29-05-2026

2321CMD303031260004 MD

PHYSICS

1) A spherical drop of radius r and surface tension S, then the extra surface energy if radius of
bubble is increased by Δr is:

(1) 4πr.Δr.S
(2) 8πr.Δr.S
(3) 2πr.Δr.S
(4) 10πr.Δr.S

2) There are two holes in a tank of height H. The water emerging from these holes strikes the

ground at the same points. Then-

(1) H = y – x

(2)

(3) H = x + y
(4)

3) The escape velocity of a body on a planet which is thrice the radius of the earth and double the
mass of the earth is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A ball is hit by a batsman at an angle of 37°. The man standing at P should run at what minimum
velocity so that he catches the ball before it strikes the ground. Assume that height of man is
negligible in comparison to maximum height of projectile :-

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 9 m/s
(4) 12 m/s

5) Find magnetic field at point P in given dig. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Assertion (A) :- ฀m – T graph for a diamagnetic material is a straight line parallel to T-axis.
Reason (R) :- Susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is not affected by temperature.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

7) Assertion (A): Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light. Reason (R): The
number of photoelectrons is directly proportional to the frequency of light.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

8) A graph between stopping potential and frequency is shown in the figure. According to the graph

the value of work function will be maximum for -

(1) Metal A
(2) Metal B
(3) Metal C
(4) Same for all the metal

9) Consider mass of hydrogen atom is M. It is at rest, it emitts a photon due to transition of electron
from n = 3 to n = 1. Recoil speed of hydrogen atom is :- (R = Rydberg const.)

(1) 3 × 108 m/s

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Find acceleration of blocks just after cutting of string.

(1) 0 m/s2, g m/s2 (↓)

(2) g m/s2(↑), g m/s2 (↓)
(3) 3g/2 m/s2(↑), 0 m/s2
(4) 3g/2 m/s2(↑), g m/s2 (↓)

11) Coefficient of friction of given parabolic surface is µ. Maximum height upto which a block can be
placed without slipping is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Bob of a pendulum is left from position P, velocity of image on mirror M of bob at position Q

w.r.t. bob is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) In given figure after all possible refraction & reflection calculate the final position of image from

point P.

(1) 20 cm
(2) 19/3 cm
(3) 20/3 cm
(4) 21 cm
14) For equilibrium of the system, value of mass m should be :-

(1) 9 kg
(2) 15 kg
(3) 21 kg
(4) 1 kg

15)

For a system of a ring and 4 point masses shown in figure, moment of inertia about axis of rotation
(AOR) is :

(1) 3MR2
(2) (M + 2m)R2

(3)

(4)

16) A reverse biased diode is :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

17) In the circuit given the current through the zener diode is :
(1) 10 mA
(2) 20 mA
(3) 30 mA
(4) 40 mA

18) For given electric voltage signal dc value is :-

(1) 6.28 V
(2) 3.14 V
(3) 4 V
(4) 0 V

19) Assertion :- In SHM acceleration is always directed towards the mean position.
Reason :- The body in SHM stops momentary at the extreme positions and then moves back to mean
position.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

20) Assertion : For a particle performing S.H.M., its speed decreases as it goes away from the mean
position.
Reason : In S.H.M. the acceleration changes with time.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

21) Steam at 100ºC is added slowly to 1400 gm of water at 16ºC until the temperature of water is
raised to 80ºC. The mass of steam required :-

(1) 120 gm
(2) 240 gm
(3) 160 gm
(4) 320 gm

22) The spectra of a black body at temperatures 327°C and 627°C are shown in the fig. If A1 and A2

be the areas under the two curves respectively, the value of A2/A1 is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) An ideal gas expands in such a way that PV2 = constant throughout the process.

(1) The graph of the process of T-V diagram is a parabola.

(2) The graph of the process of T-V diagram is a straight line
(3) Such an expansion is possible only with heating.
(4) Such an expansion is possible only with cooling.

24) Figure demonstrates a polytropic process for an ideal gas. The work done by the gas in process

AB is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 8P0V0
(4) Insufficient information

25) The force F is given in terms of time t and displacement x by the equation
F = AcosBx + CsinDt. The dimensions of are :-

0 0 0
(1) M L T
0 0
(2) M L T–1
0 0
(3) M L–1T
0
(4) M L1T–1

26) In a screw gauge, when screw is given 4 complete rotations, it advances by 2 mm on main scale
and there are 50 divisions on its circular scale. When screw is completely closed it was found that
46th division of circular scale coincides with reference line of main scale and zero of main scale is
barely visible. During measurement of diameter of sphere, main scale reading is 4 mm and 20th
division of of circular scale as in line with reference line. The correct reading of diameter will be :

(1) 2.24 mm
(2) 2.64 mm
(3) 4.24 mm
(4) 4.46 mm

27) Multiply 107.88 by 0.610 and express the result with correct number of significant figures :

(1) 65.8068
(2) 64.807
(3) 65.81
(4) 65.8

28) A particle is moving with speed 6 m/s along the direction of , then its velocity is :

(1) units
(2) units
(3) units
(4) units

29) If and are perpendicular to each other, find angle between and :-

(1) 60°
(2) 90°
(3) 45°
(4) None

30) A particle in a certain conservative force field has a potential energy given by U = . The
force exerted on it is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The energy required to accelerate a car from 10 m/s to 20 m/s is how many times the energy
required to accelerate the car from rest to 10 m/s

(1) Equal
(2) 4 times
(3) 2 times
(4) 3 times

32) The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 150 Hz and
210 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the system ?

(1) 10 Hz
(2) 20 Hz
(3) 30 Hz
(4) 40 Hz

33) In the figure, the intensity of waves arriving at D from two coherent sources S1 and S2 is I0. The

wavelength of the wave is λ = 4m. Resultant intensity at D will be :-

(1) 4I0
(2) I0
(3) 2I0
(4) zero

34) Which of the following circuits correctly represents the following truth table ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Two ideal slits S1 and S2 are at a distance d apart and illuminated by light of wavelength
λ passing through an ideal source slit S placed on the line through S2 as shown. The distance
between the planes of slits and the source slit is D. A screen is held at a distance D from the plane of

the slits. The minimum value of d for which there is darkness at O is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) In a part of ac circuit shown in figure R = 0.2 Ω. At the instant shown, VA – VB = 0.5 V, i = 0.5 A,

= 8 A/s. Then inductance L is :-

(1) 0.01 H
(2) 0.02 H
(3) 0.05 H
(4) 0.5 H

37) A uniform but time - varying magnetic field B(t) exists in a circular region of radius a and is
directed into the plane of the paper, as shown. The magnitude of the induced electric field at point P

at a distance r from the centre of the circular region

(1) is zero
(2) decreases as 1/r
(3) increases as r
(4) decreases as 1/r2

38) Two full turns of Screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on main scale. The total number of
circular scale divisions are 100. The measured value of thickness of sheet will be :

(1) 4.555 mm
(2) 4.295 mm
(3) 2.295 mm
(4) 2.245 mm

39) Match the following

Current r.m.s values

(A) x0 sinωt (i) x0

(B) x0 sinωt cosωt (ii)

(C) x0 sinωt + x0 cosωt (iii)

(1) (A → i), (B → ii), (C → iii)

(2) (A → ii), (B → iii), (C → i)
(3) (A → i), (B → iii), (C → ii)
(4) None of these

40) The graph shows variation of 'I' with 'f' for a series R-L-C network. Keeping L and C constant. If
R increases:

(a) Maximum current increases.

(b) Sharpness of the graph decreases.
(c) Quality factor decreases.
(d) Band width increases.

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) c, d, a
(4) All

41)

A meter bridge is used to determine an unknown resistance X using a standard 8Ω resistor in a setup
arranged as shown in figure. The galvanometer shows null point when jockey is at 62 cm mark. If
end corrections are 1 cm and 2 cm respectively, the value of unknown resistance X is given by :

(1) 12.6 Ω
(2) 13.13 Ω
(3) 14.5 Ω
(4) 15.3 Ω

42) If VA = 2V find the value of potential at D :-

(1) 31 volt
(2) 4 volt
(3) 25 volt
(4) 20 volt

43) A body is allowed to fall on the ground from a height h1. If it is rebound to a height h2 then the
coefficient of restitution is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

44) A particle starts from rest and moves in a circle of radius R with a constant angular acceleration
α. After time t, the magnitude of the net acceleration of the particle is:

(1) Rα
(2) Rα2t2
(3)
(4)

45) An electron is projected as in fig. with kinetic energy K, at an angle 45° between two charged
plates. The magnitude of the electric field so that the electron just fails to strike the upper plate,

should be greater than -

(1) K/ed
(2) 2K/ed
(3) K/2ed
(4) infinite

CHEMISTRY

1) Statement-I : An orbital cannot have more than two electrons.

Statement-I : The two electrons in an orbital create opposite magnetic field.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

2) In the following transition which statement is correct?

(1) E3–1 = E3–2 – E2–1

(2) λ3 = λ1 + λ2
(3) ν3 = ν2 + ν1
(4) All of these
3) Assertion (A):- In the titration of HCl and NaOH, phenolphthalein is used as a suitable indicator.
Reason (R):- Phenolphthalein is pink coloured in acidic medium.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

4) For a given reaction, the overall enthalpy change is +100 kJ/mol and activation energy of the
reverse reaction is +200 kJ/mol. The activation energy for the forward reaction would be :-

(1) +300 kJ/mol

(2) +200 kJ/mol
(3) +0.100 kJ/mol
(4) +100 kJ/mol

5) NO2 required for a reaction is produced by decomposition of N2O5 in CCI4, as by equation

2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
The initial concentration of N2O5 is 3 mol L–1 and it is 2.75 mol L–1 after 30 minutes.
The rate of formation of NO2 is x × 10 mol L–1 min–1, value of x is ______ (nearest integer)

(1) 12 M min-1
(2) 17 M min-1
(3) 4 M min-1
(4) 20 M min-1

6) = 20 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 and

= 400 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1
calculate the pH of 1M solution of this acid :-

(1) 1.3
(2) 0
(3) 1.7
(4) 4

7) In the electrolysis of AgNO3, the mass of Ag deposited is plotted against the charge:-

Slope of the line gives:-

(1) Equivalent mass of silver

(2) Electrochemical equivalent of silver
(3) value of faraday
(4) Current passed through the cell

8) At 25°C the potential of hydrogen electrode ( = 1 atm and [H⊕] = 0.04 M) will be :-

(1) +0.084 V
(2) –0.042 V
(3) –0.063 V
(4) –0.084 V

9) Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.

Column I Column II

(A) Fe(OH)3 (i) Ksp = s2

(B) Ag2CrO4 (ii) Ksp = 27s4

(C) CH3COOAg (iii) Ksp = 108s5

(D) Ca3(PO4)2 (iv) Ksp = 4s3

(1) (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
(2) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (iii)
(3) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iv)
(4) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (ii)

10) At a certain temperature when some amount of glucose is dissolved in water, it is observed that
lowering in vapour pressure is 0.6 mm Hg for this solution. What will be the vapour pressure of

same glucose solution if its molality is mol kg–1 ?

(1) 200 mm Hg
(2) 300 mm Hg
(3) 600 mm Hg
(4) 720 mm Hg

11) Which solution will have highest freezing point:-

(1) 1 % glucose in water

(2) 1 % sucrose in water
(3) 1 % NaCl in water
(4) 1 % CaCl2 in water

12) If vapour pressure of pure liquids 'A' and 'B' are 300 and 800 torr respectively at 25° C. When
these two liquids are mixed at this temperature to form a solution in which mole percentage of 'B' is
92, then the total vapour pressure is observed to be 0.95 atm. Which of the following is true for this
solution ?

(1) ΔVmix > 0

(2) ΔHmix < 0
(3) ΔVmix = 0
(4) ΔHmix = 0

13) 100 mL of PH3 when completely decomposed produces phosphorus and hydrogen. The change in
volume of the gas is -
4PH3(g) → P4(s) + 6H2(g)

(1) 50 mL increase
(2) 500 mL decrease
(3) 900 mL decrease
(4) Does not change

14) The enthalpy of solution of CuSO4.5H2O(s) and CuSO4(s) are respectively 11.7 and –65.5 kJ/mol.
The hydration enthalpy of CuSO4 into CuSO4.5H2O will be :-

(1) 53.8 kJ/mol

(2) –9.8 kJ/mol
(3) –77.2 kJ/mol
(4) –53.8 kJ/mol

15) Match the column:

Column –I Column-II

(A) (p)
1 mol 1mol

(B) (q)
1 mol
0.5L of 1MH2SO4 + Excess of
(C) (r)
NaOH
(D) (s)
(1) A - r, B - s, C - q, D - p
(2) A - r, B - q, C - p, D - s
(3) A - p, B - q, C - r, D - s
(4) A - s, B - p, C - q, D - r

16) In a metal oxide, 20% oxygen by mass is present equivalent weight of metal :-

(1) 40
(2) 64
(3) 72
(4) 32

17) Assuming complete ionisation, same moles of which of the following compounds will require the
highest amount of acidified KMnO4 for complete oxidation :-
(1) FeC2O4
(2) Fe (NO2)2
(3) FeSO4
(4) FeSO3

18) A(g) + B(g) → 2C(g) + 3D(g) ΔH = –ve

Sign of ΔS, ΔH and ΔG respectively :

(1) + , – , –
(2) – , – , –
(3) + , + , –
(4) – , + , –

19) Assertion : T, P, V are called state variables or state function. Reason : Their values depend on
the state of the system and how it is reached.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

20) In a dumas nitrogen estimation method, 0.30g of an organic compound gave 50 mL of

N2 collected at 300K and 715mm Hg pressure. Calculate the percentage composition of nitrogen in
the compound (vapour pressure of water at 300K is 15mm Hg)

(1) 17.46 %
(2) 22.42%
(3) 32.12%
(4) 46.06%

21) Glycerol can be separated from spent-lye in soap industry by

(1) Chromatography
(2) Sublimation
(3) Fractional distillation
(4) Distillation under reduced pressure

22)

Correct reactivity order for SN1 mechanism :

(I) (II)

(III) MeO – CH2 – Cl (IV)

(1) I > II > IV > III
(2) IV > III > I > II
(3) III > II > I > IV
(4) I > II > III > IV

23) major product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The Kjeldahl method of Nitrogen estimation fails for which of the following reaction products ?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) a and d
(2) c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) b and c

25)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

26)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Which is most reactive towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Phenyl magnesium bromide reacting with t-Butyl alcohol gives

(1) Ph – OH
(2) Ph – H

(3)

(4)

29) Which of the following will produce silver mirror with Tollen's reagent (ammonical AgNO3) :

(1)

(2) HCOOH
(3) Glucose
(4) All of these

30)
A and B will :

(1) CH3CH2CN, CH3CH2NC

(2) CH3CH2NC, CH3CH2CN
(3) CH3CH2CN, CH3CH2CN
(4) CH3CH2NC, CH3CH2NC

31) Carboxylic acids are reduced to primary alcohol by :

(1) LiAlH4
(2) B2H6
(3) NaBH4
(4) 1 and 2 both
32) An acid chloride (RCOCl) is treated with an excess of Methyl Magnesium Bromide (CH3MgBr) in
dry ether, followed by acid hydrolysis. What is the final organic product formed?

(1) Primary Alcohol

(2) Secondary Alcohol
(3) Tertiary Alcohol
(4) Ketone

33) Which of the following aromatic amines will react most slowly during diazotization in
strongly acidic HCl?

(1) p-Nitroaniline
(2) p-Methoxyaniline
(3) Aniline
(4) p-Toluidine

34)

Which of the following is chiral :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Which out of the following gases is obtained when ammonium dichromate is heated -

(1) Oxygen
(2) Ammonia
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Nitrous oxide

36) Which of the following is least reactive ?

(1) White phosphorus

(2) Yellow phosphorus
(3) Red phosphorus
(4) Black phosphorus

37) The mixture of concentrated HCl and HNO3 made in 3 : 1 ratio contains :

(1) CIO2
(2) NOCl
(3) NCI3
(4) N2O4

38) Which is not possible :-

(1) ICl3
–
(2) I3
(3) ClBr3
–2
(4) BeF4

39) Which option is incorrect regarding B2H6 :-

(1) 3C–2e–bond = 2
(2) 2C–2e–bond = 2
(3) B-Ht > B-Hb (bond strength)
(4) Max. atoms in same plane = 6

40) Which of the following compound will give CO2 gas on heating ?

(1) Li2CO3
(2) Na2CO3
(3) K2CO3
(4) All of the above

41) Which of following order of oxidation state stability would be correct ?

(1) B+3 < Tℓ+3

(2) C+2 > Pb+2
(3) Tℓ+3 < Tℓ+
(4) Pb+4 > Pb+2

42) Correct match is.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Expanded octet (p) PCl5

(b) Odd e– molecule (q) NO

(c) Incomplete octet (r) CH4

 (d) Complete octet (s) BeH2
(1) a - q, b - r, c - s, d - p
(2) a - p, b - q, c - s, d - r
(3) a - s, b - p, c - q, d - r
(4) a - p, b - r, c - q, d - s

43) The correct values of ionisation energies (in kJ mol–1) of Be, Ne, He and N respectively are

(1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256

(2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
(3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999
(4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256

44) In an octahedral crystal field, the t2g orbitals are -

(1) Raised in energy by 0.4 Δ0

(2) Lowered in energy by 0.4 Δ0
(3) Raised in energy 0.6 Δ0
(4) Lowered in energy by 0.6 Δ0

45) Interstitial compounds are formed when small atoms are trapped inside the crystal lattice of
metals. Which of the following is not the characteristic property of interstitial compounds?

(1) They have high melting points in comparison to pure metals

(2) They are very hard
(3) They retain metallic conductivity
(4) They are chemically very reactive

BOTANY

1) Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Choose the statement which is contrary to
the rules

(1) Biological names are generally in Latin

(2) Name of the author appear before specific epithet
(3) Both the words in a biological name are underlined separately, when hand written
First word in a biological name represents the genus while the second component denotes the
(4)
specific epithet

2) Which of the following is not an Archaebacteria?

(1) Methanogens
(2) Thermoacidophiles
(3) Halophiles
(4) Actinomycetes

3) In which of the following, the genus name, its character and its class are not correctly matched,
whereas the remaining three are correctly matched ?

Genus
Character Class
Name

Sexual stage
(1) Alternaria Deuteromycetes
is absent

Endogenous
(2) Aspergillus Ascomycetes
ascospores

Aseptate
(3) Mucor Phycomycetes
mycelium

septate
(4) Albugo and coenocytic Ascomycetes
mycelium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Assertion (A) :- Boundaries of Kingdom-Protista are not well-defined.

Reason (R) :- Kingdom-Protista includes plants like, animals-like and fungi-like organisms.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) Which of the following statement is wrong ?

M.W. Beijerinck demonstrated that extract of the infected plants of tabacco could cause
(1)
infection in healthy plants of tobacco
(2) Viroids cause potato spindle tuber disease
(3) Both DNA and RNA present within a single virus simultanously
(4) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas

6) The given flow chart shows the reproductive structure & events of a gymnospermic plant. Identify
the structure/events those are blank.
 A B C D E

Male Micro- Archeg- Anthero-

(1) Meiosis
cone sporangia onia zoids

Micro- Anther- Archego-

(2) Sori Meiosis
sporangia zoids nia

Male Mega- Male Archego-

(3) Meiosis
cone sporangia gametes nia

Mega- Male
(4) Sori Mitosis Egg cell
sporangia gametes
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Bryophytes resemble algae on the following basis :-

(1) Differentiation of the plant body into root stem and heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(2) Thallus like plant body lack of vascular tissue absence of root and autotrophic mode of nutrition
(3) Thallus like plant body presence of roots and heterotrophic made of nutrition
(4) Filamentous body presence of vascular tissue and autotrophic made of nutrition

8) Read the statement (A-D) :

(A) The male and female gametophytes do not have independent existence.
(B) The multicellular female gametophyte is also retained within megasporangium.
(C) The gametophytic generation is reduced.
(D) Sporophylls are aggregate to form cone like structures.
The above statements belong to which group of plant kingdom :-
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Angiosperms

9) Identify the types of placentation in the given diagrams and choose the appropriate example in
which they are found.

A B C D

Parietal; Axile; Free central; Basal;

(1)
Argemone China rose Dianthus Sunflower

Free central; Basal; Axile; Parietal;

(2)
Dianthus Sunflower China rose Argemone

Axile; Parietal; Free central; Basal;

(3)
China rose Argemone Dianthus Sunflower

Free
Basal; Parietal; Axile;
(4) central;
Sunflower Argemone China rose
Dianthus
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) The figure below shows position of floral parts on thalamus (A, B, C). Select the option giving

correct identification together with what it represents ?

(1) C – Hypogynous flower having superior ovary

(2) A – Perigynous flower having half inferior ovary
(3) B – Epigynous flower having inferior ovary
(4) A – Hypogynous flower having superior ovary
11)
Identify the different correct diagrams a, b, c and select the right option from the following table ?

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) Wheat Monstera Grass

(2) Mustard Wheat Monstera

(3) Banyan Mustard Carrot

(4) Potato Grass Mustard

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Given below is the diagram of the transverse section of monocotyledonous stem. Identify the

parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them:-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Vascular
(1) Epidermis Bundle sheath Pith
bundles

(2) Hypodermis Phloem Xylem Ground tissue

(3) Hypodermis Xylem Phloem Ground tissue

(4) Epidermis Xylem Phloem Ground tissue

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) The protoxylem lies towards periphery and metaxylem lies towards the centre, such
arrangement of primary xylem is present in :-
(1) Dicot stem
(2) Dicot root
(3) Monocot stem
(4) Both 1 & 3

14) Protein synthesis in an animal cell, takes place :-

(1) Only in nucleus

(2) Only in cytoplasm
(3) In the cytoplasm as well as in chloroplast
(4) In the cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria

15) Which of the following is incorrect about the microbodies ?

(1) They are present in bacteria.

(2) Minute, membrous vesicles.
(3) They are present in plants and animals.
(4) They have various enzymes.

16) Statement I : The cilium / flagellum emerge from certriole like structure called the basal body.
Statement II : Cytoskeleton help in mechanical support and motility.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

17) How many chromosomes shall be present in a diploid cell at mitotic anaphase if its sperm cell
has 5 chromosomes ?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

18) Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence :-

(A) Terminilisation of chiasmata
(B) Crossing over
(C) Synapsis
(D) Disjunction of homologous chromosomes
(E) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
The correct sequence is :-

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) E → D → C → B → A
(3) C → B → D → E → A
(4) C → B → E → A → D

19) Name the phases of cell cycle at which one of the following events occur.
I. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator.
II. Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
III. Pairing between homologous chromosomes takes place.
IV. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

I. Metaphase, II. Anaphase,

(1)
III. Zygotene, IV. Pachytene
I. Metaphase-I, II. Anaphase-II,
(2)
III. Diplotene, IV. Diakinesis
I. Metaphase, II. Anaphase,
(3)
III. Pachytene, IV. Diplotene
I. Metaphase-II, Anaphase-I,
(4)
III. Diakinesis, IV. Diplotene

20) (A) Water splitting

(B) Reduction of carbon dioxide
(C) Use of ATP
(D) Formation of ATP and NADPH
(E) Oxygen release
Which of the above processes are not included in the photochemical phase of photosynthesis?

(1) A, B and C
(2) C and E
(3) B, D and E
(4) B and C

21) If there is sunlight on the thylakoids in chloroplast then :-

(1) There is a decrease in pH in the thylakoid lumen

(2) There is a decrease in pH in the stroma
(3) There is the high production of O2 by stroma thylakoids
(4) There is accumulation of protons in the stroma

22) Assertion (A) : First stable product of calvin cycle is phosphoglycerate.

Reason (R) : Primary CO2 acceptor is a ketose sugar.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

23) By the production of which of the following it can be identified that whether CO2 or O2 is bind to
the active site of RuBisCO ?

(1) Phosphoglycolate
(2) NADPH
(3) ATP
(4) Phosphoglycerate

24) Match the following.

(i) Glucose (a) End product of glycolysis

(ii) Sucrose (b) Monosaccharide

(iii) Fructose (c) Disaccharide

(iv) Pyruvic acid (d) End product of Kreb’s cycle

(1) (i)–(a), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(d)
(2) (i)–(a), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(b)
(3) (i)(iii)–(a), (ii)–(c), (iv)–(d)
(4) (i)(iii)–(b), (ii)–(c), (iv)–(a)

25) How many ATP are produced during the conversion of one molecules of α-ketoglutaric acid into
OAA in kreb's cycle ?

(1) 8 ATP
(2) 9 ATP
(3) 6 ATP
(4) 7 ATP

26) A - Promote flowering in pineapples.

B - Promote abscission of older mature leaves.
C - Induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes.
D - Promote the internode elongation just prior of flowering.
E - Synthesised in regions where rapid cell division occurs.
How many functions from above are induced by Auxins ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

27) Pick out the correct statements

(a) Cytokinins specially help in delaying leaf senescence
(b) ABA are involved in regulating apical dominance
(c) Ethylene is specially useful in enhancing seed germination
(d) Gibberellins are responsible for immature falling of leaves

(1) a and c only

(2) a and d only
(3) b and c only
(4) a and b only
28) Select the correct set of function which is performed by phytohormone :-

Auxin Cytokinin Ethylene

(1) Selective weedicide Root hair formation Bolting

(2) Apical dominance Delay of senescence Ripening of fruit

(3) Apical dominance Richmond lang-effect Callus Induction

(4) Fruit ripening Epicotyl hook formation Feminising effect

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) The sigmoid growth and arithematic growth can be represented graphically as

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Cells which are formed from the dedifferentiation, again loss the capacity of division so that they
can perform specific function is called :-

(1) differentiation
(2) dedifferentiation
(3) redifferentiation
(4) Development

31) Identify the structure A, B, C and D in the figure given below and choose the correct option :-
 A B C D

Pollen Pollen
1 Suture Filament
grains chamber

Pollen Pollen Line of

2 Stalk
sacs grains dehiscence

Pollen Pollen Line of

3 Stalk
grains sacs dehiscence

Pollen
4 Megasporangia Suture Filament
grains
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Identify the type of ovary in the following diagram (A) and (B):

(A) Monocarpellary, syncarpous

(1)
(B) Multicarpellary, apocarpous
(A) Multicarpellary, apocarpous
(2)
(B) Multicarpellary, syncarpous
(A) Multicarpellary, syncarpous
(3)
(B) Multicarpellary, apocarpous
(4) (A) Monocarpellary, apocarpous (B) Multicarpellary, apocarpous
33)
Choose the correct match ?

(1) A = Antipodal cells, B = Central cell

(2) B = Central cell, D = Egg cell
(3) C = Central cell, F = Synergids
(4) B = Polar nuclei, F = Filiform apparatus

34)
A, B and C are

A B C

1 Definitive nucleus X-body Embryogeny

2 Helper cell Paramular body Megasporogenesis

3 Co-operative cell PEN Syngamy

Primary
4 Secondary nucleus Embryogeny
endosperm cell

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Assertion (A): Some angiosperms produce more than one embryo in their seed.
Reason (R): Some nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac start dividing, protrude into the
embryo sac and develop into the embryo in some angiosperms.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

36) When we make a cross between AABBCcDd with AABBCcDd then find out the phenotypic ratio
we obtained in next generation ?

(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

37) Given are the statements regarding linkage of genes :-

(i) The strength of the linkage is determined by the distance between the two genes
(ii) The strength of the linkage is directly proportional to the distance between the two genes
(iii) The two genes are said to be linked when they fail to show independent assortment.
Out of these statements.

(1) All are correct

(2) (i) & (ii) are correct
(3) (i) & (iii) are correct
(4) (ii) & (iii) are correct

38) Given pedigree chart show which type of inheritance :-

(1) X-linked recessive

(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) Autosomal recessive
(4) X-linked dominant

39) Which of the following structure was discovered by Henking ?

(1) Y-body
(2) Barr body
(3) X-body
(4) Nu-body

40) Which of the following diagram correctly represents the replication of DNA :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Lac operon in prokaryotes :-

(a) is regulated negatively
(b) is inducible operon
(c) cannot be regulated positively

(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct

(2) only (c) is correct
(3) Only (b) is incorrect
(4) Both (b) and (c) are incorrect

42) In bacteria AAA codon codes for lysine amino acid then in human AAA codon codes for :-

(1) Phenyl alanine

(2) Glycine
(3) Lysine
(4) Leusine

43) Read the following statements :-

(A) Cyclosporin A is used as a clot buster
(B) Whisky, brandy & rum are produced by distillation of fermented broth
(C) Baculoviruses are used as biological control agents
(D) The biogas production technology in India in developed by ICAR
Which of the above statements are not incorrect ?

(1) A & C
(2) B & C
(3) C & D
(4) A & D

44) Association between Balanus and Chathamalus barnacles is

(1) Symbiosis
(2) Commensalism
(3) Parasitism
(4) Competition

45) Assertion :- Sun is not the immediate source of energy for deep sea hydrothermal vent.
Reason :- Around these vents, the food web begins with chemosynthetic bacteria rather than
photosynthetic organism.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

ZOOLOGY

1) Read the given paragraph :

"It is lined by glandular and ciliated cells. It absorbs nitrogenous waste products from haemocoel
and convert them into uric acid which is excreted out through the hind gut"
Which of the following structures of cockroach is referred here ?

(1) Rectum
(2) Hepatic caecum
(3) Alimentary canal
(4) Malpighian tubules

2) Head of cockroach according to its position is :-

(1) Hypharynx
(2) Hypocerebral
(3) Hypognathous
(4) Orthognathous

3) Fill up the blanks.

I. Using Agrobacterium vectors, ....A.... specific genes are introduced into the host plant.
II. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of .....B.....
III. The genes .....C.... and .....D.... control cotton bollworms.
IV. ....E... has been introduced in Bt corn to protect the same corn borer.
A to E in above statements can be:-

A-fungal, B-pest resistance,

(1)
C-cry II Ab, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ac
A-nematode, B- Cellular defence
(2)
C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry I Ab
A-insects, B-cellular defense,
(3)
C-cry II Ab, D-cry I Ac, E-cry I Ab
A-virus, B-protection against viral infection,
(4)
C-cry I Ac, D-cry II Ab, E-cry II Ac

4) Which of the following pair is correct match according to their cause :-

(1) Tetany - rapid spasm in muscle due to high Ca2+ level in body fluids
(2) Muscular dystrophy - Auto immune disorder
(3) Mysthania gravis - genetic disorder
(4) Oesteoporosis - age related disorder characterized by decreased bone mass

5) A ring of A blind tubules called B is present at the junction of foregut and mid gut Which secrete
digestive juice. At junction of midgut and hind gut is present another ring of C filamentous D :-

A B C D

Malpighian Hepatic
1 6-8 100-150
tubules caecae

Malpighian Hepatic
2 100-150 6-8
tubules caecae

Malpighian
3 100-150 Hepatic caecae 6-8
tubules

Malpighian
4 6-8 Hepatic caecae 100-150
tubules
1
(1)

(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
6) In given diagram A,B,C and D respectively represents :-

(1) Radius, Ulna, Scapula, Clavicle

(2) Ulna, Radius, Scapula, Clavicle
(3) Radius, Ulna, Clavicle, Scapula
(4) Ulna, Radius, Clavicle, Scapula

7)

(A) inspiratory capacity

(B) expiratorycapacity
(C) functional residual capacity

Choose the correct option for A , B and C

(1) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+IRV,C–ERV+RV
(2) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+ERV,C–TV+IRV
(3) A–TV+IRV,B–TV+ERV,C–ERV+RV
(4) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+IRV,C–ERV+RV+TV

8) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

Heart muscle is
suddenly damaged
(A) Heart failure I.
by inadequate
blood supply.
 Chest pain due
to inadequate O2
(B) Cardiac arrest II.
reaching the
heart muscles.

(C) Heart attack III. Atherosclerosis.

Heart not
pumping blood
Coronary
effectively
(D) Artery Disease IV.
enough to meet
(CAD)
the needs of the
body.

Heart stops
(E) Angina pectoris V.
beating
(1) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-II
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-III, E-II
(3) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III
(4) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-III, E-I

9) Choose the correct option for X, Y, Z and P :-

Blood May Receive May Donate

Group Blood Blood

O O Z

A X A,AB

B B,O B,AB

AB Y P
(1) X=A, O, Y=O, A, B, AB, Z=O, A, B, AB, P=AB
(2) X=B, Y=O, A, B, AB, Z=O, A, B, AB, P=AB
(3) X=O, Y=O, A, B, AB, Z=O, A, B, AB, P=A
(4) X=O, Y=O, A, B, AB, Z=O, A, B, AB, P=B

10) Bidder's canal in frog is found in ?

(1) Liver
(2) Kidney
(3) Testes
(4) Ovary

11) Which of the following is the characteristic of all mammals, without any exception ?

(1) Presence of external ears or pinnae

(2) Presence of seven cervical vertebrae in the neck
(3) They are viviparous and the development is direct
(4) Presence of milk producing mammary glands

12) Match column-I containing transgenic organisms with their specific characteristics in column-II
and select the correct answer from codes given below.

Column-I Column-II
(A) Golden rice (i) Protein enriched milk
(B) Bt cotton (ii) Increased shelf life
(C) Flavr Savr (iii) Enriched with Vitamin A
(D) Rosie cow (iv) High yield and pest resistant
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(4) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(ii)

13) Which one of the following option gives the correct categorisation of six animals according to the
type of symmetry :-

A B C
Asymmetrical Radial Bilateral

Euspongia,
1 Aurelia, star-fish Ascaris, Nereis
Fasciola

Fasciola,
2 Euspongia Aurelia,Star-fish
Ascaris, Nereis

Euspongia,
3 Aurelia, Fasciola Ascaris, Nereis
Star fish

Star-fish,
4 Euspongia Fasciola, Aurelia
Ascaris, Nereis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Number of cranial nerves in frog are :-

(1) 8
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 20

15) Which is not a character of the animal given in the diagram ?

(1) Jaws absent in mouth

(2) Scales absent on body
(3) Paired fins for swimming
(4) Closed circulatory system

16) Assertion (A): Tight junctions are commonly found in epithelial tissues lining the intestine.
Reason (R): Tight junctions prevent leakage of substances across epithelial layers.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

17) Statement I: In frog, respiration occurs through lungs, skin, and buccopharyngeal cavity.
Statement II: Cutaneous respiration in frog is possible only in dry conditions.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Both statements are false.
(3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.

18) The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by:-

(1) Movement of fetus

(2) Appearance of hair on head
(3) Listening to the heart sound carefully through the stethoscope
(4) Formation of limbs

19) By which of the following pathway milk is sucked out?

(1) Alveoli → Mammary duct → Mammary tubules → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct
(2) Alveoli → Mammary tubules → Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct
(3) Alveoli → Mammary gland → Mammary tubules → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct
(4) Alveoli → Lactiferous duct → Mammary ampulla → Mammary tubules → Mammary duct

20) During the transmission of nerve impulse which of the following take place ?

(1) Flux of Na+ inwards and K+ outwards.

(2) Flux of K+ inwards and Na+ outwards.
(3) Flux of K+ inwards and Na+ inwards.
(4) Flux of K+ outwards and Na+ outwards.

21) A woman used lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method. She got pregnant even though
she was fully breastfeeding her 4-month-old baby.
What is the most likely reason?

(1) She started supplementary feeding to the baby

(2) She was taking iron tablets
(3) She had intercourse during the safe period
(4) The baby was sleeping through the night

22) Identify A, B, C, D and E in the diagram showing human foetus within the uterus:

Options A B C D E

Umbilical Uterus
(1) Placental villi Yolk sac Embryo
cord cavity

Umbilical Uterus
(2) Placental villi Yolk sac Embryo
cord cavity

Umbilical Uterus
(3) Placental villi Yolk sac Embryo
cord cavity

Umbilical Uterus
(4) Placental villi Yolk sac Zygote
cord cavity
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Assertion (A): Corpus luteum are cells produced by Graafian follicle after ovulation.
Reason (R): It secretes only estrogen, which is necessary to maintain pregnancy.

(1) Assertion & Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False

24) In case of snakebites, the patient is given injection consisting of __A___ and this is a type of
___B__.

(1) A - antibiotics, B - immunity

(2) A - preformed antibodies, B - passive immunisation
(3) A - preformed antibodies, B - active immunisation
(4) A - antigens, B - vaccination
25) The extinction of dinosaur takes place

(1) before the origin of seaweeds

(2) before the origin of first amphibian
(3) nearly 65 million years ago
(4) before the origin of fishes

26) An example of analogy in evolution is

(1) Forelimbs of whales, bats, cheetah and human

(2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita
(3) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
(4) Vertebrate hearts

27) Following are the events of muscular contraction, arrange them in correct order?
(A) Action potential generates in the sarcolemma
(B) Hydrolysis of ATP
(C) Myosin head pulls the attached actin filaments
(D) Release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm
(E) Shortening of sarcomere

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) A → C → D → B → E
(3) A → D → B → C → E
(4) A → C → B → D → E

28) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in :-

(1) Nephrons having too short loop of Henle.

(2) 85% of nephrons (majority of nephrons).
(3) Cortical nephrons.
(4) All of the above

29) Which statement is not correct about glomerular filtration ?

(1) Avg. 1100-1200 ml. of blood is filtered by the kidney per minute
(2) Glomerular filtrate is blood plasma except protein
(3) GFR in a healthy person is approx. 125 ml./minute or 180 lit./day.
(4) Complete blood plasma is filtered in ultrafiltration process

30) Which of the following option matches the correct labeling in this figure
 A B C D E

Pulmonary Left Papillary

1 [Link] Purkinje fibre
artery auricle muscle

Pulmonary Interatrial Chordae Interventricular

2 SA node
artery septum tendinae septum

Chordae
3 Aorta SA node [Link] Bundle of His
tendinae

Left Chordae
4 Aorrta [Link] Bundle of His
auricle tendinae
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) ............. of an enzyme is a crevice or pocket into which substrate fit.

(1) Inactive site

(2) Active site
(3) Allosteric site
(4) Any of these

32) As starch is related to plant body, which of the following is related to animal body ?

(1) Cellulose
(2) Chitin
(3) Glycogen
(4) Inulin

33) Assertion: Lipids are found in the acid insoluble pool

Reason: The hydrophobic end of lipids are responsible to associate with other water molecules and
increase in the size.

(1) Assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, reason is false
(4) Assertion is false, reason is false

34)
Choose the incorrect statement(s) regarding above graph :-
(A) This graph is for an exothermic process
(B) The energy difference between product and transition state is less than activation energy.
(C) Graph 'a' shows the presence of enzyme
Options :-

(1) Only B
(2) A and B
(3) B and C
(4) A and C

35) Carbonic anhydrase can accelerate the rate of reaction for the formation of carbonic acid from
H2O and CO2 by about;

(1) 10 times
(2) 200 times
(3) 100 times
(4) 10 million times

36) Which enzyme was targeted during the first clinical gene therapy given in 1990 to a 4 year old
girl?

(1) Monamine oxidase

(2) Tyrosine oxidase
(3) Adenosine deaminase
(4) Pyruvate dehydrogenase.

37) Which of the following is not the use of transgenic animal ?

(1) Study of normal physiology and development

(2) Testing of vaccine safety
(3) Production of biological products
(4) Molecular diagnosis

38)
Find the correct match.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Army worms (1) Dipteran

(b) Flies (2) Lepidopteran

(c) Beetles (3) Coelpteran

(d) Mosquitoes

(e) Tobacco budworm

(1) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-1, e-3
(2) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-1, e-1
(3) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-3, e-2
(4) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-1, e-2

39) The below diagram show a diagrammatic sketch of maturation of insulin. Select the correct set

of the names labelled P, Q, R and S.

P-A-peptide, Q-B-peptide,
(1)
R-Proinsulin, S-Free C-Peptide
P-Proinsulin, Q-A-peptide,
(2)
R-B-peptide, S-free C-Peptide
P-Free C-Peptide, Q-A-peptide,
(3)
R-B-peptide, S-Proinsulin
P-A-peptide, Q-B peptide,
(4)
R-Free C-peptide, S-Proinsulin

40)

Match the following :-

A B

Producing thousands of genetically identical

i Somaclones a
plants through tissue culture

Capacity to generate a whole plant from any

ii Totipotency b
plant cell

iii Micropropagation c Geneticaqlly identical to original plant

iv Meristem culture d Virus free plants

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
(3) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
(4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

41) 'Pomato' is developed by which method of tissue culture :-

(1) Meristem culture

(2) Embryo culture
(3) Anther culture
(4) Somatic hybridisation

42) Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception
in it ?

(1) All sponges are marine and have collared cells.

(2) All mammals are viviparous and possess hair on body.
(3) All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal)
(4) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side.

43) Cross section of animal body is given below : Which of the following animals
will satisfy the above cross section :-

(1) Fasciola
(2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Ascaris
(4) Nereis

44) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : FSH which interacts with membrane bound receptors does not enter the target cell.
Reason (R) : Binding of FSH to its receptors generates second messenger (cyclic AMP) for its
biochemical and physiological responses. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below ;

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

45)
How many of the following statements are correct about given diagram?

(A) Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible

for this (B) Allergic disease
(C) Heat & moisture help these to grow
(D) It is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti
(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 1 2 3 4 4 3 2 4 4 1 4 2 4 1 3 3 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 4 2 4 3 4 2 1 2 4 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 3 1 2 1 2 4 2 3 2 2 1 3 1 4 2 1 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 3 2 2 2 1 2 4 2 4 3 1 3 3 4 2 3 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 3 2 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 4 1 3 3 2 3 3 4 2 2 2 4 1 4 2 4 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 1 4 2 3 1 2 2 3 3 3 4 4 1 1 3 3 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 3 2 4 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 3 2 4 4 1 3 1 1 2 4 1 2 4 3 1 3 3 2 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 1 3 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 3 2 3 3 4 4 3 4 4 2 2
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 3 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

ΔE = (Surface Tension) (ΔA)

= S[4π(r + Δr)2 – 4πr2]
= 4πS[2rΔr]
ΔE = 8πr.Δr.S

2) Rh = R(H–h)
∴x+y=H

3)

4)

Explain Question : To catch a ball a man standing at some distance from the striking point,
to what minimum speed he should run.

Concept : This question is based on projectile motion.

Solution :

speed V =
Final Answer : option (2)

5)

Bp = (sin60° – sin30°)
 =

6)

฀m of diamagnetic material is independent of temperature.

7)

Question Explanation : The question tests understanding of what the photoelectric effect
demonstrates and how the number of photoelectrons depends on properties of light.

Concept : Photoelectric Effect:

Solution :
Photoelectric effect supports the particle nature of light, not wave nature.
Number of photoelectrons emitted per second depends on intensity, not frequency.

Assertion (A): “Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.”

False — it demonstrates the particle nature of light.

Reason (R): “The number of photoelectrons is directly proportional to the frequency of light.”
False — number of photoelectrons is proportional to intensity, not frequency.

Final Answer: Option (4)

8)
(ϕ)C > (ϕ)B > (ϕ)A

9)

As momentum P =

MV =

Recoil speed V =

Where
=

10)

11) Question Explanation : The question asks to find maximum height on a curve.
Concept : Limiting Friction and Slope of a curve.
Solution :

tan θ = µ ⇒ = µ ⇒ 4x = µ ⇒ x =

y = 2x2 =
Final Answer : Option (4)

12)

Question Explanation:
The question asks for the velocity of the image of a pendulum bob (as seen in a mirror) relative
to the bob itself, when the bob reaches position Q after being released from position P.

Concept: Conservation of Energy and Image Motion in Plane Mirror.

Solution: When a pendulum bob is released from position P, at position Q it will have a
velocity of due to conservation of energy

For the image in the mirror: - the actual bob is moving with velocity
The image appears to move with the same speed but in the opposite direction

At position Q velocity of bob is so relative velocity of image with respect to bob is

Final answer: option (1)

13)

Explain the question : (Object O sends rays through a glass slab of thickness 3 cm and μ =
3/2, then to a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. Distances: slab–mirror gap = 5 cm, object
to slab = 21 cm. After all refraction & reflection, find final image position from point P on the
mirror.)
Concept : This question is based on refraction through parallel slab + mirror formula
Formula : Slab shift = t(1 − 1/μ)
Mirror: 1/f = 1/v + 1/u
Solution :

Shilf due to slab = 1 cm for mirror object position 21 – 1 = 20 as object at C

image will be at C during again shift at 1 cm will make final image at 21.
Final answer : 4

14)

Answer (B)

15)

16) Question Explanation:

The problem to identify a reverse-baised diode from the given circuits.
Concept:
Diode Biasing

Visual Diagram:

Solution:
In reverse bias, the diode's anode is at a lower potential than the cathode.
Answer:1

17)

IS =

IL =
IZ = IS – IL = 50 – 20 = 30 mA
18) Question Explanation : A fluctuating electric voltage signal (waveform) is shown below :

We are supposed to calculate its DC value ⇒ VDC = ?

Concept : Full Wave Rectifier (FWR)
Solution : The shown waveform is an output electric voltage signal for a Full Wave Rectifier.
For an FWR

VDC =

Final Answer : Option (3)

19)

Due to restoring force, acceleration in SHM is always directed towards the mean position and
at extreme position the body momentary comes to rest, but son does not explain assertion

20) 1. Explain question

We are checking if a particle's speed decreases away from mean (assertion) and whether
changing acceleration with time (reason) explains it.
2. Concept In SHM, speed is maximum at mean, minimum at extremes; acceleration varies
with time.
3. Solution •
Assertion: True — speed decreases as particle moves away from mean. which varies with time
because .T(t) is time-
• Reason: True — acceleration in SHM is a — ω2x (t) dependent.
Connection: Reason does not directly explain why speed decreases; speed decreases because
acceleration opposes displacement, not merely because acceleration changes with time.
4. Final answer 2

21) Question Explanation:

Heat released by steam = heat gained by water.

Concept:

Solution:
Heat gained by water:

Heat released by steam:

Condensation:

Cooling from 100ºC to 80ºC :

Total heat released:
Q = m(540) + m(20) = 560 m
Equate:

Final Answer: Option (3)

22)

Explain Question : Asking about the value of the ratio of Area A1 & A2 by the I-λ graph of a
black body radiation.

Concept : This question is based on Wiens & Stefani's law.

Solution :
The area of I - λ graph gives the total intensity of radiation which will be proportional to the
4th power of temperature of body in kelvin.
Area ∝ T4

Then

Final Answer: option (4)

23) PV2 = constant ⇒ = constant

TV = constant

V ↑ , T↓ cooling effect

24) Question Explanation: The problem asks for the work done by an ideal gas during a
polytropic process represented on a PV diagram, where the gas transitions from state A (P =
16P0, V = V0) to state B (P = P0, V = 2V0). Concept: Polytropic Process- Work
Solution:
For a polytropic process PVn = constant ⇒ 16P0V0 = P0(2V0) ⇒ n = 4
n n

Work done =
Final answer: Option (2)

25) Question Explanation:

The problem provides an equation for force and asks for the
dimensions of the ratio D/B. This requires the principle of dimensional homogeneity,
specifically concerning the arguments of trigonometric functions.
Concept:
Dimensional Homogeneity: The arguments of transcendental functions (like ) must
be dimensionless.
Dimensions of Variables: Displacement x has dimensions [L] and time t has dimensions [T].
Solution:
Find Dimensions of B:
The argument Bx must be dimensionless .

Find Dimensions of D:
The argument Dt must be dimensionless.

Calculate Dimensions of $D/B$:

In standard form: (which is the dimension of velocity).

Final Answer:
Option (4)

26)

Pitch = = 0.5 mm

LC = = 0.01 mm
ZE is negative as zero of circular scale lies above the reference line by (50 – 46) = 4 divisions.
ZE = – (50 – 46) × 0.01 mm = – 0.04 mm.
During measurement : MSR = 4mm : VSR = 20 × 0.01 mm = 0.2 mm
Corrected reading = 4 mm + 0.2 mm – (– 0.04 mm) = 4.24 mm

27) S.F. in 107.88 → 5

0.610 → 3
minimum S.F. is (3)
So, in final result of multiplication, S.F. should be equal to 3.

28)

Explain Question : In this question, we are asked to find the velocity vector of a particle
moving with speed 6m/s along the direction of .
Concept : This question is based on vector in a given direction (unit vector)
Solution :-The velocity vector in a given direction is obtained by multiplying the unit vector
in that direction by the speed i.e. V.

where

Here

So, ⇒

Final answer : Option (2)

29)

Both the vectors are perpendicular to each other, than · =0

cosθ = 1/2
θ = 60°

30)

U=

31) Kinetic energy for first condition

= 150 mJ
K.E. for second condition

32) Fundamental freq. of COP = = 30 Hz

33) Path difference, Δx = S2D – S1D = 5 – 4 = 1m

 ∴ The corresponding phase difference will be,

Using, I = I1 + I2 +

I = I0 + I0 + = 2I0

34) Question Explanation: Identify the logic circuit corresponding to the given truth table.

Concept: NAND gate truth table.

Solution: The truth table is:

|A|B|Y|
|0|0|1|
|0|1|1|
|1|0|0|
|1|1|0|

The output Y is LOW (0) only when A is HIGH (1) and B is LOW (0), or A is HIGH (1) and B is
HIGH (1). The Boolean expression that represents this table is Y = + B. Let's check Option
B's circuit:

A. Input A is inverted: .
B. and B are inputs to an OR gate.
C. The output is Y = + B.

Checking the logic:

A. A = 0, B = 0 ⟹ Y = 0 + 0 = 1 + 0 = 1.

B. A = 0, B = 1 ⟹ Y = 0 + 1 = 1 + 1 = 1.

C. A = 1, B = 0 ⟹ Y = 1 + 0 = 0 + 0 = 0.

D. A = 1, B = 1 ⟹ Y = 1 + 1 = 0 + 1 = 1.

The calculated truth table for Option B does not match the given table. Let's re-read the truth
table provided in the user's input:
|A|B|Y|
|0|0|1|
|0|1|1|
|1|0|0|
|1|1|0|

This table is for Y = , which is the NAND gate. Thus, we select the NAND gate symbol.
Option B is visually a NAND gate.​​

35) Path difference between the waves reaching at P,

Δ = Δ1 + Δ2

where Δ1 = Initial path difference

Δ2 = Path difference between the waves after emerging from slits.
Δ1 = SS1 = SS2 =
and Δ2 = S1O – S2O =

= (from binomial expansion)

For obtaining dark at O, Δ must be equals to

(2n – 1) , i.e., = (2n – 1) ⇒

For minimum distance n = 1 so d = .

36)
A/C to K.V.L.

VA – L – ΙR = VB
VA – L (8) – 0.5 × 0.2 = VB
VA – VB = 8L + 0.1
0.5 – 0.1 = 8L

L= = 0.05 H

37) Explain Question : To find induced electric field at point P at distance r.

Concept : induced Electric field

Solution :

E ∝ 1/r
Final answer : Option (2)
38) Pitch (p) = = 0.5 mm

Least count (LC) =

= = 0.005 mm
In fig (1) – No measurement:
There is a Negative zero error
ZE = – 4, CSD = –4 × 0.005 mm = –0.02 mm
In fig (2) – During measurement :
MSR = 4 pitch = 4 × 0.5 mm = 2 mm
CSR = 55 CSD = 55 × 0.005 mm
= 0.275 mm
Final Reading = 2 mm + 0.275 mm – (–0.02 mm)
= 2.295 mm

39)

(1) Equation x = x0 sinωt

rms value
(2) Equation x = x0 sinωt cosωt

rms value
(3) x = x0 sinωt + x0 cosωt
=

rms value =

40) Question Explanation: The “Current (I) v/s Linear Frequency (f)” curve for an RLC series
AC circuit is shown below:

We need to find out what effects will be there on the Maximum Current (Imax), Sharpness (S),
Quality Factor (Q) and Band Width (Δω); if Resistance (R) is increased keeping Inductance (L)
& Capacitance (C) constants.

Concept: Half power frequency curve in RLC series AC Circuit.

Solution:
Statement (a) ⇒ Im = ⇒ if R↑ ⇒ then Im↓ ⇒ (a) is incorrect

Statement (b) and (c) ⇒ S Q= ⇒ if R↑ ⇒ then Q↓ & S↓ ⇒ (b) and (c) is correct

Statement (d) ⇒ Δω = ⇒ if R↑ ⇒ then Δω↑ ⇒ (d) is correct

Final Answer: option (2)

41) Explain Question:

The question asks you to find the value of an unknown resistance K using mater bridge, given
a standard 8Ω resistor, a null point at 62 cm, and end corrections of 1 cm and 2 sm.
You need so use the meter bridge (Wheatstone bridge) principle, adjust for and corrections,
and calculate X

Concept:
End Correction: Adjustment made to measured wire lengths to account for non-ideal contact at
ti ends, ensuring accurate resistance calculation.
Meter Bridge (Wheatstone Bridge): A device to compare two resistances using the principle
that st balance, the ratio of resistances equals the ratio of wire lengths

Solution:
A meter bridge is just a practical form of a Wheatstone bridge, When the galvanometer shows
a null deflection, the bridge is balanced, so the ratio of the two unknown resistances on the
bridge arms the equals the ratio of the corresponding lengths of the wire:

where X is the unknown resistance, Rstd 8Ω is the standard known resistor, 1 the length of the
wire from one end to the null-point.
2 is the remaining length of the wire total 100 cm).

Now account for end corrections. Because the actual contact pointe at the ends of the wire are
slightly inside the physical ends (by 1 cm at one end and 2 cm at the other), the effective
lengths become.
eff
1 =(observed 62 cm) + (1 cm) = 63 cm.
eff
2 (100 – 62) cm+ (2cm) = 38cm + 2cm = 40cm.

Now apply the balance condition.

Hence .

Final answer: Option (1)

42)
VA + VAB + VBC + VCD = VD
 2 + 5 + 12 – 12 – 3 = VD = 4 volt

43)

Explain Question : A ball fall from height h1 and rebound to height h2. find coefficient of
restitution.

Concept : This question is based coefficient of restitution.

Solution :

∴
∴
u2 = v2 = 0

Final Answer : option (2)

44) Concept : Tangential and Centripetal Acceleration.

Solution:
Tangential acceleration (at): Rα (constant).
Angular velocity after time t:
Centripetal acceleration (ac):

Net acceleration (anet):

.

Final answer : Option (3)

45)

CHEMISTRY
46) Both Statement are correct.

47)

48) (A) is true but (R) is false

49) Explaining : The activation energy for forward reaction is asked when the overall
enthalpy change and activation energy of reverse reaction is given.
Concept : This Question is based on Collision theory.
Solution : ΔH = 100 KJ/mol Ea(f) = ?
Ea(b) = 200 KJ/mol
Ea(f) – Ea(b) = ΔH
Ea(f) = 100 + 200
= 300 KJ/mol
Final Answer : (1)

50) Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :

Rate of formation of

=
Final Answer : (2)

51) a = = 0.05
∴ [H ] = Cα = 1 × 0.05 = 0.05
+

∴ pH = log
= log 20 = 1.3

52) W = Z × Q
Hence : slope of graph will provide " Z ".

53)

2H+ + 2e– → H2
= – 0.084 V

54) Explain question:

To select the correct match

Concept:
Relation between solubility and Ksp.

Solution:
(A) Fe (OH)3 Ksp = 33 . (s)1+3 = 27 s4
(B) Ag2CrO4 Ksp = 22. (s)2+1 = 4s3
(C) CH3 100Ag Ksp = s2
(D) Ca3 (po4)2 Ksp = 33.22(s)3+2 = 108 s5

Final Answer: Option (2)

55)

Ps =
= 600 mm Hg

56) No. Of moles in per unit wt. of solvent :-

nglucose =

nsucrose =

nNaCl = i=2

i=3
order of i × n : NaCl > CaCl2 > glucose > sucrose
order of ΔTf : NaCl > CaCl2 > glucose > sucrose
order of Tf : sucrose > glucose > CaCl2 > NaCl

57)

Question Explanation
We need to identify the correct thermodynamic condition on mixing the two liquids.

Concept
This question is based on Raoult’s law and deviation from ideal behaviour
Solution
Given:

A. Vapour pressure of A = 300 torr

B. Vapour pressure of B = 800 torr

C. Mole % of B = 92 → mole fraction(XB) B = 0.92, XA = 0.08

D. Observed vapour pressure = 0.95 atm =0.95×760 torr = 722 torr

Calculation of total ideal pressure:

Ps = (300 × 0.08) + (800 × 0.92) = 24 + 736 = 760 torr = 1 atm
Pobs = 0.95 atm < Ps

Since observed pressure < ideal pressure → negative deviation.

Negative deviation implies stronger intermolecular interactions → ΔHmix < 0.

Final Answer: Option 2

58) PH3 → P(s) + H2(g)

100 mL → 0 0

(100 – 100) → = 150 mL

Vi = 100 mL
Vf = 150 mL
(Vf – Vi) = 50 mL increase

59)

Enthalpy of hydration = –65.5–(11.7) =–77.2

 60)

61)

M + O2 → M2Ox
80g 20g 100g

E = 32

62) Question Explanation

Identify the compound among the given options that loses the most electrons per mole, thus
requiring the maximum amount of KMnO₄.
Concept
Total n-factor of a compound
Solution
The amount of KMnO₄ depends on the total electrons lost (n-factor) by each compound:

A. FeC₂O₄ → Fe³⁺ + 2CO₂ + 3e⁻ (n = 1 + 2 = 3)

B. Fe(NO₂)₂ → Fe³⁺ + 2NO₃⁻ + 5e⁻ (n = 1 + 4 = 5)
C. FeSO₄ → Fe³⁺ + 1e⁻ (n = 1)
D. FeSO₃ → Fe³⁺ + SO₂ + 3e⁻ (n = 1 + 2 = 3)

In Fe(NO₂)₂, Fe²⁺ loses 1e⁻ and two N⁺³ lose 4e⁻ total, resulting in the highest n-factor of 5.
In Fe(NO₂)₂, the total electrons lost per mole is highest (n-factor = 5), so it requires the maximum
amount of acidified KMnO₄ for complete oxidation.
Final Answer: Option (2)

63)

Question Explanation
We have a gaseous reaction and need to determine the signs of ΔS, ΔH, and ΔG based on
stoichiometry and given enthalpy change.
 Concept

A. Entropy change (ΔS) depends on change in number of gaseous moles.

B. Gibbs free energy (ΔG) depends on ΔH and ΔS.

Solution
Reaction:
A(g) + B(g) → 2C(g) + 3D(g)

A. Reactant gaseous moles = 2

B. Product gaseous moles = 5

So, randomness increases ⇒ ΔS > 0

Given:
ΔH = –ve (exothermic)

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS

= –ve – T (+ve)

= –ve – ve

ΔG = – ve

So:

A. ΔS = +

B. ΔH = –

C. ΔG = –

Final Answer: Option 1

64)

Question Explanation

The task is to evaluate an assertion and its corresponding reason regarding thermodynamic
state variables and select the correct option that describes their validity.

Concept

A. State Functions vs. Path Functions, Thermodynamic State Variables

 Solution :
Assertion: (True) T, P & V are state function because their value depend only on the initial
and final states of the system, not on how the system arrived at that state.
Reason: (False) It describes path functions (like work and heat), not state function. For state
variables, the parth taken is irrelevant.
Final Answer: (3)

Assertion is true but Reason is false.

The correct option is 3.

65)

66)

Explaining the Question :- Question ask about separation of glycerol from spent lye in soap
industry
Concept:- This question is based on Reduced pressure distillation
Solution :- Spent-lye contains glycerol, water, and salts (e.g., NaCl). Since glycerol
decomposes at B.P. thus Lowering pressure reduces glycerol's boiling point (e.g., to –200°C at
10 mmHg).
Process includes
1. Spent-lye is concentrated to remove water.
2. Vacuum distillation vaporizes glycerol, leaving salts behind.
3. Glycerol vapors are condensed and collected.
Final Answer :- (4)

67)

Explanation Question: Question is asking about the correct order of SN1 reaction.
Concept: This question is based on SN1 reaction.
Solution:
Rate of SN1 reaction ∝ stability carbocation

(I) → Stabilised by three hyper conjugative H-atom.

(II) → Stabilised by nine hyper conjugative H-atom.

(III) → Stabilised by +M effect of –OCH3 group. (most reactive towards SN1)

(IV) → Highly unstable carbocation. (most unreactive towards SN1)

Correct order of SN1 reaction: III > II > I > IV
The correct option is (3)

68)

Explanation Question: Question is asking about the major product of given reaction.
Concept: This question is based on bimolecular elumination reaction.
Solution:

The correct option is (3)

69) Kjeldahl method is used for N estimation But not given by 'Diazo' compounds

70)
 71) Question Explanation:
The question asks for the major product formed when benzoic acid undergoes reduction using
lithium in liquid ammonia.

Concept:
This question is based on Birch Reduction.

Solution:
In the Birch Reduction, benzoic acid contains an electron-withdrawing group (–COOH), which
directs the reduction to occur at the ipso and para positions.
This results in the formation of a non-conjugated 1,4-cyclohexadiene derivative where the carbon
attached to the carboxylic group is reduced.

Final Answer: option (2)

72) Rate of ESR ∝ No. of α – H (Hyperconjugation)

73) Solution/Explanation : We have to find product of reaction of phenyl magnesium

bromide with t-butyl alcohol.
Concept :
Ans. option (2)
Ph – H

74) Ans. (4)

4 is the correct answer

75) Ans. (2)

2 is the correct answer

76) Ans. (4)

4 is the correct answer

77)

Question Explanation:
This question focuses on the stepwise interaction between a powerful nucleophile (Grignard
reagent) and a highly reactive acid derivative.

Concept:
SNAE (Substitution Nucleophilic Addition-Elimination) followed by Nucleophilic Addition.

Solution:
The reaction proceeds in two distinct stages when an excess of Grignard reagent is used:

A. Step 1 (SNAE): The first equivalent of CH3MgBr (acting as a source of CH3–) attacks the
carbonyl carbon.
The chlorine atom, being an excellent leaving group, is eliminated. This stage converts
the acid chloride into a Ketone.

RCOCl + CH3MgBr → RCOCH3 + MgBrCl

B. Step 2 (Nucleophilic Addition): Ketones are also highly reactive toward Grignard
reagents. A second equivalent of CH3MgBr attacks the carbonyl carbon of the newly
formed ketone.

RCOCH3 + CH3MgBr → R-C(CH3)2–OMgBr

C. Step 3 (Hydrolysis): Addition of dilute acid (H3O+) protonates the oxygen to yield the
final product.
R-C(CH3)2– OMgBr + H3O+ → R – C(CH3)2OH

Conclusion: Since the carbon bearing the —OH group is attached to three other carbon atoms
(the original R group and two methyl groups from the Grignard reagent), the product is a
Tertiary Alcohol.

Final Answer: Option (3).

78)

Question Explanation: This question evaluates how substituent effects influence the
nucleophilicity of the amine group in acidic media.

Concept : Nucleophilicity and Inductive Effect

Solution:

A. Option 1: Correct. The strong electron-withdrawing nitro group (-I and -M) reduces the
electron density on the nitrogen, making it a weaker nucleophile.

B. Option 2: The methoxy group is electron-donating, increasing nucleophilicity.

C. Option 3: This is the standard reference with no substituent.

D. Option 4: The methyl group is weakly electron-donating.

Final Answer: Option (1)

79) Asking About - Chiral molecule.

Concept - presence or absence of chiral carbon nota. The necessary condition for optical
activity is absence of symmetry.

(a) plane of symmetry (P.O.S.)

(b) centre of symmetry (C.O.S.)

Solution -
(1) P.O.S ✔ C.O.S ✖ a chiral molecule.

(2) ⇒ P.O.S ✔ C.O.S ✖ a chiral molecule.

(3) P.O.S ✖ C.O.S ✖ chiral molecule.

(4) ⇒ P.O.S ✔ C.O.S ✖ a chiral molecule

80)

81)

82)

83)
Question explanation : We need to check which given species cannot exist stably under
normal conditions.
Concept : Stability depends on octet rule, electronegativity, and ability of central atom to
expand its valence shell.
Solution:
ICl3 → Possible, iodine can expand octet (10 electrons around I). Stable hypervalent molecule.
I3– → Possible, linear triatomic ion, well-known and stable.
ClBr3 → Not possible, due to steric hindrance or steric repulsion of larger side atoms.
BeF42– → Possible, tetrahedral complex ion, Be2+ surrounded by 4 F⁻ ligands.
Final answer Option 3 (ClBr3 is not possible).

84)

NCERT-2nd part, Chapter-4, Pg. # 321

85)

Concept

86) NCERT-XI, Part-2 chapter-4 p-block elements Pg. # 301

87) (a) Expanded octet :- PCl5

(b) Odd e⊝ molecule :- NO
(c) Incomplete octet :- BeH2
(d) Complete octet :- CH4

88) Explain Question : Choose correct ionization energies for Be, Ne, He, N.

Concept : This Question is based on IP ∝ Zeff (In a period)

IP ∝ (In a group)

Solution : Ionization energy increases across a period and decreases down a group. Overall
order is Be < N < Ne < He, since He has smallest size and highest Zeff. Values match 786,
1012, 1256, 999.

Final Answer : Option (3)

89)

90)
 Explain the Question : Identify which given property does not match typical interstitial
compounds.
Concept : This question is based on Interstitial compounds
Solution : Interstitial compounds form when small atoms occupy voids in metal lattices. This
makes them very hard, increases melting points, and allows them to retain metallic
conductivity. However, they are chemically inert, not reactive. So the option stating high
reactivity is incorrect.
Final answer : Option (4)

BOTANY

91)

NCERT Page No. 4

92) Explain Question: Question asks about which organism is not an Archaebacteria.
Concept: This question is based on Archaebacteria
Solution: Actinomycetes are eubacteria, not archaebacteria.
Final answer: 4

93)

Explain Question : Identify which genus–character–class combo is incorrectly matched.

Concept : This question is based on Fungal classes
Explanation :Deuteromycetes: no sexual stage (e.g., Alternaria).
Ascomycetes: endogenous ascospores (e.g., Aspergillus).
“Phycomycetes” (incl. zygomycetes/oomycetes): mostly aseptate/coenocytic hyphae (e.g.,
Mucor).
Albugo is an oomycete with aseptate coenocytic hyphae, not Ascomycete.
Final answer : 4

94)

Question Explanation: Question asks about evaluating Assertion–Reason to check whether

Protista has unclear boundaries and why.

Concept: Protista

Solution: (R) Protista includes plant-like, animal-like, and fungus-like unicellular eukaryotes,
causing (A) its boundaries to be not well-defined.
Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains why boundaries of Protista are not clear.

Final Answer: option (1)

95)

Question Explain : Question asks which of the following statements is wrong related to
virology, plant diseases, and lichen growth.
Concept: virology and lichen
Solution:The false statement is that both DNA and RNA are present in a single virus. Viruses
carry only either DNA or RNA, not both simultaneously.
Final answer: 3

96)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the correct terms for these blanks.
Concept : This question is based on gymnosperm, general characters and life cycle.
Explanation :
A: Male cone]
B: Megasporangia
C: Meiosis
D: Male gametes
E: Archegonia
Final answer : 3

97) NCERT Pg. # 35

98) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 39

99) NCERT XI Pg # 75, para [Link]

100) NCERT # XIth [Link]. 73

101) NCERT XIth Pg.#66 Figure-5.2

102) NCERT XI, Pg.# 92

103) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87

104)

Protein synthesis in animal cell takes place in the cytoplasm and Mitochondria.

105) Module No-6, P. No # 195

106) NCERT XI Pg # 137

107)

NCERT, Pg. # 163

108)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

109)

NCERT [Link].118 [Link]. 247

110)

NCERT Page No. # 211

111) NCERT XI Eng. Page # 214 (3rd para)

िहदी पे ज # 215 (पहला पे राग ाफ)

112) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 216

113) NCERT-XI, English Page No. # 220, (5th para)

Hindi Page No. # 220, (last पे राग ाफ)

114) NCERT Page No. 229

115)

Explain Question: Question asks about the total ATP produced during conversion of one
molecule of α-ketoglutaric acid into oxaloacetic acid (OAA) in Krebs cycle.

Concept: Krebs cycle

Solution: Steps from α-ketoglutarate → OAA produce:

α-ketoglutarate → Succinyl-CoA → 1 NADH = 3 ATP

Succinyl-CoA → Succinate → 1 GTP = 1 ATP
Succinate → Fumarate → 1 FADH₂ = 2 ATP
Malate → OAA → 1 NADH = 3 ATP
Total ATP = 3 + 1 + 2 + 3 = 9 ATP

Final answer: Option 2

116)

Ncert pg No: 248 2021 - 2022

117) Explain Question : Identify the correct statements about functions of different plant
hormones.
Concept : This question is based on PGRs

Solution:
(a) Correct — cytokinins delay senescence.
(b) Incorrect — apical dominance is due to auxin.
(c) Correct — ethylene can enhance seed germination by breaking dormancy.
(d) Incorrect — immature leaf fall caused by ethylene/ABA, not gibberellins.

Final Answer :
Option(1)

118) Question Explanation :

The question asks you to identify the correct set of functions associated with major plant
hormones.

Concept :
This question is based on physiological effects and roles of plant hormones.

Solution :
Auxin : Apical dominance
Cytokinin : Delay of senescence
Ethylene : Ripening of fruit.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

119) NCERT Pg.# 243

120)

Explain Question: The question is asking to identify the correct biological term for the
process in which cells, after dedifferentiation, again lose the ability to divide and become
specialized to perform a specific function.

Concept: Redifferentiation

Solution: Sometimes mature plant cells dedifferentiate (regain the ability to divide). After
this, when these cells again lose the capacity to divide and become specialized to perform a
specific function, the process is called redifferentiation.

Final answer: Option 3

121) NCERT XIIth Pg.#21

122) Question Explanation: Question is asking about the type of ovary shown in diagrams (A)
and (B).

Concept: This question is based on gynoecium.

 Solution: In diagram (A), the ovary is formed of many carpels that are fused
→ Multicarpellary, syncarpous.
In diagram (B), many carpels are free → Multicarpellary, apocarpous.

Final answer: The correct option is (3).

123) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 10

124) NCERT Page # 34, 35

125)

Question Explanation: Evaluating the assertion and reason about polyembryony.

Concept: Polyembryony
Solution:
Assertion (A): Some angiosperms produce more than one embryo in their seed (True)
Reason (R): This occurs when maternal cells like the nucellar cells surrounding the embryo
sac divide and develop into embryos. (True)
The development from nucellar cells is one way that polyembryony occurs.
Final Answer: Option (1)

126) Explain Question : When we cross AABBCcDd × AABBCcDd, what phenotypic ratio will
appear in the next generation?
Concept : Independent assortment in a multigene cross

Explanation : Independent assortment in a multigene cross

Only heterozygous gene pairs contribute to variation.

Genotypes:

A. AA × AA → all AA (no variation)

B. BB × BB → all BB (no variation)

C. Cc × Cc → genotype ratio: 1 CC : 2 Cc : 1 cc → phenotypic ratio = 3 : 1

D. Dd × Dd → genotype ratio: 1 DD : 2 Dd : 1 dd → phenotypic ratio = 3 : 1

Both C and D loci assort independently.

Only the two heterozygous loci (C and D) determine phenotypic [Link] the phenotypic
ratio =
(3 : 1) × (3 : 1) = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

Final answer : Option (1)

127) Explain Question: The question asks that which of the given statements are correct.

Concept: Linkage.

Solution: The correct statements are:

(i) The strength of the linkage is determined by the distance between the two genes.
(iii) The two genes are said to be linked when they fail to show independent assortment.
So, the correct answer is: 3. (i) & (iii) are correct

Final answer: Option (3)

128)

Question Explanation:

Identifying inheritance pattern from a pedigree chart.

Concept:

Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

Solution:

The trait is a recessive disorder as it skips a generation (e.g., the unaffected parents in the
second generation have an affected child in the third). It is autosomal because both males and
females are affected, and an affected female passes the trait to her son, which would not
happen in a sex-linked dominant pattern.

Final Answer:

Option 3: Autosomal recessive

OR

NCERT XII Page No.72

129) Question Explanation :

The question asks to identify the specific cellular structure that was discovered by the
biologist Hermann Henking .

Concept :
This question is based on Sex Determination.

Solution :
"While working on insects, Henking (1891) could trace a specific nuclear structure during
spermatogenesis, which he called the X-body.

Final Answer:
Option (3)
130) NCERT XII Pg.# 107

131)

Question explanation: The question tests understanding of lac operon regulation in

prokaryotes.

Concept: Lac operon

Solution: The lac operon is negatively regulated by a repressor protein that blocks
transcription in the absence of lactose → correct

It is an inducible operon because lactose (via allolactose) induces its expression → correct

It can also be positively regulated by cAMP–CAP complex when glucose is low → so “cannot be
regulated positively” is - incorrect

Thus statement A and B are correct

Final answer: Both (a) and (b) are correct

132)

Question Explanation: The question asks about the amino acid specified by the AAA codon in
humans.

Concept: Genetic Code

Solution:
The genetic code is universal in almost all organisms.
If AAA codes for lysine in bacteria, it also codes for lysine in humans.

Final Answer: Option (3)

133)

Question explanation: The question asks which statements are correct (not incorrect) about
microbes and their applications.

Concept: Microbes in human welfare

Solution:

A. (A) Incorrect – Cyclosporin A is an immunosuppressant, not a clot buster.

B. (B) Correct – Whisky, brandy, and rum are produced by distillation of fermented broth.

C. (C) Correct – Baculovirus are used as biological control agents.

 D. (D) Incorrect – Biogas technology in India was mainly developed by KVIC, not ICAR.

Correct statements = B and C

Final answer: Option 2

134) Ncert Pg No: 233

135) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 226

ZOOLOGY

136) NCERT XIth Pg.#114 Para-8

137) NCERT Pg. # 112

138)

Explanation : The question asks to fill in the blanks in four statements related to
biotechnology and pest resistance in plants.

Concept : The concept based on Application of Biotechnology in agriculture.

Final Answer : (2)

139) Explain Question:

Which of the following pair is correct match according to their cause
Explain Question : Which of the following pair is correct match according to their cause
Concept : This question is based on muscular and skeletal disorders.
Explanation :Tetany → caused by low Ca²⁺, not high Muscular dystrophy → genetic disorder,
not autoimmune Myasthenia gravis → autoimmune disorder, not genetic Osteoporosis → age-
related disorder with decreased bone mass
Final answer : 4: Osteoporosis – age related disorder characterized by decreased bone mass

140) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 113

141) Explain Question:

Identify A, B, C, and D in the given diagram of the human forelimb skeleton

Concept:
Bones of human upper limb

Solution:
• A → Radius
The lateral bone of the forearm (thumb side)
 • B → Ulna
The medial bone of the forearm
• C → Scapula
A large, flat, triangular bone forming the shoulder girdle.
• D → Clavicle
The collar bone connect the scapula to the sternum.

Final answer: Option (1)

142) NCERT XI, Page # 272, para-2,3,4

143)

NCERT XI Page No. # 288

144)

Let's analyze the blood group compatibility:

Blood Group O:

A. May Donate Blood (z): Individuals with blood group O have no A or B antigens on their
red blood cells, making them universal donors. They can donate to O, A, B, and AB
blood groups.

Blood Group A:(x)

A. May Receive Blood: Individuals with blood group A have anti-B antibodies, so they can
receive blood from A and O group donors.

Blood Group AB:

A. May Receive Blood (Y): Individuals with blood group AB have no anti-A or anti-B
antibodies, making them universal recipients. They can receive blood from O, A, B, and
AB blood groups. Therefore, Y = O, A, B, AB.
B. May Donate Blood (P): Individuals with blood group AB have both A and B antigens, so
they can only donate to other AB group individuals. Therefore, P = AB.

Now let's check the options:

A. Option 1: X=A, O, Y=O, A, B, AB, Z=O, A, B, AB, P=AB (Incorrect for X and Z)
B. Option 2: X=B, Y=O, A, B, AB, Z=O, A, B, AB, P=AB (Incorrect for X and Z)
C. Option 3: X=O, Y=O, A, B, AB, Z=O, A, B, AB, P=A (Incorrect for P)
D. Option 4: X=O, Y=O, A, B, AB, Z=O, A, B, AB, P=B (Incorrect for P)

Final Answer : (1) X=A, O, Y=O, A, B, AB, Z=O, A, B, AB, P=AB

145)

NCERT Pg No. # 119

146)

Question Explanation
The question is asking for a feature that is found in all mammals without exception. Some
features, like external ears or viviparity, are not universal.

Concept
Mammalian characteristics

Solution
Presence of external ears is absent in monotremes. Seven cervical vertebrae are absent in
sloths and manatees. Viviparity is absent in monotremes (platypus, echidna). Milk-producing
mammary glands are present in all mammals, including monotremes, making it the only
universal feature.

Final answer : Option 4

147)

Explain Question –
You have to match each transgenic organism with its correct characteristic.

Concept –
Transgenic crops and animals

Solution –

Golden rice → enriched with Vitamin A → (iii)

Bt cotton → high yield and pest-resistant due to Bt gene → (iv)

Flavr Savr tomato → increased shelf life → (ii)

Rosie cow → produced protein-enriched (human α-lactalbumin rich) milk → (i)

Final Answer – Option 1

148) Question Explanation: Classifying animals by body symmetry.

Concept: Animal Body Symmetry
Solution: Euspongia (bath sponge) is an example of an asymmetrical animal. Aurelia (jellyfish)
and starfish are examples of animals with radial symmetry. Fasciola (liver fluke), Ascaris
(roundworm), and Nereis (ragworm) all exhibit bilateral symmetry.
Final Answer: Asymmetrical: Euspongia, Radial: Aurelia and starfish, Bilateral: Fasciola,
Ascaris and Nereis

149) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 119

150)
 Question Explanation
The question is asking which feature does not belong to Petromyzon (lamprey) based on its
anatomy.

Concept
vertebrate - Cyclostome

Solution
Petromyzon is a jawless fish (Cyclostome), so jaws are absent. It does not have scales and
possesses a closed circulatory system like all vertebrates. Therefore, all listed features are
true for it, except paired fins—lampreys do not have true paired fins, only median fins.

Final answer: Option 3

151) Solution : States that tight junctions (zonula occludens) prevent passage of materials
between cells, especially important in intestinal epithelium.
Final Answer : (1)

152) Solution : Frog shows cutaneous respiration in moist conditions, not dry. Statement I is
correct, II is incorrect.
Final Answer : (3)

153)

NCERT Pg. 54

154)

Question Explanation:

The question asks about the correct pathway through which milk is transported and finally
sucked out from mammary glands.

Concept : Mammary gland

Solution : The correct answer is option 2.

A. Milk is first secreted by alveoli (milk-producing units).

B. From alveoli it flows into mammary tubules.
C. These tubules join to form mammary ducts.
D. The ducts widen into mammary ampulla (storage).
E. Finally, milk passes through the lactiferous duct to the nipple.

So the correct sequence is - Alveoli → Mammary tubules → Mammary duct → Mammary

ampulla → Lactiferous duct

Final Answer : Option 2

155)
NCERT Pg. # 318

156) Solution : NCERT clearly states that lactational amenorrhea is effective only when milk
is the sole source of nutrition and menstruation has not resumed (maximum 6 months).
Final Answer : (1)

157)

158) Assertion is True but the Reason is False

159) A - preformed antibodies, B - passive immunisation

160)

NCERT-12th, Pg. # 137

161)

NCERT Page no. 115

162) NCERT-XI, Page No. 307

163) NCERT Pg. # 293, para - 19.1

164) NCERT XI, Pg 294

165)

Question Explanation:Identifying heart anatomy.

Concept:Heart structure.

Solution:The labeled part A is the aorta, which is the main artery that carries oxygenated
blood from the left ventricle to the rest of the body. The labeled part B is the SA node
(sinoatrial node), which is the heart's natural pacemaker. Part C is the AV node
(atrioventricular node), which delays the electrical impulse before it is passed to the
ventricles. The chordae tendinae, labeled as D, are fibrous cords that connect the papillary
muscles to the tricuspid and bicuspid valves. The labeled part E is the Bundle of His, which
conducts the electrical impulses to the Purkinje fibers.

Final Answer:Aorta, SA node, [Link], Chordae tendinae, Bundle of His

166)

NCERT Page no. 113

167) Explanation :- The question is asking about starch of plants which is related to animal
body
Concept :- This question is based on Polysaccharides
Solution :- Glycogen stores food in animals. Starch is the main storage carbohydrate in
plants, while glycogen serves the same function in animals
Answer :- 3

168)

Correct Answer: (3) Assertion is true, reason is false

Assertion: "Lipids are found in the acid-insoluble pool." (True)
In biochemical analysis, biomolecules are categorized into acid-soluble (e.g., amino acids,
sugars, nucleotides) and acid-insoluble (e.g., proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, polysaccharides)
pools.
Lipids are hydrophobic and do not dissolve in acids, so they belong to the acid-insoluble pool.
Reason: "The hydrophobic end of lipids associates with other water molecules, increasing the
size." (False)
Hydrophobic (non-polar) tails of lipids repel water, not associate with it.
Instead, lipids tend to aggregate into micelles, bilayers, or droplets to avoid water, which does
not increase their size due to water association.

169)

Option 4: A and C

(A) This graph is for an exothermic process: This statement IS incorrect. It is an

endothermic process..

(C) Graph 'a' shows the presence of enzymes: This statement IS incorrect.

170) NEW NCERT 11th Page No. 114

171)

Explain Question : Identify the enzyme targeted in the first successful gene therapy
treatment.

Concept : This question is based on Gene therapy.

Solution : The correct answer is option 3.

A. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine
deaminase (ADA) deficiency. This enzyme is crucial for the immune system to function.
Final answer : option (3)

172)

Explain Question : Identify which is not a valid application of transgenic animals.

Concept : This question is based on Transgenic animals.

Solution : The correct answer is option 4

A. Molecular diagnosis does not involve transgenic animals; it relies on lab techniques like
PCR, ELISA.

Final answer : option (4)

173)

Question Explanation – The question is asking to correctly match the given insect pests in
Column‑I with their respective groups in Column‑II.

Concept – applications of biotechnology in agriculture

Solution –

A. (a) Army worms → Lepidopteran (2)

B. (b) Flies → Dipteran (1)

C. (c) Beetles → Coelopteran (3)

D. (d) Mosquitoes → Dipteran (1)

E. (e) Tobacco budworm → Lepidopteran (2)

Thus, the correct matching is: a‑2, b‑1, c‑3, d‑1, e‑2.

Final Answer –Option 4.

174)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:

A. S (Proinsulin):
 A. The initial large molecule is the precursor form, which is proinsulin.

B. R (B-peptide) & Q (A-peptide):

A. After the C-peptide is removed, the remaining parts are the A and B peptides,
which are connected via disulfide bonds. The order of the A and B peptides can
vary in diagrams, but the important thing is that they are the remaining peptides
after the c peptide is removed.

C. P (Free C-peptide):

A. The cleaved portion is the C-peptide, which is released during maturation.

Therefore, the correct sequence is:

A. S - Proinsulin

B. R - B-peptide

C. Q - A-peptide

D. P- Free C-peptide

Final Answer:

A. The correct answer is option 2: P-Proinsulin, Q-A-peptide, R-B-peptide, S-free C-Peptide.

175) NCERT XII, Pg # 177, 9.4

176)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 177

177) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 56,57

178)

NCERT Pg. # 39

179) Question Explanation : Assertion reason type question

Concept : Hormone action mechanism

Solution : The Reason (R) explains a part of the process but doesn't fully explain why FSH
does not enter the target cell — that's due to its chemical nature (being peptide/protein-based)

Final Answer: 2

180)

Question Explanation
The question is asking about how many statements are correct for the given diagram which
represents ringworm infection.

Concept
Fungal diseases.

Solution
Ringworm is caused by fungi like Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton, so
statement A is correct. It is a fungal infection and not an allergic disease, so statement B is
incorrect. Heat and moisture favor the growth of these fungi, so statement C is correct.
Wuchereria bancrofti causes filariasis and not ringworm, so statement D is incorrect. Hence
two statements are correct.

Final answer: Option 3