3) Mutualism
(4) Commensalism

23) Which one of the following interactions share a characteristic where none of the organism can
complete its life cycle without the other participating organism?
(1) Calotropis & Herbivore
(2) Cattle egret bird and Cattle
(3) Hermit Crab and Sea Anemone
(4) Fig and Wasp

24) Which statement is true for Connell's elegant field experiment?

(1) Performed on prickly pear cactus

(2) Shows resource partitioning
(3) Was perform in rocky intertidal area of Scotland
(4) Was done on Pisaster

25) Which of the following concept is correct about commensalism?

(1) Both species are benefitted

(2) One species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed
(3) One species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected
(4) One species is benefitted and the other is harmed

26) The basic unit of ecological study is :-

(1) species
(2) organism
(3) community
(4) biosphere

27) The process employed by orchid to attract male bee for pollination is called -

(1) Sexual deceit

(2) Co-existence
(3) Brood parasitism
(4) Resource partitioning

28) Which one of the following is most appropriately defined ?

(1) Predation is a relationship in which one species is benefited where as the other is unaffected.
(2) Predator is an organism that catches, kills & eats other organisms for food.
(3) Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the body of other organism and kill it.
(4) Female Anopheles mosquito is considered as parasite

29) If '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of '80' died during a week, the death rate in the
population is __________ individuals per Drosophila per week.

(1) 10
(2) 1.0
(3) Zero
(4) 0.1

30) Father of Ecology in India

(1) Prof Ramdeo Mishra

(2) Reiter
(3) [Link]
(4) Warming

31) Assertion A: In mutualism, both interacting species benefit, while in competition, both species
are negatively affected.
Reason R: Interspecific interactions can be beneficial, detrimental, or neutral, and are characterized
by ‘+’ for beneficial, ‘-’ for detrimental, and ‘0’ for neutral outcomes.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

32) Assertion A: Predators have evolved various morphological and chemical defenses to protect
themselves from prey.
Reason R: Thorns and toxic chemicals are examples of morphological defenses that plants use
against predators.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

33) The association between clown fish and sea anemone is the same as between

(1) Cattle Egret and grazing cattle

(2) Cuckoo and crow
(3) Fig and wasp
(4) Cuscuta and hedge plant

34) Statement A:– Female mosquito is not considered as parasite although it needs our blood for
reproduction.
Statement B: Generally, parasitism is aimed to obtain food & shelter.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

35) Tiger census in our national parks and tiger reserves is done by counting
(1) Tiger cubs
(2) Tiger pug marks
(3) Tiger faecal pellets
(4) Both (2) and (3)

36) According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the
same:

(1) Ecosystem
(2) Niche
(3) Biosphere
(4) Biome

37) Which of the following will be least adversely affected by predation.

(1) Grass
(2) Rabbit
(3) Deer
(4) Lion

38) In which of the population interactions, only one species gets benefit?
a. Mutualism b. Predation
c. Parasitism d. Commensalism

(1) a & b only

(2) b, c and d only
(3) a, c & d only
(4) a, b and c only

39) Mac Arthur showed that five closely related species of warblers living on the same tree were
able to avoid competition and show co-existence due to:

(1) Abundant resources

(2) Extinction of some other species
(3) Resource partitioning
(4) Mutualism among them

40)

Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
 (i) (a) Mutualism

(ii) (b) Competition

(iii) (c) Commensalism

(1) (i) → b,(ii) → a, (iii) → c

(2) (i) → b, (ii) → c, (iii) → a
(3) (i) → a, (ii) → b, (iii) → c
(4) (i) → a, (ii) → c, (iii) → b

41) Which of the following is not the example of commensalism ?

(1) Clown fish - Sea anemone

(2) Orchid - Mango
(3) Barnacle - Whale
(4) Cuscuta - Goat

42) Biological control method adopted in agriculture pest control are based on :-

(1) Competition
(2) Amensalism
(3) Predation
(4) Parasitism

43) Monarch butterfly acquire distasteful compound from milkweed plant during–

(1) Adult stage

(2) Caterpillar stage
(3) Pupa stage
(4) any stage

44) The capacity to blend with surroundings is called:-

(1) Camouflage
(2) Hibernation
(3) Aestivation
(4) Mimicry

45) Which one is example of parasite on hedge plant?

(1) Cuscuta
(2) Viscum
(3) Loranthus
(4) Sea anemone

46) The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B. C and D.
Select the option, which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.

(1) A-trachea-long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air
(2) B-pleural membrane-surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing
(3) C-alveoli-thin walled vascular bag-like structures for exchange of gases
(4) D-lower end of lungs pulls it down during inspiration

47) Given below is a diagrammatic representation explaining mechanism of breathing

If air enters in lungs, then which of the following is not possible

(1) Phrenic muscles of diaphragm are contracted so diaphragm becomes dome shaped
(2) External internalcostal muscles are contracted which leads to raising of ribs and sternum
(3) Volume of thoracic cavity is increased
(4) Intra pulmonary pressure decreased

48)
In the given line diagram identify the values of in the given I, II, III & IV in position.

I – = 104 mm Hg,
II – = 40 mm Hg
(1)
III – = 20 mm Hg
IV – = 95 mm Hg

I– = 104 mm Hg
II – = 95 mm Hg
(2)
III – = 40 mm Hg
IV – = 40 mm Hg

I– = 95 mm Hg
II – = 105 mm Hg
(3)
III – = 52 mm Hg
IV – = 40 mm Hg

I– = 165 mm Hg
II – = 95 mm Hg
(4)
III – = 45 mm Hg
IV – = 40 mm Hg

49)
In given flow chart, identify what is depicted by A, B and C.

(1) A = VC, B = EC, C = FRC

(2) A = FRC, B = VC, C = EC
(3) A = E.R.V, B = VC, C = FRC
(4) A = EC, B = VC, C = FRC

50) Assertion : Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air is always remains in the lungs
which can never be expelled.
Reason : There is a negative intra pleural pressure pulling at the lungs walls.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

51) Assertion (A) : During inspiration atmospheric air is drawn inside the lungs.
Reason (R) : There is a negative pressure in the lungs with respect to atmospheric pressure.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

52) Assertion :- Haemoglobin transports oxygen from lungs to tissues of body.

Reason :- At Alveoli, haemoglobin dissociates with oxygen.

(1) Assertion false but Reason true.

(2) Assertion true but Reason false.
(3) Assertion and Reason both true.
(4) Assertion and Reason both false.

53) Read the following statements :-

(A) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane.
(B) Utilisation of O2 by the cells.
(C) Pulmonary ventilation between atmospheric air and alveolar air.
(D) Transport of gases by blood
(E) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissue.
(F) Release of CO2
Arrange all statements in correct sequence :-

(1) A→C→D→B→E→F
(2) C→A→E→D→B→F
(3) C→A→D→E→B→F
(4) C→A→B→D→E→F

54) Air is breathed through

(1) Trachea Lungs Larynx Pharynx Alveoli

(2) Nose Larynx Pharynx Bronchus Alveoli
(3) Nostrils Pharynx Larynx Trachea Bronchi Bronchioles
(4) Nose Mouth Lungs

55) Select the sequence of steps in Inhalation.

A. Increase in the pulmonary volume.
B. Decrease in the intra pulmonary pressure.
C. Contraction in diaphragm and EICM.
D. Increase in volume of thoracic chamber.
E. Air moves from atmosphere to lungs.

(1) A, B, C, D, E
(2) B, C, A, E, D
(3) C, D, A, B, E
(4) E, B, A, D, C

56) Given figure is showing spirogram of pulmonary volume and capacities :-

In spirogram, shaded box represents :-

(1) Functional residual capacity

(2) Inspiratory capacity
(3) Vital capacity
(4) Expiratory capacity

57) How many factors in the list given below do not favour the dissociation of O2 from HbO2 ?
pO2↓, pO2 , H+ concentration , temperature , CO2 , CO2↓ ,pH , pH↓

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Three

58) The diffusion membrane is made up of :-

(a) Columnar epithelium of alveoli
(b) Simple squamous epithelium of alveoli
(c) Simple squamous epithelium of alveolar capillaries.
(d) Basement membrane of simple epithelium of alveoli only.
(e) Basement substance in between epithelium of alveoli and endothelium.

(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) b, c and e
(4) a, c and d

59) How many of the following statements are correct?

a. Human beings have a significant ability to maintain and moderate the respiratory rhythm to suit
the demands of the body tissues
b. Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre
c. A chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to the rhythm centre which is highly sensitive to CO2
and hydrogen ions
d. The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.

(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Only a and b
(4) All

60) Rate of breathing is controlled by :-

(1) The amount of freely available O2

(2) Muscular contraction of the body
(3) CO2
(4) Stress

61) (A) Transport of Atmospheric air to Alveoli

(B) Cleaning air from foreign particles
(C) Air Humidification
(D) Gaseous Exchange
Which of the above is not true for the conduction zone?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Two

62) Partial pressures (in mmHg) of O2 in atmospheric air, alveoli, deoxygenated blood, oxygenated
blood and tissues are-

(1) 40, 95, 40, 104, 159

(2) 104, 40, 40, 95, 159
(3) 159, 104, 40, 95, 40
(4) 195, 104, 95, 40, 40

63) Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Alveoli are the primary sites of exchange of gases

(2) Exchange of gases occur at tissue level and alveolar surface.
 Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases is called partial pressure and is
(3)
represented as pO2 for oxygen and pCO2 for carbon dioxide.
(4) All of the above.

64) Identify a, b, c and d in the given diagram.

a b c d
(A) Inspired Air Expired Air More CO2 More O2
(B) Inspired Air Expired Air More O2 More CO2
(C) Expired Air Inspired Air More O2 More CO2
(D) Expired Air Inspired Air More CO2 More O2
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

65)

In lungs there is definite exchange of ions between RBC and plasma. Removal of CO2 from blood
involves :-

(1) Influx of Cl– into RBC

(2) Efflux of Na+ from RBC
–
(3) Influx of HCO3 ions in to RBC
–
(4) Efflux of HCO3 ions from RBC

66) Whenever P50 value increases, oxygen dissociation curve :

(1) Always shift towards right

(2) Always shift towards left
(3) Sometime shift towards right
(4) No effect on curve as P50 value has no direct effect on association or dissociation of HbO2.

67) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the correct option which includes all the
incorrect ones ?
(a) About 97% of O2 is transported by plasma in the blood.
(b) Blood is the medium of transport for O2 and CO2
(c) Oxygen can bind with haemoglobin in a irreversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin.
(d) About 7% of O2 is carried in a dissolved state through plasma.

(1) Statements a, b and c

(2) Statements b, c and d
(3) Only statements a & d
(4) Statements a, c and d

68) A molecule of haemoglobin can carry how many oxygen molecules:

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

69) The reaction CO2 + H2O H2CO3 + H+ is mainly driven in the direction of the
product ( + H+) at which location in the body, and what is the key enzyme involved?

(1) Alveolar site; Carbonic anhydrase

(2) Tissue site; Carbonic anhydrase
(3) Alveolar site; Oxygenase
(4) Tissue site; Carboxylase

70) How much oxygen is delivered to the tissues by 100 mL of oxygenated blood under normal
physiological conditions?

(1) 0.5 mL
(2) 5 mL
(3) 15 mL
(4) 10 mL

71)

Make the correct pairs

Column-I Column-II

P Tidal volume i 1000 to 1100 ml

Q Residual volume ii 500 ml

Expiratory reserve
R iii 2500 to 3000 ml
volume
 Inspiratory reserve
S iv 1100 to 1200 ml
volume
(1) P - ii, Q - iv, R - i, S - iii
(2) P - ii, Q - i, R - iii, S - iv
(3) P - iv, Q - ii, R - iv, S - iii
(4) P - iv, Q - i, R - iii, S - ii

72) In the oxygen dissociation curve, the x-axis and y-axis are represented by:

(1) x-axis – partial pressure of oxygen, y-axis – percentage saturation of Hb with oxygen
(2) x-axis – partial pressure of oxygen, y-axis – partial pressure of oxygen
(3) x-axis – partial pressure of CO2, y-axis – percentage saturation of oxyhaemoglobin with oxygen
(4) x-axis – partial pressure of CO2, y-axis – partial pressure of oxygen

73) Given below is the graphical representation in which different oxyhaemoglobin dissociation
(ODC) curves are shown through A, B and C. Select the correct option which correctly identifies the

curves.

(1) A = Foetal ODC B = Normal ODC C = Myoglobin ODC

A = Normal ODC
(2)
B = Foetal ODC C = Myoglobin ODC
(3) A = Myoglobin ODC B = Normal ODC C = Foetal ODC
(4) A = Foetal ODC B = Myoglobin ODC C = Normal ODC

74) Which of the following statement/s is / are correct?

A. A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC
B. Minute quantity of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma
C. Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
D. 20-25% CO2 is carried out by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin
(1) A, C and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only A

75) With the transport of CO2, HCO–3 diffuses from RBC to plasma. To maintain the ionic balance an
equal number of Cl– pass into the RBC from plasma which is called:

(1) Bohr effect

(2) Oxygen dissociation
(3) Hamburger Phenomenon
(4) Reverse chloride shift

76) The enzyme, carbonic anhydrase, is found in

(1) Tissue cells and plasma

(2) Tissue cells and erythrocytes
(3) Erythrocytes
(4) WBC

77) Persons living in mountains (high altitudes) have rosy cheeks because :-

(1) They are adapted to that environment

(2) They take apple daily
(3) Their RBC concentration becomes high due to low oxygen pressure
(4) All the above

78) If the thoracic wall of the lungs is punctured then:

(1) The lungs get inflated.

(2) The man dies as the lungs get collapsed.
(3) The breathing rate remain unaffected
(4) The breathing rate increases

79) Following diagram represents a section of an alveolus with a pulmonary capillary

The diffusion membrane includes :

Non cellular
Cellular layer/s
layer/s

(1) A, C, D –
 (2) D, E C

(3) D, E, C –

(4) A C, D
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) The conducting part transports -

(1) Alveolar air to blood

(2) Respiratory gases from blood to alveoli
(3) Respiratory gases from blood to bronchioles
(4) Atmospheric air to alveoli

81) During the transport of carbon dioxide the ionic balance between plasma and RBCs is
maintained by :

(1) Reverse chloride shift

(2) Chloride shift
(3) Sodium potassium pump
(4) Oxygen debt

82) Match the following :

Animals Respiratory Organs

(A) Earthworms (i) Lungs

(B) Aquatic arthropods/Molluscs (ii) Tracheal tubes

(C) Insects (iii) Gills

(D) Birds/Reptiles/Mammals (iv) Moist cuticle

(E) Fishes
(1) A – ii, B and C – iii, D – ii, E – i
(2) A – iv, B and E – iii, C – ii, D – i
(3) A – iv, B and D – iii, D – i, E – ii
(4) A – iii, B and D – i, C – ii, E – iv

83) Fill in the blanks :-

Blood Blood
Respiratory Atmosp-
Alveoli (Deoxy- (Oxy- Tissue
gas heric air
genated) genated)

O2 159 b 40 c 40
 CO2 a 40 45 40 d
(1) a-0.3, b-104
(2) b-95, c-45
(3) c-40, d-40
(4) a-0.3, d-40

84) Total percentage of O2 transported by haemoglobin or RBC is :-

(1) 3%
(2) 97%
(3) 49%
(4) 25%

85) If Pneumotaxic centre send strong signal then ?

(1) Inspiration will be switch off

(2) Incomplete filling of Lung
(3) Duration of inspiration is reduced
(4) All of these

86) About 1200 ml of air is always known to remain inside the human lungs. It is described as

(1) functional residual capacity

(2) Residual volume
(3) Expiratory reserve volume
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume

87)

Read the following statements carefully.

(a) Trachea has 'C' shape rings which are ventrally incomplete.
(b) Space between two lungs is called mediastinal space.
(c) Covering of lungs are called pleural membrane.
(d) Right lung has 2 lobes and left has 3 lobes.
How many statement/s is/are not incorrect ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88) Read the following statements :

(A) About 97% of O2 is transported by RBCs in the blood.
(B) 70% CO2 is carried as bicarbonate
(C) 3% O2 is carried in a dissolved state through the plasma
(D) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
(1) A & B
(2) A, B & C
(3) B, C & D
(4) A, B, C & D

89) Which of the following muscles help to increase the volume of thoracic cavity?

(1) Diaphragm and EICM

(2) EICM and IICM
(3) Diaphragm and Abdominal muscles
(4) IICM and abdominal muscles

90) The structure which prevents the entry of food into the windpipe is

(1) Gullet
(2) Glottis
(3) Tonsil
(4) Epiglottis
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 3 1 1 1 4 1 1 3 3 1 3 4 2 4 4 2 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 2 2 1 1 2 4 3 4 2 2 1 3 1 1 2 2 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 2 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 2 1 1 2 3 4 2 1 4 2 3 2 1 1 1 4 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 3 1 2 4 3 3 3 3 4 1 2 1 4 3 2 2 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 2 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 3 4 1 4 1 3 3 3 4 2 2 3 2 2 3 1 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 4 3 2 2 1 2 4 1 2 4 1 3 4 2 4 2 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 2 1 1 3 1 2 4 1 1 2 3 3 3 3 4 3 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 4 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 1 1 1 3 3 3 3 2 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 1 2 4 2 2 4 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

zero

2)

2 x 10–11 sec

3) Question Explanation : To calculate the slab's actual thickness. Concept : In the case of
a bubble within a slab, the slab's total thickness is equivalent to the sum of the real depths as
observed from both sides. Formula : Real depth = μ × Apparent Depth Calculation : Let the
bubble's real depth from the first surface be denoted as 'x'. Then, when viewed from the first
surface. x = μ × 5
From the second surface, if the remaining thickness is (t - x), we have :
t–x=μ×2
Total thickness of the slab : t = x + (t – x) = 7.5 + 3 = 10.5 cm
Final Answer : (3)10.5 cm

4) A. Question Explanation:
An object is placed 24 cm above the surface of a lake, and we need to determine the apparent
distance at which a fish inside the water will perceive the object. This happens due to
refraction, where light bends at the interface of air and water, changing the apparent height.
B. Concept : Apparent height (normal shift)
C. Formula : happ = μhact
D. Calculation:
h' = 24 × (4/3) = 32cm
E. Final Answer:
The fish will see the object at 32 cm above the water surface.
Correct Option: 1 (32 cm above the surface of water).

5)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

We need to find the object distance (u) from the mirror

Key Concept:

Mirror Formula:
Magnification Formula
1. Mirror Formula: 1/f = 1/v + 1/u
2. Magnification formula: m =

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

1. Given :
f = –20 cm
m = –2 (real image, so magnification is negative)
2. Express v in terms of u using the magnification formula:

m=

–2 =
v = 2u
3. Substitute v in the mirror formula:

Conclusion:

Hence, option (1) is correct.

6)

NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-ll, Page 329

7)

450

8)

0.4 cm away from the mirror

9)
for double convex
So, focal length of each part as 2f.

10) Question
To find the refractive index of liquid in which a lens behave as plane sheet.

Concept
Lens in surrounding medium other them our.

Formula
Focal length of lens in a medium

Solution / Calculation
Given μ=1.47 (μm R.J.)
μm = ?
For plane sheet focal length always be infinity
⇒ fm = ∞

= OR μ = μm

Conclusion
Hence, option (3) is correct

11) Explanation: To find the angle θ according given figure so that TIR takes place from
prism to liquid.
Concept: Total internal reflection
Formula:

Solution: If ray of light moved towards surface. BC then for Point "O"
there should be TIR. Ray of light should be enclose on angle i.

According to figure
θ = θC
 Final Answer: option (3)

12)

10 cm

13) Solution/Explanation:
Asking Question :
We have a compound microscope with a given object lens magnification and a desired overall
magnification. We need to find the focal length of the eye lens to achieve this overall
magnification when the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm).

Concept:
The problems involves the magnification of a compound microscope. The overall magnification
is the product of the object lens magnification and the eye lens magnification. We will use the
lens formula and magnification formula for the eye lens to determine its focal length.

Formula:
1. Overall Magnification (M):

A. M = Mobjective × Meyepiece

2. Magnification of the Eye lens (Me)

A. (When the final image is at the least distance of distinct vision)

B. Where D is the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm) and fe is the focal length of the eye lens.

3. Calculation:
1. Given values
10 = M0
Overall magnification (M) = 100
D = 25 cm
2. Calculate the magnification of the eye lens (Me)
M = M0 × Me
100 × 10 × Me

Me =
3. Use the eye lens magnification formula to find the focal length fe.

Me =

10 =

=9
14) Question Explanation :-
To find the Angle between Incident and reflected ray due to rotation of mirror.
Concept :- Rotation of mirror
Formula :- When a mirror rotated by an angle of 'θ' then reflected ray rotates by and angle of
'2θ' from its initial position:

Calculation :- According to given Diagram

reflected ray tilted by 60∘
So Angle b/w incident and reflected ray = 180 - 60 = 120∘
Option :- 4 Correct

15)

Explain the Question : To find the angle of prism if deviation in 5° and μ = 1.5.
Concept : This question is based on thin prism (minimum deviation)
Solution : δm = (m – 1)A
5° = (1.5 – 1)A°
A = 10°
Final answer : 2

16)

Explain Question:
Identify the correct graph of magnification magnitude |m| versus object distance a for a
concave mirror as an object moves away from the focus.

Concept:

Magnification formula for mirror:

Solution:
As the object moves from the focus (x = ƒ) to infinity, the magnitude of magnification |m|
decreases from infinity to zero.
At x = ƒ, |m| → ∞.

At x = 2ƒ, |m| =
 The graph is a rectangular hyperbola starting from ∞ at x = ƒ and approaching O at x = ∞
Graph (4) represents this behavior.

Final answer: (4)

17) A QUESTION EXPLANATION:

A light ray passes through an equilateral prism with equal angles of incidence and emergence.
We need to find the angle of deviation.
B CONCEPT:

A. Angle of Minimum Deviation: When the angle of incidence and angle of emergence are equal,
the deviation is minimum.

C FORMULA:

A.

D CALCULATION:
1. Prism Angle (A): The prism is equilateral, so each angle is 60°. A = 60°
2. Angle of Incidence (i): Given that i = (3/5) × A i = (3/5) × 60° i = 36°
3. Angle of Deviation ( ): Using the formula A + 5 = 2i: 60° + c = 2 × 36° 60° + 5 = 72° 5 = 72° -
60° 5 = 12°
E ANSWER:
4. 12°

18)

Explain the question : To find nature of beam emerging from lens B.

Concept : This question is based on image formation by lens combination.
Solution : Convex lens form image at its beam which is also the focal point of Concave lens.
Therefore initially parallel light ray will emerge from Concave lens. As concave lens is moved
towards Convex lens, parallel light will start diverging.

Final answer : 2

19)

(3) 3 4 2 1

20)
OR
For AiR – oil surface
u = –24cm ; u1 = 1, u2 = , R = + 6cm

This v image act as object for oil - water surface

u1 = u2 = R=∞
u = 21 cm

⇒ from water surface

from Bottom of tank
⇒ x = 18 – 16 = 2cm

21) Using lens formula for objective lens

0
⇒ = ⇒ v = 50 cm
Tube length ℓ = |v0| + fe = 50 + 4 = 54 cm.

22)

23)

Question explanation: Calculate the speed of the image of an overtaking car seen in a
convex sideview mirror.

Concept: Image velocity for a spherical mirror

Solution: (Step-by-Step)
Final answer : (2) m/s

24)

As the upper half will have focal length twice that of lower half, rays coming from upper half of
planoconvex will be focused at more distance from lens.

25) When the incident ray is fixed and mirror rotates through 10° clockwise then reflected ray
rotates clockwise through 20° angle and when mirror is fixed and incident ray rotates through
angle 5° clockwise then reflected ray rotates through 5° anticlockwise.
Total angle turned by the reflected ray
=

26)

Pnet = P1 + P2= 10D

P1 + P2 – dP1P2 = 6

10 –
P1P2 = 16
P1 = 2D ; f1 = 0.5 m
P2 = 8D ; f2 = 0.125 m

27) Question Explanation:

From deviation vs incidence graph of prism, find prism angle.

Concept:
For a prism, if same deviation occurs for two angles of incidence i1 and i2 then:
i1 + i2 = A + δ
where A is prism angle.
Formula:
A = i1 + i2 – δ
Calculation:
Given from graph:
i1 = 15°, i2 = 60°, δ = 30°
Substitute:
A = 15° + 60° – 30°
A = 45°

Final Answer : Option (2)

28) 70 cm from point B at right, real

29) The intermediate image formed by objective lens is Real, inverted and magnified.

30)

M= =5
f0 + fe = 36
fe = 6 cm
f0 = 30 cm

31)

Explain Question : A point light source is placed 4 m below the surface of water (µw = 5/3).
A circular disc is placed on the surface to block all light emerging from water. We must find
the minimum radius of this disc.
Concept : This question is based on total internal reflection and critical angle.
Formula : sin C = 1/µ and radius r = h tan C
Solution :
µ = 5/3 → sin C = 1/µ = 3/5
C = sin⁻¹(3/5)

tan C = (sin C)/ ) = (3/5)/( ) = (3/5)/(4/5) = 3/4

Depth h = 4 m
r = h tan C = 4 × (3/4) = 3 m
Final answer : 2

32) Concept : Mirror velocity when object or mirror is moving parallel to principal axis.

Formula : MT =

Calculation :

= =
–1
= –5ms
Final Answer : Option (2) –5ms–1

33)

Explain the Question : A concave mirror has radius of curvature 20 cm (so focal length f =
10 cm).
An object is placed 15 cm from the mirror.
The mirror moves right with 1 cm/s and the object moves left with 10 cm/s.
We must find the velocity of the image.
Concept : This question is based on mirror formula and image-velocity relation for spherical
mirrors.
Formula :
Mirror formula : 1/v + 1/u = 1/f
Image-velocity: vi = (v2/u2) (du/dt)
Solution :
Given:
R = 20 cm ⇒ f = R/2 = 10 cm
Object distance u = –15 cm
VI – Vm = m2(V0 – Vm)

VI – 1 =
VI = 44 + 1
= 45 cm/s
Final answer : 1

34) Let v' and λ' represent frequency and wavelength of light in medium respectively.

So

35) Explain the Question : To find the angle made by light ray with the normal in the
medium of .
Concept : This question is based on refraction at plane surface : snell's law.
Solution :
n1 × sin 45° = sin θ × n3

θ = 30º
Final Answer : Option (1)

36) D = 80, x = 20

= 18.75 cm

37) O =

38) Explain the Question : Find equivalent focal length of given lens.
Concept : This question is based on silvering of lens.
Solution :
Formula : P = 2Pℓ + Pm

fℓ = 20 cm

feq = –5 cm
or 5 cm
Final answer : Option (2)

39)

Question Explanation:
To find ratio of the foul length in three shown cases.

Concept:
This question is based on lens maker's formula for equi converse and plano converse lens
power of combination of lens.

Solution:

= , =

(A) (B) (C)

In use (B) and (C)

fnet = f
∴ (A) → f, (B) → f, (C) → f

Hence,
Correct option: (2)
 40) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
To check if both statements are correct and whether the Reason correctly explains the
Assertion.
Concept : Refraction of light.
Explanation :
1. Twinkling of Stars (Assertion Explanation) The twinkling of stars occurs due to atmospheric
refraction. The Earth's atmosphere consists of layers of air with varying densities and
temperatures, which cause fluctuations in the refractive index. Light from stars bends
irregularly, making the star appear to shift in position and intensity, creating a twinkling
effect. Thus, the Assertion is true.
2. Looming Effect (Reason Explanation) Looming is an optical illusion where distant object
(like ships) appear higher than their actual position. It happens in cold regions, where cold
dense air is below warmer air, crating an inverted temperature gradient. Since the refractive
index of air decreases with height, light rays bend downwards, making the ship appear higher
than its actual position. Thus, the Reason in also true.
But Reason is not correct explanation.
Answer: (2)

41)
Since, the light on passing from denser medium to rarer medium deviates away from normal,
the image formed by projecting the emergent rays backwards is at a shorter depth.

42)

A→b,c, B→b,c, C→b,d, D→a, d

43)

Question Explanation: .

The question is asking you to find the power of a biconvex lens when:Both surfaces of the lens
have radius of curvature 20 [Link] refractive index of the lens material is 1.5

Concept: power of lens by using lens makers formula

Solution: R1 = R2 = 20 cm = 0.2 m

R1 = R2 = 20 cm = 0.2 m
Final answer :+5D

44)

Explain the Question : The question asks: after the light passes through the lens, reflects off
the mirror, where is the final image formed relative to the mirror.
Concept : This question is based on image formation by combination of lens and mirror.
Solution : First, for image formation from lens
u = – 60 cm
f = + 30 cm

this real image formed by lens acts as virtual object for mirror

Real image from plane mirror is formed 20 cm in front of mirror, hence at 20 cm distance from
lens.
Now, for second refraction from lens,
u = – 20 cm
f = +30 cm

So, final virtual image is 60 cm from lens, or 20 cm behind mirror

Final answer : 4
 45)

If nℓ > ng then the lens will be in more denser medium. Hence its nature will change and the
convex lens will behave like a concave lens.

CHEMISTRY

46)

C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(ℓ)

Moles of C3H8 = 0.05

Volume of O2 = 5 × 0.05 × 22.7 = 5.675 L

47) Mavg = = 24

48) Let Molarity = M

So 1 L of solution = M mole of solute
= M × 40 g of NaOH
M % (w/w) means
In 100 g solution = M g of NaOH

So 40 M g solute will be in =
= 4000 g of solution

So d =

= 4 g/ml

49)

50) Molar mass of amino acid

no. of molecules in 1 gm acid

51)
Mol. wt. of gas is = = 64 g
32 + 16x = 64 x=2

52) Question Explanation: Sum of product masses in a closed container.

Concept: Law of Conservation of Mass.
Solution: In a closed container, the sum of product masses is equal to the sum of the masses
of the reactants consumed.
Mass products = Both react
completely here.
4 NH3 + 7O2 4NO2 + 6H2O
4 mol 8mol 4 mol 6mol
= 184 g = 108 g
Final Answer: 292

53)

54) 4 NA

55) Module

56) moles of CO2 =

moles of H2 = mol

moles of NH3 = mol

mol of SO2 = mol

57) 2 mole CHI3 → 1 mole C2H2

1 mole → mole C2H2

.01 mole → × .01 mole

Volume = × .01 × 22.4

= .112 1tr
= 112 m1

58) Explain Question :

Identify the volume of H2 product.

Concept:
Eudiometry.
Solution :

Final Answer: Option (3)

59)

7A + 13 B + 15 C → 17 P

= 2.1 = 2 = 2.03 → L.R.

60) 0.143

61) Module

62) No. of molecules in different cases

(a) 22.4 litre at STP contains = 6.023 × 1023 molecules of H2

15 litre at STP contains = 4.03 × 1023 molecules of H2

(b) 22.4 litre at STP contains = 6.023 × 1023 molecules of N2

5 litre at STP contains =

(c) 2 gm of H2= 6.023 × 1023 molecules of H2

0.5 gm of H2 = = 1.505 × 1023 molecules of H2

(d) Similarly 10 g of O2 gas molecules of O2 = 1.88 × 1023 molecules

of O2
Thus (a) will have maximum number of molecules

63)

I2O5

64)

2.3 NA
65)

360.1

66)

2.16 g

67)

Definite Proportions

68)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on

Solution : = 1.06
Final Answer : (3)

69)

C3H4O3

70)

71)

When RBC is placed in pure water, it swell up and burst due to endo osmosis.

72) Given w = 0.2g, W = 20 g, ΔT = 0.45 ;

or
∴ M(observed) = 113.78
Now for 2CH3COOH (CH3COOH)2
Before association 1 0
After association 1–α α/2 ;
where α is the degree of association.

∴ ;
or ; α = 0.945

73)

Boiling point of solution

= 100 + ΔTb
Freezing point of solution = 0 – ΔTf
Difference in temperature (given)
= 100 + ΔTb – (–ΔTf)
103.57 = 100 + ΔTb + ΔTf
= 100 + molality × (Kb + Kf)
= 100 + molality × (0.52 + 1.86)

∴ molality =

and molality = ;

= 0.75 moles

74) Vapour pressure expected by Raout's law,

PS = = 39 torr.
Thus observed vapour pressure (42 torr) is greater than expected value. Hence this solution
shows positive deviation and therefor form minimum boiling azeotrope.

75)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : -
Final Answer : (3)

76)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
PCl5 → PCl3 + Cl2
1 – –
1–α α α
1 × 208.5 = 200 (1 + α)
⇒ i=1+α

⇒ i= = 1.0425
Final Answer : (4)
77)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :

(P) π ∝ ic
(Q) π ∝ ic (= 2 × 0.5)
Hence, πP = πQ
Final Answer : (1)

78)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :

⇒ x = 250
Solution = 250 + 30 = 280 g
Final Answer : (2)

79)

P3 > P1 > P2

80) 5.55 ml

81)

Question Explanation : We need to find solution with Negative deviation from Raoult's law.

Concept : Negative deviation from Raoult's law.

Solution :

Benzene + Toluene ⇒ Ideal solution

Chloroethane + Bromoethane ⇒ Ideal solution
Acetone + Chloroform ⇒ Negative deviation
Carbon disulphide + Acetone ⇒ Positive deviation.

Final Answer: option (3)

82) Molality

83) A 2(SO4)3
 84) ΔHmix < 0

85) Statement I is correct and statement I| incorrect

86) Osmotic pressure

87) Large positive deviation from raoult's law form maximum boiling azeotrope at a specific
composition

88) Explain Question – Which of the following shows positive deviation from Raoult's law.

Concept – This question based on Raoult's law.

Solution –

Positive deviation from Raoult's law occurs when A-B intermolecular forces are weaker than
A-A and B-B forces, leading to higher vapor pressure.
(i) Chloroform and acetone: Shows negative deviation due to hydrogen bonding.
(ii) Carbon disulfide and acetone: Shows positive deviation as interactions weaken.
(iii) Ethanol and Acetone: Shows positive deviation as acetone disrupts ethanol's H bonds.
(iv) Phenol and Aniline: Shows negative deviation due to strong hydrogen bonding.
Therefore, (ii) and (iii) show positive deviation.

Final Answer – Option (2)

89) Conceptual

90) Conceptual

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XII, Pg. # 196

92)

0.07

93)

NCERT Pg. # 228

94)
Population density

95)

Biotic potential

96)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 229

97)

Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

98)

The competitively inferior species will eventually be eliminated.

99) NCERT-XII Pg. # 199

100) NCERT XII # 234

101)

Competitive release

102) The correct answer is (b) Number of females per 1000 males . The sex ratio refers to the
number of females per 1000 males in a population.

103)

Calotropis

104)

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

105)

Natality, Immigration, Mortality, Emigration

106)
a = Exponential plot, b = Logistic plot, c = Carrying capacity

107)

a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

108)

Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.

109)

1700

110)

Predator

111)

Both species are affected by interspecific competition but species 2 is less affected.

112)

Mutualism

113)

The relationship between Yucca (a plant) and Pronuba (a moth) is an example of obligate
mutualism, where both organisms depend on each other to complete their life cycles. The
Pronuba moth pollinates the Yucca plant, and in return, the moth lays its eggs inside the Yucca
flower. The larvae feed on the seeds of the plant, and the plant relies on the moth for
pollination. Neither the Yucca nor the Pronuba moth can complete its life cycle without the
other.

114)

Connell's elegant field experiment, was conducted in the rocky intertidal zone of Scotland. The
experiment involved studying the competition between two barnacle species (Balanus and
Chthamalus). Connell demonstrated how interspecific competition influenced the distribution
of these species, highlighting the role of biotic interactions in ecology.

115) Amensalism is a type of biological interaction in which one species is harmed, while the
other species remains unaffected.
116)

The basic unit of ecological study is the organism. An organism represents an individual living
entity (plant, animal, or microorganism) that interacts with its environment. Ecologists study
the interactions of organisms with each other and their surroundings to understand broader
ecological concepts, such as populations, communities, and ecosystems.

117)

Explanation:
Certain orchids mimic the appearance and scent of female bees. Male bees are attracted and
attempt to copulate with the flower, during which pollinia (pollen sacs) get attached to their
body. This deceptive interaction is known as pseudo copulation.

118)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 233,235

119)

Explanation:
The death rate is calculated as the number of deaths divided by the total population, then
expressed per individual. Here’s the calculation:

This means that the death rate is 0.1 individuals per Drosophila per week.

120)

Explain Question – The question asks who is regarded as the Father of Ecology in India.

Concept – Intra - History And Introduction To

Solution – Prof. Ramdeo Mishra is recognized as the Father of Ecology in India. He pioneered
ecological research, introduced postgraduate courses in ecology, and established the
International Society for Tropical Ecology. His work laid the foundation for ecological studies
in India.

Final Answer – Option 1

121) The assertion is true as mutualism is an interspecific interaction where both species
benefit, indicated by a ‘+’ sign for each, and competition is an interaction where both species
are negatively affected, indicated by a ‘-’ sign for each. The reason is also true and correctly
explains the assertion, as interspecific interactions include mutualism and competition, among
others, and are characterized by signs that indicate whether they are beneficial, detrimental,
or neutral to the species involved.
122) The assertion is true as plants have indeed evolved a variety of defenses against
herbivores, which include both morphological and chemical means. However, the reason is
partially incorrect because it classifies toxic chemicals as morphological defenses, whereas
they are actually chemical defenses. Thorns are an example of morphological defense, while
toxic chemicals are an example of chemical defense. Therefore, while both A and R are true, R
is not the correct explanation of A.

123)

Cattle Egret and grazing cattle

124)

Both statements A and B are correct

125)

Both (2) and (3)

126)

Niche

127)

Lion

128)

Explanation:
b. Predation → (+/–)
One species (predator) benefits, while the other (prey) is harmed → Only one species benefits
(the predator).
c. Parasitism → (+/–)
One species (parasite) benefits, while the other (host) is harmed → Only one species benefits
(the parasite).
e. Commensalism → (+/0)
One species benefits, while the other is unaffected → Only one species benefits (the
commensal).

129) Correct answer: Option 3: Resource partitioning

Explanation: R.H. MacArthur studied five species of warblers (birds) that lived in the same
conifer tree. He found that each species used a different part of the tree, or fed at
different times or in slightly different ways, thus dividing the resource (tree) among
 themselves. This is called resource partitioning, which reduces competition and allows
species to coexist in the same habitat.

130)

(i) → a, (ii) → b, (iii) → c

131)

Question explanation: Identify which pair is not an example of commensalism.

Concept: Ecological interactions

Solution:

A. (1) Clown fish – Sea anemone → mutualism, not commensalism

B. (2) Orchid – Mango → commensalism (orchid benefits, tree unaffected)

C. (3) Barnacle – Whale → commensalism

D. (4) Hermit crab – Sea anemone → mutualism, not commensalism

Since the question asks for a single best answer, the commonly accepted non-commensal
example is:

Final answer: Option 4 (Hermit crab – sea anemone)

132) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 233

133)

Caterpillar stage

134)

Camouflage

135) A holoparasite is a type of parasitic plant that is completely dependent on its host for
water, nutrients, and carbohydrates. It does not carry out photosynthesis and relies entirely on
the host plant for its survival.

A. Cuscuta is a holoparasite. It attaches to the host plant through specialized structures called
haustoria and absorbs nutrients from the host.
 136)

Question Explanation: Identify the correct structure and function in the human respiratory
system diagram.
Concept: The question is based on respiratory anatomy
Solution: The correct answer is option (3) because:

A. A – Trachea: Conducts air but has incomplete cartilaginous rings, not complete.
B. B – Pleural membrane: Surrounds lungs, not ribs, and reduces friction, so description is
incorrect.
C. C – Alveoli: Thin-walled, vascular, bag-like structures specialized for exchange of oxygen and
carbon dioxide.
D. D – Diaphragm: Helps in inspiration by contracting and moving downward, but the statement
given is inaccurate.

Final Answer:Option (3)

137)

Phrenic muscles of diaphragm are contracted so diaphragm becomes dome shaped

138) Question explanation: To identify PO2​​ values at different points in pulmonary and
systemic circulation.
Concept: Partial pressure of oxygen in respiration
Solution:
I (alveolus) has PO2​​≈104 mm Hg due to fresh inhaled air.
II (pulmonary vein/arterial blood) has slightly lower PO2​​≈95 mm Hg after mixing.
III (tissues) has low PO2​​≈40 mm Hg due to oxygen utilization.
IV (vena cava/deoxygenated blood) also has PO2​​≈40 mm Hg.
Final Answer: Option (2) is correct.

139)

NCERT XI Page # 187

140) NCERT Pg. # 185, 186

141) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 185

142) NCERT Pg.189

143) NCERT Pg. 270

144)

NCERT Page No: 270

145) NCERT Pg. # 186

146)

Vital capacity

147) Question Explanation : The question asks us to determine how many factors do not
favor the dissociation of O₂ from oxyhemoglobin (HbO₂).
Concept : Oxygen dissociation curve.
Solution : Oxygen dissociation from Hb is influenced by the Bohr effect:
• Factors that favor dissociation (shift curve right): ↓pO₂, ↑H⁺ ↓pH, ↑CO₂, ↑temperature
• Factors that do not favor dissociation (shift curve left): ↑pO₂, ↓CO₂, ↑pH
So ,Factors that do not favor O₂ dissociation: pO₂↑, CO₂↓, pH↑ → 3 factors
Final Answer : Option (4)

148)

b, c and e

149) [NCERT Pg. 275]

150) NCERT, Page#275, 17.5

151)

One

152) 159, 104, 40, 95, 40

153)

Question explanation
The question is asking which statement correctly describes gas exchange and its related
concepts in the respiratory system.

Concept
exchange of gases

Solution
Alveoli serve as the primary site for gas exchange, gases also exchange at the tissue level, and
the concept of partial pressure explains how gases diffuse. All these statements are correct.

Final answer:
All of the above.
 154)

(D) Expired Air Inspired Air More CO2 More O2

155)

Question Explanation – The question asks which ion movement occurs in RBCs during CO₂
removal in the lungs.

Concept – CO₂ transport

Solution –
In lungs: during CO₂ removal: HCO₃⁻ enters RBC from plasma to reform CO₂ for exhalation.

Final Answer – Option 3

156)

Always shift towards right

157)

Question Explanation: Which statements about transport of oxygen in blood are incorrect?

Concept: The question is based on transport of gases

Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

A. Statement (a) is incorrect because about 97% of O₂ is transported by haemoglobin, not

by plasma.

B. Statement (b) is correct as blood transports both O₂ and CO₂.

C. Statement (c) is incorrect because oxygen binds reversibly with haemoglobin to form
oxyhaemoglobin.

D. Statement (d) is incorrect because only about 3% of O₂ is carried dissolved in plasma,

not 7%.

Thus, incorrect statements are (a), (c), and (d).

Final answer: Option 4

158)

4
159) Explanation : The text states: At the tissue site where partial pressure of CO2 is high due
to catabolism, CO2 diffuses into blood (RBCs and plasma) and forms HCO–3 and H+. The enzyme
carbonic anhydrase present in RBCs facilitates this reaction.
Final Answer : (2)

160) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 274

161)

P - ii, Q - iv, R - i, S - iii

162)

Question Explanation : To identify the correct axis represented by O2–Hb dissociation curve.
Concept : This question is based on Oxygen Dissociation Curve
Solution : Correct answer is 1 because-On this graph, the x-axis is partial pressure of oxygen
(pO₂) and the y-axis is percentage saturation of Hb with oxygen.
Final Answer : Option (1) x-axis: pO₂; y-axis: % saturation of Hb with O₂.

163) Explain the Question : This question is asking about the identification of different
oxygen–haemoglobin dissociation curves (A, B, and C) based on their oxygen affinity.
Concept : Breathing and Exchange of Gases – Oxygen–haemoglobin dissociation curves (HbF,
HbA, Myoglobin).
Solution : Myoglobin shows the highest oxygen affinity (leftmost curve), fetal haemoglobin
has higher affinity than adult haemoglobin, and normal adult haemoglobin shows the
rightmost curve.
Final Answer: (1)

164)

A, B, C and D

165) Question Explanation:

This question is asking about the mechanism that maintains ionic balance during CO₂
transport when bicarbonate ions move from RBCs to plasma.

Concept:
Breathing and Exchange of Gases (Transport of carbon dioxide).

Explanation:
When HCO₃⁻ diffuses out of RBCs into plasma, Cl⁻ ions move into RBCs to maintain electrical
neutrality. This process is known as the Hamburger phenomenon (chloride shift).

Final Answer: Option 3

166) NCERT Pg. # 275

 167)

Their RBC concentration becomes high due to low oxygen pressure

168)

Question explanation: Identify what happens if the thoracic wall of the lungs is punctured.
Concept: Breathing mechanism
Solution: The correct answer is option 2 –

A. Puncturing the thoracic wall allows air to enter the pleural cavity, destroying the negative
pressure needed to keep the lungs inflated, causing the lungs to collapse (pneumothorax),
which can be fatal.

Final answer: Option 2

169) NCERT Reference: Zoology-XI [NCERT Pg. 273]

170) Question Explanation:

This question is asking about the function of the conducting part of the respiratory system.

Concept:
Breathing and Exchange of Gases (Structure and function of respiratory tract).

Explanation:
The conducting part includes nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles,
and its function is to transport atmospheric air to the alveoli for gas exchange. It does not
participate in the exchange itself.

Final Answer: Option 4

171)

Chloride shift

172)

A – iv, B and E – iii, C – ii, D – i

173)

Question Explanation –
The question asks to fill in the missing values of partial pressure of respiratory gases at
different sites involved in gas exchange.

Concept –
Partial pressure of respiratory gases
Solution –
The partial pressure of CO₂ in atmospheric air is very low, around 0.3 mm Hg, so a = 0.3.
The partial pressure of O₂ in alveoli is lower than atmospheric air due to gas exchange and is
about 104 mm Hg, so b = 104.
These values correctly match the normal physiological data for respiration.

Final Answer – Option 1

174) 97%

175)

All of these

176)

Residual volume

177)

178)

A, B, C & D

179)

Diaphragm and EICM

180)

Explanation : The question asks for the structure that prevents food from entering the
windpipe (trachea).

Concept: larynx

Solution: Epiglottis acts as a cover over the glottis (opening of windpipe) during swallowing,
preventing food entry.

Final answer: Epiglottis