SECTION 1: ELECTRICAL MACHINES

1. Operating a series-wound DC motor without a load is dangerous because:

A. [Link] motor will not start

B. The CEMF will drop to zero
C. Speed can increase to the point of damaging the motor
D. It causes excessive core loss

2. A motor with a ”Service Factor” of 1.15 can be safely overloaded by what percentage?

A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 115%
D. 0%

3. A ”universal motor” is unique because it is designed to run on:

A. High voltage only

B. Either DC or AC
C. Only three-phase power
D. Permanent magnets only

4. In a shunt-type DC motor, the field winding is connected in:

A. Series with the armature

B. Parallel with the armature
C. A separate high-frequency circuit
D. A delta configuration

5. An electric generator operates on the principle that voltage is induced when a conductor moves
through a magnetic field to cut:

A. Eddy currents
B. Heat cycles
C. Lines of force
D. Counter EMF

6. The critical advantage of a compound-wound DC motor is that it combines:

A. High efficiency and low cost

B. High starting torque and constant speed advantages
C. AC and DC compatibility
D. Brushless operation and high torque

7. What is the ”Counter EMF” (CEMF) in a DC motor?

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 A. The voltage applied to the terminals
B. A byproduct of rotation that opposes applied voltage
C. The voltage lost to heat in the windings
D. The voltage used to start the motor

8. Which component is responsible for switching current between coils in a DC motor to maintain
continuous rotation?

A. Stator
B. Commutator
C. Interpole
D. Capacitor

9. In an induction motor, ”Slip” is defined as the difference between:

A. Terminal voltage and CEMF

B. Input power and output power
C. Synchronous speed and actual rotor speed
D. Torque and angular velocity

10. Which type of DC motor provides high starting torque but exhibits wide speed variation between
no-load and rated-load conditions?

A. Shunt motor
B. Compound motor
C. Permanent-magnet motor
D. Series-wound motor

11. Which AC motor is known for running at exactly synchronous speed regardless of the applied
shaft load?

A. Squirrel-cage induction motor

B. Wound-rotor motor
C. Synchronous motor
D. Universal motor

12. What is the phenomenon where the armature’s magnetic field distorts and weakens the main
stator field?

A. Mutual induction
B. Commutation
C. Armature reaction
D. Hysteresis

13. AC motors suffer from core losses not typically found in DC static fields, specifically:

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 A. I 2 R copper losses
B. Mechanical friction
C. Hysteresis and eddy currents
D. Windage losses

14. What is the primary energy conversion performed by an electric motor?

A. Mechanical to electrical
B. Electrical to mechanical
C. Thermal to mechanical
D. Electrical to chemical

15. Industry standards for reversing the direction of a wound DC motor usually involve:

A. Reversing the polarity of the applied voltage to the whole motor

B. Reversing the current through the armature only
C. Decreasing the frequency of the power supply
D. Increasing the number of poles

16. ”Interpoles” are used in large DC motors specifically to:

A. Increase total horsepower output

B. Minimize the effects of armature reaction and sparking
C. Replace the mechanical commutator
D. Reduce copper winding losses

17. The synchronous speed of an AC motor with 4 poles operating at a line frequency of 60 Hz is:

A. 1200 rpm
B. 1800 rpm
C. 3600 rpm
D. 3000 rpm

18. Brushless DC (BLDC) motors typically use which internal device to determine the active com-
mutation sequence?

A. Carbon brushes
B. Mechanical centrifugal switch
C. Hall effect sensors
D. External variable resistors

19. A stepper motor’s step rotation is precisely controlled by:

A. Varying the input voltage magnitude

B. Reversing the sequence of input pulses

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 C. Changing the physical number of stator poles
D. Mechanical internal gears only

20. Which static device conveys AC power between two mutually inductive coils with no moving
elements?

A. Motor/generator set
B. Transformer
C. TRIAC
D. Commutator

21. A 250V DC motor draws a current of 15A at full loaIf the armature circuit resistance is 2 Ω,
calculate the counter electromotive force (CEMF).

A. 280V
B. 250V
C. 220V
D. 30V

22. Convert a mechanical power rating of 5 horsepower directly into standard Watts.

A. 746W
B. 1500W
C. 3730W
D. 5000W

23. Calculate the starting current drawn by a 230V DC motor if its armature resistance is 0.1 Ω
(assume CEMF = 0V at the exact instant of startup).

A. 23A
B. 230A
C. 2300A
D. 0A

24. An 8-pole lap-wound (A = P ) DC generator contains 960 active conductors and has a magnetic
flux of 40 mWb per pole. If driven at a speed of 400 rpm, the generated EMF is:

A. 128V
B. 256V
C. 512V
D. 64V

25. Calculate the percentage of speed regulation for a machine with a measured no-load speed of
1800 rpm and a full-load speed of 1750 rpm.

A. 2.78%
B. 4.00%

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 C. 1.02%
D. 5.00%

26. A single-phase transformer has a primary-to-secondary step-up turns ratio of 1:5. If the primary
input voltage is 120V, the resulting secondary output voltage is:

A. 24V
B. 600V
C. 120V
D. 5V

27. If a rotational motor yields 10 lb-ft of torque while running at 3000 rpm, evaluate its approximate
output horsepower. (Use the proportionality constant N = 5252).

A. 5.7 hp
B. 10.2 hp
C. 2.5 hp
D. 57.1 hp

28. Which standard DC motor architecture features its field winding wired in parallel across the
armature, resulting in highly stable speed regulation properties?

A. Series Motor
B. Shunt Motor
C. Universal Motor
D. Stepper Motor

29. A ”Separately Excited” DC motor is distinctly categorized as one where the field winding and
the armature assembly are:

A. Connected directly to the same common power source in series

B. Connected directly to the same common power source in parallel
C. Energized individually by two independent electrical power sources
D. Completely absent; magnetic field excitation is driven via permanent magnets

30. What physical mechanism creates the essential ”Rotating Magnetic Field” (RMF) required for
an AC induction motor to begin rotation?

A. An auxiliary external mechanical crank mechanism

B. Permanent magnets mounted onto the structural core rotor surface
C. Balanced three-phase AC currents driving through physical stator windings spatial-displaced
by 120◦
D. The structural actions of the mechanical commutator and carbon brushes

31. Evaluate the exact synchronous speed (Ns ) of a 2-pole AC machine powered by a standard 60
Hz frequency AC grid network.

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 A. 1800 rpm
B. 3600 rpm
C. 1200 rpm
D. 3000 rpm

32. Mechanical ”Slip” is an indispensable structural phenomenon in asynchronous AC induction

motors because without its existence:

A. The machine rotor velocity would accelerate infinitely past safety bounds
B. No electromagnetic voltage would be induced in the rotor bars, collapsing induced torque
generation
C. The machine would consume excessive reactive current values from the grid lines
D. The internal commutation brushes would undergo immediate mechanical wear and destruc-
tion

33. A cumulative-compound DC motor is wired so that the series field flux and shunt field flux:

A. Oppose each other to increase speed

B. Act in the same direction to strengthen the total field flux under load
C. Are powered by independent AC sources
D. Eliminate the need for a commutator

34. Calculate the synchronous speed (Ns ) for a 6-pole AC motor operating on a 60 Hz power supply.

A. 3600 rpm
B. 1800 rpm
C. 1200 rpm
D. 1000 rpm

35. In a DC motor, what is the value of the starting current if the applied voltage is 230 V and the
armature resistance is 0.1 Ω, assuming Counter EMF is zero at the instant of startup?

A. 23 A
B. 230 A
C. 2300 A
D. 0 A

36. What is the percentage of slip for an induction motor with a synchronous speed of 1800 rpm
and an actual rotor speed of 1746 rpm?

A. 3%
B. 5.4%
C. 2.78%
D. 1%

37. Which type of torque refers to the maximum torque a motor can develop before it stalls?

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 A. Locked-rotor torque (LRT)
B. Pull-up torque (PUT)
C. Breakdown torque (BDT)
D. Full-load torque (FLT)

SECTION 2: ELECTRICAL CIRCUITS

1. A series circuit contains three sequential resistors: 10 Ω, 20 Ω, and 30 Ω. The equivalent total
resistance is:

A. 6 Ω
B. 60 Ω
C. 10 Ω
D. 30 Ω

2. If two identical 100 Ω resistors are configured completely in parallel, what is the combined equiv-
alent resistance?

A. 200 Ω
B. 100 Ω
C. 50 Ω
D. 10 Ω

3. In a pure DC circuit node measuring a voltage drop of 10V and passing a current of 2A, what
is the power dissipated across the resistor?

A. 5W
B. 12W
C. 20W
D. 40W

4. Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law (KVL) dictates that the algebraic sum of all voltage drops around any
closed network loop must equal:

A. The total circuit current

B. Zero (or the total independent source voltage)
C. The total net branch resistance
D. The single highest voltage node in the circuit

5. Active Power (P) measured in an alternating current (AC) circuit network is expressed in terms
of:

A. Volt-Amperes (VA)
B. Volt-Amperes Reactive (VAR)
C. Ohms (Ω)
D. Watts (W)

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 6. The basic formulation of Ohm’s Law demonstrates that current (I) is equal to:

A. R/E
B. E × R
C. E/R
D. P/R

7. In balanced three-phase systems utilizing a ”Wye” (Y) connection, the line current (IL ) relates
directly to the phase current (Iph ) as:

A. IL = Iph × 1.732
B. IL = Iph
C. IL = Iph /1.732
D. IL = 3 × Iph

8. Thevenin’s Theorem states that any complex linear bilateral network can be reduced down to:

A. An ideal current source in parallel with a single resistor

B. An ideal voltage source in series with a single resistor
C. A single lumped ideal capacitor
D. A three-phase delta network configuration

9. The phenomenon known as ”Skin Effect” in high-frequency AC distribution lines causes conduc-
tion current to:

A. Flow almost exclusively through the geometric axis center of the wire
B. Cease flowing entirely through the circuit bounds
C. Concentrate tightly near the outer surface profile of the conductor
D. Overheat the external insulation sheet layer until destruction

10. In general AC network analysis, the combined vector mapping of resistance and reactive com-
ponents is defined as:

A. Conductance
B. Admittance
C. Impedance (Z)
D. Capacitance

11. What specific circuit analysis theorem is used to calculate individual contributions of independent
sources in a multi-source active configuration?

A. Norton’s Theorem
B. Superposition Theorem
C. Joule’s Law
D. Lenz’s Law

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12. The calculated value of capacitive reactance (XC ) decreases linearly when:

A. The circuit resistance increases

B. The operating signal frequency increases
C. The system voltage parameters decrease
D. The line inductive parameters increase

13. The target ideal power factor index within a modern industrial manufacturing setting is:

A. 0
B. 0.5
C. 1.0
D. -1.0

14. Alternating Current (AC) is fundamentally defined as an electrical current flow that:

A. Always moves in one static, constant vector direction

B. Periodically reverses direction and varies continuously in magnitude over time
C. Possesses zero operational frequency
D. Is produced exclusively via chemical battery cells

15. What is the correct governing formula for evaluating Inductive Reactance (XL ) in an AC circuit?
1
A. XL = 2πf L
B. XL = 2πf L
C. XL = V × I
√
D. XL = R2 + L2

16. As the operating frequency (f ) of an applied AC signal increases, the resulting Capacitive
Reactance (XC ) of a capacitor will:

A. Increase linearly
B. Remain completely unchanged
C. Decrease
D. Drops immediately to zero

17. In a series RLC network circuit, the total Impedance (Z) is represented as the vector sum of
resistance and net reactance, written as:

A. Z = R + XL + XC
p
B. Z = R2 + (XL − XC )2
C. Z = E/P
D. Z = I 2 R

18. What is a primary industrial engineering benefit of utilizing three-phase AC power lines over
single-phase power distribution circuits?

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 A. It uses more active wires for conveying identical baseline power parameters
B. It delivers a smooth, constant, non-pulsating power flow to large heavy industrial motors
C. It allows for deliberately higher localized resistance values across transmission wires
D. It completely eliminates the fundamental requirement for equipment grounding lines

19. In a Wye (Y) balanced three-phase distribution system, the structural mathematical relationship
between Line Voltage (VL ) and Phase Voltage (Vph ) is:

A. VL = Vph
Vph
B. VL = √
3
√
C. VL = 3 × Vph
D. VL = 3 × Vph

20. In a balanced Delta (∆) connected three-phase circuit configuration, the Line Voltage (VL ) is:

A. Exactly equal to the Phase Voltage (Vph )

√
B. 3 times larger than the Phase Voltage
C. Three times larger than the Phase Voltage
D. Zero

21. Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law (KVL) dictates that the algebraic sum of all independent voltages
around any closed path loop in an active circuit must equal:

A. The total net circuit resistance value

B. The instantaneous mesh branch current value
C. Zero
D. Exactly 100 Volts

22. Mesh current analysis is an advanced matrix circuit solving technique based directly on which
fundamental law?

A. Kirchhoff’s Current Law (KCL)

B. Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law (KVL)
C. Ohm’s Law only
D. Faraday’s Law of Induction

23. Which fundamental law states that the algebraic sum of all currents entering and exiting a node
must equal zero?

A. Ohm’s Law
B. Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law (KVL)
C. Kirchhoff’s Current Law (KCL)
D. Faraday’s Law

24. In a balanced Delta (∆) three-phase connection, the relationship between Line Voltage (VL ) and
Phase Voltage (Vph ) is:

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 A. VL = Vph
√
B. VL = 3 × Vph
Vph
C. VL = √
3
D. VL = 3 × Vph

25. What is the primary advantage of Mesh Current Analysis over the Branch Current Method?

A. It uses Ohm’s Law more accurately

B. It requires fewer unknown variables and simultaneous equations for complex networks
C. It can only be used for AC circuits
D. It eliminates the need for Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law

26. Which theorem is specifically applied to circuits drawn as a set of parallel-connected branches,
where each branch has its own voltage source and series resistance?

A. Thevenin’s Theorem
B. Norton’s Theorem
C. Millman’s Theorem
D. Superposition Theorem

27. A purely inductive impedance in an AC circuit will always have a phase angle of exactly:

A. 0◦
B. −90◦
C. +90◦
D. 180◦

SECTION 3: SEMICONDUCTORS

1. A Bipolar Junction Transistor (BJT) features three specific terminal zones designated as:

A. Anode, Cathode, Gate

B. Source, Drain, Gate
C. Emitter, Base, Collector
D. Primary, Secondary, Core

2. Which specific type of diode is engineered to operate continuously and safely within its reverse
breakdown region?

A. Light Emitting Diode (LED)

B. Schottky diode
C. Zener diode
D. Rectifier diode

3. To drive a BJT to operate reliably as a fully closed ”ON” solid-state switch, it must be driven
into:

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 A. Cutoff region mode
B. Active region mode
C. Saturation region mode
D. Reverse bias boundary mode

4. A basic semiconductor PN-junction diode performs primarily as a:

A. Linear voltage amplifier

B. One-way valve mechanism for electrical current
C. Constant value ohmic resistor
D. Active independent power source

5. How does a Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor Field-Effect Transistor (MOSFET) fundamentally differ

from a Junction Field-Effect Transistor (JFET)?

A. MOSFETs are exclusively fabricated out of P-type crystal substrates

B. MOSFETs possess a physically and chemically completely insulated gate node
C. JFET structural designs do not contain any physical gate terminal line
D. JFETs are current-controlled components, whereas MOSFETs are thermal-controlled

6. An operational amplifier (Op-Amp) operating at a closed-loop gain of 1, utilized to isolate stages,

is known as a:

A. Voltage Comparator
B. Analog Integrator
C. Buffer (Voltage Follower)
D. Summing amplifier

7. Which optoelectronic semiconductor component utilizes light signaling to establish high-voltage

electrical isolation between control logic and power stages?

A. TRIAC
B. Optocoupler
C. Silicon Controlled Rectifier (SCR)
D. Isolation Transformer

8. A Silicon Controlled Rectifier (SCR) thyristor latching mechanism is triggered into forward
conduction by applying a signal pulse at the:

A. Anode
B. Cathode
C. Gate
D. Base

9. An ideal operational amplifier (Op-Amp) model exhibits an internal input impedance that is
considered:

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 A. Zero
B. Infinitely high
C. Negative value
D. Exactly equal to the output load resistance value

10. The primary application of a bidirectional thyristor (TRIAC) device lies in:
A. Regulating stable continuous DC voltage rails
B. Phase-cut AC power control (e.g., industrial motor/light dimmers)
C. Small-signal high-frequency radio amplification
D. High-speed digital computer clock processing

11. A noninverting amplifier has a feedback resistor Rf = 9 Ω and an input resistor Ri = 1 Ω. If the
input voltage Vin = 1 V what is the resulting output voltage Vout ?
A. 9 V
B. -9 V
C. 10 V
D. 1 V

12. Which Op-Amp circuit configuration is characterized by a closed-loop voltage gain of exactly 1
(Acl = 1) and is predominantly used to provide electrical isolation between stages?
A. Inverting Amplifier
B. Summing Amplifier
C. Voltage-Follower (Buffer)
D. Integrator

13. In an inverting amplifier circuit, if the feedback resistor Rf = 100 Ω and the input resistor
Ri = 10 Ω, the closed-loop voltage gain is:
A. 10
B. -10
C. 11
D. 0.1

14. A summing amplifier has three input lines with identical resistors R1 = R2 = R3 = 10 kΩ and a
feedback resistor Rf = 10 kΩ. If the inputs are V1 = 2 V, V2 = 1 V, and V3 = 0.5 V, determine
the output voltage.
A. 3.5 V
B. -3.5 V
C. 10 V
D. -7 V

15. For a differential amplifier to perform the exact mathematical subtraction Vout = V2 − V1 what
constraint must be satisfied regarding its resistor network (R1 , R2 , R3 , Rf )?

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 A. Rf must be infinitely high
B. All four resistors must be of completely equal value
C. R1 must be exactly ten times larger than R2
D. The noninverting input node must be directly grounded

16. An Op-Amp integrator circuit incorporates which reactive component inside its feedback path
to perform mathematical integration over time?
A. Resistor
B. Inductor
C. Capacitor
D. Zener Diode

17. A standard semiconductor diode consists of a unified P-type and N-type region interface. The
external terminal connected directly to the P-type material layer is known as the:
A. Cathode (K)
B. Gate (G)
C. Anode (A)
D. Emitter (E)

18. Which specialized diode is engineered explicitly to operate continuously inside its reverse-bias
breakdown region to establish a stable reference voltage?
A. Schottky Diode
B. Light Emitting Diode (LED)
C. Zener Diode
D. Photodiode

19. What is the fundamental physical terminal structure of a standard Bipolar Junction Transistor
(BJT)?
A. Two terminals: Anode and Cathode
B. Three terminals: Source, Drain, and Gate
C. Three terminals: Emitter, Base, and Collector
D. Four terminals: Input, Output, Ground, and Vcc

20. If an inverting amplifier has a feedback resistor (Rf ) of 50 kΩ and an input resistor (Ri ) of 10
kΩ, what is the output voltage (Vout ) if the input voltage (Vin ) is 2 V?
A. 10 V
B. −10 V
C. 0.4 V
D. −0.4 V

21. A Schottky diode is often preferred over a standard silicon diode in high-speed switching appli-
cations because it has:

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 A. A higher breakdown voltage
B. A lower forward voltage drop and faster switching speed
C. The ability to act as a voltage regulator
D. Three terminals instead of two

22. In a standard Bipolar Junction Transistor (BJT), the three terminals are physically structured
as:

A. Anode, Cathode, and Gate

B. Source, Drain, and Gate
C. Emitter, Base, and Collector
D. Primary, Secondary, and Core

23. Which Operational Amplifier circuit performs the mathematical operation Vout = −(V1 +V2 +V3 )
when all input resistors and feedback resistors are of equal value?

A. Inverting Amplifier
B. Summing Amplifier
C. Difference Amplifier
D. Integrator

24. The Zener diode is unique among diodes because it is designed to operate safely in which region?

A. Forward bias saturation

B. Reverse-bias breakdown
C. Cut-off region
D. Thermal runaway

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