21-05-2026

6001CMD30303125APTS23 MD

PHYSICS

1)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) A uniform rope having some mass hinges vertically from a rigid support. A transverse wave pulse
is produced at the lower end. The speed (v) of the wave pulse varies with height (h) from the lower
end as:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Due to presence of an em-wave whose electric field is given by E = 200 sin (ωt – kx) NC–1, a
cylinder of length 100 cm holds certain amount of em-energy inside it. If another cylinder of double
the length and half the diameter than previous one holds same amount of em-energy, the magnitude
of electric field of corresponding em-wave should be modified as

(1) 50 sin (ωt – kx) NC–1

(2) 100 sin (ωt – kx) NC–1
(3) 200 sin (ωt – kx) NC–1
(4) 400 sin (ωt – kx) NC–1

8) Magnetic field at two points on the axis of a circular coil at a distance of 5 cm and 20 cm from the
centre are in the ratio 8 : 1. The radius of coil is ____

(1) 20 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 100 cm

9) An infinite nonconducting sheet of charge has a surface charge density of 10–7 C/m2. The
separation between two equipotential surfaces near the sheet whose potential differ by 5V is :

(1) 0.88 cm
(2) 0.88 mm
(3) 0.88 m
(4) 5 × 10–7m

10) In a regular polygon of n sides, each corner is at a distance r from the centre. Identical charges
are placed at (n – 1) corners. At the centre, the intensity is E and the potential is V. The ratio V/E has
magnitude.

(1) rn
(2) r(n – 1)

(3)

(4)

11) A small square object is placed between centre of curvature and focus of concave mirror as
shown in figure. What will be the correct shape of image ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) Figure shows 3 identical bulbs with switch S closed. The brightness of bulb 1 is B1, bulb 2 is B2
and net brightness of system is BT. If switch is now opened :-

(1) B1 remains same, B2 increases and BT increases.

(2) B1 remains same, B2 decreases & BT decreases
(3) B1 decreases, B2 increases & BT decrease
(4) B1 decrease, B2 increase & BT increase

13) A block of mass m is performing SHM with an amplitude A, on a frictionless surface. When it is
at negative extreme position as shown, a bullet of mass m moving with a velocity v0 collides and gets
2 2
embedded into it at time t = 0. The displacement x at any time t will be (mv0 = 2kA ) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Which of the following options is/are incorrect regarding the below diagram.
(1) Ι1 = 8 A
(2) Ι2 = 4 A
(3) Ι1 = 0
(4) Ι3 = 8 A

15)

The length, breadth and thickness of a strip are (10.0 ± 0.1)cm, (1.00 ± 0.01)cm and (0.100 ± 0.001)
cm respectively. The most probable error in its volume will be

(1) ±0.03 cm3

(2) ±0.111 cm3
(3) ±0.012 cm3
(4) none of these

16) The magnetic field at O is : (Ends of the wires are at infinity)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
17) A capacitor of capacity 10 μF is charged to a potential of 10 V with a battery. The battery is now
disconnected and an additional charge of 200 μC is given to the positive plate of capacitor. The
potential difference across the capacitor will be :-

(1) 10 V
(2) 20 V
(3) 30 V
(4) 40 V

18) A carbon and an aluminium wire are connected in series. If the combination has resistance of 30
Ω at 0°C, what is the resistance of each wire at 0°C so that resistance of the combination does not
change with tempereature :-
(αc = – 0.5 × 10–3/°C, αA = 4 × 10–3/°C)

(1) 10Ω, 80Ω

(2)

(3)

(4) 40Ω, 80Ω

19) A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q, which is fixed, with a speed v. It
approaches Q upto a closest r and then returns. If q were given a speed of 2v, the closest distances
of approach would be :

(1) r
(2) 2r
(3) r/2
(4) r/4

20) List-I shows graph of thermodynamics process, and List-II contains information about various
thermodynamic variables. Correct by match process in List-I with the information in List-II.

List-I List-II

(P) (1) W>0

 (Q) (2) W≤0

(R) (3) ΔQ > 0

(S) (4) ΔU > 0

(5) ΔU ≤ 0
(1) P→1,3,5; Q→2,3,4; R→1,3,4; S→2,5
(2) P→1,3,4; Q→2,4; R→1,3,5; S→2,5
(3) P→2,3,5; Q→1,3,4; R→1,3,4; S→2,3
(4) P→3,5; Q→3,4; R→1,3,4; S→2,3

21) Two concentric metallic spheres of radii r1 and r2(r1 > r2) contain charges Q1 and Q2 respectively,

then the potential at a distance x from the centre will (r2 < x < r1) :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The variation of potential energy of harmonic oscillator is as shown in figure. The spring
constant is :-

(1) 1 × 102 N/m

(2) 150 N/m
(3) 0.667 × 102 N/m
(4) 3 × 102 N/m

23) An n-type semiconductor is created by doping Si with Phosphorus. The resulting crystal is:

(1) Positively charged

(2) Negatively charged
(3) Neutral
(4) Positively or negatively charged depending on dopant concentration

24) A student uses a travelling microscope to find the refractive index of a glass slab. The
microscope is focused on a mark at the bottom ( ), then on the apparent image of the
mark (R2 = 6.04 cm), and finally on a layer of powder on the top surface (R3 = 7.64 cm ). Find the
refractive index of the glass.

(1) 1.33
(2) 1.50
(3) 1.66
(4) 1.80

25) A monochromatic light beam of wavelength 600 nm in vacuum is split into two coherent beams.
One beam passes through a thin glass plate of refractive index 1.5, while the other travels through
air. What is the minimum thickness of the glass plate that will cause the two beams to be in opposite
phase (destructive interference) when they recombine?

(1) 300 nm
(2) 400 nm
(3) 600 nm
(4) 1200 nm

26) A glass plate of thickness 2 mm and refractive index 1.5 is placed in the path of a
monochromatic light beam of wavelength 500 nm in vacuum. The number of extra waves that will be
contained in the glass plate compared to the same thickness of air is:

(1) 2000
(2) 4000
(3) 6000
(4) 1000

27) Certain perfect gas is found to obey PV3/2 = constant during an adiabatic process. If such a gas at
initial temperature T is adiabatically compressed to half the initial volume, its final temperature will
be

(1)
(2) 2T
(3)
(4) 4T

28) One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas undergoes the process A → B as indicated in the given P-V

diagram. The molar heat capacity for the process is :

(1) 3R/2
(2) 13 R/6
(3) 5 R/2
(4) 2R

29) A disc of mass 1 kg and radius 0.1 m is rotating with angular velocity 20 rad/s. What is angular
velocity (in rad/s) if a mass of 0.5 kg is put on the circumference of the disc ?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 30

30) Two bodies of masses m and 4m are placed at a distance r. The gravitational potential at a point
on the line joining them where the gravitational field is zero is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

31) The two coils having current change rate 20A/s due to which they carry induced emfs 2mV and
5.12 mV respectively. Now they are put closer such that coefficient of coupling is one. Find out
mutual inductance of arrangement.

(1) 3.56 × 10–4 H

(2) 1.56 × 10–4 H
(3) 1.6 × 10–4 H
(4) 2.56 × 10–4 H

32) The meniscus of liquids differ. The meniscus of mercury is the inverse of that of water.

The reason for this phenomenon is that

A. The adhesive forces in water are higher than the cohesive forces.
B. Mercury's cohesive forces are higher than the adhesive forces.
C. The surface tension of mercury is higher than that of water.
D. The viscosity of mercury is higher than that of water.
Which of the above statements give the best reasons for this phenomenon?

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) A, B and D
(4) A and B

33)

List-II has conditions on electric field and list-I has certain charge configurations. Match the suitable
conodition(s) with each charge configurations.

List-I List-II
Two point charges +q and –q are placed along x-
axis and C is a point nearer to +q Electric field at the point C is towards right (positive
(P) (1)
x-direction)

A uniformly positively charged sphere with a

sperical cavity inside such that centre C and O

(Q) (2) Electric field at the point C is zero.

lie on x-axis
A regular hexagon with 5 charges as shown.
Dotted line shows x-axis.

Electric field at the point C is towards left (negative x

(R) (3)
direction)
 A uniformly negatively charged sphere with a
sperical cavity inside such that centre of cavity
coincides with centre of sphere C

Electric field at the point C has two component one

(S) (4)
along negative x and other along postive y.

(1) P → 1;Q → 3;R → 3;S → 2

(2) P → 1;Q → 1;R → 3;S → 2
(3) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 4;S → 2
(4) P → 3;Q → 2;R → 4;S → 2

34) A 60 kg boy notices a nice fruit on a tree. Even with stretched arms he cannot reach it and is 0.5
m below the fruit. The boy crouches down - his centre of mass descends 0.4m and then he leaps up.
Thus, he just reaches the fruit. Assume that he exerts a constant force on the ground while he is in
contact with the ground. What is this force at least? (g = 10 m/s–2)

(1) 1000 N
(2) 1350 N
(3) 1800 N
(4) 500 N

35) A block tied between two springs is in equilibrium. If upper spring is cut then the acceleration of
the block just after cut is 6 m/s2 downwards. Now, if instead of upper spring, lower spring is being

cut then the acceleration of the block just after the cut will be :-

(1) 4 m/s2 downwards

(2) 6 m/s2 downwards
(3) 4 m/s2 upwards
(4) 6 m/s2 upwards

36)

Sixteen beads of equal mass in a light string are placed on a smooth inclined plane of inclination
sin–1(1/3) such that some of them lie along the incline whereas the rest hang over the top of the
plane. If acceleration of each bead is g/2, the arrangement of beads is that-
(1) 12 hang vertically
(2) 10 lie along inclined plane
(3) 8 lie along inclined plane
(4) 10 hang vertically

37) A particle collides elastically with two moving walls one by one as shown on a horizontal plane.

Find the final speed of the particle after two collisions :-

(1) 11 m/s
(2) 19 m/s
(3) 21 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

38) Between a plate of area 100 cm2 and another plate of area 100m2 there is a 1 mm, thick layer of
water, if the coefficient of viscosity of water is 0.01 poise, then the force required to move the
smaller plate with a velocity 10cm/s with reference to large plate is :

(1) 100 dyne

(2) 104 dyne
(3) 106 dyne
(4) 109 dyne

39) A wooden block in the form of a uniform cylinder floats with one-third length above the water
surface. A small chip of this block is held at rest at the bottom of a container containing water to a
height of 1m and is then released. The time in which it will rise to the surface of water is : (g =

10m/s2)

(1) 0.84 s
(2) 0.63 s
(3) 0.5 s
(4) 1 s

40) A cell is connected between the points A and C of a circular conductor ABCD of centre O with
angle AOC = 60º. If B1 and B2 are the magnitudes of the magnetic fields at O due to the currents in

ABC and ADC respectively, the ratio is :

(1) 0.2
(2) 6
(3) 1
(4) 5

41) In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringes are displaced by a distance x when a glass plate of
refractive index 1.5 is introduced in the path of one of the beams. When this plate is replaced by
another plate of the same thickness, the shift of fringes is (3/2)x. The refractive index of the second
plate is

(1) 1.75
(2) 1.50
(3) 1.25
(4) 1.00

42) If an insulated non-conducting sphere of radius R has uniform volume charge density ρ, the
electric field at a distance r from the centre of sphere (r > R) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) A particle is moving in the x – y plane. At certain instant of time, the components of its velocity
and acceleration are as follows: vx = 3 ms–1, vy = 4ms–1, ax = 2 m s–2 and ay = 1 m s–2. The rate of
change of speed at this moment is

(1)
(2) 4 m s–2
(3)
(4) 2 m s–2

44) A lens of focal length f forms a real image. If the distance between the object and the image is D,
then according to Newton's formula (x1x2 = f2), the value of D is:

(1) x1 + x2
(2) x1 + x2 + f
(3) x1 + x2 + 2f

(4)

45) A projectile is fired with a speed u at an angle θ above the horizontal field. The coefficient of
restitution between the projectile and field is e. Find the position from the starting point when the
projectile will land at its second collision

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1)

If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal then uncertainty in velocity is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) An e– show transition from 6th orbit to 2nd orbit in multi steps. Then find out total numbers of lines
without Balmer series :-

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 3

3) The number of molecule in 4.25 g of NH3 is approximately

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) Two elements M and N combines to form two compounds M2N and MN2 0.1 mol of M2N weighs 4g
and 0.05 mol MN2 weighs 2.5 g. find atomic weight of M and N :-

(1) 10, 20
(2) 20, 40
(3) 20, 10
(4) 10, 30

5) aMnO4– + bI– + cH+ → dMn2+ + eI2 + fH2O

In above balanced reaction value of will be

(1) 1.3
(2) 1.2
(3) 8
(4) 5

6) One mole of KMnO4 is used for complete oxidation of FeSO4, FeC2O4 and H2C2O4 respectively and
separately. Pick up the incorrect statement:

(1) 5 mole of FeSO4 can be oxidised

(2) 3/5 mole of FeC2O4 can be oxidised

(3)
mole of FeC2O4 can be oxidised
(4) 2.5 mole of H2C2O4 can be oxidised

7) Given that Bond energies of H2 and N2 are 400 kJ mol–1 and 240 kJ mol–1 respectively and ΔHf of
NH3 is –120 kJ mol–1. Calculate the bond energy of N–H bond :-

(1) 300 kJ mol–1

(2) 250 kJ mol–1
(3) 410 kJ mol–1
(4) 280 kJ mol–1

8) Out of boiling point (I), entropy (II), pH (III) and e.m.f. of a cell (IV), intensive properties are :

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, III
(3) I, III, IV
(4) All of the above

9) Identify the correct statement regarding entropy.

(1) At absolute zero temperature, the entropy of perfectly crystalline substance is +ve.
(2) At absolute zero temp. entropy of perfectly crystalline substance is taken to be zero.
(3) At 0 °C the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is taken to be zero.
(4) At absolute zero temperature, the entropy of all crystalline substances is taken to be zero.

10) Consider the following reactions in which all the reactants and the products are in gaseous state.

The value of K3 for the equilibrium

(1) 2.5 × 10–3

(2) 2.5 × 103
(3) 1.0 × 10–5
(4) 5 × 103

11) Assertion : On mixing 500 ml of 10-6 M Ca2+ ion and 500 ml of ion, the

precipitate of CaF2 will be obtained.

Reason : If Ksp is greater than ionic product, a precipitate will develop.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false

12)

Statement-I: Group-III Cations can be precipitated by the reagent in the

presence of
Statement-II: On passing the gas through Nessler's reagent, a brown colouration or a
precipitate of basic mercury(II) amido-iodine is formed.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

13) In a ABxLy (sp3 d-hybridisation of A) have "T" shape geometry. What will be the geometry of
molecule if A form AByLx type molecule?
(B = Bond, L = Lone pair)

(1) "T" shape

(2) Sea-saw
(3) T.B.P.
(4) Linear

14) ClO4ϴ contain :-

(1) 3(dπ – pπ) bond

(2) 4(pπ – dπ) bond
(3) 2(dπ – pπ) bond
(4) 1(pπ – dπ) bond

15) Select the correct graph between I.E. v/s Z for 13th group elements : (IE → Ionisation Energy ; Z
→ Atomic number)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
16) Which of the following diagram shows correct change the polarity of bond ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17)

Which of the following statements is incorrect for graphite?

(1) Its density is lower than that of diamond.

(2) It has a layered structure and the bonding between the layers is very weak.
(3) Its layers are very tightly packed, almost without any space between them.
(4) It cleaves easily between the layers which accounts for the remarkable softness of the crystals.

18) Correct order for stability -

(1) PbCl4 > PbCl2

(2) AlCl > AlCl3
(3) BiCl3 > BiCl5
(4) GeCl2 > GeCl4

19) Correct order of stability of carbon free radical is:-

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) III > I > II
(4) II > I > III

20) Which of the following set have only aromatic compounds ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Match the column I with column II to identify the products of oxidation of alkanes and mark
the appropriate choice.

Column - I Column - II

A i HCOOH+H2O

B ii (CH3)3 COH

C iii 2CH3OH

D iv HCHO+H2O

A B C D

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii iii iv i

(3) iv ii iii i

(4) iii i ii iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) During estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound by kjeldhal's method, ammonia
evolved from 0.5 g of compound, which neutralised by 10 ml if 1M H2SO4. Find the percentage of
nitrogen. :-

(1) 14
(2) 28
(3) 56
(4) 7

23) 0.004 M solution of Na2SO4 is isotonic with 0.010 M solution of glucose at same temperature.
The apparent percentage dissociation of Na2SO4 is :

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 85%

24) KH value for O2(g), N2(g), H2(g) and He(g) are 34.86, 76.48, 69.16 and 144.97 respectively.
Arrange these gases in the order of their increasing solubility.

(1) O2 < H2 < N2 < He

(2) He < H2 < N2 < O2
(3) H2 < He < O2 < N2
(4) He < N2 < H2 < O2

25) E.M.F. of lead storage battery can be increased by increasing–

(1) size of anode

(2) size of cathode
(3) concentration of H2SO4
(4) All of these

26) The resistance of 0.5 M solution of an electrolyte in a cell was found to be 50 Ω. If the electrodes
in the cell are 2.2 cm apart and have an area of 4.4 cm2 then the molar conductivity (in S m2 mol–1) of
the solution

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.02
(3) 0.002
(4) none of these

27)

Which of the following statement is incorrect for zero order reaction:

(1) Concentration of reactant decreases linearly with time

(2) Rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of reactants
(3) These are always elementary reactions.
(4) Half life period is directly proportional to initial concentration of reactant.

28) Rate of law of the reaction A → Product is, rate = k[A]. Graphically it is represented as hence,
rate constant is :-
(1) 3 × 10–4 s–1
(2) 1 × 10–1 s–1
(3) 3 × 10–2 s–1
(4) 1 × 10–4 s–1

29) A, B and C are possible complexes of CoCl3.6H2O. A shows maximum electrical conductance and
C has maximum percentage of nonionisable Cl–. Then incorrect statement is :-

(1) No weight loss, when A is treated with conc. H2SO4

(2) Order of number of moles of AgCl ppt on adding excess AgNO3 solution is A > B > C
(3) Complex B is [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
(4) None

30) Select optically active complex.

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) Only (IV)

(2) (I) and (IV)
(3) (I), (II) and (III)
(4) (I) and (III)

31) Configuration of Yb+2 is :-

(1) [Xe]4f14 5d1

(2) [Xe]4f14
(3) [Xe]4f146s2
(4) [Xe]4f145d16s2

32) Which of the statements is not true?

(1) K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is orange
(2) K2Cr2O7 solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7
(3) On passing H2S through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, a milky colour is observed
(4) The bond angle of Cr-O-Cr < O-Cr-O in K2Cr2O7

33)

The number of lone pairs, and the number of S—S bonds in S8 molecules are respectively:

(1) 8, 8
(2) 16, 8
(3) 8, 16
(4) 8, 4

34) A B C
Which is correct for above reaction :-

(1)
A=

(2)

B=

(3)

C=

(4)

C=

35) Arrange in decreasing order towards hydrolysis of following compounds with SN1 reactions :-

(I)

(II)

(III)
(IV)

(1) III > IV > II > I

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) II > III > IV > I
(4) I > II > III > IV

36) Leaving group ability of the following groups :-

(1) 1 > 2 > 3

(2) 2 > 1 > 3
(3) 2 > 3 > 1
(4) 1 > 3 > 2

37)
Product (C) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

38)
How many mole of alcohol present in A ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

39) Which of the following order is correct :-

(a) (Rate of ESR)

(b) (Rate of NAR)

(c) (Rate of EAR)

(d) CH2 = CH–CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH2 = CH–Cl (Rate of EAR)

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d

40) In the reaction the major product formed is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

41)
Find products

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

42)

(1) x is a reducing sugar and y is a non-reducing sugar

(2) x is a non-reducing sugar and y is a reducing sugar
(3) The glycosidic linkage in x and y are α and α, respectively
(4) The glycosidic likages in x and y are β and α, respectively

43) What is bond angle between starmarked (*) carbon atoms

(1) 120°
(2) 60°
(3) 109°28'
(4) Can not determine

44) Number of metal -metal bonds in [Co2(CO)8] will be :-

(1) 0
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

45) ,
Product C is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BOTANY

1)

Identify the plant parts labelled as A, B, C, D and E in the figure given below and select the right
option:
 A B C D E

1 Coleorrhiza Root cap Hypocotyl Epiblast Plumule

2 Root cap Radicle Hypocotyl Cotyledon Plumule

3 Radicle Root cap Epicotyl Cotyledon Plumule

4 Root Radicle Hypocotyl Coleorrhiza Plumule

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Read the following statements. Find out how many are correct :
(A) The brain dead coma patient has self consciousness
(B) Viruses are obligate parasites.
(C) According to [Link] classification 5 types of Algae divided into 3 kingdoms.
(D) In mosses spore germination is indirect germination as protonema stage forms.
(E) In bacteria's true sexual reproduction is absent.

(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) Only one
(4) Four

3) Consider the following structure of B-DNA and choose the correct statement with respect to K, L,
M and N :

(1) The component of "M" is sugar and phosphate which form the steps of ds DNA
(2) The "N" is helix length, which is 0.34 nm long
(3) The component of "L" is N base which is never a 5-methyl uracil
(4) The "K" is the diameter of DNA which remains almost constant throughout the DNA

4) Which of the following kingdom has no well defined boundaries?

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Metaphyta and Metazoa

5) Free nuclear divisions take place in the formation of ?

(1) Endosperm
(2) Megaspore
(3) Embryo
(4) Mature pollen grain

6) Select the incorrect pair w.r.t. anatomy.

(1) Adaxially placed spongy parenchyma – Dorsiventral leaf

(2) Intercellular spaces – Spongy parenchyma
(3) Trichomes – Usually multicellular, branched or unbranched, soft or stiff.
(4) Bulliform cells – Large, colourless, empty adaxial epidermal cells in grasses

7) Match the column :

Column I Column II

A. A-site i. Exit site

B. P-site ii. Incoming aminoacyl tRNA

C. E-site iii. Peptidyl tRNA

(1) A–ii, B–iii, C–i
(2) A–iii, B–ii, C–i
(3) A–i, B–ii, C–iii
(4) A–ii, B–i, C–iii

8)

Identify the correct statements:

I. DNA fingerprinting is based on polymorphism.
II. Polymorphism arises due to mutations.
III. All regions of DNA are equally polymorphic.
IV. Repetitive DNA shows high polymorphism.

(1) I, II and IV are correct

(2) II and III are correct
(3) Only I and II are correct
(4) All four statements are correct

9) Identify A, B and C.

(1) A → DNA, B → H1 Histone, C → Histone Octamer

(2) A → Chromatin, B → H1 Histone, C → Histone tetramer
(3) A → Histone, B → Chromatin, C → Histone Octamer
(4) A → Chromatin, B → H4 Histone, C → Histone Octamer

10) Statement I : Detritus food chain (DFC) donot follow 10% law of energy flow.
Statement II : During replication of DNA, on one strand the replication is continuous while on
other strand it is discontinuous.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

11) Match column I with column II and find the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Monoploidy (1) 2n – 1

(B) Monosomy (2) 2n + 1

(C) Nullisomy (3) 2n + 2

(D) Trisomy (4) 2n – 2

(E) Tetrasomy (5) x

(6) 3x
(1) (A)–(5), B–(1), (C)–(4), (D)–(2), (E)–(3)
(2) (A)–(5), B–(2), (C)–(4), (D)–(1), (E)–(3)
(3) (A)–(6), B–(5), (C)–(3), (D)–(4), (E)–(2)
(4) (A)–(2), B–(1), (C)–(3), (D)–(6), (E)–(5)

12) Match the column I and column II and choose the correct option :-
 Column-I Column-II

Transfer Transforming
(a) (i)
RNA principle

X-Ray
(b) (ii) Sanger
diffraction

Modified
(c) Griffith (iii)
nitrogen bases

5' end of
(d) Promoter (iv)
structural gene

DNA
(e) (v) Chargaff
sequencing

(vi) Double-helix DNA

(1) a-ii, b-i, c-vi, d-v, e-iv
(2) a-iii, b-vi, c-i, d-iv, e-ii
(3) a-iii, b-vi, c-i, d-iv, e-v
(4) a-ii, b-v, c-vi, d-i, e-iv

13) Choose the correct option about enzymes participate in replication of DNA

To break
1 Helicase a Gyrase i
hydrogen bonds

Removal of
2 Topoisomerase II b Unzipping ii
supercoil

Removal of
Kornberg primer by 5'–3'
3 DNA polymerase III c iii
enzyme exonuclease
activity

Main enzyme for 5' –3'

4 DNA polymerase I d iv
replication polymerisation
(1) 1–b–ii, 2–a–i, 3–d–iv, 4–c–iii
(2) 1–b–i, 2–a–ii, 3–d–iv, 4–c–iii
(3) 1–b–i, 2–a–iii, 3–d–ii, 4–c–iv
(4) 1–b–i, 2–a–ii, 3–d–iii, 4–c–iv

14) Match of the following column.

Column-A Column-B

Expressed 1.4 million

(a) (p)
sequence tags locations

Single
(b) nucleotide (q) 3 billion base pairs
polymorphisms
 Less than 2% Genes expressed
(c) (r)
genome as RNA

(d) Human genome (s) Codes for protein

(1) (a)-(r), (b)-(p), (c)-(s), (d)-(q)
(2) (a)-(s), (b)-(p), (c)-(r), (d)-(q)
(3) (a)-(r), (b)-(s), (c)-(q), (d)-(p)
(4) (a)-(q), (b)-(p), (c)-(s), (d)-(r)

15)

Which of the following statement(s) are correct?

(a) Many parasites have evolved to be host specific
(b) Female mosquito is a parasite of human beings
(c) Parasite may reduce the population density of host

(d) Ectoparasites are more specialised than endoparasites

(1) a,b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) only b
(4) a and c

16) Which of the following may be considered as most potent force in organic evolution ?

(1) Parasitism
(2) Predation
(3) Interspecies competition
(4) Intraspecies competition

17) In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert, e represents

(1) The base of geometric logarithms

(2) The base of natural logarithms
(3) The base of number logarithms
(4) The base of exponential logarithms

18) Which of the following explains the correct interaction of organisms given :-

Parasitism Amensalism Competition

Shark and Goat and

1 Human and mosquito
sucker fish tortoise

Crocodile and Chthamalus

2 Cuckoo bird and Crow
bird and Balanus

P. falciparum and P. notatum and Fishes and

3
human Staphylococcus flamingoes
 Orchid and and mango Parthenium Lion and
4
tree and herbs rabbit
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) The four diagrams (A, B, C and D) given below represents four different types of plant tissues or
cell. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location

and function?

Tissue Location Function

Hypodermis of Mechanical
(1) (A) Collenchyma
dicot stem strength

Pith and Storage

(2) (B) Parenchyma
cortex of root of food

Hypodermis Mechanical
(3) (C) Sclerenchyma
of maize support

Pulp of Provide
(4) (D) Sclereid
mango grittiness
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Which sequence correctly illustrates the arrangement of layers from outside to inside in a dicot
stem ?
(1) Hypodermis ⇒ Endodermis ⇒ Pericycle ⇒ Phloem ⇒ Xylem
(2) Endodermis ⇒ Hypodermis ⇒ Pericycle ⇒ Xylem ⇒ Phloem
(3) Hypodermis ⇒ Endodermis ⇒ Pericycle ⇒ Xylem ⇒ Phloem
(4) Endodermis ⇒ Hypodermis ⇒ Pericycle ⇒ Phloem ⇒ Xylem

21) Select the correct match for following diagram :-

Xylem
Figure Example
Type

Monocot
(1) Exarch
roots

(2) Dicot stem Exarch

Monocot
(3) Endarch
stem

(4) Dicot root Exarch

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) List some of the organism are given below.

Trypanosoma, Chlorella, Spirulina, Chlamydomonas, Euglena, Physarum, Gonyaulax.
How many organisms are rich in protein and are used food supplement even by space travellers?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One
23) Select the mismatch from the following:

(1) Chlorophyceae - Spirogyra

(2) Phaeophyceae - Laminaria
(3) Rhodophyceae - Fucus
(4) Rhodophyceae - Porphyra

24) Select the mismatch from the following:-

(1) Chlorophyceae - Chlorophyll a & b, β-carotene

(2) Phaeophyceae - Chlorophyll a & c, β-carotene
(3) Rhodophyceae - Chlorophyll a & d, fucoxanthin
(4) Cyanophyceae - Chlorophyll - a

25) Select the wrong statement from the following :

(1) Flora, manual, monographs and catalogues help in correct identification of plant
(2) Two kingdom system did not distinguish between the eukaryotes and prokaryotes
(3) According to R.H. Whittaker, division Algae has brought together Chlamydomonas and Chlorella
(4) Mycoplasma are the smallest living cell known and can survive without oxygen.

26) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) Antherozoids of mosses require water for fertilisation

(2) Porphyra is an edible algae
(3) Main plant body in bryophytes is sporophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is gametophytic
(4) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes

27) (A) GA – Extend market period of fruits (B) Ethylene – Increases the surface area for absorption

(C) CK – Apical hook formation

(D) GA – Internodal elongation in deep water rice plant
How many matches are incorrect ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

28) How many plant growth regulators in the list given below are not naturally found in plants?
2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid,
Indole butyric acid, Zeatin,
Naphthalene acetic acid,
Kinetin, Indole acetic acid

(1) Two
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Three

29) Which one of the following is not correct regarding Mendelian dihybrid cross ?

(1) The F2 phenotypic ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(2) Law of independent assortment can be explained on the basis of the cross
F2 generation phenotypic ratio 9 : 3 : 3 1 is obtained from the cross between the F1 plants with
(3)
one of the two parental plants
(4) The gametes produced by F1 plants are of 4 types in 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio

30)

Dominant Recessive
Character
trait trait

Seed shape
Round Wrinkled

A
Yellow Green

Flower
colour
Violet White

Pod shape B C

Pod colour

Green Yellow

Flower
D E
position

Stem height

Dwarf
Tall
In given table of seven pairs of contrasting trait, match the column :-
A B C D E
 Seedcoat
1 Full Constricted Axial Terminal
colour

Cotyledon
2 Full Constricted Terminal Axial
colour

Seed
3 Full Constricted Axial Terminal
colour

Seedcoat
4 Constricted Full Axial Terminal
colour
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(AaBb × AaBb) (AaBbCc × AaBbCc)

Types of
(1) (a) 9 (i) 8
Gametes

Types of
(2) (b) 4 (ii) 8
Phenotype

Types of
(3) (c) 4 (iii) 64
Genotype

Total possible
(4) zygotic (d) 16 (iv) 27
combination
(1) 1 - c - ii, 2 - a - i, 3 - d - iv, 4 - b - iii
(2) 1 - c - iii, 2 - d - ii, 3 - b - i, 4 - a - iv
(3) 1 - b - i, 2 - c - ii, 3 - a - iv, 4 - d - iii
(4) 1 - b - ii, 2 - c - i, 3 - d - iv, 4 - a - iii

32) Read the following statements and choose the correct answer :-
(a) A wild allele is one which was originally present in a population & may be dominant or recessive
in nature.
(b) Any two factors which have the same locus on homologous chromosomes are allelomorphs.
(c) Recessive allele is also called as mutant allele.
(d) F1 plants of reciprocal crosses were always similar in Mendel's experiment.

(1) All are correct

(2) a, c & d are correct
(3) b, c & d are correct
(4) Only d is correct

33) In gymnosperms, seeds develop

(1) Before fertilization
(2) Before endosperm formation
(3) After fertilization
(4) After embryo sac formation

34) Select the characteristic which is common for both Pinus and Cycas plants.

(1) Presence of homosporous condition

(2) Presence of haploid endosperm
(3) Absence of mycorrhizal roots
(4) Absence of xylem and phloem

35) Which of the following plant is grown in swampy areas and their roots come out of the ground
and grow vertically upwards-

(1) Maize
(2) Banyan tree
(3) Mangrove
(4) Sugarcane

36)

Choose the correct match for A,B,C & D

Column
Column II Column III
I

(i) A Meristematic Zone Absorption of water

(ii) B Elongation Zone Maximum growth

(iii) C Maturation Zone Absorption of water

(iv) D Root cap Protection

(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)
37) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

First action
(a) Jan Ingenhousz (i) spectrum
of photosynthesis

Essentiality of
(b) Joseph Priestley (ii)
sunlight to plants

T. W. Discovered
(c) (iii)
Engelmann oxygen
(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii)
(3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)

38) Radioisotopic technique was used to :-

(1) Find out the absorption spectrum of chlorophyll pigments

(2) Study photorespiration in some plants
(3) Establish the fact that the oxygen evolved during photosynthesis is come from CO2
(4) Trace the path of carbon in photosynthesis

39) Photosynthesis is a:

(1) Physical process

(2) Chemical process
(3) Physico-chemical process
(4) Physiological process

40) An octaploid male plant crossed with diploid female plant, then find the ploidy level of the
secondary nucleus and embryo respectively :

(1) 2n and 5n
(2) 8n and 5n
(3) 6n and 5n
(4) 6n and 3n

41) Parthenocarpy is undesirable in:-

(1) Mango
(2) Pomegranate
(3) Apple
(4) Guava

42) In paddy and wheat, pollen grains remains viable for :-

(1) Several months
(2) Few weaks
(3) 30 minutes
(4) One year

43) Invertase catalyses the conversion of

(1) Glucose → Glucose–6–phosphate

(2) Fructose–6–phosphate → Fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate →
(3)
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(4) Sucrose → Glucose + Fructose

44) How many molecules of CO2 are released when two molecules of tripalmitin are used as a
respiratory substrate?

(1) 98
(2) 102
(3) 145
(4) 260

45) In root tip cell there are 14 chromosomes and the DNA content is 2C after M-phase, what will be
the number of chromosomes and the amount of DNA at G1, after S and Anaphase respectively?

No. Amount of
of chromosomes DNA

(1) 14, 14, 14 2C, 4C, 4C

(2) 14, 28, 28 2C, 2C, 4C

(3) 14, 14, 28 2C, 4C, 4C

(4) 28, 14, 14 4C, 2C, 2C

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

ZOOLOGY

1) During fertilization, depolarization of oolemma

(1) Promotes polyspermy

(2) Prevents zona reaction
(3) Prevents cortical reaction
(4) Prevents polyspermy
2) Mark the correct statement with respect to ZIFT

(1) Woman’s egg is fertilized outside the body and then zygote is transferred to the uterus
(2) Ovum collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
Ovum collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote
(3)
formation
(4) Woman’s egg is fertilized outside the body and then zygote is transferred to the fallopian tube

3) Study the following diagram and choose the correct option

(1) B – Medullary pyramid – Has loop of Henle

(2) C – Columns of Bertini – Part of medulla
(3) D – Cortex – Has renal corpuscle
(4) A – Medulla – Has Bowman’s Capsule

4) Primary energy source for sperms in semen is

(1) Glucose from seminal vesicles

(2) Calcium from prostate
(3) Glucose from prostate
(4) Fructose from seminal vesicles

5) cDNA is

(1) Cloned DNA

(2) Formed by reverse transcription
(3) Recombinant DNA
(4) Circular DNA

6) Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by

(1) Increased levels of progesterone

(2) Release of oxytocin from anterior pituitary
(3) Fully developed foetus and placenta
(4) hCG
7) Study the following
a) Pelvic inflammatory disease
b) Cancer
c) Infertility
d) Still births
e) Ectopic pregnancies
Which of the above are caused due to STDs?

(1) Only c, d, e
(2) Only a, d, e
(3) Only b, d, e
(4) a, b, c, d, e

8) Grave's disease is characterized by the following except

(1) Weight gain

(2) Enlargement of thyroid gland
(3) Weight loss
(4) Increased basal metabolic rate

9) Study the following statements.

A. Reabsorption of nearly all of the essential nutrients
B. Reabsorption of water at this part is maximum
C. A significant role in the maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary interstitial fluid.
D. Conditional reabsorption of water.
Which of the above are correctly correlated with loop of Henle?

(1) B and C
(2) A and D
(3) Only C
(4) C and D

10) Which of the following set of hormones are supposed to have intracellular receptors?

(1) Epinephrine, cortisol, ADH

(2) Estrogen, testosterone, aldosterone
(3) Oxytocin, glucagon, insulin
(4) Thyroxine, insulin, glucagon

11) Maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after forceful inhalation is termed as

(1) Vital capacity

(2) Functional residual capacity
(3) Expiratory capacity
(4) Total lung capacity

12) Triceratops can be identified by

(1) Bipedal condition
(2) Very long neck
(3) Three horns
(4) Vertically arranged triangular plates on the body

13) What is the function of copper T?

(1) Prevents spermatogenesis

(2) Prevents ovulation
(3) Promotes implantation
(4) Suppress sperm motility

14) Differentiation of immature lymphocytes into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes occurs in

(1) Lymph nodes

(2) Liver
(3) Bone marrow and thymus
(4) Spleen

15) A fall in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates

(1) Adrenal medulla to release aldosterone

(2) Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
(3) Anterior pituitary to release vasopressin
(4) Juxta-glomerular cells to release renin

16) Match the List-I with List-II.

List - I List - II

A Parapodia I Saccoglossus

B Stomochord II Obelia

C Calcareous ossicles III Nereis

D Metagenesis IV Asterias
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

17) Assertion (A): The first cellular form of life did not possibly originate till about 2000 mya.
Reason (R): Chemical evolution was preceded by origin of life according to Oparin and Haldane.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) A is correct but R is not correct

18) Assertion (A): Thymosin promotes the production of antibodies to provide cell mediated
immunity.
Reason(R): Thymosin plays a major role in the differentiation of T-lymphocytes.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) A is correct but R is not correct

19) Part of the brain that is associated with expression of emotional reactions and motivation is

(1) Pons
(2) Limbic system
(3) Medulla
(4) Cerebellum

20) Match the following

Column – I Column – II

a Elution i Gene gun

b Competence of host ii Ca2+

c Biolistics iii Beta-galactosidase

d Insertional inactivation iv Extraction of DNA from agarose gel

a b c d

1 iii iv ii i

2 iv ii i iii

3 iv iii i ii

4 ii iv iii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Which technique is used to check the progression of restriction enzyme digestion?

(1) PCR
(2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) Southern Blotting
(4) Down stream processing
22) Cardiac disorder which is characterised by sudden damage to heart muscles due to inadequate
blood supply is

(1) Heart failure

(2) Cardiac arrest
(3) Heart attack
(4) Atherosclerosis

23) Select the incorrect match.

(1) Petromyzon - 6 - 15 pairs of gill slits

(2) Psittacula - Hind limbs with scales
(3) Torpedo - Electric organs
(4) Ichthyophis - Dry and cornified skin

24) Which of the following permits limited movements?

(1) Joint between carpal and metacarpal of thumb

(2) Joint between atlas and axis
(3) Joint between carpals
(4) Joint between the adjacent vertebrae

25) Given below are four statements regarding human.

A) Tunica media in artery is thicker than in vein.
B) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to the heart wall is reduced.
C) Persons with blood group "Rh+ve" can donate blood many times to any blood group person.
D) Calcium ions prevent blood clotting during injury.
Which of the above statements are incorrect

(1) A and D
(2) B and C
(3) A and B
(4) C and D

26) Statement-I: The geological history of earth closely correlates with the biological history of
earth.
Statement-II: During evolution the rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life cycle or the
life span.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

27) Statement A: Elemental analysis gives elemental composition of living tissues.

Statement B: Compound analysis gives an idea of kinds of organic and inorganic constituents.
(1) Both statement A and statement B are incorrect
(2) Both statement A and statement B are correct
(3) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct
(4) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect

28) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching

(1) a-foreign DNA, b-vector DNA, c-translation, d-PCR

(2) a-vector DNA, b-foreign DNA, c-transduction, d-electrophoresis
(3) a-foreign DNA, b-vector DNA, c-transformation, d-rDNA technology
(4) a-vector DNA, b-foreign DNA, c-transformation, d-rDNA technology

29) Match the following columns

Column-I Column-II

A Ladybird controls i Bacillus thuringiensis

B Baculovirus ii Trichoderma

C Fungi iii Aphids

D Bt Cotton iv Nucleopolyhedrovirus

A B C D

1 ii iv iii i

2 iii iv ii i

3 iv i ii iii

4 iii ii i iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) Assertion: RNAi technique helps to prevent the infestation of roots by nematodes in tobacco
plants.
Reason: Nematode specific gene introduced in tobacco plant produces dsRNA which prevents
translation of nematode mRNA.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true

31) In the nephron, the glucose is reabsorbed from

(1) PCT by passive transport

(2) PCT by active transport
(3) DCT by active transport
(4) DCT by passive transport

32) Read the following

(a) Secreted by alpha cells of islets of Langerhans
(b) It is a peptide hormone
(c) Deficiency may lead to diabetes insipidus
(d) Enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization
(e) Influences mainly hepatocytes and adipocytes
Which of the above features are suitable for insulin?

(1) (a), (b), (d), (e)

(2) (b), (d), (e)
(3) (b), (c), (d), (e)
(4) (c), (d), (e)

33) Sea hare is a/an

(1) Mammal
(2) Arthropod
(3) Mollusc
(4) Bony fish

34) Statement-I: The polar bodies formed during oogenesis in human females are haploid.
Statement-II: The formation of second polar body takes place soon after ovulation in the body
cavity of human females.

(1) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

35) In the given four statements (a-d) with respect to the anatomy of skeletal muscles
(a) They have striations
(b) The light band contains myosin filaments
(c) H zone is the central part of A-band
(d) Tropomyosin is a protein of thick filament
The correct statements are

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (c)
(4) (a), (d)

36) In a genetic deformation, if the Bidder’s canal were to be not formed in a male frog, it could fail
to

(1) Synthesise urine

(2) Urinate through cloaca
(3) Synthesise sperms
(4) Release the sperms

37) Match the following

List-I List-II

A Common cold I Alveolar infection

B Pneumonia II Nose and respiratory passage infection

C Amoebiasis III Lymphoid tissue infection

D Ringworm IV Integumentary infection

E Filariasis V Intestinal infection

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-V, D-II, E-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV, E-V
(3) A-II, B-I, C-V, D-IV, E-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-V, E-II

38) Normally CO2 is major gas liberated during fermentation but during one of the following process
major gas liberated is NOT CO2. What is it ?

(1) Preparation of beer and wine

(2) Preparation of bread
(3) Bio gas production
(4) Preparation of idly and dosa batter
39) The following events all are possible in fallopian tube except

(1) Completion of meiosis in oogenesis

(2) Formation of blastocyst from morula
(3) Fertilization of ovum with the sperm
(4) Cleavages of zygote by mitosis

40) Surgical contraceptive methods in humans,

(1) Prevent the gamete formation

(2) Reduce the sexual urge
(3) Obstruct the fertilization
(4) Decrease the sex hormone secretion

41) Read the following respiratory capacities

(a) Inspiratory capacity
(b) Expiratory capacity
(c) Functional residual capacity
(d) Vital capacity
Arrange them in a sequence in an ascending order

(1) b-c-a-d
(2) b-a-c-d
(3) b-d-a-c
(4) b-c-d-a

42) Which of the following is not an example of convergent evolution?

(1) Potato and sweet potato

(2) Insectivorous and vegetarian finches
(3) Spotted cuscus and lemur
(4) Eyes of octopus and vertebrate

43) Identify the correct statements about biomolecules.

A. Lipids are generally water soluble.
B. Proteins are polypeptides.
C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars.
D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines.
E. Almost all enzymes are proteins
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and C only

(2) B, D and E only
(3) B, C and E only
(4) C, D and E only

44) The following reaction depicts the activity of a particular class of enzymes:
Identify the enzyme class 'E' from the following options :

(1) Isomerases
(2) Ligases
(3) Transferases
(4) Lyases

45) The specific receptors for neurotransmitters in a synapse are present on ______.

(1) Pre-synaptic membrane

(2) Post-synaptic membrane
(3) Myelin sheath
(4) Schwann cell
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 2 4 1 3 4 2 2 2 2 3 1 3 1 1 2 2 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 3 2 3 1 1 2 1 2 3 3 2 2 1 4 2 1 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 4 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 1 1 3 2 4 3 2 3 3 2 4 1 4 4 3 3 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 3 4 3 3 3 2 4 1 2 4 2 4 3 2 3 4 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 3 4 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 4 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 4 3 2 3 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 2 4 4 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 3 4 2 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 4 3 4 2 3 4 1 3 2 1 3 4 3 4 2 4 3 2 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 3 4 4 4 1 2 3 2 1 2 2 3 1 3 4 3 3 2 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

2) Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

3) Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

4) Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

5) Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

6)

7)

Energy Density =

Energy
Given, Energy1 = Energy2

E2 = 2E1
8)

10 cm

9)
r2 – r1 = 0.88 mm

10)

11)

12) Question Explanation : We need to choose the correct options based on the circuit show.
Concept : Circuit Analysis
Solution :
Option (1) Since R4 = R5 and both are in parallel so current will be equal.
Option (2) Reducing R3 branch.

Again resistance of both branches is equal so current is also equal.

Option (3) and (4) current in R1 is equal to current in R2, R4 and R5.
Final Answer : Option (1), (2) and (4)

13)
 Explaining the Question :-
In this equation, initially spring compressed and block is in rest at negative amplitude 'A'.
when bullet strikes with velocity V0 and embeded into block
Now we have to find the position x of the block with time.
Concept:-
This question is based on Amplitude and initial phase are change for new system as energy is
changed.
Solution :-

mv0 = 2mv

A1 =

14)
Req = 2Ω [All 3 resistances are in parallel]

So total current = = 12 Amp.

16)

Magnetic field at O :

, along – z-axis
 , along – x-axis

, along – x-axis

17)
Q = CV = 10 μF × 10 V
= 100 µC
When extra charge of 200 μC is placed on positive plate then net charge on positive plate then
net charge on positive plate will be + 300 μC (say Q1) and on negative plate will be – 100 μC
(say Q2). These charges will be redistributed on four faces of two plates. charges on two facing
surfaces of capacitors will be equal and opposite (say q and – q). Charge on two other surfaces
will be (Q1– q) and (Q2 + q). Now take a point P in the material of first plate.
Write the expression for electric field due to all charges and equate to zero (because point P
lies within conductor, where electric field must be zero). Assuming direction of electric field
right to be positive,

0 =E=
or Q1 – q – Q2 – q = 0

⇒ or 2q = Q1 – Q2 or q =
Substituting the value of q the distribution of charge on the four surfaces of two plates will be

as shown. The two surfaces which face

each other act as capacitor So, charge on capacitor will be

V=
Potential difference = 20 V.
18) R = RC+ AA
= R0C [1 + αCΔθ] + R0A [1 + αA Δθ]
= [R0C + R0A] + Δθ [R0CαC + R0AαA]
It is given
R0C + R0A = 30Ω irrespective of temperature.
and so –0.5 ROC + 4ROA = 0 solving

we get

19) ki + vi = kƒ + vƒ

mv2 = .....(1)

m(2v)2 = .....(2)

(1)/(2) :

20) (A) PV → constant

T → constant, ΔU = 0
V increases W > 0
ΔQ > 0
(B) P ∝ T Isochoric W = 0
T increases ΔU > 0
ΔQ > 0
(C) P → constant
V increase W > 0
T increases ΔU > 0
ΔQ > 0
(D) V ∝ T → Isobaric
V decreases W < 0
T decreases ΔU < 0
ΔQ < 0

21)

VA =

23) Question Explanation: This checks a common misconception regarding the net charge of
extrinsic semiconductors after adding pentavalent or trivalent impurities.
Concept: Total protons equal total electrons.
Formula: (Mass Action Law)
Calculation: Although majority carriers are electrons, the atoms (dopant and host) are
 initially neutral, so the net charge remains zero.
Final Answer : Option (3)

24) Question Explanation : The microscope measures three vertical positions to determine
the physical depth of the slab and the shifted depth caused by refraction, allowing the
calculation of the glass's optical density.
Concept : Refractive index is the ratio of real depth to apparent depth.

Formula :
Calculation: Real Depth
Apparent Depth

Final Answer : Option (2)

25) Question Explanation:

This problem analyzes the phase shift introduced when a light wave is split, with one part
passing through a glass slab. We calculate the thickness required to create a specific path
difference that results in total destructive interference.

Concept:
Optical path difference creates a phase shift between coherent waves.

Solution:
Optical Path Difference (Δx) = (μ – 1)t

For destructive interference: Δx = (2n – 1)

Given: λ = 600 nm, μ = 1.5. For the minimum thickness (n = 1):

A. Condition: (μ – 1)t =

B. Calculation: (1.5 – 1)t =

C. 0.5t = 300 nm ⟹ t = 600 nm or 0.6 ∖ mum.

Final Answer: Option (3)

26) Question Explanation:

This problem calculates the additional number of wave cycles that occupy a physical space
when a medium is introduced. It requires comparing the wavelength in a vacuum to the
shorter wavelength inside the glass.

Concept:
Wavelength decreases in a medium, so more waves fit.

Solution:

Extra waves (Nextra) =

Given: d = 2 mm = 2 × 10–3 m, μ = 1.5, λ0 = 500 nm = 5 × 10–7 m.

A. Wavelength in glass:

B. Number of waves in glass (Ng):

C. Number of waves in air (Na):

D. Difference: 6000 – 4000 = 2000 extra waves.

Alternatively, using the path difference:

Final Answer: Option (1)

27) PV3/2 = constant and PV = nRT

V1/2T = const.

29)
from conservation of angular momentum
Iω = I'ω'

⇒ =

⇒
⇒ ω' = 10 rad/s

30)

(I) Gravitational force between two particles is independent of presence of other particles.
Hence, the force between M and m is F.
(II) Gravitational force on M = F1 + F2

31) e = L

⇒ L1 =
L2 = = 0.256
M=

M=1 = 1.6 × 10–4 H

32) The meniscus of liquids differs because the adhesive forces in water are higher than the
cohesive forces. The viscosity of mercury is higher than that of water.

34)

For the last 0.5 m upward motion of man

02 = u2 – 2 × g × 0.5 ⇒
For initial 0.4 m

, S = 0.4 m, v = ,u=0
2 2
v = u + 20 s

F = 1350 N.

35)

F1 + F2 = mg ....(i)
If upper spring is cut

a= = 6 ⇒ F1 = 4m

If lower spring is cut ∴ F2 = 6m

a= = =4

36) Question explanation: The problem describes a system of sixteen beads of equal mass on
a smooth incline plane with an inclination angle θ = sin–1(1/3). Some beads are on the incline
while the rest hang over the top. The acceleration of each beed is given g/2. we need to
determine the arrangement of the beads.
Concept :- Newton's second law of motion.
Solution :-
Let n beads each of mass m are hanging vertically, then
n mg – T = nm . g/2

_______(1)
also,

Final Answer: The correct option is (4)

37)

After 1st collision, speed = (2 × 5) + 3 = 13 m/s

After 2nd collision, speed = (2 × 3) + 13 = 19 m/s
Final speed = 19 m/s

38) F = dyne = 100 dyne

39) Since two-third of the wooden block is immersed in water, its density = 2ρ/3 where ρ is the
density of water.
Let the volume of the chip be V. Then its weight is (2/3)Vρg. The upthrust acting on it inside
the water is Vρg. Hence, unbalanced upward force is Vρg (1 – 2 / 3) = Vρg / 3.
Hence, its acceleration a in the upward direction is

a= =
If t be the required time, then

1=0+ at2 = t2

Hence, t2 = = = 0.4
∴t= = 0.63 s
40)

B= ⇒ B ∝ θi

So, that
⇒ B 1 = B2

41) The path difference introduced by a plate of thickness t and refractive index μ is given by
Δ = (μ –1) t. A path difference of l introduced a phase shift of β where β = λ D/(2d),
2d = separation between slits

So, a path difference of (μ –1)t introduces a shift x on the screen given by x =

For first plate : x =

For second plate :

⇒ μ2 = 1.75

42) E =

where q = ρ πR3

44) QUESTION EXPLANATION: Calculate total distance between object and image using
focal distances.
CONCEPT: Geometric relationship in Newton's coordinate system.
SOLUTION: Total distance D = |u| + |v|. In Newton's terms, |u| = x1 + f and |v| = x2 +
f. Therefore, D = (x1 + f) + (x2 + f) = x1 + x2 + 2f.
Final Answer: Option (3)

45) Vertical velocity after first collision = eu sin θ

New time of flight T′ =

R′ = uxT′

x = R + R′ = (1 + e)
CHEMISTRY

47)

Total number of lines

48)

50) If reaction is balanced

2MnO4– + 10I– + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 5I2 + 8H2O

51) (i) Fe+2 —→ Fe+3 + e

(ii) Fe+2 + —→ + Fe+3 + 3e

(iii) —→ + 2e–
(A) 5 mole of FeSO4 can be oxidised
(C) 5/3 mole of FeC2O4 can be oxidised
(D) 2.5 mole of H2C2O4 can be oxidised

52)

Reaction for formation of ammonia: N₂ + 3H₂ ⟶ 2NH₃

Bond energies of reactants:
N≡N = 240 kJ mol⁻¹
3 H–H = 3 × 400 = 1200 kJ mol⁻¹
Total = 1440 kJ
Bond energies of products:
2NH₃ contains 6 N–H bonds
Bond energy of N–H = x
ΔHf for 2 mol NH₃ = 2 × (−120) = −240 kJ mol⁻¹
Using formula:
−240 = 1440 − 6x
6x = 1680
x = 280 kJ mol⁻¹

53)

Fact
 54)

Theory base

55)

Explain the question:

The goal is to determine the equilibrium constant (K3) for a target reaction by combining and
manipulating two given gaseous reactions and their respective equilibrium constants (K1 and
K2).

Concept: Equilibrium Constant, Manipulation of Equilibrium Reactions.

Solution:
Given reactions:

Required reaction:

Step 1: Manipulate first reaction

Reverse and multiply by :

Step 2: Add modified reaction to second reaction

Adding:

Step 3: Calculate

Final Answer: Option (3)

57)

Question Explanation:
We must check correctness of two qualitative analysis statements : precipitation of Group-III
cations and Nessler's reagent test.

Concept:
this question is based on qualitative inorganic analysis (group separation and ammonium ion
test)

Solution:
A. Statement I : Al3+ and Fe3+ are Group-III cations. They precipitated as hydroxides by NH4OH in
presence of NH4Cl ⇒ Correct.
B. Statement II : Nessler's reagent (alkaline K2HgI4) reacts with NH3 to give brown coloration or
precipitate of basic mercury(II) amido-iodide

[OHg2.NH2]I ⇒ Correct

A. Both statement I and II are correct.

Final Answer: Option (2)

59) ClO4ϴ
Cl – belongs to 3rd period

60) Explain Question: Identify the correct ionization energy (IE) trend graph for group 13.
Concept: This question is based on Ionization Energy
Solution: In group 13, I.E. does not decrease smoothly due to d- and f-electron shielding. B >
Tl > Ga > Al > In shows correct irregular trend due to poor shielding effects.
Final Answer: 4

63)

Explanation – The question asks to determine the correct order of stability among the given
compounds.

Concept – (Order of stability of BiCl3 & BiCl5, PbCl4, PbCl3, AICl & AlCl3, GeCl4 &
CreCl2, inert pair effect)

The correct order for stability is 3. BiCl3 > BiCl5.

Here's why:

A. Inert Pair Effect: As you go down Group 15 (Nitrogen family), the tendency for the s
electrons in the valence shell to remain unshared increases. This is known as the inert
pair effect. Bismuth (Bi) is a heavy element in this group, and the +3 oxidation state is
much more stable than the +5 oxidation state due to this effect. Therefore, BiCl3 is more
stable than BiCl5.

Let's look at why the other options are incorrect:

A. PbCl4 > PbCl2: The opposite is true. PbCl2 is more stable than PbCl4. Lead (Pb) also exhibits
the inert pair effect, where the +2 oxidation state is favored over the +4 state.
B. AlCl > AlCl 3 : AlCl 3 is the stable form. AlCl is only stable in the gas phase at very high
temperatures.
C. GeCl2 > GeCl4: The opposite is true. GeCl4 is more stable than GeCl2. Although Ge can exhibit
both +2 and +4 oxidation states, +4 is the more stable oxidation state.
64) Solution:

stability of carbon free Radical

∝ + M effect
∝ Resonance
∝ Number of ∝ – H
∝ + I effect

(I) :- 8 ∝ – H

(II) :-5∝–H

(III) :- 1 ∝ –H
∴ Order of stability:- I > II > III

Hence,
Correct option: (1)

65) Question Explanation :

Question asking about only aromatic compounds.

Concept :
This question is based on Aromaticity (4π+2) πe– ; Hiikel rule.

Solution :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

Final Answer :
Option (4)

67)

Question Explanation:
Calculate % Nitrogen in 0.5 g sample where evolved NH3 neutralizes 10 mL of 1 M H2SO4.
Concept:
Kjeldahl Stoichiometry
Solution:
Moles of Nitrogen: Reaction ratio 2NH3: 1H2SO4 implies moles of N is twice the moles of acid.
nN = 2 × (1 M × 0.010L) = .020 mol
Percentage of Nitrogen:

Final Answer:
Option (3)

68)

Isotonic solutions: i₁C₁ = i₂C₂

Na₂SO₄ ⇌ 2Na⁺ + SO₄²⁻
i = 1 + 2α
0.004(1 + 2α) = 0.01
1 + 2α = 2.5
α = 0.75%
dissociation = 75%

69)

According to Henry’s law, solubility of a gas in a liquid is inversely proportional to its Henry’s
law constant (KH). Thus, larger (KH) means lower solubility and smaller (KH) means higher
solubility.
Given values: He = 144.97, N₂ = 76.48, H₂ = 69.16, O₂ = 34.86.
So solubility increases as (KH) decreases.
Therefore order of increasing solubility is:
He < N₂ < H₂ < O₂.

70)
 E.M.F. of an electrochemical cell depends on the nature of electrodes and electrolyte
concentration, not on the size of electrodes.
For a lead storage battery, E.M.F. increases with increase in concentration of H₂SO₄ (as per
Nernst equation).

A. Size of anode → does not affect E.M.F.

B. Size of cathode → does not affect E.M.F.
C. In a Lead–acid battery, the cell reaction is:Pb + PbO₂ + 2H₂SO₄ → 2PbSO₄ + 2H₂OFrom the
Nernst equation, E.M.F. increases when the concentration of H₂SO₄ increases.

71)

Given: Concentration, c = 0.5 M = 0.5 103mol m–3 Resistance, R = 50 Ω

Distance between electrodes, l = 2.2 cm = 0.022 m
Electrode area, A = 4.4 cm2 = 4.4 \times 10–4 m2
1. Calculate the cell constant
2. Calculate the conductance
3. Calculate the conductivity
4. Finally, molar conductance

72)

These are always elementary reactions.

73)

1 × 10–1 s–1

79)

Explain Question:

Determine the correct sequence of products formed when methyl chloride reacts with AlC3, Cl2
(1 mole, ), and AgCN.

Concept:

(i) Friedel crafts alkylation

(ii) Halogenation (Cl2 / )

(iii) SN2 Mechanism.

Solution:
Final answer: option (4)

80)

Explaining the Question :-

Question is asking about the rate of SN1.
Concept:- This question is based on Based on mechanism of SN1 reaction.
Solution :-
Rate of SN1 ∝ Stability of carbocation formed in rds

∝
∝ Leaving group ability if alkyl part is same.
Stability of carbocations of given alkyl bromides is :

Rate of SN1 (Hydrolysis) reaction : II > III > IV > I

Final Answer :- (3)

81) LGA ∝ stability of anion.

83) Aldehyde / Ketone / Acid Halide are reduced to alcohol by NaBH4

84)

Explaining the Question :-

Which of following order is correct.
Concept:- This question is based on
Reactivity of ESR, NAR, EAR.
Solution :-

(a)

Rate of ESR ∝ e– density on ring <

Given order is correct.

(b)

Rate of NAR ∝⊕ ne charge on carbonyl carbon ∝

Given order is correct.

(c)
Rate of EAR ∝ stability of C⊕
Given order is correct.
(d) CH2 = CH – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH2 = CH – Cl
Rate of EAR ∝ stability of C⊕
So all a,b,c,d are correct
Final Answer :- (4)

85) Question Explanation : Identify major product of given reaction.

Concept : Halogenation of aromatic compounds.

Solution :
Rate pf ESR ∝ e⊝ density on ring

Final Answer : Option (4)

86)

Explain question :- Complete the following reaction sequence and find product ?
Concept: This question is based on Diazotisation, substitution reaction and ozonolysis
Solution:

Final Answer: (4)

 88)

89)

Explain Question:
We need to determine the number of Co–Co bonds present in [Co2(CO)8].

Concept:
This question is based on metal–metal bonding in carbonyl complexes.

Solution:

In [Co2(CO)8], the structure contains bridging and terminal CO ligands.

The two cobalt atoms are directly bonded to each other through a single Co–Co bond. Thus,
the complex has 1 metal–metal bond.

Final Answer: Option (4)

BOTANY

91) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 35

92)

(A) Incorrect — Brain-dead patient does not have self-consciousness.

(B) Correct — Viruses are obligate parasites.
(C) Correct — VAM (Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhiza) helps phosphate absorption.
(D) Correct — In bryophytes, water conduction occurs through parenchyma cells.
(E) Correct — Streptokinase is produced by Streptococcus.
Number of correct statements = 4

93) NCERT XII Pg.# 97,98

94)
"Being a connecting link, the boundaries of Kingdom Protista are not well defined."

95)

Endosperm is formed after fertilization, initially by free nuclear divisions. Thus, free nuclear
divisions are specific to endosperm formation.

96)

NCERT Page-94

97) A-site receives aminoacyl tRNA,

P-site holds peptidyl tRNA,
E-site is exit site.

98) All except III are correct. Polymorphism is not equal in all regions.

99) This is the structure of a nucleosome.

100)

During replication new DNA is synthesized into 5' → 3' direction.

101)

(A) Monoploidy → (5) x

(B) Monosomy → (1) 2n – 1
(C) Nullisomy → (4) 2n – 2
(D) Trisomy → (2) 2n + 1
(E) Tetrasomy → (3) 2n + 2
(A)–(5), B–(1), (C)–(4), (D)–(2), (E)–(3)

102) NCERT XII, Pg.# (E) 97, 100, 108,119; (H) 105, 108, 116, 128

103)

NCERT XII Pg. # 90

104)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 103,104

105)
NCERT Pg. # 235,236

106) NCERT Pg. # 234

107)

NCERT Page no. 194

108)

NCERT Pg. No. 232, 233

109) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 86

110) NCERT - XI Pg. # 92, 6.3.3

111) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 90

112) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 32

113) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 31

114)

Rhodophyceae - Chlorophyll a & d, fucoxanthin - Missmatch

Fucoxanthin is not a characteristic pigment of Rhodophyceae; it is found in Phaeophyceae
(brown algae).

115) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 14 (Para 1st)

Pg. # 16 (Para 2nd)
Pg. # 18 (Para 1st)
Pg. # 20 (Para 3rd)

116) Main plant body in bryophytes is sporophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is

gametophytic-Incorrect
Because in bryophytes, the dominant phase is gametophyte. The sporophyte is dependent on
the gametophyte. In pteridophytes, however, the sporophyte is the dominant, independent
phase."

117)

(A) GA - extend market period of fruits correct

(B) Ethylene - increas\e surface are of absorption - correct
 (C) CK - Apical hook formation - incorrect (done by ethylene)
(D) GA - Internodal elongation in deep water rice plant - incorrect (done by ethylene)

118)

To find the compounds not naturally found in plants, we classify each substance:

A. Natural Phytohormones:
A. Zeatin (a natural cytokinin).
B. Indole acetic acid (IAA) (the principal natural auxin).
C. Indole Butyric Acid (IBA) is primarily used as a synthetic rooting agent, though it has
been detected naturally in some plants.
B. Synthetic/Artificial PGRs (not naturally found in plants):
A. 2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D): A strong synthetic auxin used as an
herbicide.
B. Naphthalene acetic acid (NAA): A synthetic auxin widely used to promote rooting.
C. Kinetin: A synthetic cytokinin (a furfurylaminopurine) that was discovered as a
breakdown product of DNA and is not naturally synthesized by plants in a hormonal role.

Based on standard biological classification, the three compounds considered not naturally found in
plants are 2,4-D, NAA, and Kinetin.

119)

F2 phenotypic ratio = 9 : 3:3:1 - correct

Explains law of independent assortment - correct
F2 is obtained by selfing F1 plants, not by crossing F1 with a parent -Incorrect
F1 produces 4 types of gametes in equal proportion - correct

120) NCERT XII Pg.# 70

121)

AaBb: Gametes = 4, Phenotypes = 4, Genotypes = 9, Zygotes = 16.

AaBbCc: Gametes = 8, Phenotypes = 8, Genotypes = 27, Zygotes = 64.
Correct matching:
(1) Types of Gametes → 4 and 8 → b and i
(2) Types of Phenotype → 4 and 8 → c and ii
(3) Types of Genotype → 9 and 27 → a and iv
(4) Total possible zygotic combination → 16 and 64 → d and iii
Thus: 1 - b - i, 2 - c - ii, 3 - a - iv, 4 - d - iii.

122) (a) Wild allele is one which was originally present in population & may be dominant or
recessive → ✅
(b) Any two factors which have same locus on homologous chromosomes are allelomorphs → ✅
(c) Recessive allele is also called as mutant allele → ✅ (mutations often cause recessiveness).
(d) F₁ plants of reciprocal crosses were always similar in Mendel’s experiments → ✅
 123) NCERT XI Pg. # 38

124)

(1) Presence of homosporous condition → incorrect (gymnosperms are heterosporous)

(2) Presence of haploid endosperm → correct
(3) Absence of mycorrhizal roots → incorrect (Pinus has mycorrhiza)
(4) Absence of xylem and phloem → incorrect (vascular tissues present)

125) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 67

126) NCERT XI # 59

127)

A. (a) Jan Ingenhousz → (ii) Essentiality of sunlight to plants

He showed that plants need sunlight to purify air (photosynthesize).
B. (b) Joseph Priestley → (iii) Discovered oxygen
He discovered that plants release a gas (later identified as oxygen) which supports
combustion.
C. (c) T. W. Engelmann → (i) First action spectrum of photosynthesis
He used a prism and green algae with bacteria to show that blue and red light are most
effective in photosynthesis.

So the correct matching is:

a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)

128) "Melvin Calvin used radioactive ¹⁴C in carbon dioxide to trace the path of carbon in the
formation of glucose. The compounds were then separated and identified. This led to the
discovery of the Calvin cycle."

129) Photosynthesis involves both physical steps (light absorption by chlorophyll) and chemical
reactions (conversion of CO₂ and H₂O into glucose). Hence, it is not purely physical or
chemical but a combination of both processes.

130)

NCERT XII Pg. # 34

131) Module-1, Pg#124

132)

In cereals like paddy and wheat, pollen grains have a very short viability period and lose their
ability to fertilize within 30 minutes of being released.
 133)

The correct answer is Sucrose → Glucose + Fructose.

Invertase (also known as sucrase) catalyzes the hydrolysis of sucrose (a disaccharide) into its
two monosaccharides: glucose and fructose. This process is called inversion, because it
changes the optical rotation of the solution, and it is commonly referred to as "invert sugar"
when sucrose is broken down into glucose and fructose.
Here's a breakdown of the options:

A. Glucose → Glucose-6-phosphate: This is catalyzed by hexokinase, not invertase.

B. Fructose-6-phosphate → Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate: This is catalyzed by phosphofructokinase,
not invertase.
C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and Dihydroxyacetone phosphate: These are intermediates in
glycolysis, not related to invertase.
D. Sucrose → Glucose + Fructose: This is the correct reaction catalyzed by invertase.

Thus, invertase catalyzes the conversion of sucrose to glucose and fructose.

134)

A. Tripalmitin (C51H98O6) is a fat that undergoes β-oxidation to produce acetyl-CoA.

B. Each palmitic acid (C16H32O2) produces 8 acetyl-CoA through β-oxidation.
C. Since tripalmitin contains 3 palmitic acid molecules, it produces:
D. 8 × 3 = 24 acetyl-CoA per tripalmitin molecule.
E. For two tripalmitin molecules ➔ 24 × 2 = 48 acetyl-CoA.
F. Each acetyl-CoA enters the Krebs cycle and releases 2 CO2 molecules:
G. 48 acetyl-CoA × 2 CO2 = 96 CO2 molecules.
H. Additionally, glycerol backbone oxidation contributes 6 CO2 molecules (3 per molecule of
tripalmitin).

Thus, the total CO2 released = 96 + 6 = 102 CO2 molecules.

135) In G₁ phase, the cell has 14 chromosomes and 2C DNA.

After S-phase, chromosome number remains 14, but DNA content becomes 4C due to
replication.
At anaphase, sister chromatids separate, so chromosomes become 28 while DNA remains 4C.

ZOOLOGY

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