25-05-2026

6001CMD30303125APTS27 MD

PHYSICS

1) At what distance from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm an object should be placed so that the
size of image be 1/4th of the object :-

(1) 30 cm
(2) 60 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 150 cm

2) A point moves linearly with deceleration which is given by dv/dt = , where α is a positive
constant. At the start v = v0. The distance traveled by particle before it stops will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

In which of the following cases the net force acting on the body is not zero?

(1) A cork of mass 10 g floating down with a constant speed

(2) A drop of rain falling down with a constant speed
(3) A pebble of mass 0.05 kg is thrown vertically upwards
(4) A car moving with a constant speed of 20 km h–1 on a rough road

4) A bullet of mass m is shot through a wooden block of mass M suspended on a string of length ℓ.
The centre of gravity of the block rises a distance y. Find the speed of the bullet as it emerges from
the block if the initial speed of the bullet is u :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
5) A particle collides elastically with two moving walls one by one as shown on a horizontal plane.

Find the final speed of the particle after two collisions :-

(1) 11 m/s
(2) 19 m/s
(3) 21 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

6) A simple harmonic motion has an amplitude A and time period T. The time required by it to travel
from x = A to x = A/2 is:-

(1) T/6
(2) T/4
(3) T/3
(4) T/2

7) In the given figure a steel wire is just held taut between fixed wall and a 3 kg block. If the wire is
cooled by a temperature ΔT, the 3 kg block is on the verge of moving. What is ΔT ?

(1) 1.25°C
(2) 8.5°C
(3) 3.75°C
(4) 11.5°C

8) A coin placed on a rotating turntable just slips if it is placed at a distance of 16 cm from the
centre. If the angular velocity of the turntable is doubled, it will just slip at a distance of

(1) 1 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 8 cm

9) Point masses 1, 2, 3 and 4 kg are lying at the point (0, 0, 0), (2, 0, 0), (0, 3, 0) and (– 2, – 2, 0)
respectively. The moment of inertia of this system about x-axis will be : -

(1) 43 kg – m2
(2) 34 kg – m2
(3) 27 kg – m2
(4) 72 kg – m2

10) Two blocks of masses m1 = 2kg and m2 = 4 kg hang over a massless pulley as shown in the
figure. A force F0 = 100 N acting at the axis of the pulley accelerates the system upwards. Then

which of the following is incorrect :

(1) acceleration of 2 kg mass is 15 m/s2

(2) acceleration of 4 kg mass is 2.5 m/s2
(3) acceleration of both the masses is same
(4) acceleration of both the masses is upward

11) What is the reading of micrometer screwgauge shown in figure :

(1) 2.31 mm
(2) 2.29 mm
(3) 2.36 mm
(4) 2.41 mm

12) A cube has side length Its volume is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) A transverse wave is travelling along a stretched string from right to left. The figure shown
represents the shape of the string (snapshot) at a given instant. At this instant

(1) the particles at A, B and H have downward velocity

(2) the particles at D, E and F have downward velocity
(3) the particles at C, E and G have zero velocity
(4) the particles at A and F have maximum velocity

14) A bead of mass m stays at point P(a, b) on a wire bent in the shape of a parabola y = 4Cx2 and
rotating with angular speed w (see figure). The value of ω is (neglect friction) :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) In the open organ pipe, the fundamental frequency is 30 vibration/sec. If the organ pipe is
closed, then the fundamental frequency will be

(1) 10 vib/sec
(2) 20 vib/sec
(3) 30 vib/sec
(4) 15 vib/sec

16) The opening near the bottom of the vessel shown in figure has an area A. A disk is held against
the opening to keep the liquid from running out. Let F1 be the net force on the disk applied by liquid
and air in this case. Now the disc is moved away from the opening a short distance. The liquid comes
out and strikes the disk inelastically. Let F2 be the force exerted by the liquid in this condition. Then,

F1/F2 is :-

(1)

(2) 1

(3)
(4)

17) The bulk modulus of a spherical body is 'B'. If it is subjected to uniform pressure P, then
fractional decrease in surface area is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A tunnel is dug along a diameter of the Earth. If Me and Re are the mass and radius respectively
of Earth, then the magnitude of force on a particle of mass m placed in the tunnel at a distance 'r'
from the centre of the earth is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A substance is cooled by a constant energy loss per second (power) its temperature vs time

graph is shown. The value of Ssolid : Sliquid : Sgas :-

(1) 2 : 3 : 3
(2) 3 : 6 : 2
(3) 2 : 6 : 3
(4) 1 : 3 : 2

20) If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s moduli of steel and brass wires in the figure are a,b and
c respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths is :-

(1) 2a2c/b
(2) 3a/2b2c
(3) 2ac/b2
(4) 3c/2ab2

21) In a uniformly charged sphere of total charge Q and radius R, the electric field E is plotted as
function of distance from the centre. The graph which would correspond to the above will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A charge Q is placed at a distance of 4R above the centre of a disc of radius R. The magnitude of
flux through the disc is ϕ. Now a hemispherical shell of radius R is placed over the disc such that it
forms a closed surface. The flux through the curved surface (taking direction of area vector along

outward normal as positive), is:

(1) Zero
(2) ϕ
(3) –ϕ
(4) 2ϕ

23) Figure shows three circular arcs, each of radius R and total charge as indicated. The net electric

potential at the centre of curvature is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in figure is :

(1) v0

(2)

(3)

(4)

25)

Given

R1 = 1 Ω C1 = 2μF
 R2 = 2 Ω C2 = 4μF
The time constants (in m s) for the circuits, I, II, III are respectively :

(1) 18, 18/9, 4

(2) 18, 4, 8/9
(3) 4, 8/9, 18
(4) 8/9, 18, 4

26) The equivalent resistance of the circuit about AB is :

(1) 2R
(2) R/2
(3) 3R/2
(4) 3R

27) A voltmeter of resistance 1800 Ω is used to measure the potential difference across a 200 Ω
resistor, which is connected to a power supply of emf 50 V and internal resistance of 20 Ω. What is
the percentage decrease in the potential difference across the 200 Ω resistor when the voltmeter is
connected.

(1) 1%
(2) 5%
(3) 10%
(4) 25%

28) If in the circuit shown, the internal resistance of the battery is 1.5Ω and VP and VQ are the
potentials at P & Q respectively what is the potential difference between P and Q

(1) Zero
(2) 4 volts (VP > VQ)
(3) 4 volt (VQ > VP)
(4) 2.5 volt (VQ > VP)

29) If the acceleration of a charge particle in magnetic field is , then the

values of a are :-
(1) (–2, 5)
(2) (3, 7)
(3) (2, –5)
(4) (–3, 7)

30) A conducting loop starts falling vertically above a wire carrying constant current to the right.

The induced current in the loop at the moment shown is in :-

(1) Clockwise direction

(2) Anticlockwise direction
(3) Zero
(4) Impossible to determine

31) Amplitude of electric field in EM wave is give as E0 = 300 V/m. Amplitude of magnetic field will
be :-

(1) 10–8 T
(2) 10–6 T
(3) 10–10 T
(4) 10–7 T

32) AB and CD are long straight conductors, distance 'd' apart, carrying a current I , the magnetic

field at the midpoint of BC has magnitude :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) For S.H.M, equation is given by

X = 10 sin
graphical relation b/w displacement and velocity is :-
1 2

3 4

(1) 1,2
(2) 2,3
(3) 3,4
(4) 1,4

34) A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit
shown in Figure. The current through the diode is :-

(1) 5 mA
(2) 10 mA
(3) 15 mA
(4) 20 mA

35) The moment of inertia of a sphere about its diameter is 4 unit. Four such spheres are arranged
as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the system about the axis XX' will be :-

(1) 40 unit
(2) 27 unit
(3) 12 unit
(4) 36 unit

36) Angle of a prism is 30° and its refractive index is and one of the surface is silvered. At what
angle of incidence, a ray should be incident on one surface so that after reflection from the silvered
surface, it retraces its path

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4)

37) A plano convex lens of refractive index μ1 fits exactly into a plano concave lens of refractive
index μ2. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If R is radius of curvature of curved
surfaces of lenses, focal length of combination is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A waveform shown when applied to the following circuit will produce which of the following

output waveform ? Assuming ideal diode configuration and R1 = R2

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
39) For given circuit Y is :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) A + B
(4) A · B

40) In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 'a', the first minimum is observed at an angle
30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is
observed at an angle of :

(1)
sin–1

(2)
sin–1

(3)
sin–1

(4)
sin–1

41) Mark the correct statement :-

(1) In case of stationary waves, maximum pressure change occurs at antinodes

(2) In case of stationary waves, maximum pressure change occurs at nodes
(3) In case of stationary waves, pressure change is same at all the nodes and antinodes
(4) In case of stationary waves, no pressure change takes place

42) In a YDSE experiment if a slab whose refractive index can be varied is placed in front of one of
the slits then the variation of resultant intensity at mid-point of screen with ‘μ’ will be best
represented by (μ ≥ 1). [Assume slits of equal width and there is no absorption by slab]

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) In the given figure the object is placed at the center of curvature of the mirror. Find the

instantaneous velocity of image :-

(1)

(2)
(3) 5
(4)

44) A ray of light falls on a transparent sphere as shown in the figure. If the final ray emerges from
the sphere parallel to the horizontal diameter, then calculate the refractive index of the sphere.

Consider that the sphere is kept in air :-

(1) 1.5
(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The momentum of a photon is 33 × 10–29 kg-m/sec. Its frequency will be :-

(1) 3 × 103 Hz
(2) 6 × 103 Hz
(3) 7.5 × 1012 Hz
(4) 1.5 × 1013 Hz

BOTANY

1) Find out incorrect with respect to kingdom protista :

(1) Diatoms have silica cell wall

(2) Dinoflagellates have two flagella
(3) Euglena possess well developed cell wall
(4) Slime mould are without chlorophyll

2) Chief producers in the oceans show / have

(a) Passive floating nature
(b) Stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface
(c) Two thin overlapping shells
(d) Different colouration depending on the main pigments.

(1) (a) & (b)

(2) (a) & (c)
(3) (b) & (d)
(4) (c) & (d)

3) Read the following statements :-

(A) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
(B) Viroids have low molecular weight DNA
(C) Virus are inert outside their specific host cell.
(D) AIDS, small pox and cholera disease caused by Bacteria.
Which statements are correct ?

(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B and D

4) Read the following statements with respect to Pteridophytes and choose the incorrect ones:
(a) Majority of the Pteridophytes are heterosporous.
(b) Selaginella and Salvinia are homosporous .
(c) The spore germinate to give rise to conspicuous, small but multicellular thalloid gametophyte.
(d) Evolutionarily pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to posses vascular tissue.

(1) a and b
(2) a and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b and d

5) Read the following statements and select incorrect only :-

(a) Ulothrix and Volvox are filamentous algae.
(b) A few algae of marine forms such as kelps, form massive plant body.
(c) Chlamydomonas is microscopic, unicellular algae.
(d) Porphyra, Laminaria and Spirogyra are used as food.

(1) b and d
(2) a and d
(3) a and b
(4) b and c

6)

Choose the correct option for liverworts.

(a) Rhizoids are unicellular and branched
(b) Plant body is thalloid and dorsiventral
(c) Sporophyte is dependent upon gametophyte
(d) Gametophytic plant develops from zygote

(1) (a) & (b) are correct

(2) (b) & (d) are correct
(3) (a) & (b) are incorrect
(4) (a) & (d) are incorrect

7) Select the correct matching:

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Gynoecium Mustard,
1. Hypogynous A. occupies the X. Brinjal,
highest position China rose

Gynoecium is
Plum,
2. Epigynous B. situated in the Y.
peach, rose
centre

Guava,
Margin of
cucumber,
thalamus grows
3. Perigynous C. Z. ray
upward enclosing
florets of
ovary completely
sunflower
(1) 1‒A‒X, 2‒B‒Y, 3‒C‒Z
(2) 1‒A‒X, 2‒C‒Z, 3‒B‒Y
(3) 1‒B‒Y, 2‒A‒X, 3‒C‒Z
(4) 1‒A‒X, 2‒B‒Z, 3‒C‒Y

8) Mayr proposed which type of concept of species:

(1) Taxonomic concept

(2) Taxonomic and Biological concept
(3) Biological concept
(4) Genetic concept

9) How many statements are false?

A. The innermost layer of cortex is called endodermis.
B. 'Ring' arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic of dicot stem.
C. Peripheral vascular bundles are generally larger than the centrally located ones in monocot stem.
D. Water containing cavities are present within cortex and phloem parenchyma is absent in Maize
stem.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 3

10) In which one of the following options two characters/functions are not correctly matched with
their particular cellular structure ?

Cellular
Character/Function
Structure

Bound by single membrane called tonoplast

(1) Vacuole
and contain excretory product

Contain water soluble pigment like carotene

(2) and gives the plant a yellow, orange or red Chromoplast
colour

Mainly composed of carbohydrate and capable Primary cell

(3)
of growth wall

Covered with plasma membrane and emerge

(4) Cilia
from centriole-like structure
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Select the correct option with respect to mitosis:-

(1) Chromosomes move to the equator and get alingned along equatorial plate in metaphase
(2) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase
(3) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase
(4) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are clearly visible at the end of prophase

12) If 46 bivalent are present in Prophase - I then number of chromosome in each daughter cell after
meiosis I and II is ______ .

(1) 46 and 46
(2) 23 and 23
(3) 46 and 23
(4) 92 and 46

13) Match List -I with List - II.

List -I List -II

(a) S phase (i) Proteins are synthesized

(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase of cell cycle

Quiescent Interval between mitosis and

(c) (iii)
stage initiation of DNA replication

(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Choose the correct option with respect to ATP synthase enzyme involved in chemiosmosis
process of photosynthesis :-

(1) Consist of one component only

(2) Form transmembrane channel for active transport of proton
(3) F1 part is present on the inner surface of thylakoid membrane
(4) Conformational change in F1 particle makes the enzyme synthesise several molecules of ATP

15) Select the incorrect statement from the following.

 At low intensities, both C3 and C4 plants shows increase in the rate of photosynthesis by
(1)
increasing CO2 concentration
(2) C4 plants shows saturation at 360 µl/L.
(3) C3 plant shows saturation beyond 450 µl/L.
Productivity of tomatoes and bell peppers cannot be increased by enriching environment with
(4)
CO2.

16) Which of the following is not applicable to the given

figure ?

(1) This process occurs when light of wavelengths beyond 680 nm are available for excitation.
(2) This process results only in the synthesis of ATP not of NADPH + H+
(3) This process requires two molecules of H2O to release one O2
(4) Usually this process occurs in the stroma lamellae which lack NADP reductase enzyme

17) Read the following character of C4 plants :-

A. Bundle sheath cell have large number of chloroplast, thick walls & no intercellular space.
B. Oxaloacetic acid formed in Bundle sheath cells.
C. Primary CO2 acceptor is PEP present in mesophyll cell.
D. Mesophyll cell lack RuBisCo enzyme.
Select correct statements :-

(1) A, B & C
(2) A, C & D
(3) B, C & D
(4) A, B & D

18) Given graph represents the absorption spectra of three photosynthetic pigments, chl a, chl b and
β-carotene. Select the correct statement
regarding this.

The curve showing the amount of absorption of different wavelengths of light by a

(1)
photosynthetic pigment is called as absorption spectrum.
(2) Chl a and chl b absorb maximum light in blue and red wavelengths of light
(3) Rate of photosynthesis is maximum in blue and red wavelengths of light
(4) All of these

19)

A. Enzymes for the glycolysis are present in cytoplasm

B. Enzymes for the anaerobic respiration are present in the cytoplasm
C. Enzymes for the lactic acid fermentation are present in cytoplasm of plant cell
D. Enzymes for the alcoholic fermentation are present in cytoplasm of the animal cell
Read the above given all the statement A to D and choose the correct option :-

(1) A & C is correct and B and D are incorrect

(2) A & B is correct but C and D are incorrect
(3) A & B is incorrect but C and D are correct
(4) A & D is incorrect but C and B are correct

20) Redox equivalent generated during oxidation of succinate in the TCA cycle is received by :

(1) Complex I
(2) Complex II
(3) Complex III
(4) Complex IV

21) Read the following statements :

(a) Glycolysis is common both to aerobic and anerobic respiration.
(b) Glycolysis involves complete oxidation of glucose.
(c) ATP is utilised in three different steps of glycolysis.
(d) Energy is released by reduction of respiratory substrates.
Which of the above statements are not correct.
Options :-

(1) Only (a) (b) and (c)

(2) Only (b), (c) and (d)
(3) Only (a) (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

22) Which of the following shows environmental plasticity ?

(1) Cotton
(2) Coriander
(3) Buttercup
(4) Larkspur

23) Which of the following is not a result of redifferentiation ?

(1) Secondary xylem

(2) Secondary Meristem
(3) Cork
(4) Secondary cortex

24) Which process is not directly affected by auxin

(1) Apical dominance and root initiation

(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Synthesis of α-amylase by barley seeds
(4) Leaf abscission

25)

Which of the following statements are incorrect ?

a. Cytokinin counteracts the effect of apical dominance.
b. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of cytokinin.
c. ABA causes triple response is seeds.

d. 2, 4-D is synthetic auxin used to destroy Dicot weeds.

(1) a & d
(2) c & d
(3) b & c
(4) a & b

26) How many of the following statement are correct?

(A) The vegetative cell has abundent reserve food and large irregularly shaped nucleus.
(B) The exine exhibits a fascinating array of patterns and design.
(C) The mature pollen grain is two celled.
(D) Pollen grain consist of plenty of nectar

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

27) Which of the following statements are correct for a typical female gametophyte of a flowering
plant?
(i) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity.
(ii) It is free-nuclear during the development.
(iii) It is situated inside the integument but outside the nucellus.
(iv) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end.

(1) (i) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

28) Assertion: Genes controlling body colour and eye colour in Drosophila show linkage.
Reason: These genes of Drosophila are present on autosomes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

29) Which of the following is true for test cross-

(A) It produces same genotypic and phenotypic ratio
(B) It is used to determine purity and impurity of only recessive trait
(C) In test cross F1 hybrid is crossed with dominant parent
(D) It is a type of back cross

(1) A, B and C
(2) Only A
(3) A and D
(4) A, B, C and D

30) Read following four statements and select correct statement

(1) Two nucleotides are linked through 5'-3' phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide
(2) A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through a ester linkage to form a nucleoside
The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix. This in addition to H-bonds
(3)
confers stability of the helical structure
(4) The nitrogenous bases linked to phosphate moiety forms the backbone of DNA.

31) Regulator gene (i gene) control the synthesis of proteins (operon system) by :-

(1) inhibiting substrate enzyme action

(2) inhibiting transcription
(3) inhibiting passage of mRNA
(4) inhibiting enzymes
32) In a given sample of nucleic acid, molecular analysis revealed that it contained A = 21%, T=18%,
C=30%, G=20%. These values indicates that :-

(1) It is a sample of single stranded DNA

(2) It is a sample of double stranded DNA
(3) It is a sample of single stranded RNA
(4) It is a sample of double stranded RNA

33) Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a non sense mutation a sense codon
changed to stop codon in the lac a gene :-

(1) Permease and transacetylase

(2) β-galactosidase and transacetylase
(3) Transacetylase
(4) β-galactosidase and permease

34) Read the following four statements (A-D):-

(A) In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase-II synthesizes 28S rRNA
(B) Amino acid attaches to t-RNA at it's 3' end
(C) On template strand with polarity 5'®3', DNA replication is continuous
(D) Best material for transmission of genetic information is RNA
How many of the above statements are wrong ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

35) Consider the following statements and choose the correct option :-
(a) Six codons do not code for any amino-acid.
(b) Codon is read on m-RNA in a contiguous fashion.
(c) Three codons function as stop codons.
(d) The initiator codon AUG codes for methionine.
Option :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) are wrong

(2) (a), (b) and (c) are wrong
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are wrong
(4) (a) is wrong

36) Which statements are correct?

(a) Predators also help in maintaining species diversity in community.
(b) Decomposition is a catabolic process.
(c) Number of trophic level in GFC is never restricted.
(d) Some of organisms of DFC are prey to GFC animals.

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, d
(4) b, c, d

37) Which of the following is not the part of the functioning of ecosystem?

Conversion of inorganic into organic material with the help of the radiant energy of the sun by
(1)
the autotrophs.
(2) Decomposition
(3) Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels
(4) Energy flow toward the higher trophic level

38) How many statements are correct ?

(a) In an aquatic ecosystem grazing food chain is major conduit for energy flow.
(b) Detritus food chain may be connected with grazing food chain at some level.
(c) Each tropic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as standing crop.
(d) Species composition and stratification are two main structural features of an ecosystem.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) All

39) Choose correct statements :-

(i) For plants, herbivores are predators
(ii) Nearly 25% of all insects are phytophagous
(iii) Biological control method are based on predation
(iv) Poisonous chemicals produced by plants are actually as defences against grazers and browser

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv)
(4) All of the above

40) Which of the following option represent competitive release between two interacting species ?

(1) Abingdon tortoise → Goats

(2) Chathamalus → Balanus
(3) 5 species of warblers on same tree
(4) Flamingoes and fishes in South American lakes

41) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Visiting flamingoes and resident fishes in south american

1. Mutualism a. (+, -) i.
lakes

2. Competition b. (+, 0) ii. Starfish Pisaster and invertebrates in American pacific coast
 3. Predation c. (+, +) iii. Cattle egret birds and cattle

4. Commensalism d. (-, -) iv. Lichens

(1) 1 - d - iv, 2 - c - i, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - iii
(2) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - i, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - iii
(3) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - iii, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - i
(4) 1 - d - iv, 2 - c - i, 3 - b - ii, 4 - a - iii

42) Assertion (A) :- Morphological and anatomical features of parasites are greatly simplified while
emphasising their reproductive potential.
Reason (R) :- The Mediterranean species of bee employs ‘sexual deceit’ to get pollination done by a
orchid Ophrys.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

43) With respect to Tilman's outdoor plots experiment, identify the correct statement from the below
statements.

(1) Plots with more species show less year to year variation in total biomass.
(2) Decreased diversity contributed to higher productivity.
(3) Increased diversity contributed to lower productivity.
(4) Plots with less species show less year to year variation in total biomass.

44) The two basic processes, contribute to an increase in population density in a given habitat
during a given period time are

(1) Natality and Emigration

(2) Natality and Immigration
(3) Immigration and Emigration
(4) Mortality and Immigration

45) Match the column-I with II :-

Column -I Column -II

(A) Dodo (i) Africa

Bali, Javan
(B) Quagga (ii)
Caspian

(C) Thylacine (iii) Mauritius

(D) Steller's sea cow (iv) Australia

(E) Tiger sub-species (v) Russia

 A B C D E

(1) iv ii i v iii

(2) iii iv ii i v

(3) iii i iv v ii

(4) iii v iv i ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

CHEMISTRY

1) How many photons of light having a wavelength of 5000 Å are necessary to provide 1 Joule of
energy :

(1) 2.8 × 1018 Photons

(2) 2.5 × 1017 Photons
(3) 2.5 × 1018 Photons
(4) 2.6 × 1014 Photons

2) If 3.01 × 1020 molecules are removed from 98 mg of H2SO4, then the number of moles of H2SO4 left
are-

(1) 0.1 × 10–3

(2) 0.5 × 10–3
(3) 1.66 × 10–3
(4) 9.95 × 10–2

3) Given graphical representation is possible for ---- orbital. and calculate number of radial nodes

also

(1) 3s,2
(2) 3p,3
(3) 3d,2
(4) 4s,2

4) The total spin resulting from a d9 configuration is:-

(1)
(2) 2
(3) 1

(4)

5) Heisenberg Uncertainity principle is not valid for

(1) Moving electron

(2) Motor car
(3) Stationary particles
(4) 2 & 3 both

6) Find out Ka for 10–2 M HCOOH acid, having pOH equal to 10.

–6
(1) Ka = 10
–4
(2) Ka = 10
–2
(3) Ka = 10
–8
(4) Ka = 10

7) For the reaction 2A(g) + B(g) ⇌ 3C(g) at 298K. KC = 49. A 3 litre vessel contain 2, 1 and 3 mole of
A, B and C respectively. The reaction at same temperature :-

(1) Must proceed in forward direction

(2) Must proceed in backward direction
(3) Must be in equilibrium
(4) Can not be predicted.

8) Which of the following reaction represents ?

(1) Cdiamond + O2(g) → CO2(g)

(2)
H2 (g) + F2 (g) → HF(g)
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

(4)
CO(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g)

9) for this reaction, ratio of is :-

(1) 1
(2) RT
(3) (RT)1/2
(4) (RT)–1/2

10) The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) in the reaction : NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 +
H2O

(1) 59
(2) 49
(3) 25
(4) 98

11) For the redox reaction MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ → Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O,the correct stoichiometric
coefficients of MnO4–, C2O42– and H+ are respectively:

(1) 2, 5, 16
(2) 16, 5, 2
(3) 5, 16, 2
(4) 2, 16, 5

12) Heat of formation of CO2(g), H2O(ℓ) and CH4(g) are –94, –68.4 and –17.9 kCal mol–1 respectively.
the heat of combustion of CH4(g) is :-

(1) –212.9 kCal mol–1

(2) –136.8 kCal mol–1
(3) –304.3 kCal mol–1
(4) –105.2 kCal mol–1

13) For the reaction A + B → C. The following data has been given for rate of reaction :-

Sr. No. [A] (M) [B] (M) ROR (Ms–1)

(1) 0.5 0.5 1.6 × 10–2

(2) 0.5 1 3.2 × 10–2

(3) 1 1 6.4 × 10–2

(4) 1 0.5 3.2 × 10–2

The rate law of the reaction is
(1) r = k[A]2[B]
(2) r = k[A][B]
(3) r = k[A][B]2
0
(4) r = k[A] [B]2

14) For a reaction, the rate constant is expressed as

(1) 40000 cal.

(2) 88000 cal.
(3) 48000 cal.
(4) 80000 cal.
15) Which of the following is most stable conformer of ethane ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

16) The following compounds differ in :

(1) Configuration
(2) Conformation
(3) Structure
(4) Chirality

17) Identify relationship between following compounds

&

(1) Chain Isomer

(2) Functional group-Isomer
(3) Metamer
(4) None

18) Consider following table–

Column-I
(A) Best and latest technique for isolation, purification and separation of organic compounds
(B) In lassaigne's test for ‘N’
(C) In Lassaigne's test for ‘S’
(D) Aniline is purified from water by
(E) Glycerol is purified from spent lye
Column-II
(i) Chromatography
(ii) Vacuum distillation
(iii) Violet coloured complex is formed
(iv) Prussian blue coloured complex is formed
(v) Steam disstillation
The correct match is–
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(2) (iv) (v) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (v) (ii)
(4) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) In the kjeldahl's method For estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved
From 0.75 g of sample neutralized 10 ml of 1 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is :-

(1) 37.33
(2) 45.33
(3) 35.33
(4) 43.33

20) The saturated heterocyclic compound is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The number of gram atoms of oxygen present in 0.3 mole of (COOH)2.2H2O is:

(1) 0.6
(2) 1.8
(3) 1.2
(4) 3.6

22) Minimum number of carbon atom required for cycloalkene to show ring chain isomerism ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 6

23) Which of the following will decolourise bromine water?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Which halide ion is the best nucleophile in DMF-

(1) F⊖
(2) Cl⊖
(3) Br⊖
(4) I⊖

25) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Predict the correct reactivity of the compounds towards SN1 reaction -

(1) C6H5–CH2–Br < C6H5–CH(CH3)Br < (C6H5)2CH–Br < (C6H5)2–(CH3)Br

(2) C6H5–CH(CH3)Br < C6H5–CH2–Br < (C6H5)2 CH–Br < (C6H5)2 C(CH3)Br
(3) (C6H5)2 CH–Br < C6H5 – CH(CH3)Br < C6H5– CH2–Br < (C6H5)2 C(CH3)Br
(4) (C6H5)2 C(CH3)Br < (C6H5)2 CH–Br < C6H5 – CH(CH3)Br < C6H5 – CH2–Br

27) Match the following column.

Column-I Column-II
(Pair of (Differentiate
compound) method)

Acetone and Br2 + H2O (Bromine

(A) (P)
acetaldehyde water)

Ethanol and dil. alkaline KMnO4

(B) (Q)
methanol (Bayer's reagent)

Phenol and NH4Cl + AgNO3

(C) (R)
cyclohexanol (Tollen's reagent)

n-Pentane and
(D) (S) NaOI (Iodoform test)
2-pentene
(1) A→S, B→R, C→P, D→Q
(2) A→R, B→S, C→P, D→Q
(3) A→R, B→S, C→Q, D→P
(4) A→R, B→P, C→S, D→Q

28) Reaction of acetone with zinc amulgum in presence of acid gives propane, reaction is named as :-

(1) Mendius Reduction

(2) Clemmensen Reduction
(3) Wolf kischner Reduction
(4) Bouveault-Blanc Reduction

29) Major product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) Which of the following is not a possible step during chlorination of methane ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) major product

Major product of the above reaction is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Which of the following compound is an Aromatic in nature.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) 2,4-DNP test is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

34) Mixture of PhCHO and HCHO is treated with NaOH, then cannizzaro reaction involve :-
(A) Reduction of HCHO
(B) Oxidation of HCHO
(C) Reduction of PhCHO
(D) Oxidation of Ph–CHO

(1) A,C
(2) A,D
(3) B,C
(4) B,D

35) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer with respect to hybridisation
using the codes given below:

Column-I Column-II
(Complex) (Hybridisation)

(I) [PtCl4]–2 (p) dsp2 hybridisation

(II) [Cu(CN)4]3– (q) sp3 hybridisation

(III) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (r) sp3d2 hybridisation

(IV) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ (s) d2sp3 hybridisation

Codes:
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) q p r s

(2) p q s r

(3) p q r s

(4) q p s r
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) In the Ionisation Potential of H atom is 40 V. Then its first excitation potential will be :-
(1) 15 V
(2) 30 V
(3) 20 V
(4) 10 V

37) The stability constants of the complexes formed by a metal ion M+2 with NH3, CN–, H2O are of the
order of 1015, 1027, 1011 respectively, then

(1) NH3 is strongest ligand

(2) CN– is the strongest ligand
(3) Can not predict
(4) All ligand are equally strong

38) Maximum number of compounds are known in the case of :

(1) neon
(2) xenon
(3) krypton
(4) argon

39) Which of the following noble gas was reacted with PtF6 by Bartlett to prepare the first noble gas
compounds-

(1) He
(2) Xe
(3) Ar
(4) Kr

40) When iodine reacts with NaF, NaBr and NaCl

(1) It gives mixture of F2, Cl2 and Br2

(2) It gives chlorine
(3) It gives bromine
(4) None of the above

41) Which one of the following does not undergo hydrolysis -

(1) AsCl3
(2) SbCl3
(3) PCl3
(4) NF3

42) The property of halogen acids, that indicated incorrect is -

(1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI.......acidic strength

(2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF.......reducing strength
(3) Hl > HBr > HCl > HF......bond length
(4) HF > HCl > HBr > HI .....thermal stability

43) H2SO4 reacts with sugar and acts as -

(1) A dehydrating agent

(2) An oxidizing agent
(3) A sulphonating agent
(4) None of these

44) When a mixture of solid NaCl, solid K2Cr2O7 is heated with concentrated H2SO4, orange red
vapours are [Link] are of the compound :-

(1) chromous chloride

(2) chromyl chloride
(3) chromic chloride
(4) chromic sulphate

45) The ion with maximum number of lone pairs on the central atom is-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

ZOOLOGY

1) Sinus venosus occurs on

(1) Dorsal side of heart and contain mixed blood

(2) Ventral side of heart and contain deoxygenated blood
(3) Dorsal side of heart and contain deoxygenated blood
(4) Ventral side of heart and contain mixed blood

2) What is the function of mesorchium in frog ?

(1) Joint kidney to ovary

(2) Joint kidney to testies
(3) Joint liver to gall bladder
(4) Joint head to trunk

3) Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option

Cyclostomes are __(A)__ but migrate for spawning to __(B)__. After spawning, within a few days, they
die. Their __(C)__, after metamorphosis, return to the __(D)__.
 A B C D

(1) Marine Fresh water Larvae Ocean

(2) Marine Fresh water Adult Ocean

(3) Fresh water Marine Larvae Fresh water

(4) Fresh water Marine Adult Fresh water

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Which of the following organism is homoiothermic in nature?

(1) Chameleon
(2) Psittacula
(3) Bufo
(4) Magur

5) Match the Column I with Column II & Column III and choose the correct option

Column I Column II Column III

Cellular level of
(A) Porifera (i) (a) Acoelomate
organisation

Tissue level of
(B) Flatworms (ii) (b) Pseudocoelomate
organisation

Organ level of
(C) Aschelminthes (iii) (c) Coelomate
organisation

Organ system level of

(D) Arthropoda (iv) (d) Cell aggregates
organisation
(1) A-i-b, B-ii-a, C-iv-c, D-iv-d
(2) A-i-d, B-iii-a, C-ii-b, D-iv-c
(3) A-ii-d, B-iii-a, C-iv-b, D-i-c
(4) A-i-d, B-iii-a, C-iv-b, D-iv-c

6)

X is C-terminal amino acid and Y is

(1)
N- terminal amino acid
(2) Both X and Y are c-terminal Amino acids.
(3) X is N-terminal amino acid and Y is C-terminal amino acid
(4) Both X and Y are N-terminal amino acid.

7) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option w.r.t. humans

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

8) Complete the analogy and select the correct option.

Renin : JG cells : : Vasopressin : ______.

(1) Adenohypophysis
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Adrenal gland
(4) Atria of heart

9) In an adult human, under normal physiological conditions, all of the given factors lead to
dissociation of oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin, except

(1) High partial pressure of CO2

(2) High temperature
(3) High H+ concentration
(4) High pH

10) Which of the following doesn't act as second messenger ?

(1) c-AMP
(2) IP3
(3) Hormone
(4) Ca2+

11) A hormone responsible for normal sleep-wake cycle is

(1) Epinephrine
(2) Gastrin
(3) Melatonin
(4) Insulin

12) The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature
human testes is

(1) Spermatogonia – spermatocyte – Spermatid – Sperms

(2) Spermatid – Spermatocyte – Spermatogonia – sperms
(3) Spermatogonia – Spermatid – Spermatocyte – Sperms
(4) Spermatocyte – Spermatogonia – Spermatid – Sperms

13) Read the statements given below

I. Hormone secreted from developing follicles and corpus luteum is estrogen.
II. Corpus luteum secretes large amount of progesterone.
Select the correct option

(1) (I) is incorrect

(2) Only (I) is correct
(3) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(4) Both (I) and (II) are incorrect

14) The total lung capacity is represented by

(1) Tidal volume + Vital capacity

(2) Tidal volume + Residual volume
(3) Vital capacity + Residual volume
(4) Inspiratory + Expiratory reserve volumes

15) Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes?

(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

16) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

a. Lectin i. Sataturated fatty acid

b. Glycerol ii.

c. α-amino acid iii. Trihydroxy alcohol

d. Palmitic acid iv. Concanavalin A

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii

17)

Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) Neural tissues have lipids with more complex structure
(B) Oils have higher melting points, so they remain as liquid in winter
(C) Fats have fatty acids esterified with glycerol
(D) Glycerol is trihydroxy propane
How many of the above statements are right ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

18) Which of the following pair is wrongly matched?

(1) Alkaloid Morphine and codeine

G L U T - 4 Enables glucose transport into

(2)
protein cells

(3) Insulin Genetically engineered Enzyme

(4) Drugs Vinblastin and Curcumin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19)

Match the column-I and column-II, choose the correct options.

Column-I Column-II

a Amonotelic i Birds

b Ureotelic ii Mammals

c Uricotelic iii Aquatic animal

(1) a–iii, b–ii, c–i
(2) a–i, b–iii, c–ii
(3) a–ii, b–i, c–iii
(4) a–i, b–ii, c–iii

20) If loop of Henle is absent in mammalian nephron, then urine will be -

(1) Concentrated
(2) Diluted
(3) No change
(4) No urine

21) Which of the following pair is correct :-

Fertilisation ART

In vitro
(1) a ZIFT,IUT,ICSI
fertilisation

In
b GIFT, AI
vivo fertilisation

In
(2) a ZIFT, IUT, ICSI
vivo fertilisation

In
b GIFT, AI
vitro fertilisation

In
(3) a GIFT, IUT, ICSI
vitro fertilisation

In
b IUT, AI
vivo fertilisation

In
(4) a ZIFT, IUT, ICSI
vivo fertilisation

In
b IUT, AI
vitro fertilisation
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Medical termination of pregnancy is considered relatively safe up to how many months of
pregnancy?

(1) Twelve
(2) Three
(3) Six
(4) Eight

23) Infectious form of Plasmodium for human is :

(1) Sporozoite
(2) Mosquito
(3) Haemozoin
(4) Schizont
24) Water vascular system is found in :

(1) Star fish, sliver fish

(2) Sea horse, sea hare
(3) Jelly fish, cattle fish
(4) Sea urchin, sea cucumber

25) ‘Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type
of deferce in the human body ?

(1) Acquired Immunity

(2) Innate Immunity
(3) Cell-mediated Immunity
(4) Humoral Immunity

26) Read the following statements

a. Sterilization procedure in males is called vasectony
b. Hepatitis B is an incurable disease
c. Family planning programme in India were initiated in 1951
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Zero

27) Fill up the blanks.

I. Using Agrobacterium vectors, ....A.... specific genes are introduced into the host plant.
II. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of .....B.....
III. The genes .....C.... and .....D.... control cotton bollworms.
IV. ....E... has been introduced in Bt corn to protect the same corn borer.
A to E in above statements can be:-

A-fungal, B-pest resistance,

(1)
C-cry II Ab, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ac
A-nematode, B- Cellular defence
(2)
C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ab
A-insects, B-cellular defense,
(3)
C-cry II Ab, D-cry I Ac, E-cry I Ab
A-virus, B-protection against viral infection,
(4)
C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry II Ac

28) Synaptic vesicle occurs in :-

(1) Presynaptic neuron

(2) Post-synaptic neuron
(3) Synaptic cleft
(4) None of the above
29) Identify the structure labelled as A,B,C and D in the following figure, showing the mode of action

of a steroid hormone:

(1) A-Uterine cell membrane, B-Receptor protein, C-CAMP

(2) A-Ovarian cell membrane, B-Hormone-receptor complex, D-ovarian growth
(3) B-CAMP, C-Protein, D-Tissue growth and differentiation
A-Uterine cell membrane, B-Hormone-receptor complex, C-Protein, D-Tissue growth and
(4)
differentiation

30) Depolarisation and repolarisation of axon due to................& ................. respectively :-

(1) K+ influx and Na+ outflux

(2) Na+ influx and K+ outflux
(3) Na+ outflux and K+ outflux
(4) Na+ influx and K+ influx

31) At the time of implantation, cells attached to endometrium of uterus are:

(1) Inner cell mass

(2) Trophoblast
(3) Epiblast
(4) Hypoblast

32) Mild uterine contractions at the time of parturition–

(1) are induced by oxytocin released from maternal pituitary

(2) are called foetal ejection reflex.
(3) result due to fully developed placenta only
(4) result due to decrease in level of estrogen

33) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(a) FSH (i) Maintain endometrium for implantation

 Develop female secondary sexual
(b) LH (ii)
characters

(c) Progesterone (iii) Contraction of uterine wall

(d) Estrogen (iv) Development of corpus luteum

(v) Stimulates follicular development

(1) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-v
(4) a-v, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

34) Match the column–A and B about the embryonic development of human :-

Column A Column B

Most of the major organ

i End of first month a
systems developed

Appearance of hair on
ii End of second month b
the head

iii End of third month c Heart formation

iv During fifth month d Eye-lids separated

Limbs and digits are

v End of sixth month e
formed
(1) (i) – e, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(2) (i) – e, (ii) – c, (iii) – b, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(3) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – b, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(4) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – a, (iv) – b, (v) – d

35) The critical research areas of biotechnology are

I. Providing best catalyst as improved organism, usually a microbe or pure enzyme.
II. Creating optimal conditions through engineering for a catalyst to act.
III. Downstream processing technologies.
IV. Improving the quality of agrochemicals.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(1) I and II
(2) I, II and III
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I, III and IV

36) Gene therapy for ADA deficiency has been tried with the help of which of the following vectors?

(1) Microinjection
(2) Liposome
(3) A bacterium
(4) A retrovirus

37) The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by :-

(1) Hydrogen bonds

(2) Phosphodiester bond
(3) Covalent bond
(4) Disulphide bond

38) The final step in the isolation of DNA is the addition of chilled ethanol, which causes the DNA to:

(1) Denature
(2) Dissolve completely
(3) Precipitate out
(4) Fragment into pieces

39) In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments move towards:

(1) Cathode
(2) Anode
(3) Neutral electrode
(4) Random direction

40) The distillation process is required in the formation of :-

(1) Rum
(2) Brandy
(3) Whisky
(4) All of these

41) Which of the following act by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of
cholesterol ?

(1) Cyclosporin-A
(2) Statins
(3) Penicillin
(4) Streptokinase

42) Which of the following is not a correct statement :-

(1) The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting potential.
(2) Microbes are used to produce products like lactic acid, acetic acid and alcohol.
(3) All microbes are pathogenic.
(4) Microbes are a very important component of life on earth.
43) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column–I Column–II Column–III

Forelimb of man, cheetah,
(i) Analogous organs Divergent evolution
whale & bat
(ii) Eyes of octopus and man Analogous organs Divergent evolution
(iii) wing of butterfly & bird Analogous organs Convergent evolution
(1) (i) only
(2) (i) & (ii)
(3) (iii) only
(4) (i) & (iii)

44) The process of evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and speading
to other geographical areas is known as–

(1) Migration
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Natrual selection

45) In the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of homozygous dominant individuals is

represented by ______, while the frequency of the recessive allele is ______.

(1) p, q
(2) p2, q
(3) 2pq, q2
(4) q2, p
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 3 3 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 1 2 2 4 1 2 1 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 1 3 4 3 1 4 3 1 2 4 1 1 4 3 1 4 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 3 4 4

BOTANY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 2 3 2 4 2 3 2 2 1 1 3 4 4 3 2 4 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 1 4 3 4 3 3 4 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 1 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 1 1 4 1 1 2 3 4 1 1 2 4 2 3 1 3 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 2 1 3 1 2 2 3 4 1 4 4 3 2 2 2 2 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 1 2 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 2 1 2 4 3 3 2 4 3 3 1 3 3 1 1 2 3 1 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 1 2 1 4 2 2 2 1 4 2 2 2 1 4 2 4 4 3 2 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 3 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

A QUESTION EXPLANATION:
We are given the focal length of a convex lens and need to find the object distance such that
the image size is 1/4th of the object size.
B CONCEPT :

A. Convex Lens
B. Magnification (m)
C. Lens Formula
D. Sign Conventions: For convex lenses, the focal length (f) is positive. The object distance (u)
is negative if the object is placed to the left of the lens, and the image distance (v) is positive
for real images and negative for virtual images.

C FORMULA:

A. m = hi/ho = v/u
B. 1/f = 1/v + 1/u

D CALCULATION:
Given:
Focal length (f) = 30 cm
Magnification (m) = -1/4 (The image is real and inverted, hence the negative sign)
Relate v and u using magnification: m = v/u

v = -u/4
Substitute into the lens formula: 1/f = 1/v - 1/u
1/30-1/(u/4) - 1/u
1/30-4/u 1/u
1/30 = -5/u
Solve for u: u = -5 × 30 u = -150 cm
E ANSWER:
4. 150 cm

2)

When particle stops, v = 0

3)

A pebble of mass 0.05 kg is thrown vertically upwards

4)

V1 =
mU = MV1 + mV2
mU =

V2 = (3)

5)

After 1st collision, speed = (2 × 5) + 3 = 13 m/s

After 2nd collision, speed = (2 × 3) + 13 = 19 m/s
Final speed = 19 m/s

6) at A phase 90°
after A at A/2 phase 150°

360° requires T second

90° requires sec

150° requires T × sec

time to fravel from A to A/2

– seconds

7) µmg = YAaΔT
8)

4 cm

9)
, because these particles are placed on x-axis
The M.I. of system about x-axis,

10)
2T1 = 100 N
T1 = 50 N
T1 – m1g = m1a1
50 – 20 = 2a1
a1 = 15m/s2
T1 – m2g = m2a2
50 – 40 = 4a2
a2 = 5/2 m/s2

11)

Question Explanation: A micrometer screw gauge with a main scale reading past 2 mm and
a circular scale where the 31st division aligns with the central base line is given . calculate the
total measurement value based on these visual inputs.

Concept: Measurement with Screw Gauge

Solution:
Main Scale Reading (M.S.R.) = 2 mm
Circular Scale Reading (C.S.R.) = 31 divisions
Assuming the standard least count of 0.01 mm

Total Reading = M.S.R.} + (C.S.R. x L.C.)

Total Reading = 2 mm + ( 31 x 0.01 mm ) = 2.31 mm

Final Answer: Option (1)

 12) Explanation Question:
Calculate the volume of a cube and express it with the correct number of significant figures.

Concept:
Volume V = a3 and rules for significant figures.

Solution: (Step-by-Step)
Side length a = 1.2 × 10-2 m (has 2 significant figures).
V = (1.2 × 10-2)3
V = 1.728 × 10-6 m3
In multiplication, the result must be rounded to the least number of significant figures in the
input.
Rounding 1.728 to 2 significant figures gives 1.7.

Final answer: Option (1)

13)

Question Explanation: Particle velocity in a wave.

Concept: Transverse Wave Motion.

Solution: Since the wave is moving from right to left, you can imagine shifting the entire wave
shape slightly to the left to see where the particles will go next.

A. The part of the wave to the right of D is lower, so D will move down.
B. The part to the right of E is the trough, so E will move down.
C. The part to the right of F is also in the trough, so F will also move down. Therefore, particles
D, E, and F all have a downward velocity.

Final Answer:(2)

14)
mxω2cos θ = mg sinθ
xω2 = g tanθ

xω2 = g.(8cx)
ω2 = 8 gc
 15)

16) F1 = P × A
=hρg×A
F2 = ρ A v 2
= ρ A × 2gh

17)

...(1)

...(2)

From eq(1) and (2)

18)

Let first calculate the mass of inner solid sphere of radius r, Mass of inner solid sphere, M'

Now,

Force on particle of mass m =

19)

Explanation Question: We have to find the ratio of Ssolid : Sliquid : Sgas

Concept: This question is based on calorimetry
Solution:

Gas Phase (100°C to 70°C) : Δt = 10, ΔT = 30 ⟹ sgas ∝ 10/30 = 1/3

 Liquid Phase (70°C to 50°C) : Δt = 20, ΔT = 20 ⟹ sliquid ∝ 20/20 = 1
Solid Phase (50°C to 10°C) : Δt = 20, ΔT = 40 ⟹ ssolid ∝ 20/40 = 1/2
Ratio ssolid : sliquid : sgas = 1/2:1:1/3 = 3 : 6 : 2

Final Answer : The correct option is (2)

20) Question Explanation:

Finding the ratio of elongation in two different wires under load.
Concept:
Elongation of a Wire
Solution:

Elongation is given by . We must identify the tension in each wire: the brass
wire supports 2m, while the steel wire supports m + 2m = 3m.

Tension: .

Ratio:
Given: .

Ratio = .
Final Answer:
Option (2)

21)

22) For the closed surface made by disc and hemisphere

qin = 0 ∴ net = 0
ϕdisc + ϕH.S = 0
∴ ϕHS = – ϕdisc = –ϕ

23)

24)

25) Question Explanation:

 The time constant (τ) for an RC circuit is given by τ = RC. We need to determine the time
constants for each circuit configuration using the given resistor and capacitor values.
Concept: Time constant of an RC circuit

Formula:

A. Time Constant: τ = Req Ceq

B. Series Capacitance

A. Parallel Capacitance:

Ceq = C1 + C2
Solution:

A. Circuit I:

B.

C.
D. Time Constant

τ= = ms

A. Circuit II
B. Req = R1 + R2 = 3KΩ
C. Ceq = C1 + C2 = 2 + 4 = 6 μF
D. τ = 3KΩ× 6 μF= 18 ms
E. Circuit III

F.
G. Ceq = C1 + C2 = 2 + 4 = 6 μF
H. τ = (Req) (Ceq)

I. τ =
J. τ = 4 ms

Final Answer : Option (4)

26)

RAB = 3R/2
27) Question Explain:
In this question we are given 200 Ω resistor connected to a 50 V battery with internal
resistance 20 Ω. A voltmeter of resistance 1800 Ω is used to measure the potential across
the 200 Ω resistor. We have to find the percentage decrease in the potential across the 200
Ω resistor after the voltmeter is connected.
Concept:
Real Voltmeter
Solution:
Case-I : When voltmeter is not connected

Total resistance = 20 Ω + 200 Ω = 220 Ω

Current I =
Voltage across 200 resistor is

V1 = IR ⇒ V =
Case-2: After connecting the voltmeter

Voltmeter resistance = 1800 Ω

New equilvalent resistance across the 200 Ω resistor,

⇒ (Since both are in parallel)

⇒ R' = 180 Ω
Total resistance now = 20 +180 = 200 Ω

Now current I' =

I' =
New voltage across the Parallel combination of 200 Ω resistor

V2 = I × R =

Therefore percentage change =

⇒ ⇒
∴ –1% here negative sign shown the decrease in potential difference

∴ Percentage decrease =
Final Answer : Option (1)

28)
VQ > QP
I1 = I2 = I/2
by kirchoff's law
20 = (3 + 2) I1 + 1.5 I

20 = + 1.5 I
20 = 41 ⇒ I = 5 amp

⇒ I2 = 2.5A
VP + (2.5)3 – (2.5)2 = VQ
VQ – VP = 2.5 Volt

29)

Since
⇒ –10 + 3a + a2 = 0
⇒ (a – 2) (a + 5) = 0
⇒ a = 2, –5

30) Question Explanation:

Finding induced current direction in a falling loop.
Concept:
Lenz's Law and Electromagnetic Induction.
Solution:
As the loop falls toward the wire, the magnetic flux passing through it increases. According to
Lenz's Law, the loop will create an induced current to oppose this change. Since the wire's
magnetic field points out of the page above it, the loop induces a field pointing into the page.
Field Direction: Use Right-Hand Thumb Rule; field above the wire is "outward" .
Flux Change: As distance decreases, magnetic flux increases.
Induced Current: Must create an "inward" field, which corresponds to a clockwise flow.
Final Answer:
Option (1)

31) Question Explanation:

Finding magnetic field amplitude.

Concept:
EM wave field relationship.

Solution:
In an electromagnetic wave, the amplitudes of the electric field (E0) and magnetic field (B0) are
related by the speed of light (c) using the formula:

Final answer: option (2)

32)

At the midpoint of BC

B=2×

33)

34)

5 mA

35) ......(1)

= 2(4) + 2(4) + 2(10)

= 36 unit

36)
A = r + 0 ⇒ r = 30°
From Snell's law at surface AB
37)

38) The P-N junction will conduct only when it is forward biased, i.e., when –5V is fed to it, so
it will conduct only for 3rd quarter part of signal shown and when it conducts potential drop 5
volt will be across both the resistors, so output voltage across R2 is 2.5 V ∴ V0 = –2.5 V

39)

(A + 1) B = Y
B=Y

40)

41)

In case of stationary waves, maximum pressure change occurs at nodes

42)

I = Imax cos2

I = Imax cos2

43)
For x-direction
(m = –1)
 For y-direction

= 5 m/s

44)

Explanation Question: A ray of light falls on a transparent sphere as shown in the figure. If
the final ray emerges from the sphere parallel to the horizontal diameter, we have to find
the refractive index of the sphere
Concept: This question is based on refraction from curved surface and snell's law
Solution:

In the diagram, angle of emergence is 2r = 60°

∴ r = 30°
by Snell’s Law
1 × sin 60° = n sin30°; n =

Final Answer : The correct option is (4)

45)

1.5 × 1013 Hz

BOTANY

46)

Englena possess well developed cell wall

47)

(a) Passive floating nature

(c) Two thin overlapping shells

48)

(A) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.

(C) Virus are inert outside their specific host cell.

49)
(a) Majority of the Pteridophytes are heterosporous.
(b) Selaginella and Salvinia are homosporous .
(c) The spore germinate to give rise to conspicuous, small but multicellular thalloid
gametophyte.

50)

(a) Ulothrix and Volvox are filamentous algae.

(d) Porphyra, Laminaria and Spirogyra is used as food.

51)

(a) Rhizoids are unicellular and branched

(d) Gametophytic plant develops from zygote

52)

1‒A‒X, 2‒C‒Z, 3‒B‒Y

53)

Biological concept

54)

55)

56)

Chromosomes move to the equator and get alingned along equatorial plate in metaphase

57)

46 and 46

58)

SOLUTION
The correct match for List-I with List-II is :
(a) S phase
matches with (iv) DNA replication.
(b) G2 phase
matches with (i) Proteins are synthesized.

(c) Quiescent stage

matches with (ii) Inactive phase.

(d) G1 phase
matches with (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.

The correct answer is: OPTION(3) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii).

59)

Conformational change in F1 particle activates ATP synthase enzyme.

60)

Productivity of tomatoes and ball papers cannot be increased by enriching environment with
CO2.

61)

This process requires two molecules of H2O to release one O2

62)

A. Bundle sheath cell have large number of chloroplast, thick walls & no intercellular space.
C. Primary CO2 acceptor is PEP present in mesophyll cell.
D. Mesophyll cell lack RuBisCo enzyme.

63)

64)

NCERT XI#230

65)

Complex II

66)

NCERT XI Page No. # 154, 155

67)

Buttercup

68)

Secondary Meristem

69)

Synthesis of α-amylase by barley seeds

70)

b. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of cytokinin.

c. In SDP the dark period is not critical

71)

72)

(i) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity.

(ii) It is free-nuclear during the development.

73)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

74)

(A) It produces same genotypic and phenotypic ratio

(D) It is a type of back cross

75)

The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix. This in addition to H-bonds
confers stability of the helical structureThe plane of one base pair stacks over the other in
double helix. This in addition to H-bonds confers stability of the helical structure

76)

inhibiting transcription

77)
It is a sample of single stranded DNA

78)

β-galactosidase and permease

79)

80)

(a) Six codons do not code for any amino-acid.

81)

(a) Predators also help in maintaining species diversity in community.

(b) Decomposition is a catabolic process.
(d) Some of organisms of DFC are prey to GFC animals.

82)

Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels

83)

84)

(i) For plants, herbivores are predators

(ii) Nearly 25% of all insects are phytophagous
(iii) Biological control method are based on predation
(iv) Poisonous chemicals produced by plants are actually as defences against grazers and
browser

85) Chathamalus → Balanus

86)

1 - c - iv, 2 - d - i, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - iii

87) (A) is true but (R) is false

88)
 Question Explanation: Relationship between diversity and stability.
Concept: Diversity-stability hypothesis.
Solution: According to David Tilman's research, a species-rich community is more stable
because it shows less year-to-year variation in biomass, has higher productivity, and is more
resistant to invasions by alien species. All three options are correct indicators of stability in a
diverse ecosystem.
Final Answer: All of these.

89)

Question Explanation:

Factors that increase population density.

Concept:

Population Growth

Solution:

Natality (birth rate) and Immigration are the two processes that cause an increase in a
population's density. Natality adds new individuals to the population through births, while
immigration adds individuals who have come from other populations. Both of these increase
the total number of individuals in a specific area.

Final Answer:

Natality and Immigration

90)

Column -I Column -II

(A) Dodo (iii) Mauritius

(B) Quagga (i) Africa

(C) Thylacine (iv) Australia

(D) Steller seacow (v) Russia

(E) Tiger sub-species (ii) Bali, Javan, Caspian

CHEMISTRY
91)

92)

= 1 × 10–3 – 0.5 × 10–3

= 0.5 × 10–3

93)

Explain the question: Identify orbital & radial nodes from graph.

Concept: Radial nodes = n – ℓ – 1; Total peaks in P(r) = n – ℓ.

Solution:
The provided radial probability distribution curve (4πr2R2 vs r) shows three distinct peaks. In
such graphs, the number of peaks corresponds to the value (n – ℓ). Furthermore, a radial node
is a point where the radial probability becomes zero between the origin and infinity. In this
curve, there are exactly 2 such points between the peaks, indicating 2 radial nodes.
Using the formula n – ℓ – 1 = 2, we test the options. For the 3s orbital (n = 3, ℓ = 0), the
number of radial nodes is 3 – 0 – 1 = 2 and the number of peaks is 3 – 0 = 3.
This matches the characteristics shown in the graphical representation perfectly.

Final Answer: Option (1)

94)

Total spin = × (number of unpaired electrons)

= ×1=

95)

Motor car and stationary Particles (2 and 3 both)

As we know it is not valid for macroscopic particles & stationary particles.

96) pH + pOH = 14
pH = 14 – pOH
pH = 14 – 10 = 4
PH = 4
 [H+] = 10–4
[H+] =
Ka = 10–6

97) Question Explanation : The question asks to predict the direction of a reaction by
comparing the reaction quotient Qc with the equilibrium constant Kc
Concept: This question is based on reaction quotient Qc
Solution:
Calculate Initial Concentrations:
[A] = 2/3
[B] = 1/3
[C] = 3/3 = 1 M
Calculate Qc :

Compare Qc and Kc :
Qc = 6.75
Kc = 49
Since Qc < Kc the reaction must proceed in the forward direction.
Final Answer: Option 1

98)

NCERT-XI, part-1,Pg.#166
(1) It is not correct as standard state of carbon is graphite and not diamond.
(2) It is correct as one mole of product is being formed from its elements in standard state.
(3) It is not correct as two moles of the product are formed.
(4) CO is not an element but a compound.

99)

Question Explanation : The question asks us to find the ratio of Kc/Kp for the given gaseous
reaction: CO(g) + 1/2 O₂(g) ⇌ CO₂(g).

Concept : The relationship between Kp and Kc is given by the equation: Kp = Kc(RT)Δng

Solution :

A. Calculate Δng:

Δng = (moles of gaseous products) - (moles of gaseous reactants) Δng = (1) - (1 + 1/2) Δng = 1
- 3/2 Δng = -1/2

B. Substitute Δng into the Kp/Kc relationship:

Kp = Kc(RT)-1/2

C. Rearrange the equation to find Kc/Kp:

Kc/Kp = (RT)1/2

Final Answer : Option (3)

100) Equivalent wt of acid =

Equivalent wt. =

101) MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O

V.f. = 5 V.f. = 2
∴ Balanced equation : 2MnO4– + 5C2O42– + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O

102) Explanation the Question : Find the heat of combustion of CH4(g) using heats of
formation.
Concept: ΔHocomb = [ΣΔHof(products)] − [ΣΔHof(reactants)]
Solution: Reaction: CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(ℓ)
ΔHocomb = [ (−94) + 2(−68.4) ] − [ (−17.9) + 0 ]
= [ −94 −136.8 ] − (−17.9)
= −230.8 + 17.9 = −212.9 kCal mol–1
Final Answer: 1

103) r = k[A]α [B]β

β=1

α=1
r = k[A]1 [B]1

104) 80000 cal.

105)

106)

Explain the Question : Determine how the two given chloroalkene compounds differ.
Concept : This question is based on structural isomerism.
 Solution :

Different connectivity of atoms = structural (Structure) Isomers.

Final answer : 3

107)

Same PCC, different side chain

108)

A) Question Explanation: The question asks to correctly match methods/tests with

their outcomes or purification techniques.

B) Concept Used: Chromatography, Lassaigne’s test for N and S, Steam distillation,

Vacuum distillation

C) Answer Explanation: Main Rule: Match each method with its characteristic result.

Column-I Item Column-II Match Reason

(A) Best and latest
(i) Chromatography Modern separation method
technique
(iv) Prussian blue coloured
(B) Lassaigne’s test for N NaCN + Fe → Prussian blue
complex
Na₂S + Nitroprusside →
(C) Lassaigne’s test for S (iii) Violet coloured complex
Violet
(D) Aniline purified from
(v) Steam distillation Aniline is steam volatile
water
(E) Glycerol purified from
(ii) Vacuum distillation Glycerol decomposes at bp
spent lye

The Correct matching order is (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(v), (E)-(ii). This matches
Option 3.D)
Final Answer: Option (3)

109) Explain the Question : We need to find the nitrogen percentage in a 0.75 g soil sample.
In the Kjeldahl method, the nitrogen is converted on NH3, which is then neutralized by 10 ml
of 1M H2SO4.
Concept : This question is based on the formula for the percentage of nitrogen is

N (Normality of H2SO4) : Since H2SO4 is dibasic, N = M × 2 = 1 × 2 = 2N.

V (Volume) : 10 ml
w (Weight of sample) : 0.75g
Solution :
Plug the values into the formula :

%N = 37.33
Final Answer: (1)

110) saturated heterocyclic compound

111) (COOH)2.2H2O —→ 2C + 6O + 6H
0.3 mol
1 mol (COOH).2H2O ≡ 6 mol O
0.3 mol (COOH).2H2O ≡ 0.3 × 6 mol O
≡ 1.8 mol O

112)

113)

114) is the best nucleophile in the polar aprotic solvent like DMF.

115)

116) SN1 reaction ∝ stability of C⊕

117)

NCERT-XII, Pg.#334, 361, 362

118)
Clemmensen Reduction

119)

120) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 373

121)

122) Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

123) Explaination: Identify the compounds which will give 2,4-DNP Test.
Concept: NAR of carbonyl compound.
Solution: 2,4-DNStest is the identification test of carbonyl compounds.
Carbonyl compounds when react with 2,4-DNP then yellow, orange colour ppt is formed.
We will check all the options.

(1)

(2)
(3)
All the three compounds are carbonyl compound. So these are give 2,4-DNP test.
Final Answer: Option (4)

124)

Explaining the Question :- Identify the process involved in cannizzaro reaction when
mixture of Ph-CHO and HCHO is treated with NaOH.
Concept:- This question is basedCannizzaro reaction.
Solution :- Carbonyl compound having no. α-H give cannizzaro reaction. Two molecule
participate in the reaction in which one get oxidized to acid (salt) and other gets reduced to
alcohol.
if two different molecule participate in reaction then more reactive molecules gets oxidised to
acid and less reactive molecule gets reduced to alcohol.
In this case HCHO is more reactive and Ph-CHO is less reactive towards cannizzaro reaction
so, oxidation of HCHO and Reduction of Ph-CHO takes Place.
Therefore B and C process are involved in the reaction.
Final Answer :- (3)

125)

Question Explanation: Determine oxidation state, geometry, and ligand strength to assign
hybridisation.

Concept: Hybridisation depends on coordination number and ligand field strength (VBT
concept).

Solution:

(I) [PtCl₄]²⁻
Pt²⁺ (d⁸), square planar → dsp² (p)

(II) [Cu(CN)₄]³⁻
Cu⁺ (d¹⁰), tetrahedral → sp³ (q)

(III) [Co(C₂O₄)₃]³⁻
Co³⁺ (d⁶), strong ligand → octahedral inner orbital → d²sp³ (s)

(IV) [Fe(H₂O)₅NO]²⁺
Octahedral complex → sp³d² (r)

Matching: (I) p, (II) q, (III) s, (IV) r

Final Answer: Option (2)

126) E2 – E1
 127)
1027 is highest corresponding to CN–

128)

129)

130)

131)

132)

133)

134) Explain Question:

Question is asking about the compound When a mixture of solid NaCl, solid K2Cr2O7 is heated
with concentrated H2SO4, orange red vapours are obtained

Concept
This question is based on Colors of vapours), K2Cr2O7 properties

Solution:
Chromyl chloride test
is chromyl chloride and it shows orange-red vapours.

Final Answer: Option (2)

135) ICl2–

ZOOLOGY

136)

Dorsal side of heart and contain deoxygenated blood

137) Joint kidney to testies

138) NCERT Pg # 56

139) NCERT Pg # 58,59

140) NCERT Pg # 46, 47, 48

141)

X is N-terminal amino acid and Y is C-terminal amino acid

142) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

143) Hypothalamus

144) High pH

145) Hormone

146) Melatonin

147) Spermatogonia – spermatocyte – Spermatid – Sperms

148) Both (I) and (II) are correct

149) Vital capacity + Residual volume

150) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

151)

Concept;
Lectin: A carbohydrate, Glycerol: A simple polyol compound. α-amino acid: The basic
building block of proteins,Palmitic acid: A common saturated fatty acid with 16 carbon
atoms.

Explanation ;
a. Lectin: Lectins are carbohydrate-binding proteins. Concanavalin A is a specific example of
a lectin. Therefore, 'a' matches with 'iv'.
b. Glycerol: Glycerol is a molecule with three hydroxyl groups (-OH), making it a trihydroxy
alcohol. Therefore, 'b' matches with 'iii'.
C. α-amino acid: An α-amino acid is the basic structural unit of proteins. The general
structure includes an amino group and a carboxyl group attached to the alpha carbon. This is
 the definition of an α-amino acid. Therefore, 'c' matches with 'ii'.

A. d. Palmitic acid: Palmitic acid is a long-chain fatty acid with no double bonds in its
hydrocarbon chain, making it a saturated fatty acid. Therefore, 'd' matches with 'i'.

Final Answer : (1) : a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

152)

Concept

A. Oils: Lipids that are liquid at room temperature, typically containing unsaturated fatty
acids.

B. Fats: Lipids that are solid at room temperature, typically containing saturated fatty
acids.

Explanation

A. Statement (B): Oils have higher melting points, so they remain as liquid in winter. This is
incorrect. Oils have lower melting points due to the presence of unsaturated fatty acids,
which introduce kinks in the hydrocarbon chains, preventing them from packing tightly.
This is why they are liquid at room temperature and in winter.

Therefore, statements A, C, and D are correct, while statement B is incorrect.

Final AnswerThe correct answer is 2. Three.

153)

Question Explanation:
The correct classification of biomolecules is important in understanding their functions in
bilogical systems.

Solution:
Insulin is a hormone, not an enzyme. It regulates blood sugar levels, and genetically
engineered insulin is used in diabbetes treatment. The other pairs are correctly matched.

Hence,
Correct Option:3

154)

Explain Question : Match Column-I with Column-II

Concept : This question is based on types of nitrogenous waste
Explanation :
Amonotelic → aquatic animals (iii); Ureotelic → mammals (ii); Uricotelic → birds (i).
Final answer : 1: a–iii, b–ii, c–i.

155)

Diluted

156) Explain Question : Which of the following pair is correct :-

Concept : This question is based on ART techniques
Explanation :
● In vitro fertilisation (outside body) → ZIFT, IUT, ICSI
● In vivo fertilisation (inside body) → GIFT, AI
Final answer : Option 1

157) Ncert Pg No . 62

158)

Sporozoite

159)

Sea urchin, sea cucumber

160)

Innate Immunity

161) Three

162)

Explanation : The question asks to fill in the blanks in four statements related to
biotechnology and pest resistance in plants.

Concept : The concept based on Application of Biotechnology in agriculture.

Final Answer : (2)

163) Explain Question : Synaptic vesicle occurs in

Concept : This question is based on transmission of impulse
Explanation : Synaptic vesicles store neurotransmitters and are located in the axon terminal
of the presynaptic neuron.
Final answer : 1 – Presynaptic neuron
164)

Question Explanation: Identify the correct labels in the diagram showing the mode of action
of a steroid hormone.

Concept: The question is based on mechanism of hormone action.

Solution: The correct answer is option 4.

A. A = Uterine cell membrane-Steroid hormones (e.g., estrogen) pass through the lipid
bilayer of target cells like uterine cells.

B. B = Hormone-receptor complex-Steroid hormone binds to its specific intracellular

receptor forming a complex.

C. C = Protein-The hormone-receptor complex acts as a transcription factor, leading to

synthesis of specific proteins.

D. D = Tissue growth and differentiation-The newly synthesized proteins mediate

physiological responses such as growth and differentiation.

Option 4 Correctly identifies all components of the steroid hormone pathway

Final answer: Option (4)

165)

Question Explanation – The question asks which ion movements cause depolarisation and
repolarisation in an axon.

Concept – Action potential and ion permeability changes

Solution –

A. Depolarisation occurs due to Na⁺ influx into the axon, making the inside more positive.
 B. Repolarisation occurs due to K⁺ outflux, restoring the negative inside of the axon.

Final Answer – Option 2

166)

Explain Question : Identify the Cell layer of blastocyst attaching to endometrium during
implantation.

Concept : This question is based on implantation.

Solution : The correct answer is option 2.

A. Trophoblast cells of blastocyst attach to the endometrium and help in implantation by

forming chorionic villi.

Final Answer : Option (2)

167)

NCERT-XIIth Pg. # 38

168) Question Explanation: Match the hormones in Column‑I with their correct functions in
Column‑II.

Concept: The question is based on human reproductive system

Solution:

A. FSH → (v) Stimulates follicular development

B. LH → (iv) Development of corpus luteum
C. Progesterone → (i) Maintain endometrium for implantation
D. Estrogen → (ii) Develop female secondary sexual characters

Thus, the correct matching is: a‑v, b‑iv, c‑i, d‑ii.

Final answer: Option 1

169) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 36

170)

I, II and III

171)

A retrovirus
172)

The correct answer is: (4) Disulphide bond

Human insulin is made up of two polypeptide chains: Chain A, which has 21 amino acids, and
Chain B, consisting of 30 amino acids. These chains are connected by disulphide bonds (-S-S-),
which are covalent bonds that form between cysteine residues. There are two interchain
disulphide bonds that link the A-chain and B-chain together, along with one intrachain
disulphide bond found within the A-chain itself. These bonds play a vital role in ensuring the
stability and biological activity of insulin.

173)

Concept :
Precipitation of DNA.

Solution:
Purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after the addition of chilled ethanol.
This can be seen as a collection of fine threads.

Final Answer: Option (3)

174)

Concept:
Charge of DNA

Solution:
DNA is negatively charged due to phosphate groups. Therefore, it migrates towards the
positive electrode (anode).

Final Answer: Option (2)

175)

Question Explanation :
The question asks which alcoholic beverages require the distillation process during their
preparation.

Concept : Fermentation

Solution :

A. Rum, brandy, and whisky are all distilled alcoholic beverages.

B. Fermentation produces alcohol first, and then distillation is used to concentrate it.

C. Hence, all listed options involve distillation.

Final Answer : Option 4

176) NCERT XII Pg.# 153

177)

All microbes are pathogenic

178)

(iii) only

179)

Adaptive radiation

180) Solution : In the equation p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1, p2 represents the frequency of individuals

homozygous for the dominant allele, and q represents the frequency of the recessive allele
itself.
Final Answer : (2)