THE OSLAT SCHOOL

16. What is Hadith? A. Saying and actions of the Prophet Muhammad (SAW) B.
Quranic verse C. Prayer D. Fasting
MOTTO: KNOWLEDGE IS LIGHT 17. What does Sawm mean? A. Charity B. Fasting C. Pilgrimage D. Prayer
Holy Gabriel Junction, Beside Apostolic Church, Gengenla, Agunfoye Road, Igbogbo,
Ikorodu, Lagos State.
18. What is the meaning of Jumu’ah? A. Friday congregational prayer B. Ramadan
C. Eid D. Hajj
FIRST TERM 2025/26 EXAMINATION 19. Which angel brought revelation to Prophet Muhammad (SAW)? A. Gabriel (Jibril)
CLASS: SS 2 IRS
B. Michael (Mikail) C. Israfil D. Azrael
SECTION A – Answer all the questions in this section.
20. What is “Ghusl”? A. Full ritual bath for purification B. Ablution C. Charity D.
1. Which Surah is called “Al-Fatiha”? A. Surah 1 B. Surah 2 C. Surah 3 D. Surah 4 Prayer
2. What does “Islam” mean? A. Peace and submission to Allah B. War C. 21. Which of the following is NOT a pillar of Islam? A. Shahadah B. Salah C.
Freedom D. Wealth Sawm D. Iman
3. Who was the last Prophet in Islam? A. Musa B. Isa C. Muhammad (SAW) D. 22. What is the meaning of “Sunnah”? A. Prophet’s way of life B. Qur’anic verse C.
Ibrahim Charity D. Prayer
4. What is the first pillar of Islam? A. Salat B. Shahadah C. Zakah D. Sawm 23. Who are considered the Rightly-Guided Caliphs? A. Abu Bakr, Umar, Uthman, Ali
5. Which of the following is a Pillar of Faith (Iman)? A. Belief in Allah B. Belief in B. Musa, Isa, Dawud, Ibrahim C. Prophet Muhammad alone D. All prophets
Angels C. Belief in the Last Day D. All of the above 24. What is the meaning of Qiyamah? A. Day of Judgment B. Charity C. Prayer D.
6. What is the meaning of Shahadah? A. Declaration of faith in Allah and Prophet Pilgrimage
Muhammad B. Fasting C. Prayer D. Charity 25. Which Surah is known as “The Heart of the Qur’an”? A. Al-Baqarah B. Yasin C.
7. What is “Salah”? A. Prayer B. Fasting C. Charity D. Pilgrimage Al-Falaq D. An-Nas
8. How many daily prayers are obligatory for Muslims? A. Three B. Four C. Five D. 26. How many Rakats are in Fajr prayer? A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5
Six 27. How many Rakats are in Zuhr prayer? A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5
9. Which month is Ramadan? A. 7th Islamic month B. 9th Islamic month C. 12th 28. How many Rakats are in Asr prayer? A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5
Islamic month D. 1st Islamic month 29. How many Rakats are in Maghrib prayer? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
10. What is Zakah? A. Voluntary charity B. Mandatory almsgiving C. Prayer D. 30. How many Rakats are in Isha prayer? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
Fasting 31. What is the meaning of Hijrah? A. Migration of Prophet Muhammad (SAW) from
11. Who was the first Caliph after Prophet Muhammad (SAW)? A. Abu Bakr B. Makkah to Madinah B. Eid celebration C. Pilgrimage D. Prayer
Umar C. Uthman D. Ali 32. Which of the following is a compulsory act of Hajj? A. Tawaf around Kaaba B. Sa’i
12. What is “Tawhid”? A. Monotheism B. Worship of idols C. Charity D. Fasting between Safa and Marwah C. Standing at Arafat D. All of the above
13. What is the meaning of “Shirk”? A. Associating partners with Allah B. Prayer C. 33. What is the meaning of “Aqidah”? A. Islamic creed/beliefs B. Charity C.
Charity D. Pilgrimage Prayer D. Fasting
14. Which Surah is called “Al-Ikhlas”? A. Surah 112 B. Surah 2 C. Surah 5 D. Surah 34. What is the meaning of “Fiqh”? A. Islamic jurisprudence B. Beliefs C.
18 Pilgrimage D. Prayer
15. Who received the revelation of the Qur’an? A. Musa B. Isa C. Muhammad 35. Who was the mother of Prophet Muhammad (SAW)? A. Aisha B. Aminah C.
(SAW) D. Dawud Khadijah D. Fatimah
36. Who was the father of Prophet Muhammad (SAW)? A. Abdullah B. Abu Talib C. 54. Which is the first Surah revealed to Prophet Muhammad (SAW)? A. Al-Alaq B. Al-
Ali D. Abu Bakr Fatiha C. Al-Baqarah D. Al-Mulk
37. Which is the longest Surah in the Qur’an? A. Al-Baqarah B. Al-Fatiha C. Al- 55. Who was the first female Muslim? A. Khadijah B. Aisha C. Fatimah D. Aminah
Ikhlas D. Al-Kawthar 56. Which Surah warns against arrogance and pride? A. Al-Qiyamah B. Al-Fatiha C.
38. Which Surah contains Ayat al-Kursi? A. Al-Baqarah B. Al-Fatiha C. Al-Ikhlas D. Al-Mulk D. Al-Ikhlas
Al-Mulk 57. What is the meaning of “Tasbih”? A. Glorifying Allah B. Charity C. Prayer D.
39. What is the meaning of “Ibadah”? A. Worship of Allah B. Charity C. Prayer Fasting
only D. Fasting only 58. Which Surah is known as the “Chapter of Women”? A. An-Nisa B. Al-Baqarah C.
40. Who was the first person to accept Islam? A. Abu Bakr B. Ali C. Khadijah D. Al-Fatiha D. Al-Ikhlas
Umar 59. What is the meaning of “Shahadah”? A. Testimony of faith in Allah B. Prayer C.
41. Which Surah mentions “the story of Yusuf (Joseph)”? A. Surah Yusuf B. Surah Charity D. Fasting
Maryam C. Surah Al-Imran D. Surah Al-Kahf 60. Which Surah emphasizes the story of the People of the Cave? A. Al-Kahf B.
42. What does “Zamzam” refer to? A. A holy well in Makkah B. A prayer C. Yusuf C. Maryam D. Al-Qadr
Charity D. Fasting
43. What is the meaning of “Halal”? A. Permissible according to Islamic law B.
Forbidden C. Charity D. Prayer
44. What is the meaning of “Haram”? A. Forbidden B. Permissible C. Charity D.
Prayer
45. What is “Iqamah”? A. Call to commence prayer B. Call to prayer C. Charity D.
Fasting
46. Which Surah mentions the story of Musa (Moses) and Pharaoh? A. Al-Qasas B.
Yusuf C. Al-Baqarah D. Al-Fatiha
47. How many prophets are mentioned in the Qur’an? A. 25 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40
48. What is the meaning of “Jannah”? A. Paradise B. Hellfire C. Charity D. Prayer
49. What is the meaning of “Jahannam”? A. Hellfire B. Paradise C. Charity D.
Prayer
50. Which Surah mentions the “Night of Power” (Laylat al-Qadr)? A. Al-Qadr B. Al-
Fatiha C. Al-Ikhlas D. Al-Mulk
51. Which angel will blow the trumpet on the Day of Judgment? A. Israfil B. Jibril C.
Mikail D. Malik
52. Which Surah is recited in every unit of prayer? A. Al-Fatiha B. Al-Baqarah C. Al-
Ikhlas D. Al-Nas
53. What is the meaning of “Sadaqah”? A. Voluntary charity B. Obligation C.
Prayer D. Fasting
 THE OSLAT SCHOOL
14. Nnamdi Azikiwe was associated with which political party? A. NCNC B. Action
Group C. NNDP D. NPC
MOTTO: KNOWLEDGE IS LIGHT 15. The major export crops in colonial Nigeria included which of the following? A.
Holy Gabriel Junction, Beside Apostolic Church, Gengenla, Agunfoye Road, Igbogbo,
Ikorodu, Lagos State.
Cocoa and groundnut B. Maize and cassava C. Rice and yam D. Fish and salt
16. The policy of “divide and rule” in Nigeria was used to? A. Weaken resistance to
FIRST TERM 2025/26 EXAMINATION British rule B. Promote trade C. Encourage education D. Build roads
CLASS: SS 2 HISTORY
17. Who led the Ekiti Parapo war against Ibadan in the 19th century? A. Ogedengbe
SECTION A – Answer all the questions in this section.
B. Sango C. Oduduwa D. Oba of Lagos
1. What was the main reason for European exploration of Africa? A. Trade and 18. The Lagos Consulate was established in which year? A. 1851 B. 1861 C. 1871
commerce B. Tourism C. Religious festivals D. Farming D. 1886
2. Which European country first traded with the people of Lagos? A. Portugal B. 19. What was the main function of the Lagos Colony under the British? A. Trade and
Britain C. France D. Netherlands administration B. Religious conversion C. Tourism D. Industrial production
3. The trans-Atlantic slave trade ended mainly due to which reason? A. European 20. The Ijebu tribe resisted British control due to what reason? A. Desire to maintain
wars B. Abolition movement C. Industrialization D. Climate change independence B. Religion C. Trade restrictions D. Land dispute
4. Which of the following was a major slave port in Nigeria? A. Badagry B. Ibadan 21. Which of the following was a form of colonial resistance in Nigeria? A. Tax
C. Kano D. Sokoto revolts B. Building schools C. Trading with Britain D. Church missionary work
5. The British colony of Lagos was formally annexed in which year? A. 1861 B. 22. The Richards Constitution of 1945 aimed to? A. Give limited self-government B.
1885 C. 1900 D. 1914 Abolish taxes C. End slavery D. Promote European settlement
6. Who was the first Governor of the Colony of Lagos? A. John Hawley Glover B. 23. The Clifford Constitution of 1922 allowed Nigerians to? A. Elect some
Frederick Lugard C. Lord Lugard D. William Macgregor representatives B. Own land in Lagos only C. Serve as Governor D. Travel to
7. The Protectorate of Northern Nigeria was merged with Southern Nigeria in what Britain freely
year? A. 1900 B. 1914 C. 1920 D. 1935 24. The term “Protectorate” in Nigeria referred to? A. British-controlled territories
8. The amalgamation of Nigeria was carried out by which British Governor? A. Lord with indirect administration B. Independent states C. Trade centers D. Military
Lugard B. John Glover C. Frederick D. Lugard D. Lord Macpherson camps
9. Which of the following was NOT a form of British colonial administration? A. Direct 25. What was the main reason for the growth of Lagos as a city during colonial times?
rule B. Indirect rule C. Military rule D. Protectorate rule A. Trade and commerce B. Mining C. Tourism D. Agriculture
10. The policy of indirect rule was mainly implemented in which part of Nigeria? A. 26. Who is known as the father of Nigerian nationalism? A. Herbert Macaulay B.
Northern Nigeria B. Eastern Nigeria C. Western Nigeria D. Lagos only Nnamdi Azikiwe C. Obafemi Awolowo D. Ahmadu Bello
11. Which Nigerian nationalist founded the Nigerian National Democratic Party (NNDP)? 27. The railway system in colonial Nigeria was built primarily to? A. Transport raw
A. Herbert Macaulay B. Nnamdi Azikiwe C. Obafemi Awolowo D. Ahmadu Bello materials B. Promote tourism C. Build schools D. Facilitate migration
12. The Aba Women’s Riot of 1929 was mainly caused by what? A. Taxation policies 28. The main British policy that affected traditional rulers in Northern Nigeria was? A.
B. Education policy C. Trade monopoly D. Land acquisition Indirect rule B. Direct rule C. Assimilation D. Colonization
13. The first political party in Nigeria was called? A. Nigerian National Democratic 29. The first strike by Nigerian workers occurred in which sector? A. Railway B.
Party (NNDP) B. Action Group C. NCNC D. PRP Education C. Health D. Agriculture
30. The Lagos Colony became a full colony separate from the Protectorate in which 46. Which was a major social change introduced by the British in Nigeria? A. Western
year? A. 1861 B. 1900 C. 1914 D. 1922 education B. Palm wine brewing C. Local festivals D. Traditional farming
31. The Nigerian Youth Movement (NYM) was founded in which year? A. 1934 B. 47. Who founded the Nigerian National Democratic Party (NNDP)? A. Herbert
1925 C. 1945 D. 1950 Macaulay B. Obafemi Awolowo C. Nnamdi Azikiwe D. Ahmadu Bello
32. The main aim of the Nigerian Youth Movement (NYM) was to? A. Promote political 48. The main purpose of building railways in colonial Nigeria was to? A. Transport raw
awareness B. Build railways C. Establish schools D. Convert people to materials B. Promote tourism C. Build schools D. Increase local crafts
Christianity 49. The Lagos Colony became a full colony separate from the Protectorate in which
33. The Action Group (AG) was mainly based in which part of Nigeria? A. Western year? A. 1861 B. 1900 C. 1914 D. 1922
Nigeria B. Eastern Nigeria C. Northern Nigeria D. Lagos only 50. The Aba Women’s Riot was a protest against? A. Excessive taxation B. Poor
34. The NCNC was founded by which Nigerian nationalist? A. Nnamdi Azikiwe B. schools C. Slave trade D. Land disputes
Herbert Macaulay C. Obafemi Awolowo D. Ahmadu Bello 51. Which political party was mainly supported in Eastern Nigeria? A. NCNC B. Action
35. The first general election in Nigeria was held in which year? A. 1923 B. 1945 C. Group C. NNDP D. NPC
1951 D. 1960 52. Which political party was mainly supported in Western Nigeria? A. Action Group
36. The Aba Women’s Riot was mainly led by which group? A. Women B. Farmers B. NCNC C. NNDP D. NPC
C. Merchants D. School teachers 53. The main role of traditional rulers under indirect rule was to? A. Collect taxes and
37. The Nigerian Coal Corporation was established primarily to? A. Mine coal for enforce laws B. Build railways C. Lead the army D. Promote Christianity
export B. Build roads C. Teach mining skills D. Manufacture steel 54. The first oil discovery in Nigeria occurred in which region? A. Niger Delta B.
38. The Egba Resistance to British control was in which town? A. Abeokuta B. Lagos C. Kano D. Kaduna
Ibadan C. Lagos D. Calabar 55. The Nigerian Labour Congress was formed to? A. Protect workers’ rights B. Build
39. The British used indirect rule in Northern Nigeria mainly because? A. The North roads C. Establish schools D. Mine coal
had strong traditional rulers B. The people were illiterate C. They wanted to 56. The main reason for the growth of Lagos as a city was? A. Trade and commerce
abolish slavery D. The climate was harsh B. Agriculture C. Mining D. Religious festivals
40. What was the purpose of the Lagos Town Council during colonial rule? A. Manage 57. The term “divide and rule” was a British policy used to? A. Weaken Nigerian
local affairs B. Collect slaves C. Build railways D. Control Northern Nigeria resistance B. Promote education C. Build roads D. Control Northern Nigeria
41. The Richards Constitution of 1945 aimed to? A. Increase Nigerian participation in only
government B. Abolish taxes C. Promote slavery D. Merge Nigeria with Ghana 58. The Egba Resistance led to which significant event? A. Recognition of Abeokuta’s
42. The Clifford Constitution of 1922 introduced what political feature? A. Legislative autonomy B. Building of Lagos port C. Introduction of railways D. Abolition of
councils B. Military rule C. Direct rule D. Federalism taxes in Lagos
43. The main source of revenue for colonial Nigeria was? A. Taxes B. Schools C. 59. The Clifford Constitution allowed Nigerians to do what? A. Elect representatives
Railways D. Missionaries B. Become Governor C. Abolish taxes D. Run the army
44. The Lagos Consulate was mainly established to? A. Control trade B. Promote 60. The Lagos Colony was annexed by the British mainly to? A. Control trade and
Christianity C. Build schools D. Stop wars strategic port B. Build schools C. Promote agriculture D. Protect religion
45. The term “Protectorate” referred to? A. Territory under British protection B.
Independent state C. Trade post D. Military camp
 THE OSLAT SCHOOL
23. Taba bá sọ pé “Àgbà kì í wà lọ́jà…” A. Ọmọ ni kì í bínú B. Ọmọ ni kì í ṣeré C.
Ká nílò agbára D. Ká bọ̀wọ̀ fún agba
MOTTO: KNOWLEDGE IS LIGHT 24. Kí ni ọ̀rọ̀-inú-ọ̀rọ̀? A. Ní ti ọkàn B. Ní ti ara C. Ní ti òun D. Ní ti il ẹ̀
Holy Gabriel Junction, Beside Apostolic Church, Gengenla, Agunfoye Road, Igbogbo,
Ikorodu, Lagos State. 25. Orúkọ apanilẹ́rìn-ín ni… A. Baba Sala B. Ọmọ ìyá C. Adébáyọ̀ D. Abíodún
FIRST TERM 2025/26 EXAMINATION
26. Kí ni àsàyàn ọrọ̀? A. Yíyan ọ̀rọ̀ B. Fífọ ọ̀rọ̀ C. Ìbànújẹ D. Ìs ọ̀kan
CLASS: SS 2 YORUBA 27. Kí ni ọ̀rọ̀-ìfarahàn? A. Ohùn tí kò ye B. Ohùn tí ó rọrùn C. Ohùn tí a lè rí D.
Dahun ibeere ni Apakini Ohùn tí a gbọ́
1. Kí ni a mọ̀ ní afijẹẹri? A. Ọ̀rọ̀ tí a fi wé ara wọn B. Ọ̀rọ̀ tí a kọ C. Ìtàn D. Ìròyìn 28. Kí ni orin àbẹ́wò? A. Orin ìbànújẹ B. Orin ayọ̀ C. Orin tí a kọ nígbà àb ẹ́wò D.
2. Kí ni àfihàn? A. Ìsọ̀kan B. Ìfarahàn C. Ìtanràn D. Ìjẹ́wọ́ Orin ìmọ̀tara
3. Kí ni ìtàn àròsọ? A. Ìtàn òtítọ́ B. Ìtàn ìran C. Ìtàn eré D. Ìtàn tí a fi ẹ̀sìn ṣe 29. Kí ni ìròyìn? A. Ìtàn B. Ohun tí ó ṣẹ̀lẹ̀ tuntun C. Àròsọ D. Ọ̀r ọ̀ asán
4. Kí ni owe Yorùbá sábà kọ́ wa? A. Búburú B. Ọgbọ́n C. Ìbànújẹ D. Ìfarapa 30. Kí ni akọròyìn? A. Ẹni tí ń kéde iroyin B. Ẹni tí ń fi ẹsìn ṣe C. Ẹni tí ń kọrin D.
5. Àpẹẹrẹ owe ni… A. Ọmọ tí ó mọ inú ile B. Ọrun tí ó ju C. Erin tí ó rìn D. Ọl ọ́run Ẹni tí ń kó ẹ̀rù
gba ẹ̀mí 31. Kí ni a mọ̀ ní ìtàn aláròsọ? A. Itan irọ́ B. Itan ododo C. Itan itan D. Itan ìran
6. Kí ni aróko? A. Ìkọ̀wé B. Ìwé C. Ìrọ̀rọ̀ D. Òwe 32. Kí ni eré onígun? A. Eré tí a fọwọ́ ṣe B. Eré tí kò ní ofin C. Eré tí a fi ọpa ṣe D.
7. Aróko jẹ́… A. Ìkọkọ B. Àfihàn èrò C. Ìbílẹ̀ D. Ìtan àròsọ Ayo
8. Kí ni àfikún? A. Ọ̀rọ̀ tí a fi kun B. Ọ̀rọ̀ tuntun C. Ọ̀r ọ̀ tí kò ní ìtum ọ̀ D. Ìm ọ̀ 33. Kí ni òrò-ọrọ? A. Ọ̀rọ̀ tí ó ní ẹ̀rí B. Ọ̀rọ̀ tí kò wulo C. Ọ̀rọ̀ tí o r ọ̀rùn D. Ọ̀r ọ̀ tí
9. Kí ni àpẹẹrẹ àkọsílẹ̀? A. Ìwé ìròyìn B. Eré C. Ìrọ̀rọ̀ D. Ìdárayá ó rẹ̀
10. Kí ni eré oníṣe? A. Eré tí a ṣe B. Eré tí a kọ C. Eré tí a kọrin D. Eré tí a pa mọ́ 34. Kí ni ìpinnu? A. Yíyàn gbangba B. Ìtan C. Ìrọ̀rọ̀ D. Ìfarapa
11. Kí ni eré pẹ̀lú ohun elo? A. Eré bíi bata B. Eré bíi ayo C. Eré ilé D. Eré aroko 35. Kí ni àsàyàn? A. Ìyànjú B. Ìpinnu yiyan C. Ìṣòro D. Ìtan
12. Kí ni a mọ̀ ní iyì? A. Iyìn B. Ìsọ̀kan C. Ìbànújẹ D. Ìwà búburú 36. Kí ni ìgbéga? A. Ìjọba B. Ìjùmọ̀ C. Ìlera D. Ìrọ̀rọ̀
13. Tani akọni? A. Ẹni tí ó sá B. Ẹni tí ó jẹ́ C. Ẹni tí ó ní agbára àti akíkanjú D. Ẹni tí 37. Kí ni ọkọ ayọ́kẹ́lẹ́? A. Ọkọ tí a gun B. Ọkọ tí a rin C. Ọkọ ọkọ D. Ọkọ tí ó fò
ó rẹ̀ 38. Kí ni agbára iṣe? A. Ìlera B. Okun C. Agbara iṣẹ́ ti ara D. Irẹ̀l ẹ̀
14. Kí ni àṣàrò? A. Ìrọ̀ B. Ìmúrasílẹ̀ ọkàn C. Ìṣirò D. Ìfarapa 39. Tani alábàápàdé? A. Ẹni tí a pàdé B. Ẹni tí ń kọrin C. Ẹni tí ń jẹun D. Ẹni tí ń
15. Kí ni epo ìbílẹ̀? A. Palm oil B. Olive oil C. Ẹ̀po ororo D. Èpo pupa ṣeré
16. Awon Yorùbá sábà fi òun tí ń dun se… A. Àṣàrò B. Èwà C. Ògì D. Àmàlà 40. Kí ni àṣà Yorùbá sábà kọ́ wa? A. Ìwà rere B. Ìtanràn C. Aṣejù D. Ìrìn àjò
17. Kí ni onítẹ̀sí? A. Ẹni tí ń ṣiṣẹ́ B. Ẹni tí ń jẹun C. Ẹni tí ń pa iṣẹ́ m ọ́ D. Ẹni tí ń rìn 41. Ìtàn ìran jẹ́ nipa… A. Ilé B. Idile C. Ilẹ̀ D. Ẹṣin
18. Kí ni ìgbésí-ayé? A. Ayé tí ó péye B. Ayé ẹni C. Ayé tí kò pé D. Ìrìn àjò 42. Kí ni ìjìnlẹ̀? A. Ìmọ̀ tí ó jinlẹ̀ B. Ìrọ̀rọ̀ C. Ìfarapa D. Ìtan
19. Kí ni alákóso? A. Ẹni tí ń ṣakoso B. Ẹni tí ń jó C. Ẹni tí ń kọ D. Ẹni tí ń ṣeré 43. Kí ni ìrírí? A. Ohun tí a ti kọjá B. Ohun tí a n jẹ C. Ohun tí a kọ D. Ohun tí a sìn
20. Kí ni olóko? A. Oníṣòwò B. Agbẹ C. Onílé D. Onímọ̀ 44. Kí ni Ìròyìn ojoojúmọ́? A. Ohun tuntun lojoojumọ B. Ohun tí kò pé C. Ohun tí
21. Àwọn eré ibílẹ̀ ni… A. Ayo B. Basket ball C. Volleyball D. Baseball ó ṣẹ̀lẹ̀ lọ́dún D. Ìrọ̀rọ̀
22. Kí ni ìwà rere Yorùbá? A. Ìjẹ́wọ́ B. Ìgbọ̀ràn C. Ìtanràn D. Ìs ọ̀kan 45. Awon Yorùbá ní ìbílẹ̀… A. Owe B. Irántí C. Asa D. Irọ̀rọ̀
46. Kí ni a fi bata ṣe? A. Fígbà Fọwọ́ B. Fèré C. Sáré D. Gbé ẹsẹ̀
47. Kí ni gbolohun? A. Ọ̀rọ̀ tí ó péye B. Ohun tí a kọ C. Ọ̀rọ̀ tí kò pé D. Owe
48. Kí ni faweli? A. Àlìfábẹ̀ẹ̀tì B. Ohun tí a ji C. Ohun tí a gbọ́ D. Ohùn tí a ṣèpọ̀
49. Kí ni konsonanti? A. Ohùn tí ó di B. Ohùn tí dára C. Ohùn tí a kọ D. Ohùn tí ó
nira
50. Kí ni ọrọ̀-ìlọpo méjì? A. Ọ̀rọ̀ tí a tún B. Ọ̀rọ̀ tí a pa C. Ọ̀rọ̀ tí ó sùn D. Ọ̀r ọ̀ tí ó
pé
51. Kí ni ọrọ̀-ìfarahan? A. Ọ̀rọ̀ tí a fi ara hàn B. Ọ̀rọ̀ tí kò ye C. Ọ̀r ọ̀ tí a gb ọ́ D.
Ìtàn
52. Kí ni aṣeyọrí? A. Aṣeyọrí ni aṣetan rere B. Ìbànújẹ C. Ìfarahàn D. Ìkù
53. Kí ni ìlera? A. Ara tí ó pé B. Ara tí ó bàjẹ́ C. Ohun tí kò pé D. Ohun tí a jẹ
54. Kí ni ọlọ́rọ̀? A. Ẹni tí ó ní ọlọ́rọ̀ B. Ẹni tí ó ní owó púpọ̀ C. Ẹni tí ó lọ sí oko D.
Ẹni tí ó bọ́
55. Kí ni ọkà? A. Iresi B. Gàrí C. Ẹ̀pà D. Irugbin
56. Kí ni ìdílé? A. Ẹbí B. Ọ̀rẹ́ C. Ilé D. Ẹ̀sìn
57. Kí ni ẹranko ìgbó? A. Ẹranko tí a nílé B. Ẹranko tí a rí ní ọjà C. Ẹranko tí ó gbé
ní igbo D. Ẹranko tí kò sí
58. Kí ni èdè ìbílẹ̀? A. Èdè tí a kọ́ B. Èdè tí a bí sí C. Èdè tí a rò D. Èdè tí kò pé
59. Kí ni ayaworan? A. Ẹni tí ń ya aworan B. Ẹni tí ńya aṣọ C. Ẹni tí ń ṣe agbára D.
Ẹni tí ń jó
60. Kí ni akọ̀wé? A. Ẹni tí ń kọ̀wé B. Ẹni tí ń jẹun C. Ẹni tí ń kéde D. Ẹni tí ń rìn
 THE OSLAT SCHOOL
8) __________ model organizes data using two fundamental construct called
record and set (a) Network (b) Relational (c) Object Oriented (d) Star Schema
MOTTO: KNOWLEDGE IS LIGHT
Holy Gabriel Junction, Beside Apostolic Church, Gengenla, Agunfoye Road, Igbogbo, 9) _________ model consists of a single, two-dimensional array of data
Ikorodu, Lagos State. elements. (a) Network (b) Relational (c) 0bject Oriented (d) Flat model
FIRST TERM 2025/26 EXAMINATION 10) __________ database model is organized into an upside-down tree like
CLASS: SS 2 DATA
structure (a) Network (b) Relational (c) Object oriented (d) Hierarchical
PROCESSING
SECTION A – Answer all the questions in this section. 11) Another name for field type is known as______ (a) File type (b) Name type
1) In the approach of data modeling _________data modeling illustrate the (c) Record type (d) Data type
specific entities, attribute and relationship involved in business function, (a) 12) Another name for unique identifier is known as ______ (a) Key (b) Data (c)
Conceptual Data Modeling (b) Logical Data Modeling (c) Flat data (d) Physical Field (d) Record
Data Modeling 13) _________ is an attribute or field that can be used to identify a record in a
2) The processing of structuring and organizing data is referred to as database table or file. (a) Data (b) Field (c) Key (d) Table
___________ (a) Data structure (b) data Organization (c) Data Manipulation (d) 14) _________ is used to database in a computer. (a) Database package (b)
Data Modeling Graphics package (c) Spreadsheet package (d) Word Processing package
3) The major concept for data modeling is to __________ (a) Translate simple 15) __________ model organizes data using two fundamental constructs, called
system design to complex (b) Translate complex system design to simple records and sets. (a) Hierarchical (b) Relational (c) Network (d) Optical
representation of data (c) Translate simple system design to simple
16) Standard Data model can also be called. (a) Manufacture Standard data
representation of data (d) translate complex system design to complex
Model (b) Industry Standard data Model (c) Structured Standard data Mode (d)
representation of data
Enhanced Standard data Model
4) The term “Data Model" refers to two different things- data organization and
17) __________ are great communication tool because it allows interaction and
__________ (a) Data Model (b) Data processing (c) Data Structure (d) data
communication between designers, programmers and end users. (a) Data Model
organization
(b) Normal Form (c) Database (d) Attribute
5) The following are unstructured data except ______ (a) Video (b) email
18) What is the full meaning of ISDM? (a) industry Significant Data model (b)
message (c) Picture (d) Database
International Standard Data Model (c) International Significant Data Model (d)
6) One of the following is an example of a DBMS package. (a) MS Word (b) MS Industry Standard Data Model
Power-point (c) MS access (d) MS outlook
19) ________ is the international defense enterprises architecture specification
7) In the approach of data modeling data modeling identifies the highest-level for exchange group. (a) ideas group (b) Standard Group (c) Best Group (d)
relationship between different entities (a) Conceptual Data Modeling (b) Logical Normal Group
Data Modeling (c) Flat data Modeling (d) Physical Data modeling
20) The following are significance of data model except (a) it can foster
improved understanding of the organization for which the database design is
developed (b) it also imposes constraints or limitation on the data placed within
the structure (c) It helps in structuring and organizing data (d) It creates
database management System tor organization
21) _______ is a collection of computer software that enables users to define,
create and maintain a database (a) Database Management System (b)
Normalization (c) Data Model (d) Normal Form
22) _________ is the logical design method which minimizes duplicate or
redundant data and design flaws. (a) Database (b) Normalization (c) Form (d)
Data Model
23) One of the goals of normalization process is (a)Eliminate redundant data (b)
Ensure data in-dependencies (c) allow update, insertion and deletion (d) create
tables
24) The primary purpose of normalization is to ________ (a) Eliminate
redundant data (b) Ensure data dependencies (c) Allow Update, insertion and
deletion (d) Create tables
25) __________ is the process of efficiently organizing data in a database. (a)
Database (b) Normalization (c) form (d) Model
THEORY
 THE OSLAT SCHOOL
11. Public opinion is defined as the ________ (a) expresses active and conscious
citizens (b) opinion of the entire citizenry (c) education of the uneducated public
MOTTO: KNOWLEDGE IS LIGHT (d) Views of the government
Holy Gabriel Junction, Beside Apostolic Church, Gengenla, Agunfoye Road, Igbogbo,
Ikorodu, Lagos State. 12. Public opinion can be formed through the following ways except (a)
FIRST TERM 2025/26 EXAMINATION
elections (b) rumour and gossip (c) mass media (d) coup
CLASS: SS 2 GOVERNMENT 13. The following are the functions of public opinion except (a) it helps the
SECTION A – Answer all the questions in this section. government to meet the needs of the people (b) it helps the government to
1. An electoral commission is headed by a (a) Director (b) Chairman (c) formulate policies (c) it is difficult to ascertain (d) it wake the government from
Secretary. its slumber
2. A resident commissioner is an electoral officer in a (a) Local Government (b) 14. Public opinion can be expressed through the following (a) genera strike (b)
State (c) District socialization (c) compromise (d) coup
3. A form of rigging in electoral districts is (a) lobbying (b) gerrymandering (c) 15. Who among the following is a civil servant? (a) Bank (b) medical Doctor (c)
ramping Commissioner or police
4. In a plurality system of votes, the highest number of vote (a) wins (b) has a 16. Neutrality of civil servants means that they (a) do what, hey like (b) cannot
second ballot (c)none accept government appointment (c) should not take part in policies
5. Absolute majority reguires -percent (a)50 (b)40 (c) 10 17. In a civil service commission, the boss is usually the (a) Minister (b) Chairman
6. __________ is a permanent body created by the constitution to organize (c) Permanent Secretary.
Federal, state and Local Government council elections in Nigeria. (a) SEC (b) 18. Red-tapism in the civil service simply means (a) to much emphasis on
NCDC (c) INEC protocol (b) delegated power (c) using red tape to measure objects
7. The ________ has its own chairman and seven other persons that are 19. Those who work under the civil service are called (a) public servants (b) civil
normally appointed by INEC (a) SIEC (b) SICE (C) SIENC servants (c) political leaders
8. _________ opinion can be defined as the belief, values and attitudes, which 20. A public corporation is headed by a ________ (a) ministers (b) permanent
are commonly held and expressed by the majority of the people on a given secretary (c) chairman
public issue. (a) government (b) people's (c) Public 21. Those who work in public corporation are called ________ (a) civil servant
9. Which one of the following is NOT a formation of public opinion? (a) mass (b) public servant (c) political head.
media (b) riot (c) lectures 22. Public corporation is set up by ________ (a) the minister (b) act of
10. Public opinion is very important because it (a) guarantees a free press (b) parliament (c) chairman.
lets the government know what the people want (c) protects minority (d) incites 23. Public corporations are owned by the (a) director (b) government (c)
violence minister.
24. All but one of the following are examples of public corporation (a) NIPOST
(b) NITEL (C) Ray Power
25. All the following are sources of revenue of local government except (a) rate
(b) motor parks and market fees (c) duties on exportation of local products. 6. Define public opinlon
26. An electoral district for local government election is _________ (a) senatorial B. List 5 ways public opinion can be formed
district (b) ward (C) constituency.
27. One of the problems facing local government Nigeria is the (a) withdrawal of
grants by the central government (b) lack of qualified personnel (c) collection of
taxes
28. Local government imposes rates because (a) the government wants the rich
to become richer (b) the people are expected to finance political parties (c) of
the need to provide fund for public corporation.
29. Representatives of the people in the local government areas are called (a)
parliamentarians (b) congressmen (c) councilors.
30. There are _________ arms of government (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4

SECTION B: THEORY
(Answer 3 questions)
1. Explain Franchis?
b. Explain the types of Franchise
c. Explain 3 merit and demerit of of limited franchise

2. Explain One and Two political party

b. Define the multi-party system
c. Give 4 features of multi-party system

3. Define “Mass Media”

b. Explain 5 Roles of mass media in day to day running of government
c. Eplain 5 impact of mass media in Nigeria politics

4. state 5 features of capitalism.

B. State 5 characteristics of socialism

5. State 5 features of communism.

b. Highlight 5 features of feudalism.
 THE OSLAT SCHOOL
12. The process of identifying, classifying, recording and summarizing financial
information is called: A. Auditing B. Accounting C. Budgeting D. Investing
MOTTO: KNOWLEDGE IS LIGHT 13. Who is regarded as the “Father of Double Entry”? A. Henry Fayol B. Pacioli Leonardo
Holy Gabriel Junction, Beside Apostolic Church, Gengenla, Agunfoye Road, Igbogbo,
Ikorodu, Lagos State.
C. George Reynolds D. Andrew Carnegie
FIRST TERM 2025/26 EXAMINATION 14. The double-entry system was introduced in which century? A. 14 th B. 15th C. 16th D.
CLASS: SS 2 CIVIC EDUCATION 18th
SECTION A – Answer all the questions in this section. 15. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of accounting? A. Accounting uses
Instructions; Read the questions very carefully and answer the question historical cost B. Accounting may be influenced by judgment C. Accounting gives
exact scientific information D. Accounting ignores qualitative factors
1. The legal right that a person has to belong to a particular country is (a) citizen (b) 16. Financial statements are mainly prepared for: A. Internal and external users B.
citizenship (c) education (d)none Government only C. Suppliers only D. Students only
2.___is a legal member of a given state who possess full constitutional, legal or natural 17. Book-keeping deals mainly with: A. Interpretation of financial statements B.
right (a) citizen (b) citizenship (c) education (d)none Designing accounting systems C. Recording financial transactions D. Controlling
[Link] process of bestowing on the citizens the acquisition of their rights, values and employees
development of total knowledge is(a) goal (b) citizenship education (c)city edu(d) 18. Which of the following is a career opportunity in accounting? A. Pharmacist B.
concept education Auditor C. Pilot D. Engineer
[Link] body of rules and regulations through which a society is governed to maintain 19. The accounting equation is: A. Capital – Assets = Liabilities B. Assets = Liabilities +
peace and orderliness is(a)law(b)crime(c) right (d) family Capital C. Capital = Assets × Liabilities D. Assets = Capital – Liabilities
5. The system of government which is attained from public opinion and is accountable 20. In double entry, every debit entry must have: A. A closing balance B. A
to it is (a) democracy (b) communication (c) preservation (d) education corresponding credit entry C. A trial balance D. A ledger folio
6.____and ____ are types of democracy (a)direct and indirect (b)manifesto and THEORY
campaigns (c)rallies and organisation 1. Explain the term fundamental human rights
[Link] following are the characteristics of capitalist democracy except(a) Transparency b. Write 4 outcome of emergency periods
(b) freedom of the press (c) political parties (d) organisation c. List 3factor that leads to the denial of citizen right
[Link] following are how employment can alleviate poverty except (a)standard of living d. Write 3fundametal human rights which are classified as Civic Right
of people(b) sustainable productivity of country (c) standard of saving and
investment (d) corruption 2. What do you understand by the term 'popular participation
9. ---is the feeling of not being interested in or not being enthusiastic about something b. Enumerate 5 reasons that can prevent people from participation in politics?
or things in general is (a) apathy (b) politics (c)refusal(d)electrons C. What is popular organization?
10. certain privileges enjoyed by every citizen in a country irrespective of gender, tribe d. Explain the term political apathy
or Creed is (a) human rights (b) human being (c) human give (d)human rice e. Who is a leader
11. The primary purpose of financial accounting is to: A. Record personal transactions B.
Provide financial information to users C. Ensure profit always increases D. Prepare [Link] 4 reasons why leaders fail to protect the interest of other followers
budgets b. Write 4 forms of political apathy
 c. Define democracy
d. List the 2 forms of democracy

[Link] 5ways to promote national consciousness

B List 4 skills needed to preserve traditions, customs and belief
c. Write 4 duties and obligation of citizen to their communities
d. Who is a citizen
 THE OSLAT SCHOOL
[Link] ability of a single organism to produce an offspring is called---reproduction(a)
asexual(b) sexual(c) monosexual (d) bisexual
MOTTO: KNOWLEDGE IS LIGHT [Link] are ---plastids(a)green(b) yellow (c) colourless (d) brown
Holy Gabriel Junction, Beside Apostolic Church, Gengenla, Agunfoye Road, Igbogbo,
Ikorodu, Lagos State.
[Link] does digestion and absorption of food takes place in earth worm(a)
intestine(b) month(c) gizzard(d) oesophagus
FIRST TERM 2025/26 EXAMINATION 16._____belong to the grass family and they provide carbohydrates (a)cereal
CLASS: SS 2 BIOLOGY
plant(b)pulses(c)root and tuber crops(d) vegetable
SECTION A – Answer all the questions in this section.
[Link] plants that provide vitamin and minerals to human and animals when
[Link] of the following plants is an example of a cryptogam with vascular tissue? (a) consumed(a)beverage plant(b) fruit plants(c)spices(d)oil plants
equisetum (b) cedrous (c) Marchantia (d) ginkgo 18. The flat worm that feed on aquatic animals called (a)tape worm(b)earth
2. Which of the following plants doesn't have independent and free-living male and worm(c)zoplanktons(d)pharynx
female game to phytase (a) Funaria (b) ptens (c) cedrous (d) polytrichum [Link] movement of metabolic materials from various parts of the organisms where
3. Algae are further classified into different classes base on which of the following they are produced (a) transport system (b) diffusion system (c) digestive system (d)
characteristics? (a) types of pigments (b) composition of cell wall(c) thallus osmosis
organization (d) food reserve 20. The elimination of waste products of metabolism from the body of an organism(a)
[Link] the following differentiate conifers from grasses? (a) absence of pollen respiratory system (b) transport system (c) excretory system
tubes(b)lack of xylem tracheids (c) seeds is produced from ovule(d)endosperm
formation without fertilization THEORY
5.A quality of angiosperms with any exception is(a) autotrophic nutrition (b) secondary 1. Write out 5 excretory (waste) products of plants
growth (c)double fertilization (d) presence of vessels b. The organelles in plant cells responsible for excretion of metabolic waste are
6. Theodor Schwann is a (a) German zoologist (b) German biolgist(c) french biologist c. List the process involved in formation of urine and explain one of them.
(d)french zoo
7. What is responsible for protein synthetsis(a) lysosomes(b)cell wall(c) 2. In a tabular form write 5 differences between respiration and photosynthesis
ribosomes(d)vascuole b. completes the following
8. Amoeba is an example of___organism(a)an acellular(b)a bicellular(c)a multi Organisms Respiratory surface
cellular(d)an allcellular Todpole
[Link] structures are formed in ----organism(a) colonial (b) filamentous (c) single(d)all Cockroach
of the above
10. A plant and animal cells both possess ___(a)cell wall(b) chloroplast(c) starch(d) Domestic fowl
ribosomes Earth worm
[Link] are made up of (a) DNA (b) Gene © ATP (d) ADP Amoeba
[Link] organelles responsible for protein synthesis in cell is ________ (a) ribosomes (b)
c. Write out conditions necessary for respiration
mitochondra (c) DNA (d) nucleous
d. Represent Cellular respiration in an equation
3. With the aid of labelled diagrams, describe an experiment to demonstrate
transpiration in plant
b. Write 5conditions affecting the rate of transportation
c. Write the 4 process which aid transportation in place and explain one
d. Complete the table
Blood vessels (artery). Organ supplied
I. Carotid artery

ii. Pulmonary artery

III. Subclavian artery

iv. Hepatic artery

4. Write the process of feeding in protozoa

b. Explain the digestion of food in man
c. Write the botanical classification of plants.
 OSLAT APEX COLLEGE 9. The resultant of two forces acting on an object is maximum when the angle
between them is (a) 1800 (b) 900 (c) 450 (d) 00
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION
CLASS: SSS 2 SUBJECT: PHYSICS
SECTION A 10. Which is the correct SI unit of distance? (a) millimeters (b) metres (c)
kilometres (d) centimetres
Answer all question by choosing the correct answer from the options
11. A particle accelerates uniformly from rest at 6m/s2 for 8secs and then
1. A body that is uniformly retarded comes to rest in 10s after travelling a decelerates uniformly to rest in the next 5 seconds. Determine magnitude of the
distance of 20m. Calculate its initial velocity (a) 4.0m/s (b) 2.0m/s (c) 20.0m/s (d) deceleration (a) 9.6 m/s2 (b) -9.6 m/s2 (c) 6.9 m/s2 (d) – 6.9 m/s2
0.5m/s
12. Which of the following is odd? (a) 25km (b) 25km North (c) 25km to the left
2. Two forces, whose resultant is 100N, are perpendicular to each other. If one (d) 25km upwards
of them makes an angle of 600 with the resultant, calculate its magnitude: (a)
200.0N (b) 173.2N (c) 86.6 (d) 115.5 13. A boy pulling a load of 150N with a string inclined at an angle of 300 to the
horizontal. If the tension in the string is 105N, the force tending to lift the load
3. A car took off from rest and covered a distance of 80m on a straight road in off the ground is: (a) 52.5N (b) 202.5N (c) 75N (d) 255N
10s. Calculate the magnitude of its acceleration (a) 1.25m/s2 (b) 1.60 m/s2 (c)
4.00 m/s2 (d) 8.0 m/s2 14. Two forces each of magnitude 10N acts in opposite directions at the end of a
table. If the length of the table is 50cm. Find the moment of the couple on the
4. Determine the distance between S (3,4,-5) and T (2,1,0) (a) 5.8 (b) 5.9 (c) 6.0 table (a) 0.5Nm (b) 5Nm (c) 50Nm
(d) 6.2
15. A body accelerates uniformly rest at the rate of 3m/s for 8 seconds.
5. A uniform metre rule of mass 100g balances at the 40cm mark when a mass X Calculate the distance it covers. (a) 24m (b) 48m (c) 72m (d) 96m.
is placed at the 10cm mark. What is the value of X? (a) 33.33g (b) 43.33g (c)
53.33g (d) 63.33g 16. The equilibrant of a system of forces is (a) equal and opposite to the
resultant of the forces (b) the force which has the same effect as the system (c)
6. The following are vector quantities EXCEPT (a) distance (b) displacement (c) equal to resultant of the system (d) the force that makes the system unstable
force (d) weight
17. A boy pulls his toy on a smooth horizontal surface with a rope inclined at
7. An object is released from rest at a height of 20m. Calculate the time it takes 60 to the horizontal .If the effective force pulling the toy along the tension in
to fall to the ground ( g= 10m/s2) (a) 1s (b) 2s (c) 3s (d) 4s. rope (a) 2.5 N (b) 4.33N (c) 5.0 N (d) 8.66N (e) 10.0N

8. A lorry travels 10km northwards, 4km eastwards, 6km southwards and 4km 18. Two forces A and B act at a point at right angles. If their resultant is 50N and
westwards to arrive at a point T. What is the total displacement? (a) 6km east their sum is 70N, their magnitudes are: (a) 50N and 20N (b) 20N and 40N (c) 40N
(b) 4km north (c) 6km north (d) 4km east and 30N (d) 60N and 10N
19. Distance is can be measure with the following except (a) metre rule (b)
speedometer (c) tape rule (d) ruler
3. a. Define these parameters (a) acceleration (b) velocity (c) displacement
20. The equilibrant of a system of forces is (a) equal and opposite to the
b. A lorry starts from rest and accelerates uniformly until it reaches a
resultant of the forces (b) the force which has the same effect as the system (c)
velocity of 50 m/s after 10secs. It travels with uniform velocity for 15secs
equal to resultant of the system (d) the force that makes the system unstable
and is brought to rest I 5secs with a uniform retardation. Calculate:
Theory:
a) The acceleration of the lorry b) The retardation
Answer any two (2) questions from this section
c) The total distance covered d) The average speed of the
1. a. What is displacement and why is it regarded as vector quantity? lorry

b. Highlight three differences between distance and displacement c. A lawn-mower is pushed with a force 50N. If the angle between the
handle of the mower and the ground is 300, (a) calculate the magnitude of
c. Sketch clearly using scale indicators, the position of a point P (4,-5,6)
the force that is pressing the lawn-mover directly into the ground (b)
with reference to a point Q (0,0,0). Determine the distance between P and Q
calculate the effective force that moves the mower forward (c) why does
d. What is the position? the lawn mower move forward and not downward into the ground?

2. a. Define vector 4. a. A ball thrown vertically upwards from the ground level hits the ground
after 4s. Calculate the maximum height reached during its journey
b. What is the difference between scalar and vector
b. A particle starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration of
c. Find the vertical and horizontal components of 500N force when it is 0.5m/s2. Calculate the time taken by the particle to cover a distance of
inclined at 25m.
(i) 600 (ii) 900 (iii) 1500 to the ground level c. A car takes off from rest and covers a distance of 80m on a straight
road in 10secs .Calculate its acceleration
d. A lawn-mower is pushed with a force 50N. If the angle between the
handle of the mower and the ground is 30°, d. A particle accelerates uniformly from rest at 6m/s2 for 8secs and then
decelerates uniformly to rest in the next 7secs .Determine the magnitude
(a) calculate the magnitude of the force that is pressing the lawn-mover
of the deceleration.
directly into the ground (b) calculate the effective force that moves the
mower forward (c) why does the lawn mower move forward and not
downward into the ground?
 THE OSLAT SCHOOL
8. Number of elements in the 5th period of the periodic table is (a) 3 (b) 9
(c) 8 (d) 18.
MOTTO: KNOWLEDGE IS LIGHT 9. Which of the following groups consists entirely of metals? (a) 18 (b) 2 (c) 14
Holy Gabriel Junction, Beside Apostolic Church, Gengenla, Agunfoye Road, Igbogbo,
Ikorodu, Lagos State. (d) 15
FIRST TERM 2025/26 EXAMINATION
10. An element with atomic number 20 is placed in which period of the periodic
CLASS: SS 2 CHEMISTRY table? (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
11. The correct order of size among Cl, Cl+ and CI- is (a) CI+ < CI- < Cl (b) Cl+
SECTION A – Answer all the questions in this section. > CI- > Cl (c) Cl+ < Cl < CI- (d) CI- < Cl < CJ+.
12. Considering the elements B, Al, Mg, and K, the correct order of their metallic
[Link] periodic table is an arrangement of elements in order of their ………… A.
character is (a) B > Al > Mg > K (b) Al > Mg > B > K (c) Mg > Al >
mass numbers B. relative molecular masses c. atomic numbers d.
K>B (d) K > Mg > Al > B.
isotopic masses
13. Which of the following represents the correct order of ionic radii? (a) s2- >
2. Which of the following elements is diatomic? A. iron B neon C. oxygen D.
Cl- > K+ > Ca2+ (b) Ca2+ > K+ > CI- > s2- (c) CI- > S2- > K+ > Ca2+
sodium
(d) S2- > Ca2+ > K+ > CI-.
3. Calcium and magnesium belong to the same group in the periodic table
14. The first ionization energies of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order (a) Na < Mg
because both A. are metals B. form colourless salts C. have the
> Al < Si (b) Na > Mg > Al > Si (c) Na < Mg < Al > Si (d) Na > Mg
same number of valence electrons D. form cations
> AI < Si.
4. A solid substances with high melting and boiling points is likely to be a/an A.
15. Keeping in view, the periodic law and periodic table, suggest which of the
covalent compound B. dative covalent compound C. electrovalent
following elements should have maximum electronegative character? (a)
compound D. non-metal
Oxygen (b) Nitrogen (c) Fluorine (d) Astatine.
5. Which of the following sets of elements have the similar electronic
16. Which of the following structures is associated with the biggest jump
configuration? (i) H, He, Be (ii) Li, Be, B (iii) He, Ne, Ar
between the second and the third ionization energies? (a) 1s22s22p6
(iv) Li, Na, K (a) (iii) (b) (iii), (iv) (c) (iv)
(b) 1s22s22p63 s1 (c) ls22s22p63s2 (d) 1s22s22p1.
(d) (ii), (iii)
17. The statement that is not correct for periodic classification of elements is (a)
6. Transition metals are: (a) found between groups 2 and 13 (b) all solids (c)
the properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers.
metals and semi-metals (d) found between groups 1 and 13.
(b) non-metallic elements are less in number than metallic elements. (c)
7. Hydrogen can be placed along with group 17 elements because it (i) can
the first ionization energies of elements along a period do not vary in a
acquire noble gas configuration by gaining one electron. (ii) exhibits oxidation
regular manner with increase in atomic number. (d) for transition
state of+ 1. (iii) has one electron in the outermost shell. (iv) can exhibit
elements, the d-subshells are filled with electrons monotonically with
oxidation state of -1. (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (i) (d)
increase in atomic number.
(iii).
18. Which one of the following statements is incorrect in relation to ionization
energy? (a) Ionization energy increases for each successive electron. (b)
 The greatest increase in ionization energy is experienced on removal of b. List and explain the preferential discharge of ions
electron from core noble gas configuration. (c) End of valence electrons is c. Describe how you would separate a mixture of salt ,sand and water
marked by a big jump in ionization energy. (d) Removal of electron from 3. a. What is the value of X in the following equation?
orbitals bearing lower n value is easier than from orbital having higher n 2H2S + SO2→ 2H2O + X
value. II) State the periodic law and list the four blocks of elements and write
19. The incorrect statement among the following is (a) The first ionization two
energy of Al is less than the first ionization energy of Mg (b) The second element found in each block
ionization energy of Mg is greater than the second ionization energy of Na (c) b. state two differences between alkali metals and alkaline earth metals
The first ionization energy of Na is less than the first ionization energy of Mg c. Give one characteristic of each of the following families
(d) The third ionization energy of Mg is greater than the third ionization I) Alkali metals
energy of AL II) Halogens
20. Which of the following ions has the highest value of ionic radius? (a) Li+ III) Noble gases
(b) BJ+ (c) oz- (d) p- Iv) Transition element
4. a. List 4 uses of electrolysis
THEORY b. Differentiate between adsorption and absorption of a substance
ANSWER QUESTION NUMBER ONE (1) ANY OTHER 2 c. List all the electronegative and electropositive elements
1. Fill in the blanks. Complete the following sentences by supplying appropriate d. Show that the following reactions are oxidation-reduction reactions
words. Indicating the oxidizing
(i) The most electropositive element in second period is …… whereas the most and reducing agents
electronegative element is ……. I) MnO2 + 4HCL ——- MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
(ii) Inner transition element are known as ________ II) 2K + 2H2O ——— 2KOH + H2
(iii) There are …… periods in long form of periodic table and …… groups. e. Find the Oxidation number of the following;
(v) The d-block elements are known as …… metals. I) Fe —— K2[Fe[CN]6
(vi) Group 1 element are called ______ and Group 4 are called _______ II) B —— NaBH4
(vii) Modern periodic law was proposed by …… III) Mn ——- KMnO4
(viii) The positive electrode in an electrolyte is ________ while the negative IV) Cr —— K2Cr2O7
electrode in an electrolyte is _______
(ix) _______________ is used to separate crude oil into useful fractions
(x) Seperation by chromatography requires a ___________ phase
2. a. Define the following
i. Filtration ii. Fractional Distillation iii. Crystallization
iv. Electrolysis v. Electrolyte vi) ionization
 THE OSLAT SCHOOL
When health workers first came to the village and talked about family
planning, no one took them seriously, including Amusa, whose young wife was
MOTTO: KNOWLEDGE IS LIGHT then pregnant with their first baby. Had their fathers and forefathers before
Holy Gabriel Junction, Beside Apostolic Church, Gengenla, Agunfoye Road, Igbogbo,
Ikorodu, Lagos State. them not had as many wives and children as they desired? And had they not
FIRST TERM 2025/26 EXAMINATION been able to take care of their families? So, everyone shunned the family
CLASS: SS 2 ENGLISH LANGUAGE
planning clinic which was established in the village shortly afterward.
Instruction: Answer FOUR Questions in all ONE question from Section A and Twelve years later, Amusa was a clerical assistant in the city and lived
all questions in Section B. with his wife and eight children in a single room because he could not afford
SECTION A larger quarters. For as long as he could remember, his large family had been
1. Your sister wants to marry a man from another ethnic group against your going through difficult times, which appeared to be worsening lately. Only
mother’s wishes. Write a letter to your mother giving her at least three reasons yesterday, his third child had been sent away from school because her parents
why she should accept your sister’s decision. could not replace her old and torn school uniform. Last year, their first son could
not proceed to the secondary school as the family could not afford the cost.
2. The rising incidence of road accidents nowadays is alarming. In an article Then recently, the landlord had announced his intention to increase the rent.
suitable for publication in an international magazine, discuss at least three Amusa found himself thinking about the days when he was himself a
factors responsible for this and suggest ways of dealing with the problem. young child. His own father had two wives and thirteen children, yet as far as he
could remember, the family had not faced anything similar to what he was going
3. There has been public outcry against the escalating prices of foodstuffs in through now. He suddenly realized that this was because the time had changed
your area. Write a letter to your representative in the House of Assembly, and that the requirements of modern living put great pressure on large family
stating the causes of the increase and suggesting ways of improving the sizes. His father’s time and age had been different: he had been a successful
situation. farmer in the village, had lived in his own house, employed members of his large
family as farm hands and fed everyone from the abundance of the farm. On the
4. Your school’s literary and Debating Society has organized a debate on the other hand, Amusa lived in the city on a limited income. He had no farm land
topic: “Television is Doing More Harm Than Good to Our Youths”. Write your nor even a vegetable garden, and had to pay for everything, from his rented
contribution for or against the topic. room to the smallest domestic need of his family. And at four or five times what
they cost a few years before!
5. Write a story which ends with the words “Had I known, I wouldn’t have It was then that he sadly remembered the health workers and their
believed him”. gospel of family planning. How he wished he had listened and taken their
advice! Unfortunately, he had not. And what was even more unfortunate was
SECTION B: COMPREHENSION that the millions in Amusa’s shoes became wiser only when it was too late.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it. Questions:
1. What advice do you think the health workers gave to the villagers?
2. Give two reasons why the villagers did not take the health workers 7. Many Africans now live in abject poverty instead of enjoying the ….of the
seriously. countries A. comfort B. greatness C. possessions D. affluence
3. Give two indications of Amusa’s financial difficulties 8. Tunde seldom asks questions in class and was….very careful when he did. A.
4. Mention any two differences between Amusa’s condition and his father’s hardly B. sometimes C. often D. never
5. “and what was even more unfortunate…”
i. What grammatical name is given to this expression as it is used in the passage?
SECTION 2: From the word letter A to D, choose the word that best completes
ii. What is its function? each of the following sentences;
6. And had they not been able to take care of their families?” 9. Tests revealed that the winning athlete had taken performance-
i. What literary device is used in this expression enhancing….[Link] B. tablets C. vitamins D. capsules
ii. What does it mean? 10. The lawyer’s client was ….under oath in the law court. A. investigated B.
7. For each of the following words or phrases, find another words or phraseinterrogated C. cross-fired D. cross-examined
which means the same and which an replace it as it is used in the passage;
11. That Fulani man has a large ……….. of cattle A. herd B. flock C. multitude D.
(i) shunned (ii) established; (iii) announced; (iv) going through (v) limited; (vi)
swine
shoes 12. The relationship between the couple is ……for lack of communication, A.
tense B. strained C. relaxed D. uneasy
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 13. Many players have complained about biased…by referees A. officiating B.
SECTION 1: From the list of words or group of words lettered A to D, choose control C. direction D. handling
the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word or 14. Some candidates have developed the ……for cheating in examinations. A.
group of words and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the instinct B. addiction C. knack D. habit
sentence. 15. The secretary was….from her job for absenteeism A. evicted B. dismissed C.
1. The workers expected management to be……rather than indifferent to their rejected D. eliminated
welfare. A. different from B. interested in C. opposed to D. careful of 16. Peter was on tenterhooks until the examination results were announced.
2. Words spoken in the heat of an argument could offend rather than ….. A. This means that Peter was A. unhappy about the examination B. suspended
pacific B. amuse C. inspire D. irritate from school C. anxiously waiting for the results. D. detained by the police
3. Although they have declared the student a suspect, he may turn out to be ….. 17. The military leader blazed the trail by handing over power to civilians. This
A. miserly B. careful C. thoughtful D. extravagant means that the leader A. resigned from the army B. supported civilian ideals. C.
4. Some outspoken social critics live a ….family live A. reserved B. happy C. was against the army. D. set an example
boisterous D. still 18. Life is all about “give and take”. This means that A. people should be willing
5. While the manger was prudent in his expenditure, his deputy was …..A. to compromise. B. life gives and takes C. life is about gifts D. any gift should be
miserly B. careful thoughtful D. extravagant accepted.
6. The cultured and the …… are known by their conduct. A. barbaric B. ignorant
C. clean D. lazy
19. Jumai’s life was in danger but now she had turned the corner. This means 29. She spurned the advances of her boss A. accommodated B. accepted C.
that Jumai A. has given up hope of recovery B. has worsened her situation. C. is rejected D. discouraged
recovering D. has died 30. Whatever he says is irrevocable final B. false C. debatable D. unclear
20. It is unwise for politicians to make off-hand statements to journalists. This 31. Lunatics have some lucid movements A. troubled B. quiet C. noisy [Link]
means that politicians A. should insist on their interviews being recorded B. 32. Don’t expect anything but hypocrisy from politicians. A. promises B.
would be wise not to speak to journalists C. should not make any statement to manifestoes C. insincerity D. dishonesty
journalists D. should be sure of whatever they say.
21. The dentist told his patient that the toothache would pass off when he took SECTION 5: From the words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the
some aspirins. This means that A. the tooth would automatically drop off. B. the word or group of words that best completes each of the following sentences
pains would subside C. the pains would spread to other teethed. the pains 33. The secretary needs to run……two hundred copies of the previous minutes
would worsen. for the next meeting. A. off B. on C. out D. over
22. The students made such a noise in the class that the teacher read them the 34. Let us keep….the plans we made earlier A. away B. to C. off D. on
Riot Act. This means that the teacher A. punished all the students. B. instigated 35. To be alive after such a serious accident…. A celebration. A. is called for B.
the student to riot C. warned the students to stop the noise or get punished D. calls for C. has been called for D. call for
read the school’s rules and regulations to the students. 36. She does not remember ever….. a tiger. A. to see B. to have seen [Link] D.
23. When I went on leave I asked Mr. Barnson to hold the forte. This means that having to see
I asked him to A. defend me B. ac in my absence. C. protect my position D. be 37. The commissioner for Education with his secretary….expected yesterday A.
strong in my absence are B. was C. were D. is
38. After rigorous interrogation, the thief had no alternative….to confess the
SECTION 4: From the words lettered A to D below each of the following truth. A. except B. unless C. but D. rather
sentences, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 39. The jury gave…..verdict. A. it’s B. its C. his D. her
as it is used in the sentence. 40. No……..person will do that. A. matured B. maturing C. mature [Link]
24. His father’s death derailed his plans to enter the university A. discouraged B.
failed C. moved D. ruined In the following passage, the numbered gaps indicate missing words Against
25. Adamu inadvertently shot his friend dead. A. deliberately [Link] C. each number in the list below the passage, four options are given in columns
accidentally D. inappropriately lettered A to D. Choose the word that is the most suitable to fill the numbered
26. The student made scathing remarks about the vice chancellor. A. critical B. gaps in the passage.
positive C. mild D. damaging Within the last quarter of the twentieth century, medical experts have been
27. Several cabinet ministers joined the president’s retinue for this summit laying emphasis on
conference. A. entourage B. vehicle C. followers D. enemies ..... 41...... rather than ...... 42.. measures. Through primary health care
28. The manager refused his deputy’s request in reprisal for his disloyalty. A. programmes, people have been taught about these. When an individual......43 ...
compensation B. annoyance C. retaliation D. exchange a disease, he has to see a doctor for….44... At times, the doctor finds it difficult
to ……..45……the disease during the initial examination of the patient because 60. /dz/ (A) snigger (B) plumage (C) dogged (D) astound
many diseases have similar ..... 46……When this happens, the patient is either
asked to go to the ...... 47 .……for one test or the other or he would have……
48…….. taken to help the doctor find out what is happening internally. It is after
all these, and sometimes more, that the doctor can …..49... some drugs for the
individual and perhaps give him some .... 50……To save yourself and everyone
else from this headache, it is advisable to pay heed to public health
programmes.

A B C D
41. effective Protective Defensive Preventive
42. curative Healing Corrective Anaesthetic
43. Acquires Contracts Contacts Develops
44. consultation interaction Discussion Instruction
45. explain Discover Diagnose Detect
46. signs Indications Symptoms Dues
77. pharmacy Infirmary Ward Laboratory
48. an image An X-ray A film A photograph
49. prescribe Write Select Dictate
50. concoction Syringes Additives Injections

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that contains the sound
represented by the given phonetic symbol
51. /i/ (A) bit (B) beat (C) bet (D) butt
52. /i:/ (A) feet (B) fit (C) fat (D) fate
53. /e/ (A) met (B) mate (C) might (D) meat
54. /æ/ (A) cap (B) cup (C) cope (D) keep
55. /ai/ (A) rare (B) ice (C) air (D) fuel
56. /k/ (A) civil (B) choral (C) chore (D) choose
57. /ố/ (A) northern (B) bath (C) healthy (D) teeth
58. /g/ (A) gnash (B) target (C) gnaw (D) sing
59. /3/ (A) pressure (B) patient (C) charade (D) leisure
 THE OSLAT SCHOOL
16. High humidity is responsible for___ (a) dryness (b) water logging (c) rainfall (d)
erosion
MOTTO: KNOWLEDGE IS LIGHT 17. Artificial application of water to the farmland is___ (a) irrigation (b) wetting ©
Holy Gabriel Junction, Beside Apostolic Church, Gengenla, Agunfoye Road, Igbogbo,
Ikorodu, Lagos State.
drainage (d) harvesting
FIRST TERM 2025/26 EXAMINATION 18. Excess water is conducted away from the soil through ____ (a) irrigation (b) wetting
CLASS: SS 2 AGRIC SCIENCE (c) drainage (d) planting
19. The type of irrigation which can be done on a gentle slope is ____ (a) surface
1. The breaking down of rock into smaller particles is called ___ (a) weathering (b) irrigation (b) subsurface irrigation (c) overhead irrigation (d) Sprinkler
cracking (c) breaking (d) hut 20. Farm surveying Equipment include the following EXCEPT___ (a)dumpy level. (b)
2. The following are pre planting activities except (a) ploughing (b) bush clearing (c) prismatic compass (c) gunter chain. (d) shears
harrowing (d) thinning
3. The following are types of manure except (a) green manure (b) farm yard manure (c) THEORY
NPK (d) compost Answer 4 questions, question 1 is compulsory.
4. The following are methods of fertilizer 1a. Differentiate in a tabular form between macro and micro nutrients, give 4 examples
application except (a) broadcasting (b) ring method (c) Top dressing (d) Eroding each.
5. The following are liming materials except (a) limestone (b) Urea (c) quicklime (d) b. State 4 function of Nitrogen to plants.
slaked lime
6. Nutrients are lost through the following means except (a) crop removal (b) Erosion 2a. Explain Irrigation.
(c) leaching (d) mulching b. State 5 types of Irrigation system.
7. The conversion of nitrates to nitrogen gas by certain bacteria is ___ (a) oxidation (b)
reduction (c) nitrification (d) de-nitrification 3a. Explain Drainage.
8. Microbial decay of plant and animal remains into simpler nitrogenous compound is b. List 4 common liming materials.
___ (a) nitrification (b) putrefaction (c) leaching (d) burning
9. The washing away of soil nutrient down beyond the reach of the root is called___ (a) 4a. What is Liming.
erosion (b) mulching (c) leading (d) fertilization b. Name two pollutants each of air and water.
10. The following are macro nutrients expect___ (a) boron (b) nitrogen (c) magnesium
(d) calcium 5a. Define agricultural pollution.
11. Which of these is not a micro- element? (a) copper (b) zinc (c) boron (d) potassium b. Enumerate the importance of farm surveying and planning in agriculture.
12. The following are climate factors except___ (a) soil types (b) humidity (c)
temperature (d) light 6. What is farm surveying?
13. Which of the following is not an edaphic factor (a) soil PH (b) soil fertility (c) soil b. List 6 surveying instruments.
water (d) topography
14. The following are types of erosion except___ (a) splash (b) rill (c) sheet (d) mulch
15. The washing away of soil nutrients down beyond the reach of the root is___
(a) erosion (b) leaching (c) mulching (d) staking
 OSLAT APEX COLLEGE 12._____________________________

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 13._______________________________

CLASS: SSS 2 SUBJECT: YORUBA
14. Orúko mìíràn tí a máa ń lò fún ilè Yorùbá ni(a) Ilè Oòduà (b) Ìpínlè Èkó (d) Ile káàró̟-
è̟-o-jiire (e) Nàíjíríà.
ITAN ISEDALE YORUBA IBEERE KIN-IN-
15. Orúko oyè Qba Ilé-Ifè ni(a) Àjàlórun ti Ifè (b) Aláké ti Egbá (d) Qòni ti Ilé-Ifè(e)
1. ____________ní babańlá àwọn Yorùbá: (a) Obásanjo (b) Okànbí (d) Oduduwà (e)
Odùduwà ti Ilé-Ifè
Àgbonmèrègún
16. Ilé-Ifè jé ìlú kan ní ìpínlè(a) Òşun (b) Ògùn (d) Òndó (e) Èkó
2. _______ní orísun àwọn èyà Yorùbá (a) Mékà (b) Ilé-Ifè (d) Íjíbíti (e) Nàíjíríà.
17.Níbo ni Oduduwà ti sá kúrò kí ó tó tèdó sí llé-Ifè?(a) Brazil (b) ĺjíbítì (d) Mékà (e)
3. Odùduwà jé __________ nígbà ayé rè ę.(a) Qmoléyìn Kristi (b) Abòrişà (d) Mùsùlùmí
Freetown.
(e) Aláìlésin
18.Nǹkan méjì tí Odùduwà mú dé Ilé-Ifè ni________ àti_______
4. Ta ni Oduduwa kó̟kó̟ pàdé ní Ìlé-Ifè?(a) Qoni ti Ilé-Ife (b) Aláàfin ti Oyo (d) Òkànbí (e)
Àgbonmèrègún 19. Ìlú méjì mìíràn tí a ti lè rí èyà Yorùbá ni _____________ ati _______

5._____________ni ó mú Odùduwà kúrò ní ìlú Mékà?(a) Nítorí pé ó fé joba (b) Ìjà èsin 20. Kínni ìtumò orísun?
(d) Ìjà láàrín àwọn jagunjagun (e) Ìjà láàrín òun àti ìyàwó rè̟ ę.
Yoruba language ipele keji
6. Ìlú mìíràn tí àwọn òpitàn ménubà nípa itàn işèdálè àwọnYorùbá ni (a) ĺjíbítì (b) Àbújá
(d) Èkó (e) Mékà Ka Ibeere yi daadaa ki o si Yan meeta pere ni re re

7. Lámúrúdu jé ní ìlú Mékà(a) Ìjòyè (b) Oba (d) Abòrişà (e) Jagunjagun [Link] in ni alifabeeti yoruba

8.Lámúrúdu "bá ogun lo" nínú itàn yìí túmò sí wí pe (a) Lámúrúdu je oba (b) Lámurúdù b Ko alifabeeti Lati A titi de Gb
ja ogun(d) Lámúrúdu le Odùduwà kúrò ní ìlú Mékà. (e) Lámúrúdu kú sínú oguni
d Ona Melo ni a le pin alifabeeti Ede Yoruba si
9. _____________ ni odùduwà ati omoleyin re lo Lati fi rin irin àjò won láti Mékà dé Ilé-
e Melo ni faweli airanmupe,Se Apeere
Ifè. (a) Kèké (b) Ràkúnmí (d) Moto(e) Okò òfurufú.
[Link] no konsonanti Ede Yoruba
10 Ta ni Oba àkó̟kó̟ tí ó je ní Ile-Ifè? (A) Odùduwà (b) Agbomèrègún (d) Aláàfin ti Qyó
(e) Qoni ti Ilé Ifè. b konsonanti airanmupe Melo ni o wa ninu Ede Yoruba

Dárúko ohun méta tí ó lè fa ijà èsin ní àwùjo wa. [Link] soki nipa ITAN ISEDALE YORUBA

11.______________________________ b Omo Melo ni Odùduwà bi ni igba aye re

[Link] awon Omo okanbi ki o yannana ibi ti won tedo si ati oun ti won jogun ba

[Link] in ni awon nnkan idanimo tabi Ami ti a le fi da Omo Yoruba Mo n

[Link] die ninu awon oba Alade Ile Yoruba ati orúko Oye ìlú won

5. Kin in ni litireso Ede Yoruba

[Link] melo ni Eya litireso Ede Yoruba pin si

d. Salaye eya Akoko ki o si Se Apeere won

e. Se alaye leku rere Ni pa Eka litireso

 OSLAT APEX COLLEGE 13. The gradient of the lines joining the points (5,3) (0,0) is (a) ½ (b) 2/3 (c)3/5
(d)1/4
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION
CLASS: SSS 2 SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS 14. Calculate the intercept of the straight-line equation 4x + 2y =5 (a) 2 ½ (b) 3 (c)
1 (d) ½
1. Find the number of term of the sequence that will make up 240. The given 15. If the second and fourth term of a G.P are 8 and 32 respectively,what is the sum
sequence are 13, 16, 19, 22, …………… A. 9 B. 17 C. 27 D. 29 of the first four terms? A. 28 B. 40 C. 48 D. 60 E. 68
2. If the second and fourth terms of a G.P. are 8 and 32 respectively, what is the 16. Simplify 0.63954 ÷ 0.003 giving your answer correct to two significant figures
sum of the first four terms? A. 28 B. 40 C. 48 D. 60 A. 213.18 B. 213.00 C. 213 D. 210 E. 21
3. Calculate the sum of the tenth terms of the G.P. 5, -21⁄2, 11⁄4 …………… A. 4.77 B. 17. Solve the inequality 3x - 4 > 8 (a) x < 3 (b) x > 4 (c) x > 5 (d) x < 1
3.34 C. 6.852 D. 11.27 18. Find the value x if x + 3 < 4x (a) x < 1 (b) x > 2 (c) x < (d) x > 5
4. . If the 8th term of an A.P. is twice the 4th term and the sum of the first 5 terms is 19. Find the root of the equation 2x² – 3x – 2 = 0 A. X = -2 or ½ B. X = -2 or1 C. X
47, find the common difference. A. 6.31 B. 3.13 C. 4.42 D. 2.24 = -2 or 2 D. X = -1 or 2 E. X = -1/2 or 2
5. The 4th term of an A. P. Is 13 while the 10th term is 31. Find the 21st term. A. 20. Solve the equation 3(2x - 7)= 2(x - 8) (a) 2 1/4 (b) 4/5 (c) 1 1/4 (d) 3/4
175. B. 85. C. 64. D. 45. 21. Solve the equation 3b/9 + 1/2= 3/4 + b/4 (a) -3 (b) -2 (c) 2 (d) 3
6. The bearing of a point A from a point B is 042o. Calculate the bearing of B from 22. Find the value of x for which the fraction (4x+9)/7 equal to zero (a) 7/8 (b) -9/4
A. A. 228o B. 222o C. 138o D. 48o (c) 3/4 (d) -2/3
7. . A ladder of length 5m rests against a vertical wall and makes an angle of 60o 23. Evaluate log10 6 + log10 45 – log10 27 without using logarithm tables A. O B.
with the ground. How far is the foot of the ladder from the wall? A. √3/2m B. 1 C. 1.1738 D. 1.3802 E. 10
2 1/2m C. 5√3/2m D. 5m 24. If (3y-4x)/(4y-3x) = 5, evaluate x/y (a) 17/11 (b) 16/11 (c) 16/17 (d) 3/4
8. The angle of depression of a tree when compared to the length of its shadow 25. If 1/x + 1/y = 1/3 Find y when x=5 (a) 6 1/2 (b) 7 1/2 (c) 3/4 (d) 3/4
on the level ground is 28o and the length of its shadow is 9.78m. What is the 26. Solve for x if x/4 = x/6 + 2/3 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
height of the tree? A. 6.64m B. 5.50m C. 5.20m D. 4.20m 27. In a circle of radius 17cm, calculate the length of a chord which is 8cm from the
9. The bearing of a bird on a tree from a hunter on the ground is N72°E. What is centre (a) 20cm (b) 25cm (c) 30cm (d) 40cm
the bearing of the hunter from the bird? A. S18°W B. S72°W C. S72°E D. 28. What value of k makes the given expression a perfect square ? m2 – 8m + k = 0
S27°E A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 64
10. An erected pole is 7cm high from the ground. It casts a shadow on the 29. A student told to draw the graph of y = x2 + 4x – 6. He is then told to draw a
horizontal ground when the altitude of the sun is 60o. Calculate the length of liner graph on the same axis such that the intersection of the two graphs will
the shadow. A. 7√ m B. 7m C. 21m D. 21√3m give the solutions to the equation x2 + 4x – 7 = 0, What is the equation of the
11. Factorize 35 – 2b – b² A. (35-2b)(b-1) B. (7+b)(5-b) C. (3+7b)(5-b) D. (35-b) linear graph he needs to draw? A. X = 1 B. X = -1 C. Y = 1 D. Y = -1 E. X + y
(3b+7) E. (7+b)(5+b) =1
12. If Q = (all perfect squares less than 30) and P = (all odd numbers from 1 to 10). 30. If 2 + x < 6 and 7 + x > 4. What is the range of x satisfying both inequalities? (a) -
Find Q ∩ P. A. (1, 4, 9, 16, 25) B. (1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9, 16, 25) C. (1, 3, 5, 7, 9) D. 3 < x < 2 (b) -2 < x < 1 (c) -4 < 1 (d) -1 < x < 2
(1, 9) E. Φ 31. Simplify. √(0.0023×750)/√(0.00345×1.25) A. 15 B. 20 C. 40 D. 75
32. The sum of two numbers is twice their difference. If the difference of the 40. Evaluate (2.813×10−³×1.063)/(5.637×10−²) reducing each number to two
numbers is P, find the larger of the two numbers A. p/2 B. 3p/2 C. 5p/2 significant figures and leaving your answer in two significant figures. A. 0.056
D. 3p B. 0.055 C. 0.054 D. 0.54
33. Factorize completely x²+2xy+y²+3x+3y−18. A. (x+y+6)(x+y-3) B. (x-y-6)(x-y+3)
C. (x-y+6)(x-y-3) D. (x+y-6)(x+y+3) THEORY
34. Tope bought X oranges at N5.00 each and some mangoes at N4.00 each. If she
bought twice as many mangoes as oranges and spent at least N65.00 and at 1. Find the solution of the pair of equations graphically. X+Y=5, X² + 2Y²=1
most N130.00, find the range of values of X. A. 4≤X≤5 B. 5≤X≤8 C. 5≤X≤10 1b. Solve the Simultaneous equations. 3^x+3y=3. 5^2x+y=25. Find 2^x+2y
D. 8≤X≤10
35. Three consecutive positive integers k, l and m are such that l2 = 3(k+m). Find 2. Solve x² + 8x – 7= 0 using the completing the square method
the value of m. A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 2b. Solve 2x²=3x + 5 using the quadratic formula
36. Divide 4x3 – 3x + 1 by 2x – 1 A. 2x2-x+1 B. 2x2-x-1 C. 2x2+x+1 D. 2x2+x-1 If the 2nd and 5th terms of a G.P are 6 and 48 respectively, find the sum of the
37. The first term of a geometric progression is twice its common ratio. Find the first for term
sum of the first two terms of the G.P if its sum to infinity is 8. A. 8/5 B. 8/3 C. 2c. Evaluate (101.5)² – (100.5)²
72/25 D. 56/9
38. Let P = {1, 2, u, v, w, x}; Q = {2, 3, u, v, w, 5, 6, y} and R = {2, 3, 4, v, x, y}. 3. Express the product of 0.06 and 0.09 in standard form
Determine (P-Q) ∩ R A. {1, x} B. {x y} C. {x} D. ɸ 3b. Find the 8th term of the A.P -3, -1, 1 .
39. If the population of a town was 240,000 in January 1998 and it increased by 2% 3c. Find the quadratic equation whose roots are x = -2 or x = 7
each year, what would be the population of the town in January, 2000? A.
480,000 B. 249,696 C. 249,600 D. 244,800
 THE OSLAT SCHOOL
14. Which of the following is not a factor that determines the price of a product? (a)
company size (b) customers ability to pay (c) competition from supplier (d)
MOTTO: KNOWLEDGE IS LIGHT government legislature
Holy Gabriel Junction, Beside Apostolic Church, Gengenla, Agunfoye Road, Igbogbo, 15. A loss leader is a pricing system where goods are ________ (a) given as gifts (b) low
Ikorodu, Lagos State. price (c) overpriced (d) sold in packs
FIRST TERM 2025/26 EXAMINATION 16. The elements that make up marketing planning are (I) situation analysis (II) market
CLASS: SS 2 MARKETING share (III) marketing objective (IV) marketing strategy (V) action program. (a) I, II,
SECTION A – Answer all the questions in this section. III, IV only (b) I, II, III, V only (c) I, II, IV, V only (d) I, III, IV, V only
1. The function of a label on goods is to (a) provide information about the product (b) 17. The process of collecting and analyzing information about the external marking
persuade customers to buy the product (c) preserve the content of the product (d) environment is (a) environmental management (b) marketing research (c)
provide protection for the product marketing segmentation (d) marketing management
2. A name, term, symbol or their combination that identifies the producer of a product 18. The information of a strategy to attain established marketing objectives is (a)
is (a) feature (b) package (c) brand (d) logo marketing concept (b) market forecast (c) market demand (d) marketing planning
3. A merchandiser is a person who is responsible for the ___________ (a) security of 19. An activity in marketing research process is _________ (a) decision making (b)
the store (b) quality of the goods (c) attractive display of products (d) storing of marketing testing (c) information gathering (d) product testing
the product 20. The systematic design, collection, analysis and reporting of data for decision making
4. The elements of merchandising include the following except (a) labeling (b) is marketing (a) planning (b) strategy (c) audit (d) research
packaging (c) branding (d) warehousing
5. The offering of trial products either for free or at a nominal price to consumer is (a) THEORY
price deals (b) sampling (c) bonus packs (d) coupons ANSWER ALL QUESTION
6. Which of the following is not a tool of sales promotion? (a) pricing policies (b) 1. Explain Distribution?
premium (c) displays (d) free samples b. Explain all the levels of Distribution channel
7. A price reduction to a buyer who buys in large volume is _________ (a) seasonal c. List out the Channels of distribution for consumers product
discount (b) cash discount (c) quantity discount (d) trade discount 2. Who is a wholesaler?
8. A short-term tool used in boosting turnover is _______ (a) sales promotion (b) mass b. List (5) functions of a Wholesaler to producers
media (c) personal selling (d) e-marketing c. List (5) functions of a Wholesaler to Retailers
9. A practice if overstating the features of a product to lure buyers to a store is (a) 3. Who is a Retailer?
deceptive advertising (b) wrong packaging (c) deceptive pricing (d) illegal business b. Who is a Consumer?
10. An argument against advertisement is that it ________ (a) hides products (b) c. List (4) functions of a Retailer
widens the market (c) stimulates demand (d) misleads customers d. List (4) functions of a Consumer
11. What are the two methods of advertising? (a) direct and indirect advertisement (b) 4. Explain Transportation?
radio and TV advertisement (c) informative and persuasive advertisement (d) b. List and Explain the modes of transportation
target and and frequency advertisement c. Mention (2) Advantages and Disadvantages of each of the modes of transportation
12. A policy where a manufacturer of a product contributed to a retailer's advertising
cost of his product is (a) institutional advertising (b) promotional advertising (c)
informative advertising (d) cooperative advertising
13. A pricing system that involves releasing multiple versions of the same product at
different prices is __________? (a) flexible pricing (b) penetration pricing (c) price
lining (d) skimming pricing
 THE OSLAT SCHOOL
18. Heat is a form of: A. Energy B. Force C. Matter D. Power
19. The unit of heat is: A. Watt B. Joule C. Newton D. Pascal
MOTTO: KNOWLEDGE IS LIGHT 20. The instrument used to measure temperature is: A. Hygrometer B. Thermometer
Holy Gabriel Junction, Beside Apostolic Church, Gengenla, Agunfoye Road, Igbogbo, C. Barometer D. Calorimeter
Ikorodu, Lagos State. 21. The boiling point of water in Kelvin is: A. 100 K B. 0 K C. 373 K D. 273 K
FIRST TERM 2025/26 EXAMINATION 22. Which of the following is a poor conductor of heat? A. Silver B. Copper C. Wood
CLASS: SS 2 PHYSICS D. Aluminium
SECTION A – Answer all the questions in this section. 23. The process by which heat travels through vacuum is: A. Conduction B.
1. The S.I. unit of momentum is: A. kgm/s² B. Ns C. kgm/s D. Nm Convection C. Radiation D. Reflection
2. The slope of a velocity-time graph represents: A. Speed B. Displacement C. 24. A body will float on water if its density is: A. Equal to that of water B. Greater than
Acceleration D. Distance water C. Less than water D. Twice that of water
3. Which of the following is a vector quantity? A. Speed B. Distance C. Time D. 25. The apparent loss of weight of a body immersed in a fluid is equal to: A. Weight of

26. Boyle’s law states that for a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature: A. P ∝ V B.
Force fluid displaced B. Volume of body C. Pressure of fluid D. Density of fluid

PV = constant C. V ∝ T D. P ∝ T
4. The equation expresses: A. Newton’s first law B. Newton’s second law C.
Newton’s third law D. Law of gravitation
5. The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately: A. 8.0 m/s². B. 9.8 m/s² 27. The S.I. unit of electric charge is: A. Ampere B. Coulomb C. Volt D. Ohm
C. 10.8 m/s² D. 7.5 m/s² 28. Ohm’s law states that: A. V = IR B. I = VR C. V = I/R D. R = IV
6. When a car moves at constant speed in a straight line, its acceleration is: A. 29. The slope of a V–I graph for an ohmic conductor gives: A. Current B. Resistance
Increasing B. Zero C. Decreasing D. Constant C. Voltage D. Power
7. The quantity of matter in a body is known as its: A. Weight B. Mass C. Density D. 30. The instrument used to measure current is: A. Voltmeter B. Ammeter C.
Volume. Galvanometer D. Thermometer
8. The force that opposes motion between two surfaces in contact is: 31. The unit of resistance is: A. Ampere B. Ohm C. Volt D. Watt
A. Tension B. Friction C. Compression D. Thrust 32. The heating effect of electric current is used in: A. Transformer B. Electric heater
9. Pressure is defined as: A. Force × Area B. Force / Area C. Area / Force D. Weight C. Electric motor D. Generator
× Volume 33. Electrical energy consumed is measured in: A. Joules B. Watts C. Kilowatt-hour D.
10. The unit of pressure is: A. Pascal B. Joule C. Watt D. Newton Ohms
11. Work is said to be done when: A. Force is applied B. Displacement occurs in the 34. Waves which require a medium for transmission are: A. Electromagnetic waves B.
direction of force C. Object is stationary D. Time elapses Radio waves C. Sound waves D. X-rays
12. The unit of work is: A. Nm B. Ns C. N/m D. J/s 35. The speed of sound in air at room temperature is about: A. 150 m/s B. 300 m/s
13. The power of a machine is the: A. Work done per unit time B. Time per unit work C. 340 m/s D. 1000 m/s
C. Force × distance D. Energy × time 36. The distance between two successive crests of a wave is called: A. Frequency B.
14. A lever with the fulcrum between the load and effort is: A. First-class lever B. Wavelength C. Amplitude D. Period
Second-class lever C. Third-class lever D. Equal lever 37. The time taken for one complete vibration is the: A. Period B. Frequency C. Speed
15. The mechanical advantage of a machine is: A. Load / Effort B. Effort / Load C. D. Wavelength
Velocity ratio × Efficiency D. Effort × Distance 38. Frequency is measured in: A. Hertz B. Joule C. Newton D. Pascal
16. The efficiency of a machine is always less than 100% because of: A. Air pressure 39. If frequency is doubled and wavelength remains constant, speed will: A. Double B.
B. Friction C. Acceleration D. Load Halve C. Remain constant D. Reduce to zero
17. Kinetic energy of a moving body depends on: A. Force and distance B. Mass and 40. A vibrating tuning fork produces: A. Heat energy B. Sound waves C. Electric waves
velocity C. Velocity and acceleration D. Power and time D. Light rays
 THEORY QUESTIONS
Answer five questions from this part

1. State Ohm’s law. B. Define resistance and give its SI unit. C. A current of 2 A
flows through a resistor of 6 Ω. Find the potential difference across it.

2. List three factors that affect the resistance of a conductor. B. Define electric
power and give its formula.

3. Calculate the power dissipated when a current of 3 A flows through a 4 Ω resistor.

B. Define capacitance and give its SI unit.

4. State two uses of capacitors in electrical circuits. B. Define an electric field and
state its unit.

5. Find the charge on a capacitor of 5 µF when the potential difference across it is 12

V. B. State Coulomb’s law.

6. Define magnetic flux and give its SI unit. B. State Faraday’s law of
electromagnetic induction. C. State Lenz’s law.

7. Define alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC). B. List two advantages of
alternating current over direct current. C. Define transformer efficiency.

8. A transformer has a primary voltage of 240 V and a secondary voltage of 12 V. If

thenumber of turns on the primary coil is 400, find the number of turns on the
secondary coil.
 OSLAT APEX COLLEGE 19. 'Let me not love thee if I love thee not illustrates A. metaphor B. proverb C. paradox
D. meiosis
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 20 ………. is a literary device used to express something unpleasant in a more
CLASS: SS 2 SUBJECT: LIT In ENGLISH acceptable manner A. epilogue B. epigram C euphemism D. eulogy.

Section A. Objectives Answer All Questions PART 2: UNSEEN PROSE AND POETRY
1. A poem consisting of fourteen lines is ……. A. a narrative B. a sonnet C. an ode D. an Read the passage and answer question 21-25.
elegy UNSEEN PROSE AND POETRY
2. The attitude of a writer towards the subject matter is the ……. A. tone B. plot C. crisis James' heart beat madly as he and Alice approached the beeping metal detector at the
D. climax entrance. The obvious swinging door hugged the couple with inviting outstretched
3. The pattern of the end rhymes in a poem is called ……. A. internal rhyme. B. rhyme arms and ushered them into the lobby in genial welcome. The receptionist asked
scheme C. rhythm D. free verse. James to surrender any valuable items he had; if they got lost, management would
4. The most exciting and tense part of a story is the ………. A. epilogue B. climax C not be liable.
prologue. D. exposition. James looked at Alice, his wife returning his guilt stricken, dubious look with an
5. Lines of unrhymed poetry are known as ……. A. blank verse. B. assonance. C. innocent, trusting smile. What would he do if jewels went missing? How would he
consonance D. free verse. explain it to himself? What would he have gained by his mischief? What had come
6. A question which does not require an answer is …….. A. discourse B. rhetorical. C. over James, so shameless to decide to rob his own wife? The weindled woman
ironic D. flashback. stood innocently beside her unrepentant husband as he took the key to their
7. A literary work written in the form of a letter is ……. A. creative B. romantic C. room with hands that shook slightly.
tautological D. epistolary. 21. The expression door hugged the couple illustrate …….. a. euphemism b.
8. The lawyer address the bench illustrate …….. A. metonymy B. alliteration C. simile D. personification c. litotes d. onomatopoeia
oxymoron 22. The narrative technique is ……. a. first person b. stream of consciousness c. third
9. The concluding part of a play where the conflict is resolved is the ……… A. resolution person d. interior monologue
B. enjambment C. denouement D. climax 23. How would he explain it to himself? Exemplifies a, hyperbole b. parallelism c.
10. A character whose flaws combined with external forces lead to his suffering is rhetorical d. understatement
a…….. A. heroin B. tragic-hero C. hero D. protagonist 24. The writer's attitude towards James is one of …… a. sympathy b. distrust c. support
11. Pick the odd item out of the underlisted. A ode B. elegy C. sonnet D. simile d. disapproval
12." Pregnant clouds" is an example of …….. A. cliché B. litotes C. metaphor D. 25. The setting is ….. a. the couple's home b. a modern hotel c. the airport d. a school
synecdoche. Read the extract below and answer questions 26 – 30
13. A writer's choice of words is his……… A. diction B. mood C. tone D. setting My heart leaps when I behold
14. The art of creating fictional personages constitutes …….. A. point of view B. A rainbow in the sky
characterization C. narrative technique D. symbolism. So was it when my life began,
15. A deliberate use of exaggeration for the purpose of humour/emphasis is A. So it is now that I am a man,
metaphor. B. irony C. simile D. hyperbole So be it when I shall grow,
16. Drama is meant to …….. A. teach manners only B. criticize C. educate and entertain The child is the father of the man
D. be read and acted only.
17. A piece of writing which teaches morals is……… A. serious B. didactic C. playful D. 26. The mood of the poem is that of _______ A. sorrow B. elation C. anxiety D.
analytical. sarcasm
18. In drama, the ……. create humor. A hero B. clown C. villain D. chorus.
27. The rhyme scheme of the poem is _______ A. ab cc ac B. ab bc ca C. ab ca cc D. ab
ac bc
28. The subject of the extract is _______ A. childishness B. the adverse effect of the
rainbow on man C. the unchanging cycle of nature D. the adverse effects of old
age
29. The literary device used in line 1 is _______ A. simile B. alliteration C. litotes D.
personification
30. The literary device used in line 6 is an example of _______ A. synecdoche B. irony
C. paradox D. hyperbole

SECTION B: THEORY
Instruction: Answer all questions in detail
1. Discuss the synopsis of Act II, Scene I in the play “A Midsummer Night’s Dream”

2. Examine the character of Theseus in the play

3. Discuss the role of Titania in the play

4. As the play opens, Oberon and Titania are fighting over whom?

5. Discuss the story between Hermia, Demetrius, Egeus and Lysander