19-07-2026

0999DMD363102260002 MD

PHYSICS

1) A ball is dropped from a height 18 m above the ground. At any moment if magnitude of
acceleration and velocity are same, then find its height above the ground at that instant.

(1) 15 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 13 m
(4) 2 m

2) A particle moves in a plane. The relationship between its velocity vector and acceleration vector
determines its trajectory (the path it follows). Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
(A) If the acceleration vector is always parallel or anti-parallel to the velocity vector , the path
must be a straight line.
(B) If the acceleration vector is constant (in both magnitude and direction) and is not parallel to
the initial velocity, the path must be a parabola.
(C) If the acceleration vector is always perpendicular to the velocity vector and its magnitude |a|
is constant, the path must be a circle.
(D) If the acceleration vector is constant (in both magnitude and direction) and the particle starts
from rest, the path must be a parabola.

(1) Only A, B correct.

(2) Only B, C correct.
(3) Only A, B, C correct.
(4) All are correct.

3) If velocity of a particle is given by v = (2t + 3) m/s, then average velocity in interval 0 ≤ t ≤ 1s is:

(1)
m/s

(2)
m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

4) Assertion :- Doubling the initial velocity, the stopping distance of moving object increases by a
factor of 4 (for the same deceleration) Reason :- For the same deceleration stopping distance is
proportional to the square of the initial velocity.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
5) The position -time relation of a particle moving along the x-axis is given by :
x = a – bt + ct2
where a, b and c are positive numbers. The velocity-time graph of the particle is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A boy wants to jump from building A to building B. Height of building A is 25 m and that of
building B is 5m. Distance between buildings is 4m. Assume that the boy jumps horizontally, then
calculate minimum velocity with which he has to jump to land safely on building B.

(1) 6 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 2 m/s

7) A body is moving towards north with initial velocity of 10 ms–1. It is subjected to a retardation of 2
ms–2. The distance travelled by it in 10 second is :

(1) zero
(2) 75 m
(3) 25 m
(4) 50 m

8) Assertion :- A body can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at a given instant of time.
Reason :- A body is momentarily at rest when it reverse its direction while moving in a straight line.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but R is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

9) The equation of projectile is then horizontal range and angle of projection are: -

(1) Range = , angle = 30°

(2)
Range = , angle = 60°
(3) Range = 2m, angle = 45°

(4)
Range = , angle = 60°

10)

A bomber plane moves horizontally with a speed of 600 m/s and a bomb released from it, strikes the
ground in 10 s. The angle with horizontal at which it strikes the ground will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The velocity-time graph of a body is shown in figure. The slope of the line is 'm'. The distance
travels by body in time T :-

(1)

(2)
2
(3) 2mv0

(4)

12) A person A is sitting in one train while another person B is in the second train. The trains are
moving with velocities 60 m/s and 40 m/s, respectively, in the same direction. Then the velocity of B
relative to A will be:

(1) 100 m/s in the direction of trains

(2) 20 m/s in the direction of trains
(3) 100 m/s in the direction opposite to that of trains
(4) 20 m/s in the direction opposite to that of the trains.

13) The acceleration time graph for a particle moving in a straight line is as shown in figure. The
velocity of particle at time t = 0 is 2 m/s. The maximum velocity of the particle will be :

(1) 6 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4) 8 m/s

14) Two particles are separated by a horizontal distance x as shown in figure. They are projected
with different initial speeds. The time after which the horizontal distance between them becomes
zero is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

15) A stone is released from an elevator going up with an acceleration a and speed u. The
acceleration and speed of the stone with respect to elevator just after the release is

(1) a downward, zero

(2) (g – a) upward, u
(3) (g + a) downward, zero
(4) g downward, u

16) A sprinter starts a race and accelerates uniformly from an initial velocity of 4 m/s to a final
velocity of 10 m/s in a time interval of 6 seconds. What is the total displacement of the sprinter?

(1) 24 meters
(2) 36 meters
(3) 42 meters
(4) 60 meters

17) A ball is projected from a point O as shown in figure. It will strike the ground after (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 4s
(2) 3s
(3) 2s
(4) 5s

18) If a body losses half of its velocity on penetrating 3 cm in a wooden block, then how much will it
penetrate more before coming to rest :-

(1) 1 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 4 cm

19) A ball is thrown upwards from the top of a tower 160 feet high with a velocity of 48 feet per

second, the time when it strikes the ground (g = 32 ft/s2)

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 3 sec
(4) 5 sec
20) A body goes 30 km South and then 40 km East. What will be the displacement from initial point?

(1) 50 km, 37º South of East

(2) 30 km, 37º South of East
(3) 40 km, 53º South of East
(4) 50 km, 53º South of East

21) A body starting from rest accelerates uniformly at the rate of 10 cm s–2 and retards uniformly at
the rate of 20 cm/s2. Find the least time in which it can complete a journey of 5 km, if the maximum
velocity attained by the body is 72 km h–1.

(1) 400 sec

(2) 500 sec
(3) 300 sec
(4) 600 sec

22) Horizontal range and maximum height for a projectile are respectively 12 m and 4 m. Velocity of
projection is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23)

Acceleration v/s time graph for a particle moving along a straight line is shown in figure. The
particle is initially at rest. Find the time instant(s) in seconds, when the particle is at rest.

(1) t = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) t = 0, 2, 4
(3) t = 1, 3
(4) None of these

24) On an planet particle is thrown with a velocity . Then match the list.

List-I List-II
 (P) Time of flight (A) 3

Time when particle is moving at an

(Q) angle of 53° with horizontal in (B) 10
upwards direction.

(R) Range of the particle (C) 50

(S) Maximum height of the particle (D) 60

(1) P → (B) ; Q → (A) ; R → (D) ; S → (C)
(2) P → (A) ; Q → (B) ; R → (C) ; S → (D)
(3) P → (D) ; Q → (C) ; R → (B) ; S → (A)
(4) P → (B) ; Q → (D) ; R → (A) ; S → (C)

25) Three elephants A, B and C are moving along a straight line with constant speed in same
direction as shown in figure. Speed of A is 5 m/s and speed of C is 10 m/s. Initially seperation
between A & B is d and between B & C is also d. When B catches 'C' seperation between A & C

becomes 3d. Then speed of B will be :-

(1) 7.5 m/s

(2) 15 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

26) A ball is projected horizontally from the top of high tower at 12 m/s. Wind is blowing horizontally
as indicated in figure, which causes acceleration 6 m/s2 horizontally. Displacement of the ball, when

it strikes the tower, will be (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 20 m
(2) 60 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 40 m

27) The velocity time graph of a moving object is shown in figure. The corresponding acceleration-
time graph representing the motion of the object is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) An object 'A' is moving with 10 m/s and 'B' is moving with 5 m/s in the same direction along

positive x-axis. A is 100 m behind B as shown. Find time taken by A to meet B:

(1) 18 sec
(2) 16 sec
(3) 20 sec
(4) 17 sec

29) The velocity-time plot for a particle moving on a straight line is shown in the figure.
(1) Acceleration of particle for 0 to10s is positive and for 10 to 30s is negative.
(2) The particle never takes U turn.
(3) The particle has zero displacement in given time interval.
The average speed in the interval 0 to 10 s is the same as the average speed in interval 10s to
(4)
20 s.

30) A boat which have a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a river along the shortest possible
path in 15 minutes. Then width of river is (in km), if velocity of flow of river is 3 km/hr, is :-

(1) 1 km

(2)
km

(3)
km

(4)
km

31) An aeroplane is travelling horizontally at a height of 4000 m from the ground.

The aeroplane, when at a point P, drops a bomb to hit a stationary target Q on

the ground. In order that the bomb hits the target, what angle θ must the line PQ make with the
vertical ? [g = 10 m/s2]

(1) 37°
(2) 53°
(3) 45°
(4) 30°

32) A ball is projected vertically upward from ground with speed 100 m/s. Another ball is dropped
simultaneously from height 50 m. Then find out time when they cross each other.
(1) 0.5s
(2) 1s
(3) 2s
(4) 5s

33) Position time graph of a particle is as shown in figure then average velocity in first 20 s will be :-

(1) 0.5 m/s

(2) –0.5 m/s
(3) 1 m/s
(4) –1 m/s

34) Suppose a player hits several baseballs. Which baseball will be in the air for the longest time?

(1) The one with the farthest range.

(2) The one which reaches maximum height.
(3) The one with the greatest initial velocity.
(4) The one leaving the bat at 45° with respect to the ground.

35) Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity 10m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road the
rain drops appear to be coming with a velocity of 20m/s. The velocity of cyclist is :-

(1) 10m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 20 m/s
36) The acceleration will be positive in

(1) (I) and (III)

(2) (I) and (IV)
(3) (II) and (IV)
(4) None of these

37) A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. It crosses a point at the height of 25 m
twice at an interval of 4 secs. The ball was thrown with the velocity of (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 20m/sec.
(2) 25 m/sec.
(3) 30m/sec.
(4) 35 m/sec.

38) A rescue plane is flying horizontally at a constant speed of 40 m/s at an altitude of 80 meters
above the ground. The pilot drops a survival package to a stranded group below. At what horizontal
distance (Range) from the target should the pilot release the package so that it lands exactly on the
target? (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 120 meters

(2) 160 meters
(3) 200 meters
(4) 80 meters

39) Displacement-time curve of two objects A & B is shown in the figure. Find relative velocity of B
with respect to A.

(1) – 15 m/s
(2) – 10 m/s
(3) 15 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

40)
Figure shows a path A → B → C → D. AB is a straight line of length 2 R. BC is a semi-circle of radius
R. CD is a straight line of length 2R. Now a particle moves on the path A → B → C → D. Then, the
distance covered is :-

(1) 4R + πR
(2) 4R
(3) πR
(4) πR – 4R

41) A smooth square platform ABCD is moving with speed v. At what angle θ (shown in diagram) a

particle must be projected from A so that it strikes at point B.

(1)
sin–1
cos–1
(2)

(3)
sin–1
 cos–1
(4)

42) A ball is released from a sufficient height. The distance covered by the ball in 1st, 3rd and 6th
seconds are in ratio

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

43) A particle travels with speed v1 for 1st of total distance and with speed v2 for 2nd of

total distance and with speed v3 for 3rd of total distance and with speed v4 for 4th of

total distance. If the average speed is then will be equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Considering point of projection as origin, if equation of trajectory of a particle is given by 4y =

2x – 5x2. Find the initial velocity of projection in m/s (Take g = 10 m/s2). (See figure)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

45) A bullet is shot vertically downwards with an initial velocity of 100 m/s from a certain height.
Within 10 s, the bullet reaches the ground and instantaneously comes. The velocity-time curve for
total time t = 20 s will be : (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Find the total no. of d-block elements in the following Atomic numbers?
48, 28, 70, 100, 55, 45, 34, 36

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 2

2) Which of the following will have total number of d-electrons equal to the difference in the number
of total p and s electrons?

(1) He
(2) Ne
(3) Ar
(4) Kr

3) Which of the following is not correct for isoelectronic ions?

(1) They have the same number of electrons around their nuclei
Higher the atomic number, higher will be positive charge in a series of isoelectronic ions of
(2)
same period
(3) Isoelectronic ions have same electric charge
(4) An isoelectronic series may have both positively and negatively charged ions

4) Which of the following element is expected to have highest electron affinity?

(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5

(2) 1s2 2s2 2p3
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p4
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p5

5) Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?

(1) Na2O
(2) Al2O3
(3) SO3
(4) P2O5

6) The correct order of electronegativity of N, O, F and P is.

(1) F > N > P > O

(2) F > O > P > N
(3) F > O > N > P
(4) N > O > F > P

7) Which is mismatched regarding the position of the element as given below?

(1) X(Z = 89) - f block, 6th period

(2) Y(Z = 100) - f block, 7th period
(3) Z(Z = 115) - d block, 7th period
(4) Both (1) & (3)

8) The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to:

(1) Magnetic quantum number of any element of the period

(2) Atomic number of any element of the period
(3) Maximum principal quantum number of any element of the period
(4) Maximum azimuthal quantum number of any element of the period

9) Which one of the following order represents the correct sequence of the increasing basic
nature of the given oxides ?

(1) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O

(2) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O
(3) Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3
(4) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO

10)

Match the column I with column II and mark the correct option :

Column I Column II
(Atomic number) (Period, Group)

(A) 14 (i) 3, 14

(B) 53 (ii) 5, 2

(C) 38 (iii) 6, 10

(D) 78 (iv) 5, 17
(1) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (iii), (D) → (i)
(2) (A) → (i), (B) → (iv), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iii)
(3) (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (i), (D) → (iv)
(4) (A) → (ii), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv)

11) Electronic configurations of few elements are given below. Mark the incorrect match.

(1) 1s2 2s2 2p5 – Most electronegative element

(2) 1s2 2s2 2p3 – An element belonging to 3rd period and 15 group
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s2 – d-block element
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 – An element from 18th group

12) Comment on the radii shown as 'a' and 'b/2' in the figure of solid chlorine :

(1) a = Atomic radius, b/2 = Molecular radius

(2) a = Covalent radius, b/2 = van der Waals' radius
(3) a = Ionic radius, b/2 = Covalent radius
(4) a = Covalent radius, b/2 = Atomic radius

13) Why is the electron gain enthalpy of O or F is less than that of S or Cl?

(1) O and F are more electronegative than S and Cl.

When an electron is added to O or F, it goes to a smaller (n = 2) level and suffers more
(2)
repulsion than the electron in S or Cl in larger level (n = 3).
(3) Adding an electron to 3p-orbital leads to more repulsion than 2p-orbital.
(4) All of these
14) An element P has atomic number 56. What will be the formula of its halide?

(1) PX
(2) PX2
(3) PX3
(4) P2X3

15) (A), (B) and (C) are elements of the third (short period). Oxide of (A) is ionic, that of (B)
is amphoteric and of (C) a acidic. (A), (B) and (C) have atomic number in the order:

(1) (A) < (B) < (C)

(2) (C) < (B) < (A)
(3) (A) < (C) < (B)
(4) (B) < (A) < (C)

16)

Consider the ionization enthalpies of two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’.

Element Ionization enthalpy (kJ/mol)

1st 2nd 3rd

X 899 1757 14847

Y 737 1450 7731

Which of the following statements is correct :
(1) Both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ belong to group-1 where ‘Y’ comes below ‘X’.
(2) Both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ belong to group-1 where ‘X’ comes below ‘Y’
(3) Both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ belong to group-2 where ‘Y’ comes below ‘X’
(4) Both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ belong to group-2 where ‘X’ comes below ‘Y’

17) The first four I.E. values of an element are 284, 412, 656 and 3210 kJ mol–1. The number of
valence electrons in the element are :

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

18) Given below are two statements , one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason
Assertion (A) : Radii of Na will be larger than Be
Reason (R) : Na and Be shows digonal relationship.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

19) Statement-I : Metals comprise more than 78% of all known elements
Statement-II : Elements becomes more non metallic as we go down in the group of the periodic
table
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

20) Identify the incorrect statement :

(1) K has higher I.E. than Cs

(2) P has larger atomic radius than N
(3) S has less negative ΔegH value than O
(4) F is most electronegative element

21) Which of the following is not an actinoid :

(1) Curium (Z = 96)

(2) Californium (Z = 98)
(3) Uranium (Z = 92)
(4) Terbium (Z = 65)

22) Identify the incorrect statement :

(1) The elements after U are called transuranium elements

(2) Atomic number 117 belongs to group 17
(3) Actinoid elements are non radioactive
(4) d-block elements are metal

23) If the kinetic energy of an electron is increased 4 times, the wavelength of the de Broglie wave
associated with it would become :

(1) 4 times
(2) 2 times

(3)
times

(4)
times

24) In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of 600 m sec–1 with an accuracy of 0.005%.
Certainty with which the position of the electron can be located is :
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 kg m2 s–1, mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg)

(1) 1.52 × 10–4 m

(2) 5.1 × 10–3 m
(3) 1.92 × 10–3 m
(4) 3.84 × 10–3 m

25) The graph representing two nodes is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Which of the following orbitals does not have any nodal plane ?

(1) 1s
(2) 2p
(3) 3p
(4) 3d

27) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(Orbital) (Nodal property)

(A) 4f 2 radial node

 (B) 4s 2 nodal plane

(C) 3d 2 nodal plane

(D) 3p 3 radial node

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

28) The orbital angular momentum of an electron in a d-orbital is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Which of the following sets of quantum number is correct for an electron in 4f-orbital ?

(1)
n = 4, ℓ = 3, m = +4, s = +

(2)
n = 4, ℓ = 4, m = –4, s = –

(3)
n = 4, ℓ = 3, m = +1, s = +

(4)
n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = –2, s = +

30) Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct set from the following sets given below :

List-I List-II
The number of sub-energy levels in an energy
(A) (1) n2
level
(B) The number of orbitals in a sub-energy level (2)
(C) The number of orbitals in an energy level (3) 2ℓ + 1
(D) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 0 (4) n
(1) A - 4 ; B - 3 ; C - 1 ; D - 2
(2) A - 3 ; B - 1 ; C - 2 ; D - 4
(3) A - 1 ; B - 2 ; C - 3 ; D - 4
(4) A - 3 ; B - 4 ; C - 1 ; D - 2

31) What is the maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the quantum number n = 4,
m = +1 ?
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 6

32) Orbital having 3 angular nodes and 3 total nodes is :

(1) 5 p
(2) 3 d
(3) 4 f
(4) 6 d

33) Ratio of time period of electron in first and third orbit of H–atom would be :-

(1) 1 : 18
(2) 1 : 27
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 27 : 1

34) The wave number of first emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series
appears at:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) What is the maximum wavelength in the Lyman series of He+ ion ?

(1) 3R

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Calculate ionisation energy of He+ ion :-

(1) 2.25 eV
(2) 5.2 eV
(3) 1.7 eV
(4) 54.4 eV
37) The energy of electron is maximum at :-

(1) Nucleus
(2) Ground state
(3) First excited state
(4) Infinite distance from the nucleus

38) When electron in a Bohr atom is excited then which of the following increases ?

(1) Potential energy

(2) Time period of revolution
(3) Angular momentum
(4) All of the above

39) The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state is –13.6 eV. The energy of the level
corresponding to n = 5 is :-

(1) –0.54 eV
(2) –5.40 eV
(3) –0.85 eV
(4) –2.72 eV

40) When electron of a hydrogen atom jumps from n = 4 to n = 2 state, number of possible spectral
lines emitted is :-

(1) 15
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Smallest wavelength occurs for which series if electron falls from infinity -

(1) Lyman series

(2) Balmer series
(3) Paschen series
(4) Brackett series

42) The ionisation potential of an atom is 16 eV. What is the value of first excitation potential :-

(1) 10.2 eV
(2) 12 eV
(3) 14 eV
(4) 16 eV

43) X+2 has 10 protons then find number of protons in X–2 :

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 16

44) In 92U235 nucleus, the number of electrons is :-

(1) 92
(2) 235
(3) 143
(4) Zero

45) Ratio of mass of neutron and proton is :-

(1) Less than one

(2) More than one
(3) Exactly equal to one
(4) Can't be predicted

BIOLOGY

1) Ulothrix, Spirogyra and Chara are member of which of the following group:-

(1) Pheophyceae
(2) Chlorophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

2) Which of the following is motile and flagellate ?

(1) Zoospore
(2) Akinete
(3) Aplanospore
(4) Hypnospore

3) Which of the following is not the basis of classification in algae ?

(1) Pigment
(2) Cell wall composition
(3) Stored food
(4) Place of occurence

4) All given algal members possess unicelled sex organ except :-

(1) Chara
(2) Ulothrix
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Chlamydomonas

5) The four diagrams are (A,B,C and D) given below represent four different types of organism.
Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given along with its correct stored food and

correct class?

Stored
Organism Class
food

(1) D Chlamydomonas Starch Chlorophyceae

(2) C Fucus Algin Chlorophyceae

Floridean
(3) B Porphyra Rhodophyceae
starch

(4) A Chara Starch Phaeophyceae

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) "Gemmae" are multicellular green structures for vegetative propagation. These are found in
gemma cups in ?

(1) Riccia thallus

(2) Marchantia thallus
(3) Funaria protonema
(4) Fern prothallus

7) Archegoniophore is present in :-

(1) Marchantia
(2) Chara
(3) Adiantum
(4) Funaria

8) Examine the figure given below and select the right option in which all the four labelled parts (A,
B, C, D) are correctly identified :-

A B C D

Female Gemma
(1) Archegoniophore Rhizoids
Thallus cup

Male Gemma
(2) Antheridiophore Rhizoids
Thallus cup

Female Gemma
(3) Antheridiophore Rhizoids
Thallus cup

Male Gemma
(4) Archegoniophore Rhizoids
Thallus cup
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Spores do not form protonema but directly grow into flat branching thallus in :-

(1) Liverworts
(2) Mosses
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None

10) Protonema is generally produced in the life cycle of :

(1) Liver wort

(2) Horn wort
(3) Mosses
(4) Both (1) and (2)

11) In moss sporophyte, which of the following is absent ?

(1) Foot
(2) Seta
(3) Capsule
(4) Gemma cup

12) When Funaria spores germinate, they form :-

(1) Leafy gametophyte directly
(2) Capsule directly
(3) Protonema, which bears archegonia and antheridia
(4) First protonema, then forms a bud and then a leafy gametophyte

13) In given figure A B, C and D represent :

A-Sporangium, B-Capsule,
(1)
C-Sporophyte, D-Gametophyte
A-Capsule, B-Seta,
(2)
C-Sporophyte, D-Gametophyte
A-Sporangium, B-Seta,
(3)
C-Gametophyte, D-Sporophyte
A-Sporangium, B-Capsule,
(4)
C-Gametophyte, D-Sporophyte

14) Which one of the following is homosporous ?

(1) Azolla
(2) Equisetum
(3) Cedrus
(4) Salvinia

15) Prothallus is present in :-

(1) Polytrichum
(2) Funaria
(3) Marchantia
(4) Pteris

16) Fertilization takes place by spiral and multiflagellated antherozoids in :-

(1) Ferns
(2) Mosses
(3) Liverwort
(4) Gnetales

17) Which of the following is responsible for peat formation ?

(1) Marchantia
(2) Riccia
(3) Funaria
(4) Sphagnum

18) In fern, prothallus develops :-

(1) By fertilisation
(2) From zygote
(3) By secondary protonema
(4) From spore

19) Which statement is wrong for Cycas ?

(1) Xylem have vessels

(2) Male cones are well developed
(3) It has coralloid roots
(4) Ovule are not enclosed by ovary wall

20) Cycas have two cotyledons but not included in angiosperms because of :-

(1) Naked ovules

(2) Seems like monocot
(3) Circinate vernation
(4) Compound leaves

21) Read the following statements & select the correct option :
(A) Gymnosperms do not show xerophytic characters.
(B) In Cycas coralloid roots are associated with mycorrhiza
(C) In conifers needle like leaves reduce the surface area.
(D) All gymnosperms are heterosporous
How many above statements are correct & incorrect?

(1) 2 - correct, 2 - incorrect

(2) 3 - correct, 1 - incorrect
(3) 1 - correct, 3 - incorrect
(4) 0 - correct, 4 - incorrect

22) Assertion : In gymnosperms seeds are naked.

Reason : In gymnosperms seeds are not protected with fruit covering.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
23) Choose the incorrect statement from the following :

(1) Almost all Gymnosperms are Xerophytes

(2) All Gymnosperms show Heterosporous nature
(3) All Gymnosperms show seed habit
(4) All Gymnosperms are Monoecious

24) The functional megaspore of gymnosperm germinate :-

(1) Inside the megaspore mother cell

(2) Inside the megasporangium
(3) Inside the soil
(4) Into endosperm after fertilization

25) Read the following statements :-

(A) Selaginella and Salvinia are the heterospores pteridophytes because they produce two different
kinds of spores.
(B) The gametophytes of homosporus pteridophytes bear male and female sex organs called
antheridia and archegonia respectively.
(C) The female gametophytes in some pteridophytes are retained on the parent sporophytes, this
event is a precursor to seed habit.
(D) Pteridophytes are first terrestrial plants and they posses seeds.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are not correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

26) "Horse tails" are ?

(1) Bryophyte
(2) Pteridophyte
(3) Fungi
(4) Mosses

27) In pteridophyte, gametophyte (prothallus) prefers to grow in moist shady places because :

(1) It is non green and non photosynthetic

(2) It represents the ancestory of bryophytes
(3) It need water for fertilization
(4) In pteridophytes roots are short

28) Which group of plants is exclusively arborescent (woody) ?

(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Dicotyledons
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Monocotyledons

29) First seeded plants are :-

(1) Angiosperms
(2) Heterosporous pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Homosporous pteridophytes

30) Which is the correct statement for gymnosperms:-

(1) Their sporophytic generation is smaller than gametophytic and is generally parasite
(2) Meiosis take place in reproductive organs and results in the formation of gametes
(3) Their roots function for both conduction and support
Their gametophytic generation is dominant which produces spores and each spore give rise to a
(4)
new gametophytic plant

31) Non-motile male gametes are formed in :-

(1) Funaria
(2) Selaginella
(3) Fern
(4) Pinus

32) Smallest angiosperm is

(1) Wolffia
(2) Eucalyptus
(3) Sequoia
(4) Grasses

33) Double fertilization and triple fusion is charactersitic feature of :-

(1) Gymnosperms
(2) Spermatophytes
(3) Angiosperms
(4) Pteridophytes

34) In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires :

(1) Insects
(2) Birds
(3) Water
(4) Wind
35) The unique character of angiosperms and gymnosperm is :-

(1) Formation of ovary and fruit

(2) Formation of vascular tissue
(3) Formation of ovule and seed
(4) Formation of sex organs

36) Which of the following match is incorrect?

(1) Microscopic angiosperm — Wolffia

(2) Tallest gymnosperm — Sequoia
(3) Stems are unbranched — Pinus
(4) Coralloid root — Cycas

37) Which of the following character most differentiates angiosperms from gymnosperms :-

(1) Presence of ovule

(2) Tracheids in xylem
(3) Seeds enclosed in fruits
(4) Presence of pollen tube

38) The predominant stage in the life cycle of Moss is gametophyte, which consists of two stages
they are respectively:-

(1) Protonema, Prothallus

(2) Spore mother cell, protonema
(3) Protonema, leafy stage
(4) Protonema, zygote

39) Meiosis occurs in mosses when :-

(1) Gametes are formed

(2) Spores are formed
(3) Prothallus is formed
(4) Sex organ are formed

40) Answer the following questions (a, b, c and d) by using the given diagram :-

(a) Name of plant ?

(b) Ploidy of plant ?
(c) Plant is homosporus or heteroporus ?
(d) Which type of event is shown by this plant ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Precursor
(1) Selaginella Diploid Heterosporus of Seed
habit

Precursor
(2) Selaginella Diploid Homosporus of Seed
habit

Fruit
(3) Pinus Haploid Homosporus
habit

Origin of
(4) Riccia Haploid Homosporus
seed
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Homoiothermous, direct development, viviparous with few exceptions, different types of teeth
this is true for :-

(1) Camelus
(2) Neophron
(3) Hemidactylus
(4) Aptenodytes

42) Identify the flightless birds from the following :-

(i) Neophron (ii) Aptenodytes
(iii) Psittacula (iv) Struthio

(1) i, ii and iv
(2) iii and iv
(3) ii and iv
(4) i, ii and iii

43) Read the following statements from A to D :

(A) Their Level of organisation is cellular level.
(B) Canal system is present in these animals.
(C) Male and Female are separate.
(D) Fertilisation external and development direct.
How many statements are correct for sponges :-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

44) Which of the following is a non poisonous snake ?

(1) Naja
(2) Eryx
(3) Vipera
(4) Bangarus

45) __________ were first successful terrestrial vertebrates.

(1) Aves
(2) Reptilia
(3) Pisces
(4) Mammals

46) Read the following statements carefully and choose the option which have all the correct ones :-
(A) The digestive system in platyhelminthes has only a single opening.
(B) Tissue level of organisation is exhibited by members of platyhelminthes.
(C) In platyhelminthes body cavity is absent.
(D) True coelom is present in hemichordates.

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) A, C and D
(4) B, C and D

47) Which of the following is incorrect matching with respect to phylum, its symmetry, body plan
and examples mentioned ?

Body
Phylum Symmetry Examples
plan

Blind Euspongia,
(a) Porifera Asymmetrical
sac Spongilla

Blind Fasciola,
(b) Platyhelminthes Bilateral
sac Planaria

Blind Hydra,
(c) Cnidaria Radial
sac Physalia

Tube
Ancylostoma,
(d) Annelida Bilateral within
Nereis
tube
(1) Only a and d
(2) Only a
(3) Only d
(4) Only a and c
48) Bioluminiscence, jelly like body and external fertilisation present in :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

49) Consider the following four statements (A-D) and select the option which includes all the
incorrect ones only :-
A. In Ctenophores, digestion is intracellular.
B. In sponges, the body is supported by a skeleton made up of spicule or spongin fibers.
C. Cnidarians exhibit organ system level of organisation.
D. Polyps produce medusae sexually.

(1) Statements B and D

(2) Statements A, C and D
(3) Statements B and C
(4) Statements A, B and D

50) Identify the phylum ‘X’

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Chordata
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Echinodermata

51) Which of the following option is correct ?

(1) Fertilization is internal and development is indirect — Euspongia, Ctenoplana

(2) Flame cells help in osmoregulation and alimentary canal present —Planaria, Taenia
(3) Body is segmented and performs locomotion with the help of parapodia — Nereis, Hirudinaria
(4) Body is covered by mantle layer and gills are present — Pinctada, Pila

52) Which one of the following phylum is correctly matched with its two general characteristics :-

(1) "Platyhelminthes" - Body is dorsoventrally flattened and excretion by nephridia.

"Arthropoda" - Body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen and open type of circulatory
(2)
system.
(3) "Mollusca" - Asymmetrical animals with true coelom and respiration by gills.
(4) "Chordata" - Ventral nerve cord and closed circulatory system with ventral heart.

53) In the figure given below, Identify the parts labelled as A,B,C and D and select correct option

about them

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Post Anal Pharyngeal

(1) Notochord Nerve cord
Tail gill slits

Pharyngeal Post Anal

(2) Nerve cord Notochord
gill slits tail

Pharyngeal Nerve Post Anal

(3) Notochord
gill slits Cord tail

Post Anal Pharyngeal

(4) Notochord Nerve cord
Tail gill slits
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54) Statement-A : In hemichordates, body is cylindrical and composed by posterior proboscis, a

collar and a short trunk.
Statement-B : In hemichordata, fertilization is internal and development is indirect.
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

55) Which of the following statements is/are true ?

(A) In Urochordates, notochord is present only in larval tail.
(B) In cephalochordata, notochord extends from head to tail region.
(C) Amphioxus belongs to hemichordata.
(D) Petromyzon are considered as the first complete chordate animals.

(1) A and C only

(2) B, C and D only
(3) A and B only
(4) A, B and C only

56) Identify the given animal and find out its correct feature ?

(1) Branchiostoma — Notochord is persistent throughout life.

(2) Ascidia — Notochord is persistent throughout life.
(3) Amphioxus — Notochord is present only in larval tail.
(4) Ascidia — Notochord is present only in larval tail.

57) Statement-1 : All living members of class cyclostomata are ectoparasites.

Statement-2 : Cyclostomes are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

58) Match the following columns:

Column-I Column-II

A. Hippocampus I. Fighting fish

B. Betta II. Catla

C. Clarias III. Sea horse

 D. Labeo IV. Angel fish

V. Rohu

VI. Magur
(1) A–III, B–I, C–VI, D–V
(2) A–V, B–II, C–IV, D–I
(3) A–III, B–II, C–V, D–IV
(4) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–V

59) Observe the given table and choose the correct option :-

Class Character Example

Creeping or crawling
(1) Reptilia Salamandra
mode of locomotion

(2) Aves Presence of diaphragm Corvus

Skin is unique in
(3) Mammalia Pteropus
possessing hair

(4) Amphibia Moist skin Canis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :-

List-II
List-I
(The group to which
(Name of the Animal)
they belong)
A. Sting ray (i) Amphibia
B. Alligator (ii) Chondrichthyes
C. Ichthyophis (iii) Reptilia
D. Doliolum (iv) Tunicata
(v) Osteichthyes

(1) A–v, B–ii, C–i, D–iv

(2) A–ii, B–iii, C–i, D–iv
(3) A–i, B–ii, C–v, D–iii
(4) A–v, B–iii, C–iv, D–i

61) Which of the following is correct match ?

(1) Human and Crow — Homeothermic

(2) Frog and Snake — Internal Fertilisation
(3) Earthworm and cockroach — Sexual dimorphism
(4) Nereis and Hydra — Segmented body

62) Which one of the following group of three animals, each is correctly matched with their one
characteristic feature.

Animal Feature
Dorsal, hollow
(1) Scorpion, Spider, Cockroach
CNS
Pleurobrachia, Locust, Metameric
(2)
Taenia segmentation
Bilateral
(3) Liver fluke, Aplysia, Bombyx
symmetry
Centipede, Prawn, Sea Jointed
(4)
urchin appendages
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Which group of animals belong to the same phylum ?

(1) Sea anemone, Starfish, Sea cucumber

(2) Mosquito, Honey bee, Prawn
(3) Earthworm, Pinworm, Flatworm
(4) Prawn, Scorpion, Pila

64) There are some features of animals are given :- Organ system level, Coelomate, Open circulation,
Triploblastic, Unsegmented, Intracellular digestion.
How many characters are present in the members of phylum arthropoda -

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2

65) Assertion : Pseudocoelom is found in aschelminthes and hence called pseudocoelomates.

Reason : Mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

66) Identify A, B in the given figure :-

 A B

(1) Sexual reproduction Asexual reproduction

(2) Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction

(3) Asexual reproduction Asexual reproduction

(4) Sexual reproduction Sexual reproduction

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Animals having dorso-ventrally flattened body are :-

(1) Coelenterates
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Ctenophores
(4) Arthropods

68) Mark the amphibian :

(1) Bufo
(2) Aptenodytes
(3) Naja
(4) Seahorse

69) Ichthyophis belongs to :-

(1) Reptilia
(2) Mollusca
(3) Annelida
(4) Amphibia

70) Which of the following is an example of true fish?

(1) Jelly fish

(2) Hag fish
(3) Torpedo
(4) Silver fish

71) The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of :-

(1) Water vascular system

(2) Jointed appendages
(3) Water canal system
(4) External fertilization
72) Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option about them :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Ophiura (i) Sea Lily

(B) Echinus (ii) Sea cucumber

(C) Antedon (iii) Brittle star

(D) Cucumaria (iv) Sea urchin

(1) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
(2) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
(3) A–iii, B–i, C–ii, D–iv
(4) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i

73) Roundworms differ from flatworms in presence of :

(1) Three germinal layers

(2) Pseudocoelom
(3) Radial symmetry
(4) Blind sac body plan

74) Gregarious pest is :-

(1) Anopheles
(2) Locusta
(3) Aedes
(4) Culex

75) Read the following statements and mark the correct answer.
Assertion : Coelentrates, Ctenophores and Echinoderms possess radial symmetry
Reason : When any plane passing through their central axis of the body, it divides these organisms
into two identical halves.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

76) Fill in the blanks at their respective place in given statement

In some animals, the body is externally and internally divided into segments with a serial repetition
of at least some organs. For example, in ____a_____, the body shows this pattern called metameric
segmentation and the phenomenon is known as metamerism.

(1) Balanoglossus
(2) Earthworm
(3) Ascaris
(4) Taenia

77) The digestive system which has two separate openings that serves as mouth and anus is found in
:

(1) Organisms having incomplete digestive system

(2) Organism having organ level organisation
(3) Organisms having cellular level organisation
(4) Organisms having complete digestive system

78) Animal with incomplete digestive tract is :-

(A) Pila
(B) Fasciola
(C) Ascaris
(D) Cockroach

(1) A and B both

(2) A, B and D
(3) Only A and D
(4) Only B

79) The figure shown four animals (a), (b), (c), (d). Select the correct answer with respect to a
common characteristics of two of these animals:-

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (a) and (b) have true coelom

(2) (c) and (d) have true coelom
(3) (b) and (c) show radial symmetry
(4) (a) and (c) show radial symmetry

80) Identify the symmetry shown below as well as the related explanation and select the right option

for the two together :-

Symmetry Explanation
 Any plane that passes
(1) Asymmetrical through the centre does not
divide them equal halves

The body can be divided into

(2) Radial identical left and right halves
in only one plane

Any plane pass through the

central axis of the
(3) Bilateral body divides the organism
into
two identical halves

The body can be divided into

(4) Bilateral identical left and right halves
in only one plane
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Identify the given diagram and choose the correct option :-

(1) Cyclostomata – Petromyzon – Jaws present

(2) Chondrichthyes – Catla – 6-15 pair of gill slits
(3) Cephalochordata – Amphioxus – suctorial mouth without jaws
(4) Cyclostomata – Petromyzon – cranium and vertebral column are cartilaginous

82) Match the columns I and II and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II
a. Limbless reptile i. Lamprey
b. Jawless vertebrate ii. Tree frog
c. Amphibian iii. Python
d. Cartilaginous fish iv. Electric ray
e. Flightless bird v. Penguin
(1) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv, e–v
(2) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii, e–v
(3) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv, e–v
(4) a–iv, b–ii, c–iii, d–i, e–v

83) Which one is not correctly matched ?

Common name Scientific name Phylum

(1) Sea lily Scoliodon Hemichordata

 (2) Sea fan Gorgonia Coelenterata

(3) Sea walnut Pleurobrachia Ctenophora

(4) Sea cucumber Cucumaria Echinodermata

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Match list - I with list - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :-

List - I List - II

A Flame cells i Sponges

B Cnidoblasts ii Annelida

C Spicules iii Chordate

D Nephridia iv Coelenterate

E Notochord v Platyhelminthes
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii, E - v
(2) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - v, E - iii
(3) A - v, B - iv, C - i, D - ii, E - iii
(4) A - v, B - i, C - iv, D - iii, E - ii

85) Fill in the blanks :-

In ___a___, the cells are arranged as loose cell aggregates, i.e., they exhibit ___b___ of organisation.
Some division of labour (activities) occur among the cells.

(1) a = sponges, b = cellular level

(2) a = coelenterates, b = tissue level
(3) a = platyhelminthes, b = organ level
(4) a = coelenterates, b = cellular level

86) Mark the incorrectly matched pair

(1) Petromyzon → Body devoid of scales and paired fins

(2) Scoliodon → Operculum present but air bladder is absent
(3) Exocoetus → Heart two chamered
(4) Rana → Cold blooded, Fertilisation is external

87) Which of the following is incorrect :

Chordates Non-Chordates

(1) Notochord present Notochord absent

(2) Heart is dorsal Heart is ventral (if present)

 (3) Pharynx perforated by gill slits Gill slits are absent

(4) Post-anal tail is present Post-anal tail is absent

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) (1) Scoliodon

(B) (2) Pristis

(C) (3) Catla

(D) (4) Petromyzon

Option:
(1) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(2) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(3) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(4) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

89) Notochord is retained throughout life in :-

(1) Branchiostoma
(2) Salpa
(3) Saccoglossus
(4) Frog
90) How many statements is/are correct for below animal :- 1. Triploblastic
animal
2. Digestive tract absent
3. Both mouth and anus present
4. Unisexual animal
5. Pseudocoelomate animal
6. Metamerically segmented body
7. Suckers and hooks are present
8. It belongs to phylum Aschelminthes

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 3 1 3 4 4 2 2 2 4 4 1 1 3 3 1 1 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 2 1 2 3 4 3 4 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 4 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 3 1 2 3 4 3 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 3 3 2 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 3 3 3 1 3 1 3 1 4 3 2 1 2 4 4 4 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 1 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 4 1 1 2 1 2 1 3 4 4 2 2 4 1 4 4 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 3 4 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 2 2 2 3 1 2 2 3 4 2 1 2 3 4 4 A–III, B–I, C–VI, D–V 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 4 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 4 4 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 1 3 1 2 2 1 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explaining : We have to find position of ball from ground.

Concept : This question is based on motion under gravity.
Solution :

At any time t after it is released velocity V = gt

Acceleration of the ball remains constant = g
∴ Both will be equal at t = 1 sec
∴ Position of ball from ground will be (18 – 5) m = 13 m
Final Answer : (3)

2) Explaining : Select correct statement.

Concept : This question is based on acceleration.
Solution :
(A) If is parallel (angle = 0°) or anti-parallel (angle = 180°) to v, the acceleration is purely
tangential. It changes only the speed, not the direction.
Path: Straight Line. Status: CORRECT.

(B) When a particle has an initial velocity and is subjected to a constant acceleration (like
gravity) at an angle other than 0° or 180°, the horizontal velocity remains constant while the
vertical velocity changes uniformly.
Path: Parabola. Status: CORRECT.

(C) When is always perpendicular to , it acts as a centripetal acceleration. This changes

only the direction of the particle while keeping the speed constant. If the magnitude |a| is
constant, the radius of curvature remains constant throughout the motion.
Path: Circle. Status: CORRECT.

(D) If a particle starts from rest (initial velocity = 0), it has no initial [Link] soon as a
constant acceleration is applied, the particle begins to move exactly in the direction of that
acceleration. Since the velocity and acceleration remain in the same direction from the start,
the particle continues to move in a straight line.
Path: Straight Line. Status: INCORRECT.
FINAL ANSWER KEY: (A), (B), and (C)
Final Answer : (3)

3)

Explaining : Given : v = (2t + 3) m/s

Ask : Average velocity for interval 0 ≤ t ≤ 1s
Concept : This question is based on calculus method.

Time average velocity is

Solution :
Final Answer : (3)

4)

Explaining : To check if Assertion and Reason are correct and it Reason explain Assertion or
not.
Concept : This question is based on key points : For stopping distance

Solution : v2 = u2 – 2as
if v = 0

s=
s ∝ u2 (a1 = a2)
Final Answer : (1)

5)

Explaining : Position time relation is given and we need to draw its velocity time graph.
Concept : This question is based on Rate of change in position is velocity

Solution : x = a – bt + ct2

v-t graph
y = – b + 2 cx, straight line
y = C + mx
Slope m = 2c, +ve
Intercept, C = –b, –ve
Final Answer : (3)

6) Explaining : To find minimum velocity of horizontal projectile to jump from one building to
another of different heights separated by some distance
Concept : This question is based on The vertical and horizontal separation of building must
be covered in same time simultaneously
Solution :
Time to cover vertical separation of 20m

t= = 2 sec
Time to cover range of 4m is same so,
x = vxt ⇒ vx = = 2m/s
Final Answer : (4)

7)

Explaining : To find distance travelled in 10 sec.. Initial velocity and retardation is given.

Concept : This question is based on

Solution : u = 10 m/s
a = –2 m/s2

s = 10 (10) - (2) (10)2

s = 100 - 100
s=0
= displacement = 0
so.

For t = 0 to t = 5

= 10(5) – (2)(5)2 = 50 - 25 = 25m

and for t = 5 to t = 10
s2 = 25 m
so s1 + s2 = 50 m distance
Final Answer : (4)

8)

Explaining : If R is correct it explain A or not.

Concept : This question is based on Instantaneous velocity & acceleration.
Solution : Acceleration is change in velocity per unit time. One cannot tell acceleration just by
knowing velocity at a one instant of time only. That is why if velocity of the particle is zero at
some instant then its acceleration can be zero or non-zero at that instant. Statement of reason
is one example of the asserted statement it is not the correct explanation.
Final Answer : (2)

9) Explaining : Given equation of trajectory find range and angle of projection.

Concept : This question is based on to find range eq. of trajectory can be used as

Solution :
given equation in following form :

on comparing
R= , tanθ =
so, θ = 60°
Final Answer : (2)

10) Explaining : For a horizontal projectile find angle of landing.

Concept : This question is based on horizontal projection from height.
Solution :

in x , vx = u = 600
in y , vy = gt = 10 × 10 = 100

Final Answer : (2)

11) Explaining : given v - t graph with slope m. To find distance travelled in given time.
Concept : This question is based on Area of v - t graph gives displacement
Solution :

The distance,

Also, .

Now, .
Final Answer : (4)

12) Explaining : Relative velocity of person moving in same direction is asked

Concept : This question is based on
Solution :

indicates that according to A, person B is moving with 20 m/s in (- ) direction i.e. opposite
to their motion.
Final Answer : (4)

13)

Explaining : To find the maximum velocity of particle.

Concept : This question is based on Key points :
(i) If the acceleration remains in the direction of motion of particle through out, though
magnitude of acceleration decreases but velocity will keep on increasing.
(ii) Change in velocity = area under the a - t graph.
Solution : v – u = Area under a – t graph

⇒ v – 2 = × 4 × 2 ⇒ v = 6 m/s
Final Answer : (1)

14) Explaining : Two particle projected at different angles at different speed. We need to find
time when their horizontal separation becomes zero.
Concept : This question is based on Concept of relative velocity will be used to cover up
their separation in x direction.
For body moving forward each other, vrel = v1 + v2
Solution :
Let the bodies cover horizontal separation in time t

Final Answer : (1)

15) Explaining : for a stone released from an upward moving elevator acceleration & speed of
stone wrt elevator is asked
Concept : This question is based on relative velocity and acceleration
Solution :

After the release of stone from the elevator going up with an acceleration a, stone will move
freely under gravity (g), hence the acceleration of the stone will be g downwards with initial
speed u.
(acceleration of stone with respect to elevator)
= –g –a
OR g + a in downward direction
since, at the time of release elevator and stone both have same velocity, so relative velocity
will be zero.
Final Answer : (3)

16) Explaining : Find total displacement in the motion.

Concept : This question is based on average velocity.
Solution :

= 1 m/s2

= 42 m
Final Answer : (3)

17) Explaining : Given height to ground projectile, To find time of flight

Concept : This question is based on Application of Equation of motion in vertical direction
to find time.
Solution :

T = 4s
Final Answer : (1)

18) Explaining : discuss about retarding body which loses some velocity in penetrating
wooden block it ask about additional distance to be covered for body to come at rest
Concept : This question is based on Equation of motion / stopping distance
Solution :

By stopping distance for B to C

A to C

4x = 3 + x
x = 1cm
Alternative method
For the first condition
Initial velocity = u, Final velocity = u/2.
s = 3 cm
v2 = u2 – 2as

2as =
Second condition initial velocity = u/2
Final velocity = 0

0=
Final Answer : (1)

19) Explaining : To find time for body projected upward to reach bottom of tower
Concept : This question is based on motion under gravity , Eqn of motion
Solution :

s = ut +

–160 = 48 t + (–32)t2
–160 = 48t – 16t2
16t2 – 48t– 160 = 0
t2 – 3t – 10 = 0
By solving
(t – 5) (t + 2) = 0
t = 5 or t = 2
t = 5 sec
Final Answer : (4)

20) Explaining : given path traced by particle, to find displacement

Concept : This question is based on displacement is shortest path from initial to final point
Solution :

∴ Displacement = 50 km, 37º South of East

Final Answer : (1)

21) Question Explanation : To find the least time in which body can complete its journey of 5
km (vmax = 72 km/hour–1)
Concept : This question is based on equation of motion with constant acceleration.
Solution :

vmax =
For accelerated motion
v = u + at
20 = 0 + 0.1 t (a = 0.1 m/s2)
t = 200 sec
time taken in accelerated motion is 200 sec

For retarding motion

during retardation, v = 0, u = 20, a = –0.2 m s–2
v = u + at
0 = 20 – 0.2(t)

time taken in deaccelerated motion 100 sec

Total distance in acceleration and deacceleration

(for accelerated motion)

v2 = u2 + 2 aS2 (for deaccelerated motion)

S2 = 1000m
∴ S1 + S2 = 2000 + 1000 = 3000m = 3km

Since total distance covered is 5 km,

5000 – 3000 = 2000 m
Time at constant speed

= 100 sec
Total time = 200 + 100 + 100 = 400 sec.
Final answer : option (1)

22) Explaining : To find velocity of projection of projectile whose range & maximum height is
given.
Concept : This question is based on standard result for ground to ground projectile
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

23)

Explanation Question:
Given acceleration-time graph, find times when particle velocity is zero, starting from rest.
Concept:
This question is based on Velocity = area under acceleration-time curve; zero velocity when
net area = 0
Solution:
Particle is initially at rest. Velocity at any time t is integral of acceleration:
From the a-t graph, particle returns to rest when total area under curve sums to zero.
Observing the graph, this occurs a t = 0, 2, 4 seconds.
Final Answer: (2)

24)

Explaining :
Given : velocity vector
Ask : Matching the parameters with their corresponding values.
Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

time when vy = 0
20 – 4t = 0
t=5
T = 2 × t = 10 sec ⇒ time of flight Tf = 10 sec

tan 53° =

t = 3 sec
R = ux × T
= 6 × 10 = 60 m

Final Answer : (1)

25) Explaining : find speed of B

Concept : This question is based on reletive motion
Solution :

Let after time t, B catches C.

So, SB = SC + d
⇒ VB × t = 10t + d
t=
at this instant seperation between A and C is 3d
⇒ (3d – 2d) = SC – SD
d = 10 × t – 5t

⇒ d = 5t = ⇒ (VB – 10) = 5
⇒ VB = 15 m/s
Final Answer : (2)

26) Question Explanation : To find the displacement of the ball, when it strikes the tower.
Concept : Projection from height (horizontal projection)
Solution :

When Ball strikes the tower then Sx = 0

anet in x direction, ax = – 6
By the equation

S = ut + at2

Sx = uxt + axt2

0 = 12(t) + (–6)t2
–12t = –3t2

t= = 4 sec.
Displacement in y - direction

Sy = uyt + ayt2 {a = +g}

Sy = (0) (4) + (10) (4)2

Sy = 5 × 16 = 80
Final Answer : Option (3)

27) Explaining : The velocity time graph of a moving object is shown in figure.
The corresponding acceleration-time graph representing the motion of the object is
Concept : This question is based on v - t graph
Solution :

Slope : negative ⇒ zero ⇒ Positive

Slope : First decrease then increases
Final Answer : (4)
28) Explaining : find time taken by A to meet B
Concept : This question is based on relative motion in 1D
Solution :

vA/b = vA– vB = 10 – 5 = 5 m/s

w.r.t B :

100 = 5 t
t = 20 sec
Final Answer : (3)

29) Explaining : given vt graph, various parameter to be commented upon.

Concept : This question is based on slope of vt graph gives acceleration area gives
displacement
Solution :
slope is -ve at all time,
acceleration is negative
particle turned around at 10 sec as sign of velocity changed
Areas of upper and lower triangle are not equal
displacement is non zero
distance travelled in t = 0 to t = 10 sec

=
distance travelled t = 10 to t = 20 sec

=
Avg. speed is same in t = 0 to t = 10.
& t = 10 to t = 20 sec
Final Answer : (4)

30) Question Explanation:

About is crossing the river from shortest possible path velocity of boat with respect to river
and velocity of river flow is given if we know the time of crossing the river then with of river
has to be find.

Concept:
This question is based on river boat problem from relative motion.

Solution:

vr = vbr sin θ
3 = 5 sin θ

sin θ =
θ = 37º

⇒t= p = 1 km

Final Answer : option (1)

31) Explaining : Find the angle θ must line PQ make with verticle -
Concept : This question is based on Horizontal projcetile motion
Solution :

Let t be the time taken by bomb to hit the target.

R = ut = 75 × (20 ) = 3000m

Final Answer : (1)

32) Explaining : Calculate the time after which the balls will cross rach-other
Concept : This question is based on when arel = O then apply

Solution :

Srel = 50 m
Urel = 100 m/s
arel = 0

Final Answer : (1)

33) Explaining : Position time graph of a particle is as shown in figure then average velocity
in first 20 s will be
Concept : This question is based on x-t graph
Solution :
Final Answer : (2)

34) Explaining : Suppose a player hits several baseballs. Which baseball will be in the air for
the longest time?
Concept : This question is based on ground - ground projectile motion
Solution :
H ∝ T ∝ uy
∴ ball with maximum height have maximum time of flight.
Final Answer : (2)

35) Question Explanation: Find the cyclist's speed if rain is falling vertically at 10 m/s and
appears to him with speed 20 m/s.

Concept: Relative velocity:

Magnitude of this relative velocity is given (20 m/s).

Solution:
Rain velocity = 10 m/s downward .
Cyclist velocity .
Relative velocity:

Its magnitude is 20:

Conclusion
Velocity of cyclist

Final Answer: 10 m/s

36) Explaining : The acceleration will be positive

Concept : This question is based on x-t graph
Solution :
In (1), slope is negative and its magnitude is decreasing with time. It means slope is increasing
numerically. So velocity is increasing towards right, and so acceleration is positive.
In (IV), slope is positive and its magnitude is increasing with time. So velocity is increasing
towards right, and so acceleration is positive.
Final Answer : (2)

37) Explaining : find the projection velocity of ball

Concept : This question is based on motion under gravity
Solution :
s = × 10 × 22
= 20 m
and AB = 25 m Given,
AC = 25 + 20 = 45 m
use v2 = u2 + 2 as
O = u2 – 2 × 10 × 45 ⇒ u = 30 m/s
Final Answer : (3)

38) Explaining : We have to find horizontal distance (Range) from the target should the pilot
release the package so that it lands exactly on the target.
Concept : This question is based on horizontal projectile motion.
Solution :
Height (h): 80 m
Gravity (g): 10 m/s2
Formula: h = (1/2) × g × t2
Calculation:
80 = (1/2) × 10 × t2
80 = 5 × t2
t2 = 80 / 5
t2 = 16
t = 4 seconds
Horizontal Velocity (vx): 40 m/s
Time (t): 4 seconds
Formula: Distance = Velocity × Time
R = 40 × 4 = 160m
Final Answer : (2)

39) Explain the Question : Two objects A and B move; find relative velocity of B with respect
to A from displacement-time graph.
Concept : This question is based on relative velocity: vBA = vB – vA = slope difference
displacement-time graph.
Solution :

Velocity of A :

Velocity of B :
vBA = vB – vA = – 10 – 5 = – 15 m/s
Final answer : 1

40) Explaining : Find the distance covered by particle

Concept : This question is based on distance & displacement
Solution :
D = 2R + πR + 2R
= 4R + πR
Final Answer : (1)

41)

Explanation the Question:

To find the angle θ so that particle at A strikes motion in one dimension.
Concept:
This question is based on Relative motion in one dimension.
Solution:

Velocity of particle w.r.t platform should be along AB line.

Then u cos θ = v

cosθ = ⇒ θ = cos–1
Final Answer: (2)

42) Explaining : A ball is released from a sufficient height. The distance covered by the ball in
1st, 3rd and 6th seconds are in ratio
Concept : This question is based on motion under gravity
Solution :

u = 0, a = g
n=1

n=6
Final Answer : (2)

43) Explaining : find average speed of particle

Concept : This question is based on average speed
Solution :

⇒
Final Answer : (4)

44)

Question Explanation : Equation of trajectory of a projectile is given and initial velocity is

asked.
Concept : This question is based on Equation of trajectory
Solution :
Equation of trajectory of a projectile is

4y = 2x – 5x2

ux = u cos θ = =2

uy = u sin θ = =1

Final Answer : option (1)

45)
 Explain the question : To find the velocity - time curve for the bullet and total time t = 20
sec.

Concept : This question is based on graphical analysis (v - t) graph.

Solution :
V = u + at
V = –100 – 10(10)
V = – 100 – 100 = – 200m/s
after 10 sec, velocity is zero due to inelastic collision.
⇒ V = u + at

{y = mx + C}
V = – 10 t – 100
Final answer : Option (1)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explaining : Find the total no. of d-block elements in the following Atomic numbers?
Concept : This question is based on classification of elements in blocks.
Solution : -
28 → d-block
48 → d-block
70 → f-block
100 → f-block
55 → s-block
45 → d-block
34 → p-block
36 → p-block
Final Answer : (2)

47) Explaining : Which of the following will have total number of d-electrons equal to the
difference in the number of total p and s electrons?
Concept : This question is based on electronic configuration.
Solution : -
The first inert gas which contains d electrons is in 4th
period i.e., Kr with atomic no. = 36
E.C. of Kr = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6
Total number of d-electrons = 10
Total number of p-electrons = 6 + 6 + 6 = 18
Total number of s-electrons = 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 8
Difference in p and s electron is = 18 – 8 = 10
Final Answer : (4)

48) Explaining : Which of the following is not correct for isoelectronic ions?
Concept : This question is based on isoelectronic.
Solution :
Isoelectronic species have same number of electrons not same isoelectric charge. For example
N3–, O2–, F– are isoelectronic but have different charge.
Final Answer : (3)

49) Explaining : Which of the following element is expected to have highest electron affinity?
Concept : This question is based on electron affinity.
Solution : It represents halogen Cl. The E.A. of Cl is highest among halogens.
Final Answer : (1)

50) Explaining : Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?

Concept : This question is based on nature of oxides of metals & non-metals.
Solution : Na2O is basic, SO3 and P2O5 are acidic but Al2O3 can react both with acids and
bases.
Final Answer : (2)

51) Explaining : The correct order of electronegativity of N, O, F and P is.

Concept : This question is based on electronegativity.
Solution :
The correct order of electronegativities of N, O, F and P is F > O > N > P.
In a period, electronegativity increases from left to right.
Hence, N < O < F.
In a group, electronegativity decreases down the group.
Hence, N > P.
Final Answer : (3)

52) Explaining : Which is mismatched regarding the position of the element as given below?
Concept : This question is based on finding block, group & period of element with their
atomic number.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

53) Explaining : The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to:
Concept : This question is based on period number.
Solution : -
As each period starts with the filling of electrons in a new principal quantum number. Thus,
the period number in the long form of the periodic table refers to the maximum
principal quantum number of any element in the period.
Period number = maximum n of any element (where, n = principal quantum number).
Final Answer : (3)

54) Explaining : Which one of the following order represents the correct sequence of the
increasing basic nature of the given oxides ?
Concept : This question is based on basic nature of oxides.
Solution : -
Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O (basic nature of oxides ∝ metallic character)
Order of increasing basic nature.
Final Answer : (2)

55) Explaining : Match the column I with column II and mark the correct option :
Concept : This question is based on atomic number.
Solution :
(A) 14 → (i) 3, 14
(B) 53 → (iv) 5, 17
(C) 38→ (ii) 5, 2
(D) 78 → (iii) 6, 10
Final Answer : (2)

56) Explaining : Electronic configurations of few elements are given below. Mark the
incorrect match.
Concept : This question is based on periodic properties.
Solution : 1s2 2s2 2p3 – An element belonging to 2nd period and 15 group
Final Answer : (2)

57) Explaining : Comment on the radii shown as 'a' and 'b/2' in the figure of solid chlorine :
Concept : This question is based on atomic radius.
Solution :

Covalent radius =

Vander waal radius =

Final Answer : (2)

58) Explaining : Why is the electron gain enthalpy of O or F is less than that of S or Cl?
Concept : This question is based on electron gain enthalpy.
Solution : -
When an electron is added to O or F, it goes to a smaller (n = 2) level and suffers more
repulsion than the electron in S or Cl in larger level (n = 3).
Final Answer : (2)

59) Explaining : An element P has atomic number 56. What will be the formula of its halide?
Concept : This question is based on ionic compound formation.
Solution : The element will be of group IInd so formula of halide will be PX2.
Final Answer : (2)
60) Explaining : (A), (B) and (C) are elements of the third (short period). Oxide of (A) is ionic,
that of (B) is amphoteric and of (C) a acidic. (A), (B) and (C) have atomic number in the order:
Concept : This question is based on nature of oxides.
Solution :
On going from left to right in a period generally acidic nature of oxide and covalent character
increases.
Final Answer : (1)

61) Explaining : Consider the ionization enthalpies of two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
Concept : This question is based on ionization enthalpies.
Solution : 3rd ionisation enthalpy of group 2nd elements will becomes much more greater due
to complete octate. Final Answer : (3)

62) Explaining : The first four I.E. values of an element are 284, 412, 656 and 3210 kJ mol–1.
The number of valence electrons in the element are :
Concept : This question is based on application of ionization energy.
Solution : Elements are third group having maximum difference in their third and fourth
ionisation enthalpy.
Final Answer : (3)

63) Explaining : Analyze assertion and reason.

Concept : This question is based on diagonal relationship.
Solution :
Size : Na > Be
rd
3 period 2nd period
Be and Al shows diagonal relationship.
Final Answer : (2)

64)

Explaining : Analyze both the statements.

Concept : This question is based on metallic and non-metallic character.
Solution : On goving down in a group metallic character increases.
Final Answer : (2)

65) Explaining : Identify the incorrect statement :

Concept : This question is based on electron gain enthalpy.
Solution : S has more –ve EGE value than O.
Final Answer : (3)

66) Explaining : Which of the following is not an actinoid :

Concept : This question is based on actinoids.
Solution : Actinoids : atomic number-90-103.
Final Answer : (4)

67) Explaining : Identify the incorrect statement :

Concept : This question is based on general characteristic of periodic table.
Solution : Actinoids are radioactive.
Final Answer : (3)

68)

Explaining : If the kinetic energy of an electron is increased 4 times, the wavelength of the de
Broglie wave associated with it would become :
Concept : This question is based on Debroglies concept
Solution :

, where, E = kinetic energy

When, the kinetic energy of electron becomes 4 times, the de Broglie wavelength will become
half.
Final Answer : (3)

69)

Explaining :
In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of 600 m sec–1 with an accuracy of 0.005%.
Certainty with which the position of the electron can be located is :
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 kg m2 s–1, mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg)
Concept : This question is based on Heisenberg’s principle
Solution :
Accuracy in velocity = 0.005%

According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle

= 1.92 × 10–3 m
Final Answer : (3)

70)

Explaining : Graph based question.

Concept : This question is based on number of radial nodes = n – ℓ – 1.
It is point on x-axis which wave intersect.
Solution : Node is the point on the axis at which the value of y changes from +ve to –ve and
from –ve to +ve.
Final Answer : (3)

71)

Explaining : Which of the following orbitals does not have any nodal plane
Concept : This question is based on number of nodal plane = ℓ
Solution :
Number of nodal plane = ℓ
∴ 1s orbital (ℓ = 0) will have no nodal plane.
Final Answer : (1)

72)

Explaining : Match correct number of radial and angular node.

Concept : This question is based on number of nodal plane = ℓ
Solution :
Number of nodal plane = ℓ
∴ Number of nodal plane of 3d orbital = 2
Final Answer : (3)

73)

Explaining : The orbital angular momentum of an electron in a d-orbital is :

Concept : This question is based on orbital angular momentum
Solution :

Orbital angular momentum =

=
Final Answer : (1)

74)

Explaining : Set of quantum number of 4f orbital

Concept : This question is based on permissible value of quantum numbers.
Solution :
For 4 f, n = 4, ℓ = 3, m = –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3

s= or
Final Answer : (3)

75)

Explaining : number of orbitals in shell and subshells.

Concept : This question is based on quantum numbers
Solution :
Number of orbitals in shell = n2
Number of subshell in a shell = n
Number of orbitals in a subshell = (2ℓ + 1)
n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 0 represents 3d
Final Answer : (1)

76)

Explaining : What is the maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the quantum
number n = 4, m = +1
Concept : This question is based on quantum NOS.
Solution :
n = 4 ; ℓ = 0 ; ml = 0
ℓ = 1 ; ml = –1, 0, +1
ℓ = 2 ; ml = –2, –1, 0, +1, +2
ℓ = 3 ; ml = –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3
There are three orbitals having ml = +1, thus maximum number of electrons in them will be 6.
Final Answer : (4)

77)

Explaining : Orbital having 3 angular nodes and 3 total nodes is :

Concept : This question is based on total nodes = n – l
Number of angular node = ℓ
Solution :
For 4f subshell nodes ; ℓ = 3
n=4
Number of angular nodes = ℓ = 3
Total number of nodes = n – 1 = 4 – 1 = 3
Final Answer : (3)

78)

Explaining : Ratio of time period of electron in first and third orbit of H–atom would be :-
Concept : This question is based on time period in Bohr's atomic model.
Solution : T ∝ n3
Final Answer : (2)

79)

Explaining : The wave number of first emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in
the Balmer series appears at:
Concept : This question is based on hydrogen spectrum
Solution :
First line of Balmer series ⇒ 3 → 2

Final Answer : (1)

80)

Explaining : What is the maximum wavelength in the Lyman series of He+ ion
Concept : This question is based on hydrogen spectrum
Solution :
λmax means minimum energy (2 → 1)

Final Answer : (2)

81)

Explaining : Calculate ionisation energy of He+ ion :-

Concept : This question is based on ionisation energy in Bohr's atomic model
Solution : IE = 13.6 (z)2
Final Answer : (4)

82)

Explaining : The energy of electron is maximum at :-

Concept : This question is based on Postulates of Bohr's atomic model

Solution :
n = ∞ ; E = 0 (maximum)
Final Answer : (4)

83)

Explaining : Parameters of Bohr's atomic model

Concept : This question is based on Postulates of Bohr model.

Solution :

mvr =
T ∝ n3
Final Answer : (4)

84)

Explaining : The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state is –13.6 eV. The energy of the
level corresponding to n = 5 is :
Concept : This question is based on energy in Bohr's atomic model

E= eV / atom

Solution : E = = –0.54 eV
Final Answer : (1)

85)

Explaining : When electron of a hydrogen atom jumps from n = 4 to n = 2 state, number of

possible spectral lines emitted is :
Concept : This question is based on hydrogen spectrum

Number of lines =
Solution :

Number of lines =
Final Answer : (3)

86)

Explaining : Smallest wavelength occurs for :-

Concept : This question is based on hydrogen spectrum
Solution : Emax ∝ λmin
Lyman series have smallest wavelength
Final Answer : (1)

87)

Explaining : The ionisation potential of an atom is 16 eV. What is the value of first excitation
potential :-
Concept : This question is based on 1st excitation potential means e¯ jumps from n1 = 1 to n2 =
2 (1st excited state)
Solution :

ΔE = 12eV
Final Answer : (2)

88) Explaining : Atomic parameters.

Concept : This question is based on atomic parameters.
Solution : (z = number of proton → does'nt change with charge)
Final Answer : (1)

89) Explaining : Atomic parameters.

Concept : This question is based on atomic parameters.
Solution : Electron is not present in nucleus.
Final Answer : (4)

90) Explaining : Atomic parameters.

Concept : This question is based on atomic parameters.
Solution :
mn = 1.008 amu ; mp = 1.007 amu
 Final Answer : (2)

BIOLOGY

91) Explanation: These are all genera of green algae. Ulothrix and Spirogyra are filamentous
green algae, and Chara is a complex branched green alga.
Answer: (2) Chlorophyceae

92) Explanation: Zoospores are asexual reproductive units in algae that possess flagella,
allowing them to move in water. Akinetes, aplanospores, and hypnospores are non-motile.
Answer: (1) Zoospore

93) Explanation: Algae are classified primarily based on their types of pigments, the chemical
nature of their stored food, and the composition of their cell walls.
Answer: (4) Place of occurrence

94) Explanation: Most algae have unicellular sex organs. Chara is an exception in the plant
kingdom as it has complex, multicellular, and jacketed sex organs (the globule and nucule).
Answer: (1) Chara

95) Explanation: Chlamydomonas is a unicellular green alga that typically contains a single,
large cup-shaped chloroplast and stores energy as starch.
D = Chlamydomonas, Starch, Cup-shaped
Answer: (1)

96) Explanation: Gemmae are specialized asexual buds produced in small receptacles called
gemma cups on the dorsal surface of the liverwort Marchantia.
Answer: (2) Marchantia thallus

97) Explanation: Marchantia is dioecious (separate male thallus and female thallus). The
female reproductive organs (archegonia) are borne on a stalked structure called the
archegoniophore.
Answer: (1) Marchantia

98) Explanation: The diagram shows a male Marchantia plant. "B" is the stalk carrying the
male organs (Antheridiophore), "C" is the gemma cup for asexual reproduction, and "D" are
the root-like rhizoids.
Answer: (2) A-Male Thallus, B-Antheridiophore, C-Gemma cup, D-Rhizoids

99) Explanation: In liverworts, spores germinate directly into the adult plant body. The
"protonema" stage is a characteristic specific to mosses.
Answer: (1) Liverworts
100) Explanation: The first stage of the gametophyte in mosses, which develops directly from
a spore, is the filamentous or creeping protonema.
Answer: (3) Mosses

101) Explanation: A moss sporophyte consists of a foot, seta, and capsule. Gemma cup are
found in liverworts like Marchantia but are absent in mosses.
Answer: (4) Gemma cup

102) Explanation: In the moss Funaria, the spore germinates into a primary protonema. Buds
then develop on the protonema, which grow into the upright leafy gametophore.
Answer: (4) First protonema, then forms a bud and then a leafy gametophyte

103) Explanation: In mosses, the sporophyte (C) is composed of the Capsule (A) and Seta (B).
It remains attached to and dependent on the leafy Gametophyte (D).
Answer: (2) A-Capsule, B-Seta, C-Sporophyte, D-Gametophyte

104) Explanation: Equisetum (Horsetail) produces only one type of spore (homosporous).
Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous (produce two types of spores).
Answer: (2) Equisetum

105) Explanation: The prothallus is the inconspicuous, small, multicellular, free-living,

photosynthetic gametophyte found in pteridophytes like Pteris (fern).
Answer: (4) Pteris

106) Explanation: Ferns produce large, spirally coiled male gametes with many flagella to
swim through water to reach the egg.
Answer: (1) Ferns

107) Explanation: Sphagnum (Peat moss) accumulates over time in wetlands to form peat,
which is used as fuel and for its water-retention properties. Answer: (4) Sphagnum

108) Explanation: When a haploid spore falls on moist soil, it germinates to form the heart-
shaped gametophyte known as the prothallus.
Answer: (4) From spore

109) Explanation: Cycas is a gymnosperm. Like most gymnosperms, its xylem contains
tracheids but lacks true vessels (vessels are a characteristic of angiosperms).
Answer: (1) Xylem have vessels

110) Explanation: The primary reason Cycas is classified as a gymnosperm is that its ovules
are not enclosed in an ovary; they are "naked" on the surface of megasporophylls.
Answer: (1) Naked ovules
111) Explanation: (C) and (D) are correct. (A) is incorrect because gymnosperms have
xerophytic traits. (B) is incorrect because coralloid roots host cyanobacteria, not mycorrhiza
(mycorrhiza are in Pinus).
Answer: (1) 2 correct, 2 incorrect

112) Explanation: Since there is no ovary in gymnosperms, no fruit is formed. Therefore, the
seeds are exposed or "naked."
Answer: (1)

113) Explanation: This is false. Many gymnosperms like Cycas are dioecious (male and
female cones on different plants).
Answer: (4) All Gymnosperms are Monoecious

114) Explanation: In gymnosperms, the megaspore is never released; it remains inside the
nucellus (megasporangium) to develop into the female gametophyte.
Answer: (2) Inside the megasporangium

115) Explanation: Statement (D) is incorrect. Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial vascular
plants, but they do not produce seeds; they reproduce via spores.
Answer: (4) One

116) Solution : Horse tails are pteridophytes.

Final Answer : (2)

117) Solution : Prothallus prefers to grow in moist, shady places because it needs water for
fertilization.
Final Answer : (3)

118) Solution : Gymnosperms are exclusively arborescent.

Final Answer : (3)

119) Solution : Gymnosperms are 1st seeded plants.

Final Answer : (3)

120) Solution : Root of gymnosperm help in conduction of water and provides support.
Final Answer : (3)

121) Solution : Non-motile gametes are found in Pinus.

Final Answer : (4)

122) Explain Question : Question asking about which plant is smallest angiosperm.
Concept : This question is based on Angiosperm
Solution : Smallest angiosperm is Wolffia
Final Answer : (1)

123) Solution : Double fertilization and triple fusion is charactersitic feature of angiosperms.
Final Answer : (3)

124) Solution : In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires water.
Final Answer : (3)

125) Solution : The unique character of angiosperms and gymnosperm is formation of ovule
and seed.
Final Answer : (3)

126) Solution : Pinus — Simple & needle like leaves and stems are branched.
Final Answer : (3)

127) Solution : Angiosperms seeds are enclosed in fruits.

Final Answer : (3)

128) Solution : The predominant stage in the life cycle of Moss is gametophyte, which
consists of two stages they are respectively protonema, leafy stage.
Final Answer : (3)

129) Solution : Meiosis occurs in mosses when spores are formed.

Final Answer : (2)

130) Explaining the Question :- Question asks about identification of the plant shown in the
diagram, its ploidy level, type of spores, and the evolutionary significance (event) associated
with it.
Concept:- This question is based on Lycopsida
Solution :- Among the given options, only option 1 correctly matches all four aspects
Plant: Selaginella
Ploidy : Diploid
Spore type: Heterosporous
Event: Precursor of seed habit
Other options have incorrect combinations of plant, ploidy, or evolutionary significance.
Final Answer : (1)

131) Solution : Homoiothermous, direct development, viviparous with few exceptions,

different types of teeth this is true for Camelus.(Class Mammalia)
Final Answer : (1)

132) Solution : Aptenodytes (Penguin) and Struthio (Ostrich) are flightless birds.
Final Answer : (3)
133) Question Explanation : The question checks which statements correctly describe
sponges (Porifera).
Concept : This question is based on Porifera – General characteristics
Solution: The correct answer is option 2.
(A) Correct → Sponges have cellular level of organisation.
(B) Correct → Canal system present for water circulation.
(C) Incorrect → Sponges are hermaphrodites, not separate sexes.
(D) Incorrect → Fertilisation is internal and development is mostly indirect.
So, only A and B are correct.
Final Answer: 2. Two

134) Solution : Naja (Cobra), Vipera (Viper) and Bangarus (Krait) are poisonous.
Final Answer : (2)

135) Solution : Reptilia → First successful terrestrial vertebrates.

Final Answer : (2)

136) Solution : Platyhelminthes — Organ level of organisation.

Final Answer : (3)

137) Question Explanation: The question is asking to identify the incorrect matches between
phylum, symmetry, body plan, and examples.
Concept: This question is based on Animal classification based on symmetry, body plan, and
examples
Solution:
Option (a) is incorrect in body plan, sponges have cell-aggregate type of body plan.
Option (d) is incorrect because Ancylostoma is not an Annelida; it belongs to Aschelminthes.
Final Answer: (1)

138) Solution : All the characters belong to phylum ctenophora.

Final Answer : (2)

139) Solution :
Digestion in ctenophores is both extracellular and intracellular type.
Cnidarians exhibit tissue level of organisation.
Polyp produces medusae asexually.
Final Answer : (2)

140) Solution : Aschelminthes → Pseudocoelomate, Bilaterally symmetrical with organ system

level of organisation.
Final Answer : (3)

141) Question Explanation: Identify the option that is completely correct without any
exception.
Concept: Animal Classification
Solution: The correct answer is option 4
Option 1 : Ctenoplana - external fertilisation
Option 2 : Taenia lacks an alimentary canal, though flame cells are present for
osmoregulation. So the statement is incorrect.
Option 3 : Nereis has parapodia for locomotion, but Hirudinaria does not have parapodia; it
moves using setae.
Option 4 : Pinctada and Pila are molluscs; both have a mantle layer covering the body and
possess gills for respiration. This statement is correct without exception.
Final Answer: (4)

142) Solution :
"Platyhelminthes" - Excretion occurs through flame cells
"Mollusca" - Bilaterally symmetrical
"Chordata" - Dorsal nerve cord present
Final Answer : (2)

143) Solution: A = Notochord, B = Nerve cord, C = Post Anal Tail, D = Pharyngeal gill slits
Final Answer: (1)

144) Solution : Body is divided into anterior proboscis, a collar and long trunk. Fertilization is
external.
Final Answer : (2)

145) Solution : Amphioxus belongs to subphylum cephalochordata.

Petromyzon is not first complete chordate.
Final Answer : (3)

146) Solution : Given animal is Ascidia (Subphylum – Urochordata)

Final Answer : (4)

147) Solution : Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Final Answer : (4)

148) Solution : A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–V

Final Answer : (1)

149) Solution :
Salamandra belongs to class Amphibia.
Diaphragm is present in the members of class mammalia.
Canis (Dog) belongs to class mammalia.
Final Answer : (3)

150) Solution : A–ii, B–iii, C–i, D–iv

Final Answer : (2)
 151) Solution :
Frog — External Fertilisation
Earthworm — No sexual dimorphism
Hydra— Unsegmented body
Final Answer : (1)

152) Solution :
Liver fluke – platyhelminthes
Aplysia– Mollusca
Bombyx – Arthropoda
Final Answer : (3)

153) Solution : Mosquito, Honey bee and Prawn — Phylum Arthropoda

Final Answer : (2)

154) Question Explanation: Counting correct Arthropoda features.

Concept: Characteristics of Phylum Arthropoda.
Solution: The correct characters for Arthropoda are:

A. Organ system level ( Correct)

B. Coelomate ( Correct, they are eucoelomate)
C. Open circulation (Correct, blood is pumped into a haemocoel)
D. Triploblastic ( Correct)

Thus, four characteristics are correct.

Final Answer: (2)

155) Solution : Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
Final Answer : (1)

156) Explain Question : Identify A & B in Obelia life cycle.

Concept : This question is based on Cnidaria
Solution : The correct answer is option 2 .
In Obelia, polyp stage reproduces asexually to give rise to medusae.
Medusae then reproduce sexually to form polyps again.
This alternation between asexual (polyp) and sexual (medusa) generations is called
metagenesis.
Final Answer : 2

157) Solution : Platyhelminthes have dorsoventrally flattened body.

Final Answer : (2)

158) Solution : Naja – Reptilia, Seahorse – Osteichthyes, Aptenodytes – Aves

Final Answer : (1)

159) Solution : Ichthyophis — Limbless amphibian

 Final Answer : (4)

160) Solution : Jelly fish — Coelenterata; Silver fish — Arthropoda; Hag fish — Cyclostomata
Final Answer : (3)

161) Solution : Water vascular system is the distinctive feature of echinoderms.

Final Answer : (1)

162) Explain Question: Match echinoderm genera with their common names.
Concept: This question is based on Echinodermata
Solution:
• Ophiura → Brittle star
• Echinus → Sea urchin
• Antedon → Sea lily
• Cucumaria → Sea cucumber
So the correct matching is A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii → Option 1.
Final Answer: (1)

163) Solution : Flatworms are acoelomate whereas roundworms are pseudocoelomates.

Final Answer : (2)

164) Solution : Locusta (Locust) is gregarious pest Anopheles, Culex and Aedes are vectors.
Final Answer : (2)

165) Question Explanation: Evaluate the correctness of the assertion and reason regarding
radial symmetry in animals.
Concept: The question is based on body symmetry .
Solution: The correct answer is option 1.

A. Assertion: Coelenterates, Ctenophores, and Echinoderms possess radial symmetry → True

B. Reason: Radial symmetry means that any plane passing through the central axis divides the
body into two identical halves → True
C. The reason correctly explains the assertion because radial symmetry is defined by this
property, and all three groups exhibit it at some stage of their life cycle (specially adult
echinoderms).

Final answer: (1)

166) Solution : In some animals, the body is externally and internally divided into segments
with a serial repetition of at least some organs. For example, in earthworm, the body shows
this pattern called metameric segmentation and the phenomenon is known as metamerism.
Final Answer : (2)

167)

Question Explanation: Identify the type of digestive system with separate mouth and anus
openings.
Concept: The question is based on basis of classification.

Solution: The correct answer is option 4 – Organisms having complete digestive system.

A. A complete digestive system has two distinct openings: a mouth for ingestion and an anus for
egestion.
B. This allows for a unidirectional flow of food and efficient digestion.

Final answer: Option 4

168) Explain Question: Which of the following animals has an incomplete digestive system
Concept: Basis of classification = digestive system, circulatory system and embryonic
development
Solution: Fasciola have incomplete digestive system
Final answer: (4)

169) Solution : (c) and (d) have true coelom

Final Answer : (2)

170) Question Explanation: Identifying animal symmetry type.

Concept: Bilateral Symmetry
Solution: The diagram shows a crab, which has a body that can be divided into two mirrored
halves (a left side and a right side) along only one central plane. This type of symmetry is
called bilateral symmetry. The provided explanation correctly defines this type of symmetry.
Final Answer: (4)

171) Solution : The given animal is petromyzon (Class-cyclostomata) having cartilaginous

endoskeleton.
Final Answer : (4)

172) Solution : a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv, e–v

Final Answer : (3)

173) Solution : Sea lily → Antedon → Echinodermata

Final Answer : (1)

174) Solution : A - v, B - iv, C - i, D - ii, E - iii

Final Answer : (3)

175) Solution : In sponges, the cells are arranged as loose cell aggregates, i.e., they exhibit
cellular level of organisation. Some division of labour (activities) occur among the cells
Final Answer : (1)

176) Solution : Both operculum and airbladder are absent.

Final Answer : (2)
177) Question Explanation : Identify the incorrect comparison between chordates and non-
chordates.
Concept : Chordate distinguishing features – Animal Kingdom
Solution : The statement is incorrect.
In chordates, the heart is located ventrally, while in non-chordates, the heart is located
dorsally (if present).
Final answer : (2)

178) Solution : A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

Final Answer : (1)

179) Solution : Branchiostoma (Cephalochordata) is the only organism among the options
that retains its notochord throughout its entire life and has it extended up to the head.
Final Answer : (1)

180) Solution : The given animal is Taenia solium (platyhelminthes) It is bisexual, acoelomate
and true segmentation is absent.
Final Answer : (4)